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    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agricultural Marketing
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agricultural Marketing Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40512-40513</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13393</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13404</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agricultural Marketing Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Farm Service Agency</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Rural Housing Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>National Environmental Policy Act; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40353</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13372</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40538-40541</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13464</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13465</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Children</EAR>
            <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Reducing Bureaucracy and Burden for Children, Youth, and Family Programs, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40426-40434</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13451</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Chafee Strengthening Outcomes for Transition to Adulthood Project Overarching Generic, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40542-40543</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13395</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of Refugee Resettlement Annual Survey of Refugees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40541-40542</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13369</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oregon Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40515</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13470</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Regulated Navigation Area:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lake Washington, Seattle, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40385</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13414</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Safety Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Annual Firework Displays within the Captain of the Port, Puget Sound Area of Responsibility, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40394-40395</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13418</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Bayfront Park 4th of July Fireworks Display, Intercoastal Waterway, Biscayne Bay, Miami, FL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40392-40393</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13438</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fireworks Display, Monongahela River MM 127-127.5, Fairmont, WV, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40400-40401</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13379</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hawks Channel, Marathon, FL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40397-40398</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13446</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Isthmus Cove, Santa Catalina Island, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40398-40400</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13484</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kanawha River, Charleston, WV, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40404-40406</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13406</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lake Erie, Lakeside, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40385-40387</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13384</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Northern California and Lake Tahoe Area Annual Fireworks Events, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40389-40392</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13491</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>San Pedro Bay, Long Beach, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40402-40403</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13482</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>San Pedro Bay, Los Angeles, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40387-40388</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13483</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>San Pedro Channel, Newport Beach, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40393-40394</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13487</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sandusky Bay, Lakeside, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40396-40397</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13382</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sandusky Bay, Sandusky, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40384-40385</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13385</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Seafair Air Show Performance, Seattle, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40400</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13410</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Southern California Annual Firework Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40395-40396, 40401-40402</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13442</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13447</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Western Lake Erie, Huron, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40388-40389</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13381</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Western Lake Erie, Kelleys Island, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40382-40384</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13383</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Security Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Port of Corpus Christi Inner Harbor, Corpus Christi, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40403-40404</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13407</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Special Local Regulation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Annual Bayview Mackinac Race, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40381-40382</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13380</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Seattle Seafair Unlimited Hydroplane Race, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40382</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13413</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Committee for Purchase</EAR>
            <HD>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Procurement List; Additions and Deletions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40518-40519</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13390</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13391</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Acquisition</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Modifications to Printed Circuit Board Acquisition Restrictions (DFARS Case 2022-D011), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40508-40511</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13375</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Engineers Corps</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40519-40520</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13366</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40520-40523</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13367</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Engineers</EAR>
            <HD>Engineers Corps</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Request for Membership Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Stakeholder Representative Members of the Missouri River Recovery Implementation Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40523-40524</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13394</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Delaware; 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate Matter Limited Maintenance Plan for the Philadelphia Nonattainment Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40406-40409</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13396</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oklahoma; Updates to the State Implementation Plan for New Source Review Permitting and General State Implementation Plan Provisions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40409-40426</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13398</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alabama; Transportation Conformity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40491-40494</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13403</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Federal Plan Requirements for Other Solid Waste Incineration Units That Commenced Construction on or before August 31, 2020, and Have Not Been Modified or Reconstructed after August 29, 2025, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40494-40508</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13485</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Environmental Impact Statements; Availability, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>40536</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13422</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40536-40537</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13400</FRDOCBP>
                    <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Innovation Challenge:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alternatives to Conventional Pesticides for Crop Desiccation, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40534-40536</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13458</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Farm Service</EAR>
            <HD>Farm Service Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certified Mediation Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40513-40514</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13421</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airspace Designations and Reporting Points:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Jewett, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40366-40368</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13472</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40363-40366</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13476</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd and Co KG Engines, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40353-40356</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13481</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Boeing Company Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40356-40363</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13474</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13475</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives;</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40487-40490</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13368</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Enabling Supersonic Overland Flight, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40470-40486</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13440</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40651-40652</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13477</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Deposit</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40537-40538</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13444</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alabama Power Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40527-40528</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13462</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Great Lakes Hydro America, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40524-40527</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13459</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13461</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40528-40530, 40534</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13426</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13430</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Designation of Commission Staff as Non-Decisional:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Commonwealth Edison Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40530-40531</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13463</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Issues:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>ANR Pipeline Co., Planned Northwoods Project; Public Scoping Sessions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40531-40534</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13460</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Assets</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Sanctions Action, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40653-40661</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13363</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13387</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13388</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13389</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Geological</EAR>
            <HD>Geological Survey</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Earth Mapping Resources Initiative Competitive Cooperative Agreement Program with State Geological Surveys, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40554-40555</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13405</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Terrestrial Analogs Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40553-40554</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13401</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Topographic and Hydrography Data Grants, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40552-40553</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13361</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40543, 40545-40546</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13377</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13467</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Emergency Use Authorization:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Declaration, Drug and Biological Products during the COVID-19 Pandemic; Termination, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40546-40547</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13374</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Three Declarations, Medical Devices during the COVID-19 Pandemic; Termination, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40544-40545</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13373</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ensuring the Integrity of the EB-5 Program; Automatic Revocation of Petitions for Immigrant Classification, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40676-40802</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13392</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Determination Pursuant to Section 102 of the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, as Amended, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40550-40551</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13419</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Housing</EAR>
            <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Matching Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40551-40552</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13378</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Indian Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Indian Affairs Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Class III Tribal-State Gaming Compact Process, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40555-40556</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13437</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Geological Survey</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Indian Affairs Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Reclamation Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
            <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Increase in Threshold for Requiring Information Reporting With Respect to Certain Payees:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Extension and Modification of Limitation on Wagering Losses; Hearing, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40490-40491</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13370</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tax Information Security Guidelines for Federal, State, and Local Agencies, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40661</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13412</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Initiation of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40515-40517</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13376</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Investigations; Determinations, Modifications, and Rulings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Andean Trade Preference Act: Impact on U.S. Industries and Consumers and on  Drug Crop Eradication and Crop Substitution, 2025, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40584-40585</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13439</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certain Balloon Dilation Devices, Systems, and Components Thereof, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40588-40589</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13434</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certain Systems, Devices, Software, Compositions, Chemicals, and Laboratory Supplies for Studying Proteins, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40589-40590</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13435</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ironing Tables from China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40585-40588</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13417</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Magnesia Carbon Bricks from China and Mexico, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40590-40593</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13416</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
                    <SJDOC>Metal Lockers from China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40581-40584</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13411</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Polyvinyl Alcohol from China and Japan, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40590</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13436</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube from Vietnam, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40575-40578</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13415</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Utility Scale Wind Towers from India, Malaysia, and Spain, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40578-40581</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13409</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FBI Collecting Evaluation Data: End-of Session Questionnaires, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40593-40594</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13449</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Petition for Commutation of Sentence, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40594-40595</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13448</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Rescinding Portions of Department of Labor Title VI Regulations, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40372-40381</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13371</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Derricks Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40595</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13360</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Merit</EAR>
            <HD>Merit Systems Protection Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Promoting Employee Accountability, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40444-40467</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13445</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Millenium</EAR>
            <HD>Millennium Challenge Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Charter Amendments, Establishments, Renewals and Terminations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Millennium Challenge Corporation Advisory Council; Requests for Nominations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40595-40596</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13466</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Chimeric VLP Vaccines to Prevent HTLV-1 Infection, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40547-40548</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13479</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Conserved Viral Peptide for use in Cancer Immunotherapy, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40548</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13480</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Research, Monitoring, and Management Activities on the South Farallon Islands, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40517-40518</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13469</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Disposition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park, Twentynine Palms, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40564</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13329</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Inventory Completion:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40556-40558, 40571-40572</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13322</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13324</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13326</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13321</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park, Twentynine Palms, CAc, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40569</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13328</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Eastern Washington University, Cheney, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40567</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13335</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Haffenreffer Museum of Anthropology, Brown University, Bristol, RI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40563-40564</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13331</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>St. Joseph Museums, Inc., St. Joseph, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40569-40570</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13316</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, Chapel Hill, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40558-40559</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13333</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Mobile District, Mobile, AL, and the University of Alabama, Tuscaloosa, AL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40567-40568</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13320</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40559-40560, 40562</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13323</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13325</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40572-40573</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13327</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, Philadelphia, PA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40560-40561</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13330</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Rhode Island, Kingston, RI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40573-40574</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13312</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Repatriation of Cultural Items:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Beloit College, Logan Museum of Anthropology, Beloit, WI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40557</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13317</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>David A. Fredrickson Archaeological Collections Facility at Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40570-40571</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13336</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Gilcrease Museum, Tulsa, OK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40560</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13313</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Houston Museum of Natural Science, Houston, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40561-40562</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13315</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Joslyn Art Museum, Omaha, NE, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40563, 40568-40569</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13318</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13319</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Los Rios Community College District, Sacramento, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40565-40566</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13314</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40566-40567</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13332</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, Chapel Hill, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40565</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13334</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Westinghouse Electric Co., LLC; AP1000 Design Certification Renewal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40596-40598</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13386</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Personnel</EAR>
            <HD>Personnel Management Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Personnel Management in Agencies:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Strategic Human Capital Management, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40435-40444</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13441</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Promoting Employee Accountability, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40444-40467</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13445</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Annuity Supplement Earnings Report, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40601</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13425</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions (CSRS) and Current/Former Spouse's Notification of Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions under CSRS, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40603</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13433</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application to Make Deposit or Redeposit (CSRS) and Application to Make Service Credit Payment for Civilian Service (FERS), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40602</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13429</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Federal Employee Viewpoint Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40599-40600</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13443</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Information and Instructions on Your Reconsideration Rights, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40600</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13428</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Initial Certification of Full-Time School Attendance, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40602-40603</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13432</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Reinstatement of Disability Annuity Previously Terminated Because of Restoration to Earning Capacity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40601-40602</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13424</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Report of Medical Examination of Person Electing  Survivor Benefits, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40598-40599</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13431</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request to Disability Annuitant for Information on Physical Condition and Employment, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40600-40601</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13427</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Presidential Documents</EAR>
            <HD>Presidential Documents</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROCLAMATIONS</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Phosphate Fertilizer From Morocco; Declaration of Emergency and Authorization for Temporary Duty-Free Importation (Proc. 11038), </DOC>
                    <PGS>40853-40857</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13588</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Reclamation
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Reclamation Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Requests for Nominations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Glen Canyon Dam Adaptive Management Work Group, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40574-40575</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13471</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Rural Housing Service</EAR>
            <HD>Rural Housing Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Direct Multifamily Housing Subsequent Loans for Acquisition, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40468-40470</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13455</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Funding Opportunity:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rural Community Development Initiative for Fiscal Year 2025; Recission, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40514-40515</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13397</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40622-40630</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13358</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Written Representation as to Purchaser Residency, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40636-40637</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13456</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13457</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Request for Comments:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Novel Exchange-Traded Funds, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40647-40651</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13423</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq ISE, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40603-40622</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13357</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40633-40636</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13356</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE American LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40630-40633</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13355</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40644-40647</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13354</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE National, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40639-40642</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13353</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Texas, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40637-40639</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13352</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Depository Trust Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40642-40644</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13362</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Social</EAR>
            <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Cardiovascular Disorders, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40804-40851</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13420</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Foreign Terrorist Organization Designation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Chone Killers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40651</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13349</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Negotiation, Conclusion, and Termination of Treaties and Other International Agreements, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40651</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13350</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Specially Designated Global Terrorist Designation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Chone Killers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40651</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13348</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Substance</EAR>
            <HD>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>List of Certified Laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities that Meet Minimum Standards to Engage in Urine and Oral Fluid Drug Testing, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40548-40550</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13402</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Increasing Flexibility on Disclosure of Airline Ancillary Fees, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40368-40372</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13450</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Individual Complaint of Employment Discrimination Form, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40652-40653</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13478</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Regulation Agency Protests, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40662</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13468</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application for Refund of Educational Contributions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>40669-40670</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13399</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>40662-40674</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13453</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13454</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Homeland Security Department, </DOC>
                <PGS>40676-40802</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13392</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Social Security Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>40804-40851</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13420</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Presidential Documents, </DOC>
                <PGS>40853-40857</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13588</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40353"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>7 CFR Part 1b</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[USDA-2025-0008]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0503-AA86</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>National Environmental Policy Act</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correcting amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document corrects a technical error in the final rule that appeared in the April 3, 2026, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , titled “National Environmental Policy Act.”
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective July 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture is correcting its final rule that published April 3, 2026 at 91 FR 17062 by amending an incorrect cross-reference.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 7 CFR Part 1b</HD>
                    <P>Environmental impact statements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>Accordingly, 7 CFR part 1b is corrected by making the following correcting amendment:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="1b">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1b continues to read:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>5 U.S.C. 301; 42 U.S.C. 4321-4347; E.O. 11514, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902, as amended by E.O. 11991, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 123; E.O. 12114, 3 CFR, 1980 Comp., p. 356; 40 CFR 1507.3.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1b.9</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="1b">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1b.9(e)(2) by removing the citation “(c)(7)” and adding in its place the citation “(e)(7)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tera Graelyn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Environmental Review Specialist, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13372 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-90-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4661; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01530-E; Amendment 39-23388; AD 2026-13-06]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd &amp; Co KG Engines</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2024-25-10, which applied to certain Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd &amp; Co KG (RRD) Model Trent XWB-97 engines. AD 2024-25-10 required a one-time set of visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire; and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. Since the FAA issued AD 2024-25-10, the FAA has determined that additional engine models are affected by the unsafe condition and that the required inspections should be repetitive. This AD requires, for certain engines, a one-time set of on-wing visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. This AD also requires, for certain other engines, on-wing and in-shop repetitive visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. This AD also expands the applicability to include certain RRD Model Trent XWB-75, Trent XWB-79, Trent XWB-79B, and Trent XWB-84 engines. This AD also provides criteria for installation of an affected part and optional terminating action for the repetitive visual and dimensional inspections. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective July 17, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 17, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this AD by August 17, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4661; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4661.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40354"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7146; email: 
                        <E T="03">barbara.caufield@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4661; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01530-E” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2024-25-10, Amendment 39-22912 (90 FR 8661, January 31, 2025) (AD 2024-25-10), for certain RRD Model Trent XWB-97 engines. AD 2024-25-10 was prompted by an emergency AD originated by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. EASA issued EASA Emergency AD 2024-0174-E, dated September 5, 2024 (EASA Emergency AD 2024-0174-E) to correct an unsafe condition identified as damage to the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. AD 2024-25-10 required a one-time set of visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire; and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. The FAA issued AD 2024-25-10 to prevent damage to the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since EASA Emergency AD 2024-0174-E Was Issued</HD>
                <P>EASA superseded EASA Emergency AD 2024-0174-E and issued EASA AD 2024-0182, dated September 19, 2024 (later revised) (EASA AD 2024-0182); EASA AD 2024-0182R1, dated October 9, 2024 (superseded) (EASA AD 2024-0182R1); EASA AD 2025-0128, dated June 3, 2025 (later revised) (EASA AD 2025-0128); and EASA AD 2025-0128R1, dated June 17, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0128R1) (also referred to as the MCAI).</P>
                <P>EASA AD 2024-0182 included new service material, specified that a certain cleaning process available during engine refurbishment may lead to degradation of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold, that additional engine model groups were affected by the unsafe condition, and that repetitive inspections were necessary. EASA AD 2024-0182R1 included a revision to the service material and clarified the terminating action for the repetitive inspections. EASA AD 2025-0128, included a revision to the service material and identified an additional population of engines affected by the unsafe condition and required repetitive inspections and corrective actions for those engines.</P>
                <P>The MCAI states that damage to a fuel manifold main fuel hose was reported, which led to a controlled, temporary engine fire and heat damage to the exterior and interior of the engine nacelle (thrust reverser C-ducts). The occurrence resulted in an in-flight shutdown. In-service and in-shop inspections identified a specific cleaning process available during engine refurbishment that may lead to degradation of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. Additionally, multiple additional populations of affected engines were identified, and a determination was made that the initial population of affected engines could be reduced to exclude certain engine serial numbers. To address this potential unsafe condition, the manufacturer published service information that specifies procedures for a one-time set of visual and dimensional inspections of the fuel manifold main fuel hoses and corrective action instructions. This condition, if not addressed, in combination with additional failures, could lead to an engine fire and damage to the airplane.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4661.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2025-0128R1, which specifies procedures for a one-time set of on-wing visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold, and reporting the inspection results to RRD. EASA AD 2025-0128R1 also specifies procedures for on-wing and in-shop repetitive visual and dimensional inspections of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold to confirm softness, compliance, and lack of resistance, and for shrinkage, cracks, chafing, dents, kinks, necking, and degradation of the hose braid wire and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold, and reporting the inspection results to RRD. EASA AD 2025-0128R1 also allows installation of an affected part on any airplane provided that the part is serviceable and allows installation of an affected engine provided that the engine passed the required inspections, or the findings were corrected. EASA AD 2025-0128R1 also includes optional terminating action for the repetitive visual and dimensional inspections provided that the engine has passed an inspection with no findings or the findings are corrected, or the engine has not yet reached the threshold of the required inspections.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40355"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority (CAA) of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">AD Requirements</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2025-0128R1, described previously, as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some CAA ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, EASA AD 2025-0128R1 is incorporated by reference in this AD. This AD requires compliance with EASA AD 2025-0128R1 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2025-0128R1 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2025-0128R1. Material required by EASA AD 2025-0128R1 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4661 after this AD is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
                <P>The preamble to AD 2024-25-10 specifies that the FAA considers that AD to be an “interim action” and that the FAA might consider further rulemaking depending on the results of the investigation. The manufacturer has since developed such repetitive inspections and, if necessary, replacement of the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold for certain engines, which is optional terminating action to the repetitive inspections required by AD 2024-25-10. The FAA has determined that these actions must be required to mitigate the unsafe condition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Justification for Immediate Adoption and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because no domestic operators use this product. It is unlikely that the FAA will receive any adverse comments or useful information about this AD from any U.S. operator.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b). In addition, for the foregoing reason(s), the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without prior notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>There are no costs of compliance with this AD because there are no engines with this type certificate on the U.S. Registry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2024-25-10, Amendment 39-22912 (90 FR 8661, January 31, 2025); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-13-06 Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd &amp; Co KG:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23388; Docket No. FAA-2026-4661; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01530-E.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective July 17, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>
                            This AD replaces AD 2024-25-10, Amendment 39-22912 (90 FR 8661, January 31, 2025) (AD 2024-25-10).
                            <PRTPAGE P="40356"/>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to certain Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd &amp; Co KG Model Trent XWB-75, Trent XWB-79, Trent XWB-79B, Trent XWB-84, and Trent XWB-97 engines, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0128R1, dated June 17, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0128R1).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 7200, Engine (Turbine/Turboprop); 7310, Engine Fuel Distribution.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of damage to the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold, which led to a controlled, temporary engine fire and heat damage to the exterior and interior of the engine nacelle (thrust reverser C-ducts), and resulted in a commanded in-flight engine shut down. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent damage to the main fuel hose assembly of the fuel manifold. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, in combination with additional failures, could lead to an engine fire and result in damage to the airplane.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Do all required actions within the compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2025-0128R1.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2025-0128R1</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to September 1, 2024, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to September 9, 2024 (the effective date of EASA Emergency AD 2024-0174-E), this AD requires using February 18, 2025 (the effective date of AD 2024-25-10).</P>
                        <P>(4) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to October 3, 2024 (the effective date of the original issue of EASA AD 2024-0182), this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(5) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to June 10, 2025 (the effective date of the EASA AD 2025-0128, dated June 3, 2025), this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(6) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 refers to the applicable date listed in Appendix 1 of the Non-Modification Service Bulletin for Group B engines, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(7) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 states “engine flying hours (EFH)”, this AD requires replacing that text with “engine flight hours (EFH)”.</P>
                        <P>(8) Where EASA AD 2025-0128R1 states “engine flying cycles (EFC)”, this AD requires replacing that text with “engine flight cycles (EFC)”.</P>
                        <P>(9) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” paragraph of EASA AD 2025-0128R1.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although EASA AD 2025-0128R1 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7146; email: 
                            <E T="03">barbara.caufield@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0128R1, dated June 17, 2025.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             website: 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 18, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lona C. Saccomando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13481 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-3428; Project Identifier AD-2024-00428-T; Amendment 39-23389; AD 2026-13-07]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8, 787-9, and 787-10 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of door assist handles pulled loose from their lower attach point in the doorway support bracket during pre-flight checks. This AD requires, for certain airplanes, installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly and installing a placard on certain support bracket assemblies or marking the part, and for certain airplanes, requires an inspection of the forward and aft door assist handles and applicable on-condition actions. For certain other airplanes, this AD requires installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly at certain locations and reidentifying the support bracket assembly. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 6, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of August 6, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-3428; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40357"/>
                        Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                        <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-3428.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie Linn, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3584; email: 
                        <E T="03">julie.linn@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8, 787-9, and 787-10 airplanes. The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 21, 2025 (90 FR 52573). The NPRM was prompted by reports indicating door assist handles pulled loose from their lower attach point in the doorway support bracket during pre-flight checks. Boeing determined a lower maximum allowable door assist handle flex value, coupled with an out-of-tolerance door assist handle, contributed to this failure. In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require, for certain airplanes, installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly and installing a placard on certain support bracket assemblies or marking the part, and for certain airplanes, proposed to require an inspection of the forward and aft door assist handles and applicable on-condition actions. For certain other airplanes, the FAA proposed to require installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly at certain locations and reidentifying the support bracket assembly. The FAA is issuing this AD to address door assist handles becoming detached, which could cause injuries to passengers, crew, or maintenance personnel when opening the door, and could limit exit from the airplane during a time-limited emergency evacuation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from All Nippon Airways (ANA), Boeing, the Citizens Rulemaking Alliance, Norse Atlantic Airways, and United Airlines (United). The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Use Alternative Materials</HD>
                <P>Boeing and ANA requested that the FAA allow the use of alternative materials due to difficulties obtaining the materials referenced in the required service information. In addition, ANA raised environmental concerns about the required materials.</P>
                <P>The FAA agrees to allow the use of BMS5-105, Type II or Type VI, as an alternative to BMS5-105, Type 5; and Uralane 5774-1 A/C as an alternative to Uralane 5774 A/C. The FAA has added new exceptions in paragraphs (h)(3) and (4) of this AD, respectively.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Clarification About Previously Proposed Requirements</HD>
                <P>Norse Atlantic Airways and United requested that the FAA explain its rationale for withdrawing an NPRM that would have required the previous issue of the Boeing requirements bulletin required by this AD. Norse Atlantic Airways stated it did not identify any significant changes between the two issues of the service bulletin and therefore would like to know what criteria (data or tests) was used to determine that the later issue of the service bulletin is significantly better for mitigating the unsafe condition.</P>
                <P>After further analysis, the FAA has determined that the corrective actions in Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-1205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 001, dated June 18, 2021, mitigate the unsafe condition. Further, the FAA acknowledges there are no significant changes between Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-1205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 001, dated June 18, 2021; and Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024, except for adding airplanes to the effectivity of the later issue of the bulletin. The FAA is mandating the later issue of the bulletin in this AD to address airplanes that were not included in the NPRM that was withdrawn. Additionally, the later issue of the bulletin provides relief to operators with the option to mark on the part that the bulletin has been completed instead of installing a placard. Further, the later issue of the bulletin provides the option to use a later revision of the supplier service bulletin to accomplish certain actions. Therefore, the FAA has added credit for accomplishing the required actions using Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-1205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 001, dated June 18, 2021, to paragraph (i) of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Justify Forgoing Notice and Comment or Reopen Comment Period</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA either provide its justification for finding good cause to bypass notice and comment procedures, or convert this action to an NPRM. The commenter asserted the FAA has not adequately justified use of the good cause exemption to bypass notice and comment and the 30-day delayed effective date.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA notes the comment was submitted in response to an NPRM for which the FAA provided a 45-day comment period. This final rule is effective 35 days after its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Make Incorporation by Reference (IBR) Materials Reasonably Available</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA make IBR material available and free to the public during the comment period and add the IBR materials to the AD docket.</P>
                <P>
                    In the preamble of the NPRM, the FAA notified the public that the IBR material would be available for review under Docket No. FAA-2025-3428 at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    . This material was posted to the AD docket on November 21, 2025. Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Comply With the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA revise the AD to comply with the PRA, and if reporting is required, stay the reporting requirement until the PRA requirements are satisfied.</P>
                <P>The FAA notes this AD does not require reporting. If an AD were to require reporting, the preamble of the AD would include a paragraph titled “Paperwork Reduction Act” that would provide the applicable OMB control number, required PRA statements, and the estimated time to collect the required information (burden). Any costs associated with the reporting requirement would be included in the Costs of Compliance section in the preamble of the AD. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Consider Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>
                    The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA either prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis, or provide the factual basis for its Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) certification that the AD will not have 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40358"/>
                    a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA provides the following clarification. The RFA of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121) and the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240), requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.</P>
                <P>The FAA identified three domestic entities affected by this AD. Based on the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standards (displayed in the table below), one entity is a small business.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,r100,r50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Small Business Size Standards and Number of Small Entities 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             code
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Size standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Affected
                            <LI>entities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Affected small entities</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Percent small entities</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481111</ENT>
                        <ENT>Scheduled Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">523910</ENT>
                        <ENT>Miscellaneous Intermediation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$41.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Sources: 
                        <E T="03">sba.gov:</E>
                         Table of Small Business Size Standards. Dun &amp; Bradstreet; D&amp;B Hoovers; Retrieved May 26, 2026; 
                        <E T="03">app.hoovers.dnb.com.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         North American Industrial Classification System.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>While FAA has determined that this AD affects a small entity, the high-case cost of compliance with the AD relative to the small entity's annual revenue is minimal. The AD cost as a percentage of annual revenue imposes a cost no greater than 0.15%. The table below displays the high-case cost impact of the AD on the small entity.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Average Cost of Compliance per Small Entity</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of small entities</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>revenue</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            High-case
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost as a
                            <LI>share of</LI>
                            <LI>revenue</LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Miscellaneous Intermediation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,920,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,786</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Sources: 
                        <E T="03">sba.gov:</E>
                         Table of Small Business Size Standards. Dun &amp; Bradstreet; D&amp;B Hoovers; Retrieved May 26, 2026; 
                        <E T="03">app.hoovers.dnb.com.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Therefore, as provided in section 605(b), the FAA certifies this AD will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Provide Additional Cost Information</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA clarify its cost estimate for determining the AD is not significant under Executive Order 12866. The commenter stated the FAA should publish the number of affected U.S. airplanes and costs per airplane (labor hours, parts, downtime, and special tools).</P>
                <P>In the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, the FAA disclosed the number of affected airplanes on the U.S. registry, estimated number of work hours and parts cost provided by the manufacturer, and the aggregate costs. Additionally, the FAA considered the impact that this AD will have on affected operators and determined this AD will not trigger any downtime costs because the requirements of this AD can be performed during regularly scheduled maintenance. Since the FAA has assessed and disclosed the total known costs of the AD requirements in the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, and the commenter did not provide additional cost data for the FAA to consider in its cost analysis, it is not necessary to provide additional information in the AD docket. Based upon the analysis provided throughout the proposed AD and in the previous comment response, the FAA certifies that this AD is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866. The FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024. This material specifies procedures for installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly and installing a placard on the forward and aft support bracket assemblies or marking the part to indicate the required actions were accomplished. For certain airplanes, this material specifies procedures for a detailed inspection for correct installation of the forward and aft door assist handles and applicable on-condition actions. On-condition actions include replacement of upper spring clips.</P>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021. This material specifies procedures for installing a new retainer above the lower keyway of the support bracket assembly at each passenger entry door located at the forward and aft door assist handle and reidentifying the support bracket assembly with a new part number.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA estimates this AD affects 116 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40359"/>
                    estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r25,r25,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspection (per airplane, Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes)</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>$110,160 (108 airplanes).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Installation of retainers and placards or part marking (per airplane, Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to 16 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,360</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $116</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $1,476</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $159,408 (108 airplanes).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspection and reidentification (per airplane Model 787-10 airplanes)</ENT>
                        <ENT>28 work-hours × $85 per hour = $2,380</ENT>
                        <ENT>$160</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,540</ENT>
                        <ENT>$20,320 (8 airplanes).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replacement of upper spring clips (per door)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 work-hours × $85 per hour = $170</ENT>
                        <ENT>$120</ENT>
                        <ENT>$290</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-13-07 The Boeing Company:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23389; Docket No. FAA-2025-3428; Project Identifier AD-2024-00428-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 6, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to The Boeing Company airplanes, certificated in any category, as specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(1) Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes as identified in Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024.</P>
                        <P>(2) Model 787-10 airplanes as identified in Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment/furnishings.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by reports of door assist handles pulled loose from their lower attach point in the doorway support bracket during pre-flight checks. The FAA is issuing this AD to address loose door assist handles. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in door assist handles becoming detached, which could cause injuries to passengers, crew, or maintenance personnel when opening the door, and could limit exit from the airplane during a time-limited emergency evacuation.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) For the airplanes identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this AD: Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Special 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40360"/>
                            Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="04">Note 1 to paragraph (g)(1):</E>
                             Guidance for accomplishing the actions required by this AD can be found in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024, which is referred to in Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) For the airplanes identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this AD: Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="04">Note 2 to paragraph (g)(2):</E>
                             Guidance for accomplishing the actions required by this AD can be found in Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021, which is referred to in Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to Requirements Bulletin Specifications</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where the Compliance Time columns of the tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024, refer to the Issue 002 date of Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where the Compliance Time column of the table in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021, refer to the Issue 001 date of Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where Table 1 of “Task 2—Left Side Doorway Assist Handle Support Bracket Retainer—Final Installation [Group 1-3:]” and “Task 3—Right Side Doorway Assist Handle Support Bracket Retainer—Final Installation [Group 1-3]” in the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021, specifies to apply adhesive BMS5-105, TYPE 5, this AD allows the application of alternative material, BMS5-105, Type II or Type VI.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where the Safran material specified in Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024, states to use adhesive Uralane 5774 A/C, this AD allows the use of alternative adhesive, Uralane 5774-1 A/C.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-1205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 001, dated June 18, 2021.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                             Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) For more information about this AD, contact Julie Linn, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3584; email: 
                            <E T="03">julie.linn@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (l)(3) this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Boeing Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250254-00 RB, Issue 001, dated February 22, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB250253-00 RB, Issue 002, dated July 11, 2024.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For the Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                            <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Knaup,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13475 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-4000; Project Identifier AD-2025-00440-T; Amendment 39-23385; AD 2026-13-03]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-8F series airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in stringers and splice fittings located at stringer splices at multiple body stations. This AD requires an inspection of each free flange of the stringers at the stringer splice for radius fillers at certain fastener locations, an inspection for cracking of the stringers and stringer splice fittings at certain stringer splice locations, and applicable on-condition actions. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 6, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publications listed in this AD as of August 6, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-4000; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40361"/>
                        Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110 SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562 797 1717; website 
                        <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-4000.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Taylor Stanley, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 407-852-7677; email: 
                        <E T="03">taylor.stanley@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-8F series airplanes. The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51227). The NPRM was prompted by reports of cracking in stringers and splice fittings located at stringer splices at multiple body stations. In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require an inspection of each free flange of the stringers at the stringer splice for radius fillers at certain fastener locations, an inspection for cracking of the stringers and stringer splice fittings at certain stringer splice locations, and applicable on-condition actions. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from an individual who supported the NPRM without change.</P>
                <P>The FAA also received comments from the Citizens Rulemaking Alliance. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Justify Forgoing Notice and Comment or Issue an NPRM</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA either provide its justification for finding good cause to bypass notice and comment procedures, or convert this action to an NPRM and bifurcate the urgent and non-urgent elements. The commenter asserted the FAA has not adequately justified use of the good cause exemption to bypass notice and comment and the 30-day delayed effective date.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA notes the comment was submitted in response to an NPRM for which the FAA provided a 45-day comment period. This final rule is effective 35 days after its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Make Incorporation by Reference (IBR) Materials Reasonably Available</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA make IBR material available and free to the public during the comment period and add the IBR materials to the AD docket.</P>
                <P>
                    In the preamble of the NPRM, the FAA notified the public that the IBR material would be available for review under Docket No. FAA-2025-4000 at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                     This material was posted to the AD docket on November 19, 2025. Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Comply With the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA revise the AD to comply with the PRA. If reporting is not required, the commenter requested the FAA clarify that in the AD.</P>
                <P>The FAA notes this AD does not require reporting. If an AD were to require reporting, the preamble of the AD would include a paragraph titled “Paperwork Reduction Act” that would provide the applicable OMB control number, required PRA statements, and the estimated time to collect the required information (burden). Any costs associated with the reporting requirement would be included in the Costs of Compliance section in the preamble of the AD. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Consider Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA either prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis, or provide the factual basis for its conclusion that the AD will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>The FAA identified two carriers affected by this AD. Based on the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standard shown in the table below, both entities are classified as large businesses.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,r50">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Small Business Size Standards 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             code
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Size standard</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481212</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nonscheduled Chartered Freight Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">492110</ENT>
                        <ENT>Couriers and Express Delivery Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Source: 
                        <E T="03">sba.gov:</E>
                         Table of Small Business Size Standards (2023).
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         North American Industrial Classification System.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Under section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), if an agency determines that a rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the head of the agency may certify. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b) and based on the foregoing, the head of FAA certifies that this AD will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Provide Additional Cost Information</HD>
                <P>
                    The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA supplement the economic analysis to reflect realistic costs for parts, labor, airplane downtime, and repetitive action costs and confirm the AD is not significant under Executive Order 12866. The commenter stated that the FAA omitted indirect costs such as airplane downtime, repetitive actions, engineering development of alternative methods of compliance, supply chain constraints, and training and operational disruptions. The commenter also stated that the AD should specify whether the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) threshold is met.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40362"/>
                </P>
                <P>The FAA notes that in preamble of the proposed AD, the FAA certified that this regulation is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, which means, in part, that the regulation will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. Further, in the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, the FAA disclosed that the required inspections are estimated to cost U.S. operators up to $344,080, per airplane. The repetitive inspections are estimated to cost $85 per inspection area, every 48 or 96 months, depending on findings.</P>
                <P>The FAA recognizes that, in doing the actions required by an AD, operators might incur indirect costs in addition to the direct costs. The cost analysis in an AD typically does not include indirect costs since the FAA lacks data on those costs, and they vary significantly among operators. Since the FAA has assessed and disclosed all known costs of the AD requirements in the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, and the commenter did not provide additional cost data for the FAA to consider in its cost analysis, the FAA determined that the existing analysis is complete. Based upon the analysis provided throughout the proposed AD and in the previous comment response, the FAA certifies that this AD is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866. The FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025. This material specifies procedures for an inspection of each free flange of the stringers at the stringer splice for radius fillers at the fastener locations, a detailed inspection for cracking of the stringers and stringer splice fittings at certain stringer splice locations, and applicable on-condition actions. On-condition actions include detailed inspections for cracking or radius fillers, removal or installation of radius fillers, and contacting Boeing for repair instructions and doing the repair (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     replacement of a cracked splice channel).
                </P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 11 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,r25,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspection for radius filler</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to 124 work-hours × $85 per hour = $10,540</ENT>
                        <ENT>None</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $10,540</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $115,940.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspection for cracking</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to 244 work-hours × $85 per hour = $20,740</ENT>
                        <ENT>None</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $20,740</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $228,140.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,r25,r50">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspection for cracking or for radius fillers</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>None</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85 per inspection location.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Removal and installation of radius fillers</ENT>
                        <ENT>7 work-hours × $85 per hour = $595</ENT>
                        <ENT>None</ENT>
                        <ENT>$595 per location.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replacement of cracked splice channel</ENT>
                        <ENT>300 work-hours × $85 per hour = $25,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>$809</ENT>
                        <ENT>$26,309 per replacement.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>
                    (2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
                    <PRTPAGE P="40363"/>
                </P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP>
                            <E T="02">2026-13-03—Boeing Company:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23385; Docket No. FAA-2025-4000; Project Identifier AD-2025-00440-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 6, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-8F series airplanes, certificated in any category, identified as Group 3 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in stringers and splice fittings located at stringer splices at multiple body stations. The FAA is issuing this AD to address such cracking, which could result in the inability of a structural element to sustain limit load and could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Note 1 to paragraph (g):</E>
                             Guidance for accomplishing the actions required by this AD can be found in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2907, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025, which is referred to in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to Requirements Bulletin Specifications</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where the Compliance Time columns of the tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025, refer to the Revision 1 date of Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025, specifies contacting Boeing for repair instructions: This AD requires doing the repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                             Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) For more information about this AD, contact Taylor Stanley, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 407-852-7677; email: 
                            <E T="03">taylor.stanley@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (k)(3) of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-53A2907 RB, Revision 1, dated March 14, 2025.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                            <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 18, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lona C. Saccomando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13474 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4667; Project Identifier AD-2026-00584-T; Amendment 39-23392; AD 2026-13-51]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation Model GVIII-G700 and GVIII-G800 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report indicating that a hollow pin cap on the right-side engine aft thrust strut mount interface was found broken due to a missing sleeve bushing. This AD requires a visual inspection of the upper surface of the engine mount to the forward and aft thrust strut mount at the hollow pin head interface, of the left and right engines, for evidence of movement or distress; an inspection of the forward and aft thrust strut mount hardware to ensure the sleeve bushing, nut, washers, and cotter pins are properly installed; and applicable 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40364"/>
                        corrective actions. The FAA previously sent an emergency AD to all known U.S. owners and operators of these airplanes. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective July 17, 2026. Emergency AD 2026-13-51, issued on June 18, 2026, which contains the requirements of this amendment, was effective with actual notice.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of July 17, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this AD by August 17, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4667; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation material identified in this AD, contact Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation, Technical Publications Dept., P.O. Box 2206, Savannah, GA 31402-2206; telephone 800-810-4853; email 
                        <E T="03">pubs@gulfstream.com;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">gulfstream.com/en/customer-support.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4667.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jeff Johnson, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: 404-474-5554; email: 
                        <E T="03">ecb-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4667; Project Identifier AD-2026-00584-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Jeff Johnson, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: 404-474-5554; email: 
                    <E T="03">ecb-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives that is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued Emergency AD 2026-13-51, dated June 18, 2026 (the emergency AD), to address an unsafe condition on certain Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation Model GVIII-G700 and GVIII-G800 airplanes. The FAA sent the emergency AD to all known U.S. owners and operators of these airplanes. The emergency AD requires a visual inspection of the upper surface of the engine mount to the forward and aft thrust strut mount at the hollow pin head interface, of the left and right engines, for evidence of movement or distress; an inspection of the forward and aft thrust strut mount hardware to ensure the sleeve bushing, nut, washers, and cotter pins are properly installed; and applicable corrective actions.</P>
                <P>The emergency AD was prompted by a report indicating that a hollow pin cap on the right-side engine aft thrust strut mount interface was found broken due to a missing sleeve bushing. Further investigation found the sleeve bushing was loose (displaced) within the engine pylon. The airplane had accumulated 1,056 total flight hours and 324 total flight cycles. During a subsequent audit, an additional airplane failed a gap check at the right-side engine forward thrust strut mount interface. The additional airplane had accumulated 551 total flight hours and 182 total flight cycles. The engine thrust struts on both airplanes were previously disconnected to perform production retrofit activities prior to entry into service. An improperly installed engine thrust strut could compromise the structural integrity of the engine mount system and lead to failure of the engine mount system. This condition, if not addressed, could result in an in-flight separation of the engine from the airplane, leading to loss of control of the airplane.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed Gulfstream GVIII-G700 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026; and Gulfstream GVIII-G800 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026. This material specifies procedures for visually inspecting the upper surface of the engine mount to the forward and aft thrust strut mount at the hollow pin head interface, of the left and right engines, for evidence of movement or distress (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     paint abrasion or witness marks, gouging or surface damage, a broken or compromised hollow pin); inspecting the forward and aft thrust strut mount hardware to ensure the sleeve bushing, nut, washers, and cotter pins are properly installed; and depending on findings, submitting certain information to the manufacturer for further evaluation and engineering disposition (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     corrective action).
                </P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40365"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this AD because the agency has determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">AD Requirements</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in the material already described, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
                <P>The FAA considers this AD to be an interim action. If a final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking then.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Justification and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An unsafe condition exists that required the immediate adoption of Emergency AD 2026-13-51 issued on June 18, 2026, to all known U.S. owners and operators of these airplanes. The FAA found that the risk to the flying public justified forgoing notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because the urgency of the unsafe condition necessitates prohibiting further flight until the airplane is inspected and the applicable corrective actions are performed. These conditions still exist, and the AD is hereby published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     as an amendment to 14 CFR 39.13 to make it effective to all persons. Given the significance of the risk presented by this unsafe condition, it must be immediately addressed. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and contrary to the public interest pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b).
                </P>
                <P>In addition, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days, for the same reasons the FAA found good cause to forgo notice and comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the RFA do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 37 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspections</ENT>
                        <ENT>20 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>$62,900</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.</P>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to: Information Collection Clearance Officer, Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177-1524.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40366"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-13-51 Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23392; Docket No. FAA-2026-4667; Project Identifier AD-2026-00584-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>The FAA issued Emergency Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2026-13-51 on June 18, 2026 (also referred to as the emergency AD), directly to affected owners and operators. As a result of such actual notice, the emergency AD was effective for those owners and operators on the date it was received. This AD contains the same requirements as the emergency AD and, for those who did not receive actual notice, is effective on July 17, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(1) Model GVIII-G700 airplanes, serial numbers (S/Ns) 87002 through 87049 inclusive, 87053, and 87076.</P>
                        <P>(2) Model GVIII-G800 airplanes, S/Ns 88002 through 88014 inclusive.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 71, Power Plant.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report indicating that a hollow pin cap on the right engine aft thrust strut was found broken due to a missing sleeve bushing. The FAA is issuing this AD to address an improperly installed engine thrust strut that could compromise the structural integrity of the engine mount system and lead to failure of the engine mount system. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in an in-flight separation of the engine from the airplane, leading to loss of control of the airplane.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Before further flight: Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD, do all applicable actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Gulfstream GVIII-G700 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026; or Gulfstream GVIII-G800 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026; as applicable.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to Service Information Specifications</HD>
                        <P>
                            Where GVIII-G700 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026; and Gulfstream GVIII-G800 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026; specify to submit certain information to Gulfstream for further evaluation and engineering disposition (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             corrective action) before aircraft can return to service: This AD requires doing the corrective action before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph provides credit for the corresponding inspections specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD, using Gulfstream Technical Evaluation Discrepancy Sheet/Workorder, Control No. TE-26-06-01, issued June 15, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Special Flight Permit</HD>
                        <P>Special flight permits, as described in 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199, are not allowed.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                             Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by Gulfstream Engineering Authorized Representative (EAR) of the Gulfstream Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
                        <P>(3) Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: For material that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (k)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD apply.</P>
                        <P>(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) For more information about this AD, contact Jeff Johnson, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: 404-474-5554; email: 
                            <E T="03">ecb-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (m)(3) of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Gulfstream GVIII-G700 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Gulfstream GVIII-G800 Alert Customer Bulletin No. 001, dated June 16, 2026.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation material identified in this AD, contact Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation, Technical Publications Dept., P.O. Box 2206, Savannah, GA 31402-2206; telephone 800-810-4853; email 
                            <E T="03">pubs@gulfstream.com;</E>
                             website 
                            <E T="03">gulfstream.com/en/customer-support.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher R. Parker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13476 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3532; Airspace Docket No. 26-ASW-4]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of Class E Airspace; Jewett, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40367"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action establishes Class E airspace at Hub Field, Jewett, TX. The FAA is taking this action to support new instrument procedures.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective date 0901 UTC, October 29, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under 1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), all comments received, this final rule, and all background material may be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         using the FAA Docket number. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from 
                        <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Raul Garza Jr., Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5874.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Hub Field, Jewett, TX, to support instrument flight rule operations at this airport.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA published an NPRM for Docket No. FAA 2026-3532 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (April 1, 2026, 91 FR 16168; corrected April 7, 2026, 91 FR 17618), proposing to establish the Class E airspace at Hub Field, Jewett, TX. Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal to the FAA. No comments were received.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences From the NPRM</HD>
                <P>After publication of the NPRM, an FAA database review noted that the incorrect coordinates were used. This final rule replaces the incorrect coordinates with the correct coordinates, Lat 31°25′50″ N, long 96°08′05″ W. This correction represents a ministerial change. It does not change the airspace dimensions or operating requirements. Accordingly, the FAA finds good cause that recirculating the NPRM for notice and comment is unnecessary.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document amends the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These amendments will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This action amends 14 CFR part 71 by establishing Class E airspace upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.3-mile radius of Hub Field, Jewett, TX. This action supports new instrument procedures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Rulemaking and Guidance Procedure” (March 10, 2025); and (3) is expected to result in, at most, de minimis costs from compliance with applicable operating requirements or minor flight rerouting for operators choosing to navigate around the controlled airspace. Since these amendments are routine and the expected impact to operators is de minimis, the FAA certifies that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures,” paragraph B-2.5(a), which categorically excludes from further environmental impact review rulemaking actions that designate or modify classes of airspace areas, airways, routes, and reporting points (see 14 CFR part 71, Designation of Class A, B, C, D, and E Airspace Areas; Air Traffic Service Routes; and Reporting Points); and paragraph B-2.5(k), which categorically excludes from further environmental impact review the publication of existing air traffic control procedures that do not essentially change existing tracks, create new tracks, change altitude, or change concentration of aircraft on these tracks. As such, this action is not expected to result in any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p.389.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40368"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASW TX E5 Jewett, TX [Establish]</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Hub Field, TX</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat 31°25′50″ N, long 96°08′05″ W)</FP>
                        <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.3-mile radius of Hub Field.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13472 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Parts 259 and 399</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. DOT-OST-2026-0199]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2105-AF34</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Increasing Flexibility on Disclosure of Airline Ancillary Fees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary (OST), Department of Transportation</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Transportation (Department or DOT) is issuing this final rule to implement the Fifth Circuit's vacatur of the Department's 2024 Final Rule, Enhancing Transparency of Airline Ancillary Service Fees. Because the legal effect of the court's decision is to reinstate the rules previously in force, this action revises the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) to restore the Department's regulations on the disclosure of fees for ancillary services as they existed before publication of the 2024 Rule, returning to the standards established in a rule issued in 2011.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective July 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information contact Heather Filemyr, Ryan Patanaphan, or Blane A. Workie, Office of Aviation Consumer Protection, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, 202-366-9342, 202-366-7152 (fax), 
                        <E T="03">heather.filemyr@dot.gov, ryan.patanaphan@dot.gov,</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">blane.workie@dot.gov</E>
                         (email).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background and Litigation History</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 3, 2026, the United States Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit vacated the Department's 2024 Final Rule, Enhancing Transparency of Airline Ancillary Service Fees (2024 Rule), 89 FR 34620, April 30, 2024.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Court vacated the 2024 Rule on the grounds that the Department violated the Administrative Procedure Act's notice-and-comment requirements by failing to provide an opportunity for public comment on the Nicholas Rupp study (Rupp study), which the Department utilized to estimate the relevance of ancillary fee information to consumers. Though the 2024 Rule is no longer legally enforceable, it remains printed in the CFR. This final rule revises the CFR to reinstate the Department's regulations on the disclosure of fees for ancillary services as they existed before publication of the 2024 Rule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Airlines for Am.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Transp.,</E>
                         166 F.4th 487 (5th Cir. 2026) (
                        <E T="03">en banc</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The litigation history leading to this vacatur involved several challenges from airlines and airline associations. Petitioners initially argued that the Department lacked prescriptive rulemaking authority under 49 U.S.C. 41712 and that the 2024 Rule was arbitrary and capricious. On July 29, 2024, a Fifth Circuit panel granted a stay of the rule, expressing concerns that DOT's authority was limited to adjudicating and to stopping “unfair or deceptive” practices rather than prescribing broad regulations.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, on January 28, 2025, a subsequent panel held that the statutory framework does authorize the Department to prescribe regulations, though it maintained the stay due to the procedural failure regarding the Rupp study.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 2, 2025, the Fifth Circuit granted a petition for 
                    <E T="03">en banc</E>
                     review, which ultimately led to the February 3, 2026 decision to vacate the 2024 Rule.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     That decision, which found that the Department violated the APA's notice and comment requirement by not providing the opportunity for comment on the Rupp study but did not rule on the scope of the Department's authority to issue regulations under 49 U.S.C. 41712 and 40113, has the legal effect of reinstating the rules previously in force—in this case, the 2011 Rule.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Airlines for Am.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Transp.,</E>
                         110 F.4th 672 (5th Cir. 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Airlines for Am.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Transp.,</E>
                         127 F.4th 563 (5th Cir. 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Airlines for Am.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Transp.,</E>
                         166 F.4th 487 (5th Cir. 2026) (
                        <E T="03">en banc</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Action on Smoking &amp; Health</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">C.A.B.,</E>
                         713 F.2d 795, 797 (D.C. Cir. 1983); 
                        <E T="03">see also Prometheus Radio Proj.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">F.C.C.,</E>
                         652 F.3d 431, 453 n.25 (3rd Cir. 2011); 
                        <E T="03">Paulsen</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Daniels,</E>
                         413 F.3d 999, 1008 (9th Cir. 2005); 
                        <E T="03">Cumberland Med. Ctr.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Sec'y of Health &amp; Human Servs.,</E>
                         781 F.2d 536, 538 (6th Cir. 1986).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Reinstatement of the 2011 Rule Framework</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department's 2011 Rule, titled, “Enhancing Airline Passenger Protections” 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (2011 Rule), established disclosure obligations to address consumer concerns regarding fees for ancillary services.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     By reverting to this standard, the Department restores requirements that were designed to ensure transparency without requiring the integrated display of fees during the initial search results as had been required in the 2024 Rule. Specifically, the 2011 Rule required: (1) airlines disclose on their homepages for at least three months any increase in baggage fees or changes in baggage allowances; (2) airlines and ticket agents disclose a notice on the first screen where a fare is shown that additional baggage fees may apply, including instructions on how to access those fees; (3) airlines and ticket agents provide information on e-ticket confirmations regarding free baggage allowances and applicable fees for the first and second checked bag and carry-on bag; and (4) airlines disclose all fees for ancillary services in one central place on the airline's website, permitting non-baggage fees to be expressed as ranges.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         76 FR 23110 (Apr. 25, 2011).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Ancillary services are unbundled services that were traditionally included in the base fare of a ticket, such as the transport of passenger baggage (including carry-on baggage), ticket changes and cancellations, seat selection, inflight amenities such as food, and other services.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Removal of 2024 Rule Provisions</HD>
                <P>
                    This final rule removes all requirements introduced in the 2024 Rule, which are now legally void. Specifically, the 2024 Rule required the disclosure of “critical ancillary service fees”—defined as the fees for a first and second checked bag, a carry-on bag, and ticket changes and cancellations—at the first point in an itinerary search process where fare and schedule information was displayed and required the disclosure of policies for these ancillary services before ticket purchase. These requirements applied to all online platforms of airlines and ticket agents. In addition, the 2024 Rule required airlines to share this fee information with ticket agents with whom they provided fare, schedule, and availability 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40369"/>
                    information to ensure the ticket agents could meet these disclosure obligations. The 2024 rule also made minor revisions to existing regulations on the form of e-ticket confirmation disclosures by ticket agents, to the prohibition on post-purchase price increases, to customer service plans, and to price advertising. As a result of the disclosure requirements in the 2024 Rule, the Department determined in that rule that certain disclosure requirements from the 2011 Rule had become redundant. Consequently, the 2024 Rule rescinded requirements imposed in the 2011 Rule for airlines: (1) to disclose baggage fee increases or allowance changes on their websites for a three-month period; and (2) to provide a notice on the first screen with a fare quotation that additional fees for baggage may apply and where consumers can view them.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Legal Authority</HD>
                <P>This rulemaking is necessary to conform the CFR with the Fifth Circuit's decision. The Department also issues this rulemaking pursuant to its statutory authority in 49 U.S.C. 40113, which provides the Department general authority to prescribe regulations necessary to carry out its aviation economic duties, and in 49 U.S.C. 41712, which authorizes the Department to prohibit unfair and deceptive practices in air transportation or the sale of air transportation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Good Cause To Forgo Notice-and-Comment Procedures and a 30-Day Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    The APA provides an exception to its notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures when an agency for good cause finds that such procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This final rule completes the ministerial act of conforming the Department's regulation with the legal effect of the Fifth Circuit's decision vacating the 2024 Rule and involves no exercise of agency discretion. Accordingly, the Department finds that public comment is unnecessary. For these same reasons, the Department finds good cause to waive the APA's 30-day effective date requirement and to make this rule effective immediately upon publication.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Regulatory Revisions</HD>
                <P>This section details the technical changes to the CFR required to implement the Fifth Circuit's vacatur and restore the Department's prior regulatory framework.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Fee and Policy Disclosures</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2024 Rule mandated that carriers and ticket agents with online platforms marketed to U.S. consumers disclose the accurate fee that applied for all critical ancillary services—specifically the first checked bag, second checked bag, carry-on bag, ticket changes or cancellations, and any other services deemed critical by the Secretary after notice and opportunity to comment. Under that rule, the fees must be displayed the first time that fare and schedule information is disclosed after a consumer conducts an itinerary search. It also required disclosure of policy information regarding critical ancillary services before ticket purchase and a specific verbatim notice regarding seat selection to inform consumers that a seat is included in the base fare.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Consistent with the Fifth Circuit decision, this final rule removes these disclosure requirements and all associated definitions from 14 CFR 399.85, including the defined terms “Air transportation,” “Ancillary service fee,” “Ancillary service package,” “Anonymous itinerary search,” “Break in journey,” “Clear and conspicuous,” “Critical ancillary service,” “Consumer” or “user,” “Corporate travel agent,” “Online platform,” and “Passenger-specific itinerary search.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The required disclosure was as follows: “A seat is included in your fare. You are not required to purchase a seat assignment to travel. If you decide to purchase a ticket and do not select a seat prior to purchase, a seat will be provided to you without additional charge when you travel.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Furthermore, this action restores the 2011 Rule's requirement that carriers and ticket agents disclose on the first screen offering a fare quotation for a specific itinerary that additional baggage fees may apply and where consumers can see these baggage fees. Under this restored standard, ticket agents may refer consumers to the airline websites or to their own site for specific baggage fee information. This final rule also reinstates the 2011 requirement that carriers must disclose any changes in baggage fees or allowances on their homepage for at least three months following the effective date of the change. To restore the logical structure of the 2011 Rule, the Department is also returning sustained requirements, such as the requirement for carriers to disclose all ancillary fees on their websites, to their original paragraph designations (moving this requirement from paragraph (c)(5) back to paragraph (d)).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Passenger-Specific and Anonymous Itinerary Searches</HD>
                <P>The 2024 Rule introduced a distinction between “passenger-specific” searches, which utilized information like frequent flyer status or military affiliation, and “anonymous” searches, which relied solely on itinerary data like route and class of service. It required carriers and ticket agents to offer consumers both options and to disclose the specific fees and policies that applied based on the factors provided by the passenger. Consistent with the Fifth Circuit's decision, this final rule removes all provisions related to passenger-specific and anonymous itinerary searches.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Information Sharing and Metasearch Entities</HD>
                <P>To facilitate the 2024 Rule's disclosure mandates, the Department had required carriers to share critical ancillary fee information with any entity required by law to disclose that information directly to consumers. In addition, the 2024 Rule required carriers and ticket agents that sell air transportation to ensure that critical ancillary fee information is visible to consumers on the first page of their online platforms when consumers are directed there from a metasearch entity's website (an entity that advertises but does not sell air transportation, such as Google flights). Consistent with the Fifth Circuit's decision, this final rule removes these information-sharing and disclosure obligations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Additional Regulatory Revisions</HD>
                <P>
                    This final rule removes the offline disclosure requirements introduced in the 2024 Rule, which had required carriers and ticket agents to disclose verbally the existence of bag, change, and cancellation fees during in-person or phone transactions. If consumers requested to hear the specific fees that apply, carriers and ticket agents were required to provide that information based on any passenger-specific information provided by the consumer. Section 513 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024 (2024 FAA Act) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     directs the Department to update the process for fulfilling disclosure obligations in non-website transactions as may be necessary. However, the Department has determined that the nullification of the 2024 Rule's offline requirements by the Fifth Circuit makes further changes to implement Section 513 unnecessary at this time.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Public Law 118-63 (May 16, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40370"/>
                <P>Regarding e-ticket confirmations, the 2024 Rule had replaced the 2011 “text or hyperlink” option for ticket agents with a “text-only” requirement for baggage fee disclosures and added a requirement to mention personal items specifically. This final rule removes the “text only” mandate and the personal item clarification, returning to the flexible disclosure method permitted by the 2011 Rule that allows ticket agents to provide baggage fee information via hyperlinks. The removal of the mandate to include information regarding a passenger's personal item on e-ticket confirmations is required by the Fifth Circuit decision, and it is not intended to suggest that there is not any benefit to its specific mention on the e-ticket.</P>
                <P>
                    Other provisions that are removed include clarifications to 14 CFR 399.88 regarding the prohibition of post-purchase price increases 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and revisions to 14 CFR 399.84 regarding price advertising and percentage-off discounts.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These revisions are removed in this final rule as required by the Fifth Circuit's decision, but the Department anticipates future actions in these areas.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         In 2011, following a legal challenge, the Department issued an enforcement policy stating that it would only enforce this prohibition for carry-on bags and first and second checked bags when those services are not purchased with the ticket. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Guidance on Price Increases of Ancillary Services and Products not Purchased with the Ticket (Dec. 28, 2011). The D.C. Circuit subsequently upheld the rule as applied under that enforcement policy. 
                        <E T="03">Spirit Airlines, Inc.,</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dept. of Transport.</E>
                         (D.C. Cir. July 24, 2012), slip op. at 20-21 (
                        <E T="03">cert. denied</E>
                         Apr. 1, 2013). Then, in the 2024 Rule, DOT limited the prohibition on post-purchase price increases for ancillary services not purchased with the ticket to only fees for carry-on bags, first and second checked bags, and ticket changes and cancellations. Under 14 CFR 253.7, airlines may not impose any terms restricting refunds of the ticket price, charging monetary penalties on passengers, or raising the ticket price, unless the passenger receives conspicuous written notice of the salient features of those terms on or with the ticket. The Department plans to explore potential changes to the post-purchase price increase prohibition in a separate rulemaking. Though that rulemaking is pending, the Department intends to continue enforcing the prohibition against price increases for ancillary services after ticket purchase as set forth in the 2011 notice and consistent with the requirements in 14 CFR 253.7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         The Department has initiated a separate rulemaking to propose additional revisions to 14 CFR 399.84. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202504&amp;RIN=2105-AF37.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Regulatory Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) and DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this final rule is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, and OMB did not review this rule under that E.O.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The rulemaking is also not significant under DOT's Rulemaking Procedures, 49 CFR part 5, subpart B.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This final rule completes the ministerial act of conforming the Department's regulation with the legal effect of the Fifth Circuit's decision vacating the 2024 Rule, and therefore restores the standards from the 2011 Rule. The final rule will not result in any changes in behavior by firms or consumers, and, consequently, there are no economic costs or benefits. Consumers have not experienced any changes in the airline ticket purchasing process as a result of the 2024 Rule because it was stayed by the Fifth Circuit in July 2024 prior to the 
                    <E T="03">en banc</E>
                     court's vacatur, and so its repeal will result in no costs or benefits.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation)</HD>
                <P>
                    E.O. 14192, Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation requires that, for every new regulation issued by an Agency, at least 10 prior regulations be identified for elimination.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Implementation guidance for E.O. 14192 issued by OMB (Memorandum M-25-20, March 26, 2025) defines an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action and an E.O. 14192 regulatory action.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This final rule is expected to have neither costs nor benefits, and therefore is neither a regulatory nor a deregulatory action under E.O. 14192 and M-25-20.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         90 FR 9065 (Jan. 31, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Office of Management and Budget, 
                        <E T="03">Guidance Implementing Section 3 of Executive Order 14192, Titled “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation,”</E>
                         Memorandum M-25-20 (Mar. 26, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                <P>This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13132 (“Federalism”). This final rule does not establish any requirement that: (1) has substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, (2) imposes substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments, or (3) preempts State law. States are already preempted from regulating in this area by the Airline Deregulation Act, 49 U.S.C. 41713. Therefore, the consultation and funding requirements of E.O. 13132 do not apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13175</HD>
                <P>This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13175 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”). Because none of the requirements in this final rule would significantly or uniquely affect the communities of the Indian tribal governments or impose substantial direct compliance costs on them, the funding and consultation requirements of E.O. 13175 do not apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) requires Federal agencies to review and assess the impact on small entities of any regulation required by 5 U.S.C. 553 or any other law to be published as a proposed rule for public comment prior to issuance of a final rule. Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule under the APA (5 U.S.C. 553) or any other law the analytical provisions of the RFA do not apply.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (PRA), no person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. This final rule eliminates the disclosure requirements imposed by the 2024 Rule and covered by OMB control number 2105-0588 and restores certain disclosure requirements that had been removed by the 2024 Rule. Accordingly, this final rule will require revisions to the information collection under OMB Control No. 2105-0588 and approval by OMB. The Department will seek approval from OMB for the changes to the collection of information established in this final rule. The Department will publish a separate notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     announcing OMB approval of the revised collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. As described elsewhere in the preamble, this final rule would have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments or on the private sector. Therefore, the Department has 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40371"/>
                    determined that no assessment is required pursuant to UMRA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department has analyzed this final rule for the purposes of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA). In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 4336 and DOT NEPA Order 5610.1D, Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts, the Department has determined that this rule is categorically excluded.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Appendix A of DOT Order 5610.1D provides that “[a]ctions relating to consumer protection, including regulations” are categorically excluded. This rulemaking is not anticipated to result in any environmental impacts, and there are no unusual or extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Available at https://www.transportation.gov/mission/dots-procedures-considering-environmental-impacts.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>14 CFR Part 259</CFR>
                    <P>Air carriers and foreign air carriers, Consumer protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements</P>
                    <CFR>14 CFR Part 399</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Air carriers and foreign air carriers, Air rates and fares. Consumer Protection, Law enforcement, Small businesses</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOT amends 14 CFR chapter II, subchapter A and F, as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 259—ENHANCED PROTECTIONS FOR AIRLINE PASSENGERS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="259">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 259 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 40101(a)(4), 40101(a)(9), 40113(a), 41702, 41708, 41712, 41727, 42301, and 42305.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="259">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 259.5 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a), (b)(4), (13), and (14); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing paragraph (b)(15).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 259.5</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Customer Service Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Adoption of Plan.</E>
                             Each covered carrier must adopt a Customer Service Plan applicable to its scheduled flights as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (14) of this section and adhere to the plan's terms.
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(4) Allowing reservations to be held at the quoted fare without payment, or cancelled without penalty, for at least twenty-four hours after the reservation is made if the reservation is made one week or more prior to a flight's departure;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(13) Ensuring responsiveness to consumer problems as required by § 259.7 of this chapter; and</P>
                        <P>(14) Identifying the services it provides to mitigate passenger inconveniences resulting from flight cancellations and misconnections.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 399—STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="399">
                    <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 399 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 40113(a), 41712, 46106, 46107, and 42305.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="399">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 399.80 by revising the introductory text and removing and reserving paragraph (o) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 399.80</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Unfair and deceptive practices of ticket agents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>It is the policy of the Department to regard as an unfair or deceptive practice or unfair method of competition the practices enumerated in paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section by a ticket agent of any size and the practice enumerated in paragraph (s) of this section by a ticket agent that sells air transportation online and is not considered a small business under the Small Business Administration's size standards set forth in 13 CFR 121.201:</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="399">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Revise and republish § 399.84 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 399.84</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Price advertising and opt-out provisions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) The Department considers any advertising or solicitation by a direct air carrier, indirect air carrier, an agent of either, or a ticket agent, for passenger air transportation, a tour (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a combination of air transportation and ground or cruise accommodations) or tour component (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a hotel stay) that must be purchased with air transportation that states a price for such air transportation, tour, or tour component to be an unfair and deceptive practice in violation of 49 U.S.C. 41712, unless the price stated is the entire price to be paid by the customer to the carrier, or agent, for such air transportation, tour, or tour component. Though charges included within the single total price listed (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             government taxes) may be stated separately or through links or “pop ups” on websites that display the total price, such charges may not be false or misleading, may not be displayed prominently, may not be presented in the same or larger size as the total price, and must provide cost information on a per passenger basis that accurately reflects the cost of the item covered by the charge.
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) The Department considers any advertising by the entities listed in paragraph (a) of this section of an each-way airfare that is available only when purchased for round-trip travel to be an unfair and deceptive practice in violation of 49 U.S.C. 41712, unless such airfare is advertised as “each way” and in such a manner so that the disclosure of the round-trip purchase requirement is clearly and conspicuously noted in the advertisement and is stated prominently and proximately to the each-way fare amount. The Department considers it to be an unfair and deceptive practice to advertise each-way fares contingent on a round-trip purchase requirement as “one-way” fares, even if accompanied by prominent and proximate disclosure of the round trip purchase requirement.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) When offering a ticket for purchase by a consumer, for passenger air transportation or for a tour (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a combination of air transportation and ground or cruise accommodations) or tour component (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a hotel stay) that must be purchased with air transportation, a direct air carrier, indirect air carrier, an agent of either, or a ticket agent, may not offer additional optional services in connection with air transportation, a tour, or tour component whereby the optional service is automatically added to the consumer's purchase if the consumer takes no other action, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             if the consumer does not opt out. The consumer must affirmatively “opt in” (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             agree) to such a service and the fee for it before that fee is added to the total price for the air transportation-related purchase. The Department considers the use of “opt-out” provisions to be an unfair and deceptive practice in violation of 49 U.S.C. 41712.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="399">
                    <AMDPAR>6. Revise and republish § 399.85 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 399.85</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Notice of baggage fees and other fees.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) If a U.S. or foreign air carrier has a website accessible for ticket purchases by the general public in the U.S., the carrier must promptly and prominently disclose any increase in its fee for carry-on or first and second checked bags and any change in the first and second checked bags or carry-on allowance for a passenger on the homepage of that website (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             provide a link that says 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40372"/>
                            “changed bag rules” or similarly descriptive language and takes the consumer from the homepage directly to a pop-up or a place on another web page that details the change in baggage allowance or fees and the effective dates of such changes). Such notice must remain on the homepage for at least three months after the change becomes effective.
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) If a U.S. carrier, a foreign air carrier, an agent of either, or a ticket agent has a website accessible for ticket purchases by the general public in the U.S., the carrier or agent must clearly and prominently disclose on the first screen in which the agent or carrier offers a fare quotation for a specific itinerary selected by a consumer that additional airline fees for baggage may apply and where consumers can see these baggage fees. An agent may refer consumers to the airline websites where specific baggage fee information may be obtained or to its own site if it displays airlines' baggage fees.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) On all e-ticket confirmations for air transportation within, to or from the United States, including the summary page at the completion of an online purchase and a post-purchase email confirmation, a U.S. carrier, a foreign air carrier, an agent of either, or a ticket agent that advertises or sells air transportation in the United States must include information regarding the passenger's free baggage allowance and the applicable fee for a carry-on bag and the first and second checked bag. Carriers must provide this information in text form in the e-ticket confirmation. Agents may provide this information in text form in the e-ticket confirmations or through a hyperlink to the specific location on airline websites or their own website where this information is displayed. The fee information provided for a carry-on bag and the first and second checked bag must be expressed as specific charges taking into account any factors (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             frequent flyer status, early purchase, and so forth) that affect those charges.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) If a U.S. or foreign air carrier has a website marketed to U.S. consumers where it advertises or sells air transportation, the carrier must prominently disclose on its website information on fees for all optional services that are available to a passenger purchasing air transportation. Such disclosure must be clear, with a conspicuous link from the carrier's homepage directly to a page or a place on a page where all such optional services and related fees are disclosed. For purposes of this section, the term “optional services” is defined as any service the airline provides, for a fee, beyond passenger air transportation. Such fees include, but are not limited to, charges for checked or carry-on baggage, advance seat selection, in-flight beverages, snacks and meals, pillows and blankets and seat upgrades. In general, fees for particular services may be expressed as a range; however, baggage fees must be expressed as specific charges taking into account any factors (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             frequent flyer status, early purchase, and so forth) that affect those charges.
                        </P>
                        <P>(e) For air transportation within, to or from the United States, a carrier marketing a flight under its identity that is operated by a different carrier, otherwise known as a code-share flight, must through its website disclose to consumers booked on a code-share flight any differences between its optional services and related fees and those of the carrier operating the flight. This disclosure may be made through a conspicuous notice of the existence of such differences on the marketing carrier's website or a conspicuous hyperlink taking the reader directly to the operating carrier's fee listing or to a page on the marketing carrier's website that lists the differences in policies among code-share partners.</P>
                        <P>(f) The Department considers the failure to give the appropriate notice described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section to be an unfair and deceptive practice within the meaning of 49 U.S.C. 41712.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="399">
                    <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 399.88 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 399.88</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibition on post-purchase price increase.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) It is an unfair and deceptive practice within the meaning of 49 U.S.C. 41712 for any seller of scheduled air transportation within, to or from the United States, or of a tour (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a combination of air transportation and ground or cruise accommodations), or tour component (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a hotel stay) that includes scheduled air transportation within, to or from the United States, to increase the price of that air transportation, tour or tour component to a consumer, including but not limited to an increase in the price of the seat, an increase in the price for the carriage of passenger baggage, or an increase in an applicable fuel surcharge, after the air transportation has been purchased by the consumer, except in the case of an increase in a government-imposed tax or fee. A purchase is deemed to have occurred when the full amount agreed upon has been paid by the consumer.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Signed in Washington, DC.</P>
                    <NAME>Gregory Zerzan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13450 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary of Labor</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>29 CFR Part 31</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 1291-AA49</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Rescinding Portions of Department of Labor Title VI Regulations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (“Department”) amends its regulations implementing Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (“Title VI”) to eliminate disparate-impact liability. These amendments align the Department's regulations with Title VI's original public meaning, avoid constitutional concerns, reduce compliance costs, and serve the public interest.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective July 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Naomi Barry-Perez, Director, Civil Rights Center (CRC), U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW,  Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone: (202) 693-6500 (voice) (this is not a toll-free number). If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability, please dial 7-1-1 to access telecommunications relay services.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department is rescinding portions of its regulations promulgated pursuant to Title VI, 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1, to more closely align those regulations with Title VI's original public meaning, avoid constitutional concerns, reduce compliance costs, and better serve the public interest. In addition, these revisions conform to Executive Order 14281, Restoring Equality of Opportunity and Meritocracy, 90 FR 17537 (Apr. 23, 2025), and Executive Order 14173, Ending Illegal Discrimination and Restoring Merit-Based Opportunity, 90 FR 8633 (Jan. 31, 2025), but the Department adopts this rulemaking independent of Executive Order 14281 and Executive Order 14173. First, this rule rescinds the full text of 29 CFR 31.3(b)(2), which currently prohibits the utilization of “criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40373"/>
                    individuals to discrimination because of race, color or national origin . . . .” Second, this rule removes the two uses of the phrase “or effect” from 29 CFR 31.3(b)(3). Third, this rule rescinds the full text of 29 CFR 31.3(b)(6), which requires affirmative action in certain circumstances. Fourth, this rule rescinds the full text of 29 CFR 31.3(c)(2), which addresses employment practices subject to Federal financial assistance. Fifth, this rule makes technical edits to delete references to the now-revoked Executive Order 11246, Equal Opportunity Employment, 30 FR 12319 (Sep. 28, 1965), at 29 CFR 31.12(a)(1) and 31.3(c)(3). Finally, this rule deletes 29 CFR 31.3(d) in its entirety because that section contains references to program names that are now obsolete and employment practices only covered by § 31.3(c)(2), thus rendering it confusing and unhelpful to recipients of Federal financial assistance.
                </P>
                <P>This rule makes clear that the Department's Title VI regulations do not prohibit conduct or activities solely on the basis that they have an unintentional disparate impact.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statutory and Regulatory History</HD>
                <P>Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, provides: “No person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.” 42 U.S.C. 2000d. Title VI also directs Federal departments and agencies that extend Federal financial assistance to “effectuate the provisions of” Title VI “by issuing rules, regulations, or orders of general applicability.” 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1. The section of Title VI that sets forth the prohibited conduct, 42 U.S.C. 2000d, prohibits only intentional discrimination and makes no reference to disparate impact.</P>
                <P>
                    Shortly after Title VI was enacted, on December 4, 1964, the then-Department of Health, Education, and Welfare issued the initial set of model regulations for Title VI. These model regulations included a provision that recipients of Federal funds may not use “criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     29 FR 16298, 16299 (Dec. 4, 1964).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Concurrently with the model regulations, the Department promulgated its Title VI regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     29 FR 16284 (Dec. 4, 1964). Like the model regulations, the Department's Title VI regulations prohibited recipients of Federal financial assistance from administering programs in a manner that has the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination based on race, color, or national origin. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department of Justice (“DOJ”) adopted these model regulations in 1966. 31 FR 10265, 10266 (July 29, 1966). On December 10, 2025, DOJ amended its Title VI regulations to eliminate disparate-impact liability. DOJ's rule noted that “[b]ecause of the Department's unique role in the interpretation and enforcement of Title VI . . . [DOJ] expects that this rule will cause other Federal departments and agencies to consider similarly revising their Title VI regulations.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Rescinding Portions of Department of Justice Title VI Regulations To Conform More Closely With the Statutory Text and To Implement Executive Order 14281, 90 FR 57141 (Dec. 10, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>The Department's implementing regulations describing the scope of prohibited discriminatory conduct, 29 CFR 31.3, currently include prohibitions on conduct that has an unintentional disparate impact.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Relevant Supreme Court Decisions</HD>
                <P>
                    In 1978, the Supreme Court held that Congress intended Title VI to prohibit “only those racial classifications that would violate the Equal Protection Clause” if committed by a government actor. 
                    <E T="03">Regents of Univ. of Cal.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Bakke,</E>
                     438 U.S. 265, 287 (1978) (Powell, J., announcing judgment); 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     at 325, 328, 352 (Brennan, J., joined by White, Marshall, and Blackmun, JJ., concurring in part). Just prior to 
                    <E T="03">Bakke,</E>
                     the Supreme Court held that the Equal Protection Clause prohibits only intentional discrimination, and that discriminatory effect or disparate impact alone does not constitute a violation of the Equal Protection Clause. 
                    <E T="03">Washington</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Davis,</E>
                     426 U.S. 229, 242 (1976) (finding Equal Protection Clause requires a showing of discriminatory intent); 
                    <E T="03">see also Vill. of Arlington Heights</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Metro. Hous. Dev. Corp.,</E>
                     429 U.S. 252, 265 (1977) (“Proof of racially discriminatory intent or purpose is required to show a violation of the Equal Protection Clause.”); 
                    <E T="03">Personnel Admin. of Mass.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Feeney,</E>
                     442 U.S. 256, 272 (1979) (“[E]ven if a neutral law has a disproportionately adverse effect upon a racial minority, it is unconstitutional under the Equal Protection Clause only if that impact can be traced to a discriminatory purpose.”). Taken together, these Supreme Court cases confirm that Title VI's statutory prohibition extends only to intentional discrimination.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 2001, the Supreme Court reaffirmed that understanding in 
                    <E T="03">Alexander</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. 275, 280-81 (2001). In 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     the Supreme Court held that private plaintiffs could not bring a Title VI action to enforce DOJ's implementing regulation prohibiting unintentional disparate impact because the statutory provisions of Title VI prohibited only intentional discrimination. Although the Supreme Court in 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     assumed, without deciding, that DOJ's disparate-impact regulation was valid, the Court wrote that the regulation was in “considerable tension” with the Supreme Court's Title VI precedents. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. at 281-82, 284-85.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Supreme Court's 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     decision has led to a divergence between Title VI enforcement by private plaintiffs and Federal departments and agencies. Private plaintiffs can enforce only Title VI's statutory prohibition on intentional discrimination. Federal departments and agencies, however, can enforce both the statutory prohibition on intentional discrimination and the much broader disparate-impact regulations. The 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     decision has also sparked uncertainty as to the future of disparate-impact regulations promulgated by nearly every Federal department and agency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The divergence between private litigation and agency enforcement is especially unsustainable after the Supreme Court overruled 
                    <E T="03">Chevron U.S.A. Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Natural Resources Defense Council, In</E>
                    c., 467 U.S. 837 (1984). 
                    <E T="03">See Loper Bright Enters.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Raimondo,</E>
                     603 U.S. 369, 409-12 (2024). In reaching that result, the Supreme Court made clear that “statutes . . . have a single, best meaning” that is “ ‘fixed at the time of enactment.' ” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 400 (quoting 
                    <E T="03">Wis. Cent. Ltd.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">United States,</E>
                     585 U.S. 274, 284 (2018)). “That is the whole point of having written statutes,” the Supreme Court explained. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Thus, Title VI's bar on discrimination can have only one meaning. And under Supreme Court precedent, the single, best meaning of Title VI is that it “prohibits only intentional discrimination” and “permits” facially neutral policies that result in disparate outcomes so long as there is no discriminatory intent. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. at 280, 286 n.6.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 14281</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 23, 2025, the President issued Executive Order 14281. This Order restated the “bedrock principle of the United States . . . that all citizens are treated equally under the law.” 90 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40374"/>
                    FR at 17537. The Order explained that this “principle guarantees equality of opportunity, not equal outcomes,” and “promises that people are treated as individuals, not components of a particular race or group.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     The Order also explained that disparate-impact liability “endangers this foundational principle” because it “all but requires individuals and businesses to consider race and engage in racial balancing to avoid potentially crippling legal liability.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     As the Order explained, disparate-impact liability “not only undermines our national values, but also runs contrary to equal protection under the law and, therefore, violates our Constitution.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     The Order relayed that “[i]t is the policy of the United States to eliminate the use of disparate-impact liability in all contexts to the maximum degree possible to avoid violating the Constitution, Federal civil rights laws, and basic American ideals.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Section 5 of the Order directed the Attorney General to “initiate appropriate action to repeal or amend the implementing regulations for Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 for all agencies to the extent they contemplate disparate-impact liability.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Attorney General promulgated a final rule revising DOJ's Title VI regulations to remove disparate-impact liability on December 10, 2025. 90 FR 57151. The rule explained that DOJ would take this action independent of Executive Order 14281. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 57143. In support of the rule, DOJ cited the “bedrock principles” of equality of opportunity, individual merit, and a colorblind society. The rule concluded that disparate-impact liability endangers these principles, raises constitutional concerns, conflicts with Title VI's original meaning, creates confusion, increases costs, and is not in the public interest. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 57143-44. The rule explained that each of these reasons independently supports its elimination. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 57143-45. DOJ considered alternatives, including a modified version of disparate-impact liability, but concluded that any version of disparate-impact liability would be inconsistent with Title VI's original public meaning. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 57144-45. And DOJ concluded that the regulatory “extension of prohibited conduct to include conduct with an unintentional disparate impact reaches a vastly broader scope than the statute itself,” that “[t]his scope is too broad to be considered a simple prophylactic measure aimed at preventing intentional discrimination,” and that Title VI regulations adopting disparate-impact liability “do not `effectuate' Title VI.” 90 FR at 57143 (quoting 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department agrees with the Attorney General's reasons,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and for its own independent reasons discussed below, revises its own Title VI regulations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Executive Order 12250 delegates to the Attorney General authority to coordinate and ensure consistent enforcement of Federal civil rights laws across agencies administering Federally assisted programs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         45 FR 72995.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Need for Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The Department's regulation at 29 CFR 31.3, titled “General Standards,” contains several provisions that go beyond the statutory text and constitutional requirements by prohibiting facially neutral policies that have a disparate impact and in some instances encourage or even require unlawful discrimination labeled as “affirmative action.” Section 31.3(b)(2) is the current regulation's general disparate-impact prohibition, which states that “a recipient . . . may not . . . utilize criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination because of their race, color or national origin . . . .” 29 CFR 31.3(b)(2).</P>
                <P>Beyond that general prohibition, § 31.3(b)(3) addresses a Federal funding recipient's selection of the site or location of facilities and includes two references to “effect” that extend the scope of prohibited conduct to include conduct with an unintentional disparate impact. Section 31.3(b)(6) concerns the use of “affirmative action” and provides that funding recipients may (and sometimes must) use race, color, or national origin to overcome unintentional disparate “effects.” But this provision does not expressly specify that the funding recipient must narrowly tailor such use nor that this use must serve a compelling governmental interest, as is required to satisfy strict scrutiny. Section 31.3(c) addresses prohibited discriminatory employment practices and extends beyond intentional discrimination to prohibiting conduct that “tends” to have a discriminatory effect. Finally, § 31.3(d) provides illustrative examples with respect to the applicable scope of the regulations that refer to program names no longer in use. It also muddles the distinction between prohibited discrimination in employment practices where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment and those practices that “tend” to have a discriminatory impact on participation in covered programs. In the interest of clarity for the regulated community, this rule deletes § 31.3(d) in its entirety.</P>
                <P>There are serious statutory and constitutional concerns with the legality of the Department's Title VI disparate-impact regulations. The Department also has serious policy concerns with its current disparate-impact regulations because they create confusion, undermine public confidence in the nation's civil rights laws and the rule of law, and produce burdensome litigation and compliance costs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Serious Legal Concerns</HD>
                <P>
                    There are serious statutory concerns as to whether Title VI authorizes the disparate-impact provisions of the current regulations. As the Supreme Court has made clear, Title VI prohibits “only intentional discrimination” and “permits” facially neutral policies that result in disparate outcomes when there is no discriminatory intent. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. at 280, 286 n.6. That is the “single, best meaning” of Title VI. 
                    <E T="03">Loper Bright,</E>
                     603 U.S. at 400. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     calls into serious doubt the legality of the Department's “disparate-impact regulations.” 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. at 281-82, 284-85 (noting that DOJ's regulations were in “considerable tension” with the Supreme Court's Title VI precedents). Although 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     resolved only the question of private enforceability, subsequent cases such as 
                    <E T="03">Loper Bright</E>
                     have made clear that the Department cannot extend Title VI beyond its original public meaning. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     603 U.S. at 412-13 (holding that “courts must . . . ensur[e] that [an] agency acts within” its statutory authority). And even in the absence of Supreme Court precedent, the Department would have concluded that the best reading of Title VI is that it prohibits only intentional discrimination.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Title VI authorizes agencies to promulgate regulations “to effectuate” the statute's prohibition of intentional discrimination. 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1. The current regulations' extension of prohibited conduct to include conduct with an unintentional disparate impact reaches a vastly broader scope than the statute itself. This scope is too broad to be considered a simple prophylactic measure aimed at preventing intentional discrimination. 
                    <E T="03">See Sandoval,</E>
                     532 U.S. at 286 n.6 (“[Title VI] permits the very behavior that the regulations forbid.”). Thus, the disparate-impact regulations do not “effectuate” Title VI. 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    There are also serious concerns about whether the Department's Title VI regulations pass constitutional muster under the Equal Protection Clause. As the Supreme Court recently held in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40375"/>
                    <E T="03">Students for Fair Admissions, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">President &amp; Fellows of Harvard Coll.,</E>
                     600 U.S. 181 (2023) (
                    <E T="03">SFFA</E>
                    ), “the Equal Protection Clause . . . applies without regard to any differences of race, of color, or of nationality—it is universal in its application” and the “guarantee of equal protection cannot mean one thing when applied to one individual and something else when applied to a person of another color.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 206 (internal quotation marks omitted) (first quoting 
                    <E T="03">Yick Wo</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Hopkins,</E>
                     118 U.S. 356, 369 (1886); and then quoting 
                    <E T="03">Bakke,</E>
                     438 U.S. at 289-90 (Powell, J.)). Despite the promises of the Equal Protection Clause, a funding recipient's risk of disparate-impact liability under the Department's regulations is triggered by unintentional disparate outcomes, which the recipient may not even know about without investigation. To evaluate and avoid this risk, the funding recipient must incur investigatory costs, such as conducting an impact analysis, and is coerced to proactively consider race, color, and national origin, and potentially use it to change the unintended disparate outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In short, disparate-impact liability encourages and, in some cases, requires covered entities to engage in the intentional use of race and racial balancing to eliminate those disparate outcomes by treating certain racial groups differently from others—the exact conduct the Equal Protection Clause forbids. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     The serious constitutional concerns raised by these perverse incentives further confirm that the best reading of Title VI is that it prohibits only intentional discrimination and does not authorize the Department to impose disparate-impact liability. 
                    <E T="03">See Edward J. DeBartolo Corp.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Fla. Gulf Coast Bldg. &amp; Constr. Trades Council,</E>
                     485 U.S. 568, 575 (1988) (“[W]here an otherwise acceptable construction of a statute would raise serious constitutional problems, the Court will construe the statute to avoid such problems unless such construction is plainly contrary to the intent of Congress.” (citing 
                    <E T="03">NLRB</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Catholic Bishop of Chi.,</E>
                     440 U.S. 490, 499-501, 504 (1979))).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, Federal programs that are found to create racial or ethnic classifications are subject to the most searching review. In 
                    <E T="03">Adarand Constructors, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Peña,</E>
                     for instance, the Supreme Court held that Federal affirmative action programs that use racial and ethnic criteria as a basis for decision-making are subject to strict scrutiny. 515 U.S. 200, 220 (1995). Such programs satisfy strict scrutiny only if they serve a “compelling interest” and are “narrowly tailored” to the achievement of that interest—a “daunting” standard to achieve. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 235-37; 
                    <E T="03">SFFA,</E>
                     600 U.S. at 206; 
                    <E T="03">see also Free Speech Coal., Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Paxton,</E>
                     606 U.S. 461, 484 (2025) (“Strict scrutiny—which requires a restriction to be the least restrictive means of achieving a compelling governmental interest—is `the most demanding test known to constitutional law.'” (quoting 
                    <E T="03">City of Boerne</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Flores,</E>
                     521 U.S. 507, 534 (1997))). The use of race, color, or national origin necessitated by the disparate-impact provisions runs into serious issues with the requirement of narrow tailoring to achieve a compelling interest. 
                    <E T="03">SFFA,</E>
                     600 U.S. at 206-07.
                </P>
                <P>Similarly, the “affirmative action” provision authorizes and sometimes requires the intentional use of race without requiring that this intentional use be narrowly tailored to serve a recognized compelling interest. Instead, it encourages intentional racial balancing “to overcome the effects of” unintended racial disparities. 29 CFR 31.3(b)(6). Thus, for substantially the same reasons as above, the “affirmative action” provision raises serious constitutional concerns.</P>
                <P>
                    As summarized above, there are serious statutory and constitutional concerns with the Department's disparate-impact regulations. But even if the regulations were consistent with the statute, the Department finds that eliminating the potential constitutional concerns addressed above would independently justify the amendment of the regulations. 
                    <E T="03">Cf. U.S. Tel. Ass'n</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                     188 F.3d 521, 528 (D.C. Cir. 1999) (concluding it was not “arbitrary and capricious” to adopt a certain policy in order to “avoid[ ] raising a non-trivial constitutional question”). And even if the regulations did not raise serious constitutional concerns, the Department finds that eliminating the costs and confusion caused by the mismatch between the statute and the disparate-impact regulations would independently justify the amendment of the regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Serious Policy Concerns</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department also has serious policy concerns with the imposition of disparate-impact liability. While the Department expresses its policy concerns with disparate-impact liability independent of Executive Order 14281, that Order sets forth many valid policy concerns with disparate-impact liability. Moreover, the legal concerns identified above have caused uncertainty and confusion for Federal funding recipients as to whether and when they need to comply with the disparate-impact regulations and when they can or must consider race, color, and national origin. As explained above, 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     casts substantial doubt on the validity of the disparate-impact regulations that many Federal departments and agencies have promulgated pursuant to Title VI. 532 U.S. at 280-82.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally in practice, and as explained above, disparate-impact liability leads covered entities to engage in racial balancing even as Title VI forbids intentional racial discrimination. This tension tends to create confusion and undermine public confidence in the nation's civil rights laws and in the rule of law itself, as the law seems to both forbid and require the same conduct.</P>
                <P>
                    These problems are amplified by the arbitrary nature of the racial and ethnic categories typically used to measure disparate effects, which, by virtue of their arbitrariness, typically lack a meaningful connection to a compelling interest. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g., SFFA,</E>
                     600 U.S. at 216-17 (explaining that the “[racial] categories” utilized by Harvard and University of North Carolina were “themselves imprecise in many ways” and “the use of these opaque racial categories undermine[d], instead of promote[d], [their] goals”). This confusion undermines the law's ability to teach principles of nondiscrimination. The Department believes that these policy concerns independently justify repealing certain parts of its regulation to cure this confusion, remove the incentive for covered entities to engage in racial balancing, and maintain clarity and public confidence in the nation's civil rights laws.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department has considered the view that looking at disparate effects can sometimes be useful in uncovering or deterring subtle intentional discrimination or intentional indifference to unnecessary and arbitrary barriers. But that view's alleged benefits are outweighed by the other issues and factors the Department has considered. And in any event, the concern is mitigated by the fact that eliminating disparate-impact liability does not preclude the use of data on disparate outcomes to help prove intentional discrimination. Indeed, under the Department's Title VI regulations, which the current changes do not alter, “recipients should have available for the department racial and ethnic data showing the extent to which members of minority groups are beneficiaries of federally assisted programs.” 29 CFR 31.5(b). Both the Department and private litigants rely on such data as a potential indicator of intentional discrimination. This use of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40376"/>
                    statistical disparity to help establish, as an evidentiary matter, liability for 
                    <E T="03">intentional</E>
                     discrimination materially differs from using it to impose liability for an unintentional disparate impact.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department also considered alternatives to eliminating the affected provisions altogether. For instance, as an alternative to deleting the text of 29 CFR 31.3(b)(6)(i), the Department considered incorporating the constitutional requirements discussed above directly into this provision. More specifically, the Department considered specifying that any affirmative action taken to overcome the effects of prior identified discrimination by the Federal government on the ground of race, color, or national origin be narrowly tailored to the achievement of that interest. 
                    <E T="03">See Adarand Constructors,</E>
                     515 U.S. 200. But even if that alleviated the Department's constitutional concerns with the affirmative-action requirement, any version of imposing liability for failing to take action to remedy the effects of past discrimination is inconsistent with Title VI's original public meaning. The Department determines that any benefits from requiring affirmative action are outweighed by the Department's legal and policy concerns. And even if possible, developing such a rule would not solve the confusion or rule-of-law concerns expressed above, nor reduce the compliance and litigation costs that covered entities face. The Department believes that the better course is to avoid the complexities, costs, and litigation associated with this alternative, even if eliminating disparate-impact liability would ultimately leave some problems unaddressed and others inadequately addressed.
                </P>
                <P>Overall, after considering the relevant issues and factors and weighing the relevant considerations, the Department finds that, regardless of the legality of the Department's disparate-impact regulations, the above summarized policy concerns, when viewed separately or cumulatively, independently justify the repeal of its disparate-impact regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 14173</HD>
                <P>On January 21, 2025, the President issued Executive Order 14173. Among other things, the Executive Order revoked Executive Order 11246 of September 24, 1965 (Equal Employment Opportunity).</P>
                <P>
                    The Department's Title VI regulations currently include two references to Executive Order 11246. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     29 CFR 31.12(a)(1); 29 CFR 31.3(c)(3). Because these references were rendered obsolete by the revocation of Executive Order 11246, the Department now makes technical edits to delete them.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Regulatory Modification</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department's current regulations expand the scope of prohibited conduct beyond what Title VI itself prohibits—namely, intentional discrimination. This rule's regulatory changes address concerns regarding the statutory authority supporting the scope of these regulations that the Supreme Court questioned in 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     harmonize the implementing regulations with Title VI, implement changes directed by Executive Order 14281, promote consistent enforcement among private plaintiffs and Federal departments and agencies, and provide much needed clarity to the courts and Federal funding recipients and beneficiaries. For the reasons summarized above, the Department amends the following provisions in its Title VI implementing regulation that explain the particular types of discrimination prohibited. These provisions are located at 29 CFR 31.3. Additionally, as described above, the Department amends 29 CFR 31.12(a)(1) and deletes 29 CFR 31.3(c)(3) to remove now-outdated references to Executive Order 11246.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Changes</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Table Summarizing Amendments</HD>
                <P>The table below indicates the exact wording changes. For each section indicated in the left column, the text shown in the middle column is removed and the text shown in the right column is added:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Section</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Remove</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Add</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.12(a)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>“10925, 11114 and 11246”</ENT>
                        <ENT>“10925 and 11114”.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(b)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Full text of paragraph: “(2) A recipient . . . or national origin.”</ENT>
                        <ENT>“[Removed]”.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(b)(3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>“or effect” from both places</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(b)(6)</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">Full text of paragraph (6), subparts (i) and (ii)</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(c)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>“(1)” from “(c) Employment practices. (1) Where a primary objective of the . . . .”</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(c)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Full text of paragraph: “(2) Where a primary objective of the . . . .”</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(c)(3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Full text of paragraph: “(3) The requirements applicable to construction employment . . . which supersedes it.”</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31.3(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">Full text of paragraph: “(d) In order that all parties . . .”</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Section-by-Section Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Section 31.3(b)(2)</HD>
                <P>Section 31.3(b)(2) is the general prohibition of unintentional disparate impact. This paragraph expands prohibited conduct from purposeful discrimination to Federal funding recipients “utiliz[ing] criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination.” Because this paragraph's only purpose is to prohibit conduct having an unintentional disparate impact, this rule deletes this paragraph and thus amends the regulations to conform more closely to Title VI. The rule replaces paragraph (b)(2) with a placeholder to maintain the numbering accuracy of previous citations and other references to other parts of this section.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Section 31.3(b)(3)</HD>
                <P>Section 31.3(b)(3) deals with a Federal funding recipient's or applicant's selection of sites or locations of facilities. The paragraph provides that a funding recipient may not make selections with the “purpose or effect” of discriminating, or “with the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of” Title VI or the Department's implementing regulations. The paragraph's two “or effect” references extend its scope to conduct having an unintentional disparate impact, and this rule deletes both “or effect” references to conform paragraph (b)(3) more closely to Title VI.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Section 31.3(b)(6)</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 31.3(b)(6) deals with “affirmative action.” Paragraph (b)(6)(i) requires that a recipient “must take affirmative action to overcome the effects of prior discrimination” if, in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40377"/>
                    “administering a program,” the funding “recipient has previously discriminated against persons on the ground of race, color, or national origin.” This provision goes beyond the Equal Protection Clause, which in limited circumstances permits, but does not mandate, the government to take narrowly tailored action to remedy the effects of its identified past discrimination. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g., Bakke,</E>
                     438 U.S. at 307 (Powell, J.). This provision also does not expressly require narrow tailoring to counter particular past discrimination.
                </P>
                <P>Paragraph (b)(6)(ii) similarly requires affirmative action in programs even in the absence of prior discrimination and consequently could encourage intentional racial classifications, racial preferences, and other race-based actions without the supporting compelling interest and narrow tailoring that the Equal Protection Clause requires. As explained above, Congress intended Title VI to mirror the Equal Protection Clause.</P>
                <P>The rule deletes paragraphs (b)(6)(i) and (b)(6)(ii) to remove their authorization of conduct not permitted by the Equal Protection Clause.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Section 31.3(c)</HD>
                <P>Section 31.3(c) addresses prohibited discriminatory employment practices. Paragraph (c)(1) prohibits intentionally discriminatory employment practices when a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment. Paragraph (c)(2) extends the prohibition to employment practices of the recipient even where “a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is not to provide employment” if discrimination in the non-funded “employment practices of the recipient or other persons subject to the regulation tends, on the ground of race, color or national origin, to exclude individuals from participation in, to deny them the benefits of, or to subject them to discrimination under any program to which this regulation applies . . . .” This paragraph's prohibition is not limited to intentional discrimination, but rather extends to prohibiting conduct that “tends” to have a discriminatory effect on a program without the primary objective of providing employment.</P>
                <P>
                    Moreover, paragraph (c)(2)'s extension to employment practices where the Federal funding's primary objective is not to provide employment conflicts with the statutory limitation found in 42 U.S.C. 2000d-3. That section states that “[n]othing contained in [Title VI] shall be construed to authorize action under [Title VI] by any department or agency with respect to any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, or labor organization except where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment.” 42 U.S.C. 2000d-3; 
                    <E T="03">see also Johnson</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Transp. Agency, Santa Clara Cnty.,</E>
                     480 U.S. 616, 627-28 n.6 (1987) (citing the statutory limitation and noting Congress's intent that Title VI not “impinge” on Title VII, which prohibits discriminatory employment practices). The rule deletes paragraph (c)(2) to amend the regulation so that it more closely adheres to the scope of conduct Congress intended Title VI to prohibit.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, paragraph (c)(3) relates exclusively to Executive Order 11246 and any Executive Order superseding it. Executive Order 11246 was revoked by Executive Order 14173 on January 21, 2025, 90 FR 8633, and no Executive Order was issued to supersede it. The rule deletes paragraph (c)(3) to eliminate the outdated reference to Executive Order 11246. This rule makes no change to the current text of paragraphs (c)(1) except for a technical edit to reflect the removal of paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Section 31.3(d)</HD>
                <P>Section 31.3(d) provides illustrative examples of the scope of the Department's Title VI regulations but does not itself confer any legal rights or obligations on recipients of Federal financial assistance. Several of the program names referenced in § 31.3(d) are no longer in use, either because those programs have been partially or totally subsumed by other statutes or because they have been eliminated altogether. For instance, the Manpower Development and Training Act was superseded by the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act (CETA) in 1973, and Federal workforce training is currently governed by the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) of 2014. Similarly, the Area Redevelopment Act does not exist in its original form and was terminated as of August 31, 1965. Though certain programs referenced in § 31.3(d) are currently in effect, the Department has concluded that including only some illustrative examples and not others could cause confusion among recipients of Federal financial assistance with respect to the scope of their obligations under the regulations.</P>
                <P>Furthermore, as noted above, the Department amends § 31.3(c)(2)'s extension to employment practices where the Federal funding's primary objective is not to provide employment because it conflicts with the statutory limitation found in 42 U.S.C. 2000d-3. The examples in § 31.3(d)(2) and (d)(3) could implicate practices only covered under § 31.3(c)(2) and thus undermine the Department's conclusion that the scope of these regulations no longer applies to employment practices where the Federal financial assistance does not have employment as its primary purpose.</P>
                <P>Because the original purpose of § 31.3(d) was to ensure that “all parties . . . have a clear understanding of the applicability of the regulations,” and retaining only some of its text could have the opposite effect, this rule deletes § 31.3(d) in its entirety.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Section 31.12(a)(1)</HD>
                <P>Section 31.12(a) explains that nothing in the Part 31 regulations “shall be deemed to supersede any of the following,” and paragraph (a)(1) lists “Executive Orders 10925, 11114 and 11246 and regulations issued thereunder.” Executive Order 11246 was revoked by Executive Order 14173 on January 21, 2025, 90 FR 8633. This rule deletes the outdated reference to Executive Order 11246.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Consideration of Reliance Interests</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department has also considered potential legitimate reliance interests on the disparate-impact regulations. For instance, recipients may have invested in training and other measures to comply with the Department's prohibition on disparate-impact discrimination—including in connection with impact analyses, employee skill-building and education, and know-your-rights materials distributed to beneficiaries—on the expectation that this regulatory regime would remain intact. However, any such interests are minimal. 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval</E>
                     cast serious doubt on the regulations' viability more than two decades ago. Furthermore, Executive Order 14281 directed all agencies to “deprioritize enforcement of all statutes and regulations to the extent they include disparate-impact liability,” including the Department's Title VI regulations. 90 FR 17538. Finally, disparate-impact regulations are not authorized by the best reading of Title VI, as the Supreme Court has affirmed that Title VI prohibits only intentional discrimination. No reliance interest can justify the maintenance of unauthorized regulations. With respect to the technical amendments deleting references to Executive Order 11246, there can be no legitimate reliance on authorities that are no longer in force. Accordingly, the Department's legal and policy concerns—whether considered 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40378"/>
                    separately or cumulatively—outweigh any minimal reliance interests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Severability</HD>
                <P>The Department's position is that each of the amendments serves a vital, related, but distinct purpose. The Department also confirms that each of the amendments is intended to operate independently of each other and that the potential invalidity of one amendment should not affect the other amendments. The Department would adopt any of the amendments independently of the invalidity of a separate amendment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Certifications</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>The Department issues this final rule without prior public notice and comment or a delayed effective date pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act's exception for rules “relating to agency management or personnel or to public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts.” 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2).</P>
                <P>
                    Title VI concerns non-discrimination conditions on the receipt of Federal financial assistance, and more particularly to the receipt of Federal “[g]rants and loans,” “property,” “personnel” and “[a]ny Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance.” 29 CFR 31.2(e); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     29 CFR 31.6 (requiring funding recipient sign contractual assurance of compliance with Title VI); 
                    <E T="03">Cummings</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Premier Rehab Keller, P.L.L.C.,</E>
                     596 U.S. 212, 217-18 (2022) (observing that Congress enacted Title VI “[p]ursuant to its authority to `fix the terms on which it shall disburse federal money' ” (internal citation omitted)). 
                    <E T="03">Cf. Education Programs or Activities Receiving or Benefitting from Federal Financial Assistance,</E>
                     82 FR 46655, 46655 (Oct. 6, 2017) (invoking the section 553(a)(2) exception to amend Title IX regulations to “promote consistency in the enforcement of Title IX for [the Department of Agriculture] financial assistance recipients”); 
                    <E T="03">Preserving Community and Neighborhood Choice,</E>
                     85 FR 47899 (Aug. 7, 2020) (invoking the exception to repeal Housing and Urban Development rule regarding Federal grantees); 
                    <E T="03">Participation by Minority Business Enterprise in Department of Transportation Programs,</E>
                     53 FR 18285 (May 23, 1988) (invoking the exception to expand coverage of Department of Transportation regulation regarding Federal Aviation Administration's airport financial assistance program); 
                    <E T="03">Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Federally Assisted Programs—Suspension of Guidelines with Respect to Mass Transportation,</E>
                     46 FR 40687 (Aug. 11, 1981) (invoking the exception to suspend Department of Justice guidelines regarding prohibiting disability discrimination in transportation programs and activities receiving Federal financial assistance).
                </P>
                <P>Indeed, invoking 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2) is consistent with the Office for Management and Budget's (OMB) definition for “Federal financial assistance” under 2 CFR 200.1, which defines “Federal financial assistance” according to the same categories as the Administrative Procedure Act's exception for rules “relating to agency management or personnel or to public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts,” 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2). All the forms of Federal financial assistance set forth under 2 CFR 200.1 that are subject to this regulation [29 CFR part 31] would fall under the “public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts” exception. Thus, the Department issues this final rule without prior public notice and comment or a delayed effective date under 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 (Regulatory Review)</HD>
                <P>
                    Among other requirements, Executive Order 12866 requires agencies to submit “significant regulatory actions” to the Office of Management and Budget's (“OMB”) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (“OIRA”) for review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993). Section 3(f) of E.O. 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as a regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect in a material way a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or state, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. OIRA has determined that this rule is a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866. Accordingly, this rule was submitted to OIRA for review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 13563 directs agencies to, among other things, propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs; the regulation is tailored to impose the least burden on society, consistent with achieving the regulatory objectives; and in choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, the agency has selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     76 FR 3821 (Jan. 21, 2011). E.O. 13563 recognizes that some costs and benefits are difficult to quantify and provides that, where appropriate and permitted by law, agencies may consider and discuss qualitative values that are difficult or impossible to quantify, including equity, human dignity, fairness, and distributive impacts. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    As explained in the preamble, the regulatory modifications this rule makes are necessary to address concerns regarding the authority supporting the scope of the Department's Title VI regulation that the Supreme Court raised in 
                    <E T="03">Sandoval,</E>
                     harmonize the implementing regulation with Title VI, promote consistency in enforcement among private plaintiffs and Federal departments and agencies, as well as provide much needed clarity to the courts and Federal funding recipients and beneficiaries. In essence, this rule conforms the Department's regulation to existing statutory law, as interpreted by the Supreme Court. It also deletes certain outdated references to program names no longer in use and to now-revoked Executive Order 11246.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Data limitations make the costs and benefits of the rule difficult to quantify. Although it does not represent the monetary impact of the rule, the Department of Labor issued approximately 11,193 separate awards totaling approximately $65.9 billion from FY 2020-FY 2024.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In FY 2025 alone, the Department issued approximately 6,033 separate awards totaling $11.5 billion. The Department conducted approximately 212 Title VI-related investigations and compliance reviews regarding these funds and their recipients from FY 2020 through FY 2024.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This rule will allow the Department to direct its resources towards addressing allegations of intentional discrimination and managing investigations and resolutions efficiently.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         U.S. Department of the Treasury. “
                        <E T="03">USASpending.gov</E>
                        .” 
                        <E T="03">USASpending.gov, www.usaspending.gov.</E>
                         Accessed May 29, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         U.S. Dep't of Labor, Civil Rights Center, Complaints Tracking and Reporting System FY 2020-2024 Report (generated January 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Department estimated that the number of affected entities (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the recipients of Federal financial assistance under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40379"/>
                    1964) that are expected to be impacted by this rule is potentially up to 15,000 based on data showing that the Department issued approximately 11,193 separate awards over the five-year period from FY2020 through FY2024. Some entities have received multiple disparate awards, and new entities are expected to receive disparate awards in the future as well. As such, the Department conservatively assumes that the number of affected entities could be as high as 15,000 for the purpose of estimating rule familiarization costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department anticipates that the bulk of the workload under this final rule will be performed by employees in occupations similar to the one associated with the following Standard Occupational Classification (SOC) code: SOC 11-3121 (Human Resources Managers). The Department used the wage rate of Human Resources Managers as a proxy for the wage rate of Equal Opportunity Officers. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”), the mean hourly wage rate for Human Resources Managers in May 2024 was $77.15.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For this analysis, the Department used a fringe benefits rate of 46 percent and an overhead rate of 17 percent, resulting in a fully loaded hourly compensation rate for Human Resources Managers of $125.75 [= $77.15 + ($77.15 × 0.46) + ($77.15 × 0.17)].
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Bureau of Labor Statistics, Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics program, “Occupational Employment and Wages—May 2024,” 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ocwage_04022025.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Rule familiarization costs represent direct costs to the recipients of Federal financial assistance under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to read and familiarize themselves with the provisions of this final rule. The Department calculated this cost by multiplying the number of recipients of financial assistance by the estimated time to review the rule and by the hourly compensation of a Human Resources Manager. The Department estimates that rule familiarization will take an average of 1 hour by a Human Resources Manager who is paid a fully loaded wage of $125.75. Therefore, the one-time rule familiarization cost for the recipients of financial assistance under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is estimated to be $1,886,250 (= 15,000 recipients × 1 hour × $125.75 per hour).</P>
                <P>The Department is unable to quantify how funding recipients will respond to the regulatory changes. We anticipate this action will result in greater flexibility and lower compliance costs for recipients.</P>
                <P>
                    This final rule to eliminate disparate-impact liability under the Department's Title VI regulations is expected to generate cost savings and operational efficiencies for Federal funding recipients primarily by narrowing the scope of prohibited conduct to intentional discrimination. By rescinding provisions that previously prohibited practices with an unintentional disparate impact, the rule reduces legal ambiguity and the need for extensive preventative compliance efforts. Disparate-impact guidelines promulgated in the Title VII context illustrate the kinds of steps recipients might take to avoid disparate-impact liability, including ongoing recordkeeping, adverse-impact monitoring, validation studies, and review of alternatives, frequently involving legal consultation and statistical analysis to ensure that facially neutral policies would not inadvertently trigger liability.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Removing the relevant provisions will allow organizations to focus their compliance resources on preventing intentional discrimination, which is more clearly defined and easier to avoid.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         29 CFR 1607.4 (guidelines requiring collection and maintenance of impact data); 
                        <E T="03">id.</E>
                         1607.5 (validity studies); 
                        <E T="03">id.</E>
                         1607.3(B) (consideration of alternatives with less adverse impact).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Relatedly, this final rule also meaningfully decreases investigation-related costs. Again, as other disparate-impact regulations illustrate, avoiding disparate-impact liability can be a complex and costly affair, potentially involving, among other things, internal disparate-impact analyses to assess whether policies such as hiring criteria, program-eligibility rules, or resource-allocation decisions might yield statistically uneven outcomes across protected groups.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because disparate-impact liability could arise even in the absence of complaints, organizations were incentivized to proactively audit their operations, sometimes repeatedly, to mitigate risk. Eliminating this requirement reduces the need for such ongoing internal investigations and the infrastructure that supports them.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         29 CFR 1607.4(D).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Compliance costs are likewise expected to decline. These compliance costs could include, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     developing and detailing compliance programs specifically aimed at avoiding disparate impacts, including revising standard operating procedures, and modifying selection criteria or program rules to achieve more balanced outcomes.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In some cases, entities may have felt compelled to adopt race-conscious measures or engage in racial balancing to avoid enforcement actions even though doing so was legally prohibited. This introduced additional legal complexity and operational challenges. The final rule removes the regulatory pressure to engage in these practices, allowing organizations to streamline compliance programs and reduce expenditures on training, policy redesign, and external advisory services.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         29 CFR 1607.3(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Another benefit is increased regulatory clarity and predictability. Disparate-impact standards often lack clear thresholds, making it difficult for recipients to determine in advance whether a given policy is compliant. This uncertainty can lead to overcompliance—where organizations expend resources to mitigate hypothetical risks—or undercompliance due to a misunderstanding of obligations. By focusing solely on intentional discrimination, the rule provides a clearer, more objective standard, enabling recipients to allocate resources more efficiently and make decisions with greater confidence. This clarity can also improve program delivery by reducing delays associated with legal review and compliance checks.</P>
                <P>Finally, the regulatory changes are expected to yield broader institutional benefits, including improved allocation of public and private resources. Funds that would have been spent on compliance infrastructure or statistical monitoring can instead be redirected toward core programmatic activities, such as workforce development, training services, or community outreach. For smaller recipients, particularly those that may lack in-house legal or compliance departments, the reduction in regulatory burden can be especially significant. These changes are expected to lower barriers to participation in Federally funded programs and enhance overall program accessibility and effectiveness.</P>
                <P>In sum, by eliminating disparate-impact liability, the final rule reduces the need for extensive internal investigations and complex compliance systems. It advances a more straightforward standard centered on intentional discrimination, thereby generating tangible cost savings and operational efficiencies for recipients of Federal funding.</P>
                <P>
                    The Department recognizes that a funding recipient may receive Federal funds from sources other than the Department. Because of E.O. 14281 and DOJ's recent amendments to its own Title VI regulations, however, the Department expects that other Federal departments and agencies will similarly 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40380"/>
                    revise their Title VI regulations. Importantly, pursuant to Executive Order 12250, “[t]he Attorney General shall coordinate the implementation and enforcement by Executive agencies of . . . Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).” 45 FR 72995, 72995 (Nov. 2, 1980). Accordingly, DOJ acts as the lead Federal agency responsible for defining the nature and scope of Title VI's prohibition of discrimination on the basis of race, color, and national origin in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Regardless, the Department does not envision that this rule will appreciably increase administrative or compliance costs for funding recipients who must also adhere to the regulations of another department or agency. This deregulatory action does not create any new obligations for funding recipients. On the contrary, by eliminating disparate-impact liability from the regulation, it eliminates a source of regulatory confusion, narrows the conduct prohibited, and thus lessens the costs of compliance and potential liability. Moreover, recipients who receive funds for the same program or activity from more than one Federal entity already enter into separate contractual assurances with each funding entity, 
                    <E T="03">see, e.g.,</E>
                     29 CFR 31.6. These contractual assurances already impose varying requirements that each Federal funding source deems necessary. Funding recipients will continue to be held to the most stringent contractual assurance and regulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Based on the analysis of the practical qualitative costs and benefits noted above, the Department believes that this rule is consistent with the principles of Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, including the requirements that, to the extent permitted by law, the Department adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs and choose a regulatory approach that maximizes net benefits. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     58 FR at 51735; 76 FR at 3821.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation)</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 14192 requires an agency, unless prohibited by law, to identify at least 10 existing regulations to be repealed when the agency publicly proposes for notice and comment or otherwise promulgates a new regulation. 90 FR 9065, 9065 (Jan. 31, 2025). In furtherance of this requirement, section 3(c) of the Order requires that “any new incremental costs associated with new regulations shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least 10 prior regulations.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     This rule eliminates unnecessary regulation by revising the Department's current Title VI regulations, which extend prohibited conduct to include conduct having an unintentional disparate impact and thus expand the scope of those regulations to a broader range of conduct than the statute prohibits. Accordingly, the Department expects this rule to be a deregulatory action under Executive Order 14192.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 14294 (Fighting Overcriminalization in Federal Regulations)</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 14294 requires agencies promulgating regulations with criminal regulatory offenses potentially subject to criminal enforcement to “explicitly describe the conduct subject to criminal enforcement, the authorizing statutes, and the mens rea standard applicable to” each element of those offenses. 90 FR 20363, 20363 (May 9, 2025). This rule does not impose a criminal regulatory penalty and is thus exempt from Executive Order 14294 requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                <P>This rule will not have a substantial, direct effect on the relationship between the national government and the states, on distribution of power and responsibilities among various levels of government, or on states' policymaking discretion. States that choose to receive Federal financial assistance from the Department do so voluntarily and agree to comply with relevant statutory requirements as a condition of receiving such funding. This rule does not subject states or any other funding recipients or beneficiaries to new obligations. This rule amends and clarifies existing regulations that are required by statute. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255, 43257-58 (Aug. 4, 1999), the Department has determined that these amendments do not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule meets the applicable standards set forth in sections 3(a) and (b)(2) of Executive Order 12988 to specify provisions in clear language. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     61 FR 4729, 4731-32 (Feb. 5, 1996). Pursuant to section 3(b)(1)(I) of the Executive Order, 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     at 4731, nothing in this proposed or any previous rule (or in any administrative policy, directive, ruling, notice, guideline, guidance, or writing) directly relating to the Program that is the subject of this proposed rule is intended to create any legal or procedural rights enforceable against the United States.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 12250</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 1-202 of Executive Order 12250, DOJ has the responsibility to “review . . . proposed rules . . . of the Executive agencies” implementing nondiscrimination statutes such as Title VI in order to identify those which are inadequate, unclear or unnecessarily inconsistent.” Additionally, section 1-101 of Executive Order 12250 delegated the President's responsibility to approve Title VI regulations to the Attorney General. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 2000d-1. DOJ has reviewed and approved this rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121 (March 29, 1996), requires Federal agencies engaged in rulemaking to consider the impact of their rules on small entities, consider alternatives to minimize that impact, and solicit public comment on their analyses. The RFA requires the assessment of the impact of a regulation on a wide range of small entities, including small businesses, not-for profit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a proposed or final rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. 5 U.S.C. 603. This rule does not require a regulatory flexibility analysis under the RFA because, for the reasons described above, no notice of proposed rulemaking is required under 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2). 
                    <E T="03">See Or. Trollers Ass'n</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Gutierrez,</E>
                     452 F.3d 1104, 1123-24 (9th Cir. 2006) (noting that the RFA does not apply when an agency validly invokes an exception to the public comment requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553). Further, the Department, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 605(b), has reviewed these regulations and certifies that the rule's changes will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, in large part because these regulatory changes do not impose any new substantive obligations on Federal funding recipients. The rule amends and clarifies existing regulations that are required by Title VI. The rule merely harmonizes the scope of the regulations to conform with the scope of Title VI, which does not prohibit conduct having an unintentional disparate impact. All 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40381"/>
                    Federal funding recipients have been bound by the existing standards that will remain in place after this rule since their initial promulgation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (“UMRA”) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that would impose spending costs on State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or on the private sector, in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. That threshold is currently approximately $206 million. This rulemaking will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, in excess of the threshold. The UMRA also, however, excludes from its coverage any proposed or final Federal regulation that “establishes or enforces any statutory rights that prohibit discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or disability.” 2 U.S.C. 1503(2). Accordingly, this rulemaking is not subject to the provisions of the UMRA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not a “major rule” as defined by the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule will not impose additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects for 29 CFR Part 31</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Civil rights, Equal employment opportunity, Grant programs.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department of Labor amends 29 CFR part 31 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 31—NONDISCRIMINATION IN FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF LABOR—EFFECTUATION OF TITLE VI OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS ACT OF 1964</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="29" PART="31">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 31 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 2000d 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             42 U.S.C. 501, 29 U.S.C. 49k, 5 U.S.C. 301; E.O. 14281, 90 FR 17537.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="29" PART="31">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend §  31.3 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing and reserving paragraph (b)(2);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising paragraph (b)(3);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Removing and reserving paragraph (b)(6);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. Revising paragraph (c); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. Removing paragraph (d).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§  31.3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>General standards.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(3) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient or applicant may not make selections with the purpose of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under any program to which this regulation applies, on the ground of race, color or national origin; or with the purpose of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the Act or this regulation.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Employment practices.</E>
                             Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program to which this regulation applies is to provide employment, a recipient may not (directly or through contractual or other arrangements) subject an individual to discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in its employment practices under such program including recruitment, examination, appointment, training, promotion, retention or any other personnel action.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="29" PART="31">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise §  31.12(a)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§  31.12</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Effect on other regulations; supervision and coordination.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) Executive Orders 10925 and 11114 and regulations issued thereunder,</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Dean Heyl,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Office of Administration and Management.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13371 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 100</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0878]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Special Local Regulations; Annual Bayview Mackinac Race</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulation (SLR) for the annual Bayview Yacht Club Port Huron to Mackinac Race. This action is necessary to safely control vessel movements in the vicinity of the race and provide for the safety of the general boating public and commercial shipping. During the enforcement period, the operator of any vessel in the regulated areas must comply with directions from the Patrol Commander or any Official Patrol displaying a Coast Guard ensign.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 100.902 will be enforced from 10 a.m. through 3 p.m. on July 18, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email Tracy Girard, Prevention Department, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone (313) 347-3007, email 
                        <E T="03">Tracy.M.Girard@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulation in 33 CFR 100.902 for the Annual Bayview Mackinac Race from 10 a.m. through 3 p.m. on July 18, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safe control of vessel movements in the vicinity of the race and provide for the safety of the general boating public and commercial shipping. Our regulation in § 100.902(a) specifies the location of the regulated area for the Annual Bayview Mackinac Race. During the enforcement period, no vessel may enter the regulated area without prior approval from the Coast Guard's designated Patrol Commander (PATCOM). The PATCOM may restrict vessel operation within the regulated area to vessels having particular operating characteristics. Vessels desiring to transit the regulated area may do so only with prior approval of the PATCOM and when so directed by that officer. The PATCOM may be contacted on Channel 16 (156.8 MHZ) by the call sign “Coast Guard Patrol Commander.” Vessels permitted to transit the regulated area will operate at no wake speed and in a manner which will not endanger participants in the event or any other craft.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notice of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard will provide the maritime community with advance notification of this enforcement period via Broadcast Notice to Mariners or Local Notice to Mariners. If the Captain of the Port determines that any of these special local regulations need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this document, he or she may suspend such enforcement and notify the public of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40382"/>
                    suspension via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13380 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 100</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0868]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Special Local Regulation, Seattle Seafair Unlimited Hydroplane Race</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulations for the Seattle Seafair Unlimited Hydroplane Race from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. each day from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026, to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during this event. The regulation for this event identifies the regulated area on Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington. During the enforcement periods, vessels and persons in the regulated area must comply with the lawful directions from the Coast Guard Patrol Commander, the established Coast Guard patrol, and any federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies assisting the Patrol Commander.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 100.1301 will be enforced from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. each day from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email LT Anthony Pinto, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Puget Sound, Waterways Management Division; by telephone 206-827-4839, or email 
                        <E T="03">SectorPugetSoundWWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulation in 33 CFR 100.1301 for the Seattle Seafair Unlimited Hydroplane Race from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. each day from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during this 4-day event. The regulation for this event specifies the location of the regulated area for the Seattle Seafair Unlimited Hydroplane Race in § 100.1301(b), as encompassing portions of Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington. The regulated area is divided into two zones. The zones are separated by a line perpendicular from the I-90 Bridge to the northwest corner of the East log boom and a line extending from the southeast corner of the East log boom to the southeast corner of the hydroplane racecourse and then to the northerly tip of Ohlers Island in Andrews Bay. The western zone is designated Zone I, the eastern zone, Zone II. (Refer to NOAA Chart 18447).</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard will maintain a patrol consisting of Coast Guard vessels, assisted by Auxiliary Coast Guard vessels in Zone II. The Coast Guard patrol of this area is under the direction of the Coast Guard Patrol Commander (Patrol Commander). The Patrol Commander is empowered to control the movement of vessels on the racecourse and in the adjoining waters during the periods this regulation is in effect. The Patrol Commander may be assisted by other federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies.</P>
                <P>Only authorized vessels may be allowed to enter Zone I during the hours this regulation is in effect. Vessels in the vicinity of Zone I shall maneuver and anchor as directed by Coast Guard Officers or Petty Officers.</P>
                <P>During the times in which the regulation is in effect, swimming, wading, or otherwise entering the water in Zone I by any person is prohibited while hydroplane boats are on the racecourse. At other times in Zone I, any person entering the water from the shoreline shall remain west of the swim line, denoted by buoys, and any person entering the water from the log boom shall remain within ten (10) feet of the log boom.</P>
                <P>During the times in which the regulation is in effect, any person swimming or otherwise entering the water in Zone II shall remain within ten (10) feet of a vessel.</P>
                <P>During the times this regulation is in effect, rafting to a log boom will be limited to groups of three (3) vessels.</P>
                <P>During the times this regulation is in effect, up to six (6) vessels may raft together in Zone II if none of the vessels are secured to a log boom.</P>
                <P>During the times this regulation is in effect, only vessels authorized by the Patrol Commander, other law enforcement agencies, or event sponsors shall be permitted to tow other watercraft of inflatable devices.</P>
                <P>Vessels proceeding in either Zone I or Zone II during the hours this regulation is in effect shall do so only at speeds which will create minimum wake, seven (7) miles per hour or less. This maximum speed may be reduced at the discretion of the Patrol Commander.</P>
                <P>Upon completion of the daily racing activities, all vessels leaving either Zone I or Zone II shall proceed at speeds of seven (7) miles per hour or less. The maximum speed may be reduced at the discretion of the Patrol Commander.</P>
                <P>A succession of sharp, short signals by whistle or horn from vessels controlling the areas under the direction of the Patrol Commander shall serve as signal to stop. Vessels signaled shall stop and shall comply with lawful orders of the patrol vessel; failure to do so may result in expulsion from the area, citation for failure to comply, or both.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard may be assisted by other federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies, as well as official Seafair event craft.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notification of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via marine information broadcasts, and Local Notice to Mariners.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark A. McDonnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13413 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0864]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Western Lake Erie, Kelleys Island, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 375-yard radius of 1230 W Lakeshore Drive on Kelleys Island, OH. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards during a fireworks event. This rulemaking prohibits entry of vessels or persons into this safety zone during enforcement periods unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Detroit.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40383"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0864.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cera Turner, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Unit Toledo; (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from 1230 W Lakeshore Drive on Kelleys Island, OH. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 375-yard radius of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on June 18, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 375-yard radius of 1230 W Lakeshore Drive on Kelleys Island, OH. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0864 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0864</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Western Lake Erie, Kelleys Island, OH.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 375-yard radius of 1230 W Lakeshore Drive on Kelleys Island, OH.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40384"/>
                            this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13383 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0872]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Sandusky Bay, Sandusky, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 200-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 870 Crosstree Lane in Sandusky, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°26′45″ N, 082°40′050″ W. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards during a fireworks event. This rulemaking prohibits entry of vessels or persons into this safety zone during enforcement periods unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Detroit.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0872.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cera Turner, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Unit Toledo; (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from Sandusky Bay within a 200-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 870 Crosstree Lane in Sandusky, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°26′45″ N, 082°40′050″ W. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 200-yard radius of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on June 18, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 3, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 3, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 200-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 870 Crosstree Lane in Sandusky, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°26′45″ N, 082°40′050″ W. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40385"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0872 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0872</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Sandusky Bay, Sandusky, OH.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 200-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 870 Crosstree Lane in Sandusky, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°26′45″ N, 082°40′050″ W.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 3, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13385 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0869]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Regulated Navigation Area; Lake Washington, Seattle, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce a regulated navigation area (RNA) on Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington immediately before and after Seafair events from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. daily July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during this 4-day event. This RNA is located on portions of Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington. During enforcement periods all vessels and persons transiting the RNA must proceed at speeds which create minimum wake, 7 miles per hour or less, unless a higher minimum speed is necessary to maintain bare steerageway.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulation in 33 CFR 165.1341 will be enforced immediately before and after Seafair events from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. daily from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email LT Anthony Pinto, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Puget Sound, Waterways Management Division; by telephone 206-827-4839, or email 
                        <E T="03">SectorPugetSoundWWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the regulated navigation area (RNA) in 33 CFR 165.1341 immediately before and after Seafair events from 8 a.m. through 6 p.m. daily from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during this 4-day event. Seafair will be having several events sporadically throughout the day. Before and after these events, the Coast Guard will be enforcing the RNA to protect the public from the potential hazards of excessive vessel traffic associated with these events. The location of the RNA, specified in § 165.1341(a), encompasses portions of Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington. During the enforcement periods, as reflected in § 165.1341(c), all vessels and persons transiting the regulated navigation area must proceed at a speed which creates minimum wake, 7 miles per hour or less, unless a higher minimum speed is necessary to maintain bare steerageway.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notification of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of the enforcement period via marine information broadcast and Local Notice to Mariners.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark A. McDonnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13414 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0794]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Lake Erie, Lakeside, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of Lakeside Association Dock in Lakeside, OH. There will be a second safety zone for certain navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of a fireworks barge at position: 41°32.962′ N, 082°45.056′ W, in Lakeside, OH. These safety zones are needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards during an over water fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into these zones is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40386"/>
                        Captain of the Port Detroit, or their designated representative.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9:30 p.m. through 10:30 p.m. on July 4, 2026. In the event of inclement weather, the rule will be effective on July 5, 2026 from 9:30 p.m. through 10:30 p.m.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0794.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cera Turner, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Unit Toledo; (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched in Lakeside, OH, from the Lakeside Association Dock and also from a fireworks barge at position: 41°32.962′ N, 082°45.056′ W. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 350-yard radius of each fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zones.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of these fireworks events on May 20, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes two safety zones on July 4, 2026. The first safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of a fireworks site on Lakeside Association Dock in Lakeside, OH. The second safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of a fireworks barge at position: 41°32.962′ N, 082°45.056′ W, in Lakeside, OH. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0794 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40387"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0794</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Lake Erie, Lakeside, OH.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following areas are safety zones:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Safety Zone 1:</E>
                             All navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of Lakeside Association Dock in Lakeside, OH.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Safety Zone 2:</E>
                             All navigable waters of Lake Erie within a 350-yard radius of a fireworks barge at position: 41°32.962′ N, 082°45.056′ W, in Lakeside, OH.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zones described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16. Those in the safety zones must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9:30 p.m. through 10:30 p.m. on July 4, 2026. In the event of inclement weather, the rule will be effective on July 5, 2026, from 9:30 p.m. through 10:30 p.m.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13384 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0742]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Bay, Los Angeles, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters in the Port of Los Angeles on July 4, 2026. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Los Angeles—Long Beach, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0742.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Kevin Kinsella, Sector Los Angeles—Long Beach Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 310-521-3860, or email 
                        <E T="03">D11-SMB-SectorLALB-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from the pier at Berth 46 in the Port of Los Angeles, CA. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 600-foot radius of the fireworks display.</P>
                <P>Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard did not receive final details for this event with sufficient notice prior to when this safety zone must be established on July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment, to solicit comments. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters in San Pedro Bay within a 600-foot radius of a point on a pier at Berth 46, Port of Los Angeles. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40388"/>
                </P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T11-240 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T11-240</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Bay, Los Angeles, CA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of San Pedro Bay from surface to bottom, within a 600-foot radius of a point centered at 33°42′53.2″ N, 118°16′29.5″ W. These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84)/North American Datum 83 (NAD 83).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (310) 521-3801. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. to 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>S.L. Crecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Los Angeles—Long Beach. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13483 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0875]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Western Lake Erie, Huron, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 150-yard radius of 1314 Mirheath Drive in Huron, OH. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards during a fireworks event. This rulemaking prohibits entry of vessels or persons into this safety zone during enforcement periods unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Detroit.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 5, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0875.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cera Turner, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Unit Toledo; (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from 1314 Mirheath Drive in Huron, OH. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 150-yard radius of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on June 18, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 5, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                    <PRTPAGE P="40389"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 5, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 150-yard radius of 1314 Mirheath Drive in Huron, OH. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0875 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0875</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Western Lake Erie, Huron, OH.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of Western Lake Erie within a 150-yard radius of 1314 Mirheath Drive in Huron, OH.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 5, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13381 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0825]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zones; Northern California and Lake Tahoe Area Annual Fireworks Events</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce multiple safety zones codified in federal regulations for recurring fireworks events taking place within the San Francisco Captain of the Port area of responsibility. This action is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from the hazards associated with the fireworks displays. During the enforcement period, unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or remaining in the regulated areas and must comply with directions from the Patrol Commander or any Official Patrol displaying a Coast Guard ensign.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Coast Guard will enforce the regulations listed in 33 CFR 165.1191, for the locations described in event 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40390"/>
                        entries (3), (4), (6), (7), (9) through (12), (14, (16), (18), (19), and (31) of Table 1 to § 165.1191, according to the schedule listed in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email Ensign Christine Greeley, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Francisco; telephone (510) 612-9729, email 
                        <E T="03">SFWaterways@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce multiple safety zones established in 33 CFR 165.1191, Table 1 to § 165.1191, Northern California and Lake Tahoe Area Annual Fireworks Events, for events occurring in the month of July as listed. Specific locations for each safety zone are listed in the published regulation, Table 1 to 33 CFR 165.1191.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">3. Fourth of July Fireworks, City of Eureka</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Eureka, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>At 11 a.m. on July 4, 2026, the barge will transit and stage at the display location. From 9:30 p.m. until 11:15 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the safety zone will encompass all navigable waters within a 1,000-foot radius of the fireworks barges.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Humboldt Bay, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">4. Fourth of July Fireworks, Crescent City</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Crescent City, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 9:30 p.m. until 11:30 p.m. Enforcement may end earlier if the fireworks display ends earlier.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Crescent City Harbor, Crescent City, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>Crescent City Harbor in the navigable waters within a 700-foot radius of the launch platform located on the West Jetty.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">7. San Francisco Independence Day Fireworks</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>The City of San Francisco.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 12:01 a.m. to 9 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 9 p.m. until 10:45 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the safety zone will encompass all navigable waters within a 1,000-foot radius of the fireworks barges.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>A barge located approximately 1,000 feet off San Francisco Pier 39.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>A barge located approximately 700 feet off of the San Francisco Municipal Pier at Aquatic Park.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around each fireworks barge during the loading, transit, setup, and until the commencement of the scheduled display. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">9. Fourth of July Fireworks, City of Richmond</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Various Sponsors.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 3, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>A barge located in Richmond Harbor in Richmond, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From noon on July 3, 2026, to 8:45 p.m. on July 3, 2026, the barge will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 8:45 p.m. until 10:05 p.m. on July 3, 2026, the safety zone will encompass all navigable waters within a 560-foot radius of the fireworks barge.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks barge during the loading, transit, setup, and until the commencement of the scheduled display. Increases to a 560-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">10. Fourth of July Fireworks, City of Sausalito</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Sausalito.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 9 a.m. on July 4, 2026, to 9 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barge will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 9 p.m. until 10:15 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000 feet offshore from Sausalito, CA waterfront, north of Spinnaker Restaurant.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">11. Fourth of July Fireworks, City of Martinez</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Martinez.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 9:30 p.m. until 9:55 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carquinez Strait, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40391"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>The area of navigable waters within a 560-foot radius of the launch platform located near Waterfront Park.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">12. Fourth of July Fireworks, City of Antioch</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Antioch.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 9:30 a.m. to 9 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barge will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 9 p.m. until 10:20 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>San Joaquin River, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the moving fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">14. Delta Independence Day Celebration Fireworks</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Various Sponsors.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 3, 2026-July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 8 a.m. on July 3, 2026, until 9 p.m. on July 3, 2026, the barge will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 9 p.m. until 10:20 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>San Joaquin River, near Mandeville Island, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">16. Fourth of July Fireworks, Glenbrook NV</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Various Sponsors.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>At 7 a.m. on July 3, 2026, the barge will load at Tahoe Keys Marine. At 8 a.m. on July 4, 2026, the barge will transit and stage at the display location. From 8:30 p.m. until approximately 9:50 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Off-shore Glenbrook Beach, NV.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">18. Lights on the Lake Fourth of July Fireworks, South Lake Tahoe, CA</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Various Sponsors.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 1, 2026 through July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 7 a.m. on July 1, 2026, till 9:15 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 9:15 p.m. until 10:35 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Off South Lake Tahoe, CA near the NV Border.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">19. Red, White, and Tahoe Blue Fireworks, Incline Village, NV</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Various Sponsors.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 2, 2026 through July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 4 a.m. on July 2, 2026, till 8:30 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will load, transit, and stage at the display location. From 8:30 p.m. until 9:55 p.m. on July 4, 2026, the barges will be engaged in a fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>500-1,000 feet off Incline Village, NV in Crystal Bay.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-foot radius around the fireworks launch barge during the loading of pyrotechnics aboard the fireworks barge and during the transit of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location. Increases to a 1,000-foot radius upon commencement of the fireworks display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">31. Benicia Fourth of July Fireworks</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Sponsor</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Benicia, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Event Description</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fireworks Display.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4th.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>From 8:30 p.m. until approximately 9:50 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carquinez Strait, Benicia, CA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Regulated Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000-foot radius around the fireworks launch site located on the Benicia First Street Pier.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    During the enforcement period, as reflected in 33 CFR 165.1191, if you are the operator of a vessel in the regulated area you must comply with directions from the Patrol Commander or any Official Patrol displaying a Coast Guard 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40392"/>
                    ensign. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, state, or local agencies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notice of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners and marine information broadcasts.
                </P>
                <P>If the Captain of the Port determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners may be used to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jordan M. Baldueza,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port San Francisco.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13491 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0610]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Bayfront Park 4th of July Fireworks Display, Intercoastal Waterway, Biscayne Bay, Miami, FL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters on the Intercoastal Waterway portion of Biscayne Bay in Miami, FL. The safety zone is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with two barge-based fireworks displays on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will encompass all waters within a 250-yard radius of the firework barges. This rulemaking prohibits entry of vessels or persons into this safety zone unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Miami or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 11:10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, through 12:10 a.m. on July 5, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0610.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LT Guerschom Etienne, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 786-295-9051 or email 
                        <E T="03">Guerschom.Etienne@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from two barges on Bayfront Park in Miami, FL from 11:10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, through 12:10 a.m. on July 5, 2026. Hazards from fireworks displays include accidental discharge of fireworks, dangerous projectiles, and falling hot embers or other debris. The Captain of the Port Sector Miami (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 250-yard radius of the fireworks display.</P>
                <P>
                    On June 1, 2026, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled Safety Zone; Bayfront Park 4th of July Fireworks Display, Intercoastal Waterway, Biscayne Bay, Miami, FL.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In that NPRM, we stated why we issued the NPRM and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this fireworks display.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         91 FR 32369.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, the COTP has determined that this rule is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with the fireworks display. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or their designated representative.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of Comments and the Rule</HD>
                <P>As stated above, during the comment period that ended on June 16, 2026, we received no comments. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.</P>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 11:10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, through 12:10 a.m. on July 5, 2026. The safety zone covers all navigable water within 250 yards of the fireworks barges. No vessel or person is permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or their designated representative.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analysis based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. Section 605 of the RFA allows an agency to certify a rule, in lieu of preparing an analysis, if the rulemaking is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard certifies that, although some small entities may intend to transit the safety zone above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Vessel traffic will be able to safely transit around this safety zone. This safety zone will only impact a small, designated area for a few minutes. In addition, the Coast Guard will issue a Broadcast Notice to Marines via VHF FM marine channel 16, which will allow small entities to adjust their transit plans.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40393"/>
                    with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T07-0610 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T07-0610</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Biscayne Bay, Miami, FL</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of Biscayne Bay, from surface to bottom, within 250-yard radius of position 25°46′29.67″ N 80°10′54.86″ W in the Intercoastal Waterway portion of Biscayne Bay in Miami, FL. These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Miami (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (305) 535-4300. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 11:10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, through 12:10 a.m. on July 5, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>C.J. Barger,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Acting Captain of the Port Sector Miami.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13438 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0741]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Channel, Newport Beach, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters in the vicinity of Newport Beach, CA on July 4, 2026. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Los Angeles—Long Beach, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0741.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Kevin Kinsella, Sector Los Angeles—Long Beach Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 310-521-3860, or email 
                        <E T="03">D11-SMB-SectorLALB-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from a barge in the vicinity of Newport Beach, CA. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 1,000-foot radius of the fireworks display.</P>
                <P>Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard did not receive final details for this event with sufficient notice prior to when this safety zone must be established on July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment, to solicit comments. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule establishes a safety zone from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40394"/>
                    navigable waters in the San Pedro Channel within a 1,000-foot radius of a barge offshore of Newport Beach, CA. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T11-239 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T11-239</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Channel, Newport Beach, CA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of the San Pedro Channel from surface to bottom, within a 1,000-foot radius of a barge centered at 33°35′29.4″ N, 117°53′04.9″ W. These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84)/North American Datum 83 (NAD 83).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (310) 521-3801. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. to 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>S.L. Crecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Los Angeles—Long Beach.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13487 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0866]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zones; Annual Firework Displays Within the Captain of the Port, Puget Sound Area of Responsibility</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zones established in 33 CFR 165.1332 for annual firework displays in the Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound area of responsibility to ensure the safety of life on navigable waters during these events that will be held July through September 2026. The Coast Guard's regulation for marine events within the USCG Northwest District identifies the regulated area for these events. During the enforcement periods, the operator of any vessel in the regulated area must comply with lawful directions form the Patrol Commander or any Official Patrol displaying a Coast Guard ensign.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40395"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1332 will be enforced for the safety zones identified in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below, from July to September 2026 on the dates and times specified.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email LT Anthony Pinto, Sector Puget Sound Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 206-827-4839, or 
                        <E T="03">SectorPugetSoundWWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zones established in 33 CFR 165.1332 for the Annual Fireworks Displays within the Captain of the Port, Puget Sound Area of Responsibility. These regulations will be enforced on specific dates and times for each location as listed below. The safety zones include all waters of Puget Sound Washington, extending to a 450 yard radius from the launch sites listed below. Each safety zone will be enforced only during its designated period:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs90,xls60,xls60">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Event name (typically)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Event date/time</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Event location</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Latitude</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Longitude</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Alderbrook Resort &amp; Spa Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 3, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hood Canal</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°21.033′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>123°04.1′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Orcas Island</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 3, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Orcas Island</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°41.317′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°54.467′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Port Orchard Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 5, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Port Orchard</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°32.883′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°37.917′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fireworks Display</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Henderson Bay</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°21.8′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°38.367′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Everett 4th of July</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Port Gardner</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°00.672′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°13.391′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">City of Mount Vernon Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Edgewater Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°25.178′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°20.424′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">City of Anacortes</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:45 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fidalgo Bay</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°30.016′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°36.154′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Blast Over Bellingham</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 10 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bellingham Bay</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°44.933′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°29.667′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Brewster Fire Department Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brewster</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°05.362′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>119°47.147′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">City of Kenmore Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lake Forest Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°45.25′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°15.75′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Kingston Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Appletree Cove</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°47.65′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°29.917′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Port Angeles</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Port Angeles Harbor</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°07.033′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>123°24.967′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Roche Harbor Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 10 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Roche Harbor</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°36.7′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>123°09.5′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Friday Harbor Independence</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Friday Harbor</ENT>
                        <ENT>48°32.255′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>123°0.654′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Chase Family Fourth at Lake Union</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 10 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lake Union</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°38.418′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°20.111′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Steilacoom Annual Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 10 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steilacoom</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°10.4′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°36.2′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tacoma Freedom Fair</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Commencement Bay</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°17.103′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°28.410′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vashon Island Fireworks</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 4, 2026 8:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Quartermaster Harbor</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°24.0′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°27.0′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mercer Island Celebration</ENT>
                        <ENT>July 11, 2026 9:30 p.m.-11:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mercer Island</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°35.517′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°13.233′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Medina Days</ENT>
                        <ENT>August 8, 2026 9 p.m.-10:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Medina Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°36.867′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°14.5′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mukilteo Lighthouse Festival</ENT>
                        <ENT>September 12, 2026 8 p.m.-9:30 p.m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Possession Sound</ENT>
                        <ENT>47°56.9′ N</ENT>
                        <ENT>122°18.6′ W</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The special requirements listed in 33 CFR 165.1332(b) apply to the activation and enforcement of these safety zones. While the safety zone is activated, all non-participant vessels are prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or their designated representative, as set forth in 33 CFR 165.1332(d). The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard will issue advanced notification of enforcement of these safety zones via Broadcast Notice to Mariners and Local Notice to Mariners.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark A. McDonnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13418 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0613]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Southern California Annual Firework Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone for the Coronado Glorietta Bay Fourth of July Fireworks on the waters of San Diego Bay, CA, on Saturday, July 4, 2026. The safety zones are necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, spectators, official vessels of the event, and general users of the waterway. During the enforcement period, spectators may not anchor, block, loiter in, or impede the transit of official patrol vessels in the regulated areas without the approval of the Patrol Commander, or his or her designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 will be enforced from 8 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, for the locations described in Item No. 3 in Table 1 to § 165.1123.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions on this rule, email Lieutenant Shelley Delgado, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Diego, CA; email 
                        <E T="03">MarineEventsSD@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 for the Coronado Glorietta Bay Fourth of July Fireworks regulated area, for the locations described in Table 1 to § 165.1123, Item No. 3 of that section from 8 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the fireworks event. Our regulation for Southern California Annual Firework Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone, Item No. 3 in Table 1 to § 165.1123, identifies the regulated areas for the Coronado Glorietta Bay Fourth of July Fireworks event which encompasses a portion of Glorietta Bay. Under the provisions of § 165.1123, a vessel may not enter the regulated area, unless it receives permission from the Patrol Commander, or his or her designated representative. Spectator vessels may safely transit outside the regulated area but may not anchor, block, loiter, or impede the transit of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40396"/>
                    participants or official patrol vessels. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or Local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notice of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners, marine information broadcasts, and local advertising by the event sponsor.
                </P>
                <P>If the Patrol Commander or his or her designated representative determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated on this document, he or she may use a Broadcast Notice to Mariners or other communications coordinated with the event sponsor to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>R.C. Tucker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port San Diego.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13447 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0882]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Sandusky Bay, Lakeside, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 150-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 6904 E. Sunview Drive in Lakeside, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°30.339′ N, 082°48.094′ W. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards during a fireworks event. This rulemaking prohibits entry of vessels or persons into this safety zone during enforcement periods unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Detroit.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0882.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cera Turner, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Unit Toledo; (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from a barge in Sandusky Bay in the vicinity of 6904 E Sunview Drive in Lakeside, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°30.339′ N, 082°48.094′ W. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 150-yard radius of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on June 18, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 3, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 3, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 150-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 6904 E Sunview Drive in Lakeside, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°30.339′ N, 082°48.094′ W. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40397"/>
                    that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0882 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0882</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Sandusky Bay, Lakeside, OH.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of Sandusky Bay within a 150-yard radius of a barge in the vicinity of 6904 E Sunview Drive in Lakeside, OH. The barge will be in position: 41°30.339′ N, 082°48.094′ W.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. through 11 p.m. on July 3, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13382 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0698]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Hawks Channel, Marathon, FL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters on Hawks Channel. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an over water fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Key West, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9:00 p.m., through 10:00 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0698.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact Chief Marine Science Technician Mathew Mason, Sector Key West Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 305-292-8823, or email 
                        <E T="03">Mathew.R.Mason@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from the beach at Sombrero Beach Park with the fallout zone extending into Hawks Channel over the entrance to Sister Creek. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Key West has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within 200-yards of the Sombrero Beach shoreline. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard received final confirmation of the details of this event too late to engage with the public comment process, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 9:00 p.m. until 10:00 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters within 200-yards from the shoreline of Sombrero Beach in Marathon, FL. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>
                    We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40398"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T07-0698 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T07-0698</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Hawks Channel, Marathon, FL.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters within 200-yards of the shoreline of Sombrero Beach in Marathon, FL.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Key West (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at 888-245-9727. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. to 10:00 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Joshua M. Empen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Key West.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13446 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0743]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Isthmus Cove, Santa Catalina Island, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters in Isthmus Cove, Santa Catalina Island, CA on July 3, 2026. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Los Angeles—Long Beach, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9:30 p.m. until 10:30 p.m. on July 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0743.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Kevin Kinsella, Sector Los Angeles—Long Beach Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 310-521-3860, or email 
                        <E T="03">D11-SMB-SectorLALB-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking
                        <PRTPAGE P="40399"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from a barge in Isthmus Cove, Santa Catalina Island. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 1,000-foot radius of the fireworks display.</P>
                <P>Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard did not receive final details for this event with sufficient notice prior to when this safety zone must be established on July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment, to solicit comments. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 3, 2026 from 9:30 p.m. until 10:30 p.m. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters in Isthmus Cove within a 1,000-foot radius of a fireworks barge. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T11-0743 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T11-0743</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Isthmus Cove, Santa Catalina Island, CA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of Isthmus Cove from surface to bottom, within a 1,000-foot radius of a barge centered at 33°26′45.4″ N, 118°29′37.1″ W. These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84)/North American Datum 83 (NAD 83).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (310) 521-3801. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                            <PRTPAGE P="40400"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9:30 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on July 3, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>S.L. Crecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Los Angeles—Long Beach.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13484 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0867]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Seafair Air Show Performance, Seattle, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce a safety zone on Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington for the Seafair Air Show July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026, to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways. The event's regulated area is identified in its regulation. During enforcement periods no person or vessel may enter or remain within the safety zone, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) Sector Puget Sound or their designated representative(s). Vessels and persons granted authorization to enter the safety zone shall obey all lawful orders or directions of the COTP or their designated representative(s).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1319 will be enforced from 8 a.m. through 4 p.m. each day from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email LT Anthony Pinto, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Puget Sound, Waterways Management Division; by telephone 206-827-4839, or email 
                        <E T="03">SectorPugetSoundWWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone in 33 CFR 165.1319 for the annual Seafair Air Show Performance from 8 a.m. through 4 p.m. each day from July 30, 2026 through August 2, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during this 4-day event. The location of the safety zone for the annual Seafair Air Show Performance is specified in § 165.1319(b), encompassing a portion of Lake Washington, Seattle, Washington. During the enforcement periods as reflected in § 165.1319(c), no person may enter or remain in the zone except support vessels and support personnel, vessels registered with the event organizer, or other vessels authorized by the COTP or their designated representative(s). Vessels and persons granted authorization to enter the safety zone must obey all lawful orders or directions of the COTP or their designated representative(s).</P>
                <P>The COTP may be assisted by other federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notification of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of the enforcement period via marine information broadcast and Local Notice to Mariners.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark A. McDonnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13410 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0813]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Fireworks Display, Monongahela River MM 127-127.5, Fairmont, WV</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for the Monongahela River on July 4, 2026, from mile marker 127 to mile marker 127.5, to provide for the safety of life on the navigable waters during a fireworks display. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Pittsburgh, or a designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on July 4, 2026, from 9 p.m. until 11 p.m.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0813.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact Petty Officer Brett Lanzel, MSU Pittsburgh, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 206-815-6624, email 
                        <E T="03">Brett.J.Lanzel@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from the shore on the Monongahela River near Fairmont, WV. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Pittsburgh has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a half mile of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on June 12, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 9 p.m. until 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters between mile marker 127 to 127.5 on the Monongahela River. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>
                    We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40401"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-0813 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-0813</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Fireworks Display, Monongahela River MM 127-127.5, Fairmont, WV</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters on the Monongahela River between mile marker 127 and mile marker 127.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Pittsburgh (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (412) 670-4288. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. to 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Matthew R. Zanella,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Lieutenant Commander, U.S. Coast Guard, Acting, Captain of the Port, MSU Pittsburgh.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13379 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0746]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Southern California Annual Firework Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zones for the Big Bay Boom Fourth of July Fireworks on the waters of San Diego Bay, CA, on July 4, 2026. The safety zones are necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, spectators, official vessels of the event, and general users of the waterway. During the enforcement period, spectators may not anchor, block, loiter in, or impede the transit of official patrol vessels in the regulated areas without the approval of the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 will be enforced from 8 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026, for the locations described in Item No. 5 in Table 1 to § 165.1123.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions on this rule, email Lieutenant Shelley Delgado, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Diego, CA; email 
                        <E T="03">MarineEventsSD@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 for the Big Bay Boom Fourth of July Fireworks regulated area, for the locations described in Table 1 to § 165.1123, Item No. 5 of that section from 8 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40402"/>
                    2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the fireworks event. Our regulation for Southern California Annual Firework Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone, Item No. 5 in Table 1 to § 165.1123, identifies the regulated areas for the Big Bay Boom Fourth of July Fireworks event which encompasses multiple portions of San Diego Bay. Under the provisions of § 165.1123, a vessel may not enter the regulated area, unless it receives permission from the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative. Spectator vessels may safely transit outside the regulated area but may not anchor, block, loiter, or impede the transit of participants or official patrol vessels. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or Local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notice of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners, marine information broadcasts, and local advertising by the event sponsor.
                </P>
                <P>If the Captain of the Port or his designated representative determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated on this document, he or she may use a Broadcast Notice to Mariners or other communications coordinated with the event sponsor to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>R.C. Tucker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port San Diego.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13442 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0744]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Bay, Long Beach, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters in San Pedro Bay on July 4, 2026. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Los Angeles—Long Beach, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0744.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Kevin Kinsella, Sector Los Angeles—Long Beach Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 310-521-3860, or email 
                        <E T="03">D11-SMB-SectorLALB-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from two barges in San Pedro Bay, offshore of Long Beach, CA. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a 1,000-foot radius of the fireworks barges.</P>
                <P>Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard did not receive final details for this event until June 4, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 4, 2026 from 9 p.m. until 10 p.m. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters in San Pedro Bay within a 1,000-foot radius of two fireworks barges offshore of Long Beach, CA. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40403"/>
                    direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T11-242 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T11-242</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Pedro Bay, Long Beach, CA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of San Pedro Bay from surface to bottom, within a 1,000-foot radius of two fireworks barges, centered at:
                        </P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">A: 33°45′34.8″ N, 118°10′04.1″ W</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">B: 33°45′07.3″ N, 118°08′31.9″ W</FP>
                        <P>These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84)/North American Datum 83 (NAD 83).</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port (COTP) Los Angeles—Long Beach in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (310) 521-3801. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9 p.m. to 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>S.L. Crecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Los Angeles—Long Beach.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13482 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0463]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA87</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Security Zone; Port of Corpus Christi Inner Harbor, Corpus Christi, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is revising the description of a permanent security zone in the Port of Corpus Christi Inner Harbor, 33 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 165.809. The current description references the old Inner Harbor Bridge, which has been removed. A new description of the location of the zone is needed since that landmark is gone. This rulemaking does not change the size nor the location of the security zone, and makes no other changes to the existing regulation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To submit comments and view available documents, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0463.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact Lieutenant Timothy Cardenas, Sector Corpus Christi Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 361-244-4784, or email 
                        <E T="03">Timothy.J.Cardenas@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard previously established a permanent security zone for the Port of Corpus Christi Inner Harbor at 33 CFR 165.809 (67 FR 64044, October 17, 2002). This regulation used the old Corpus Christi Inner Harbor Bridge (U.S. Hwy 181) as a point of reference in the security zone location description. This bridge is currently being dismantled and removed, and has been replaced by a new U.S. Hwy 181 bridge at a location approximately 450 yards west of the original bridge location. Because of this change, the reference to the Inner Harbor Bridge is no longer appropriate as it does not cover the full extent of the Inner Harbor. Therefore, the Coast Guard is revising 33 CFR 165.809 by replacing the reference to the Inner Harbor Bridge with Global Positioning System (GPS) coordinates that are at the approximate position of the old bridge location. The COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70051 and 70124, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the security zone.</P>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is unnecessary. This rule makes a technical change to the description of an existing, permanent security zone, codified at 33 CFR 165.809. This security zone was initially created following issuance of a Notice of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40404"/>
                    Proposed Rulemaking (67 FR 31750, May 10, 2002), and the Coast Guard received and considered public comment when publishing the Final Rule cited in the paragraph above. This rule does not change the size, location, or regulations related to the security zone. It merely replaces a geographical reference—a bridge that has since been demolished—with GPS coordinates that correspond to the bridge's prior location. Therefore, it is not necessary for the Coast Guard to again receive and considered public comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule modifies an existing security zone regulation at 33 CFR 165.809. The text for paragraph (a) of the regulation, 
                    <E T="03">Location,</E>
                     is revised to replace a reference to the Inner Harbor Bridge with GPS coordinates. The new location description states that the security zone includes all waters of the Corpus Christi Inner Harbor from a line across the entrance connecting positions 27°48′47.64″ N, 97°23′41.15″ W and 27°48′42.96″ N, 97°23′44.09″ W, into and including the Viola Turning Basin. This rule also corrects a typographical error in the spelling of the word “authority” in paragraph (c) of the regulatory text. This rule makes no other changes to the existing regulation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a security zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(b) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration is not required because this regulation only makes technical changes, and does not change the size of an existing safety zone.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 165.809 revise paragraphs (a) and (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.809</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security Zone; Port of Corpus Christi Inner Harbor, Corpus Christi, TX.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a security zone: All waters of the Corpus Christi Inner Harbor from a line across the entrance connecting positions 27°48′47.64″ N, 97°23′41.15″ W and 27°48′42.96″ N, 97°23′44.09″ W, into and including the Viola Turning Basin. These coordinates are based on the World Geodetic System (WGS 84).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Authority.</E>
                             In addition to 46 U.S.C. 70034, the authority for this section includes 46 U.S.C. 70116.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>T.H. Bertheau,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Corpus Christi.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13407 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0433]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Kanawha River, Charleston, WV</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Coast Guard has an established annual safety zone on the Kanawha River on July 4th for fireworks displays. Due to the America 250th anniversary celebration, a larger safety zone is required. Therefore, the Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone on the Kanawha River from mile 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40405"/>
                        marker (MM) 57.5-MM 60.5 to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Ohio Valley, or their designated representative.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 9:15 p.m. through 10 p.m., on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0433.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST2 Juan Varisco, Marine Safety Unit Huntington Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 206-827-4197, or email 
                        <E T="03">juanmaria.a.varisco2@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard has an established annual safety zone on the Kanawha River on July 4th for fireworks displays. This safety zone is codified under 33 CFR 165.801, Table 1, line 7. The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from a barge on the Kanawha River near the Capitol Building in Charleston, WV. However, due to the America 250th anniversary celebration, a larger safety zone than normal is required. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Ohio Valley has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within 350 feet of the fireworks display. Potential hazards include accidental discharge of fireworks, dangerous projectiles, and falling hot embers or other debris. Therefore, the Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034 on the Kanawha River from mile marker (MM) 57.5-MM 60.5 to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on May 26, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026 to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 9:15 p.m. through 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters in the Kanawha River within the following mile markers: 57.5 to 60.5. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40406"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-0433 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-0433</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Kanawha River, Charleston, WV.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of the Kanawha River from mile marker 57.5-60.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port, Ohio Valley (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (304) 563-9084. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 9:15 p.m. to 10 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Randy. L. Preston,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Ohio Valley.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13406 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R03-OAR-2025-0205; FRL-11969-02-R3]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Delaware; 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate Matter Limited Maintenance Plan for the Philadelphia Nonattainment Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Delaware through the Delaware Department of Natural Resources and Environmental Control (DNREC). The revision pertains to the second 10-year limited maintenance plan (LMP) for the 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
                        <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                        ) national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS). The LMP addresses the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington, PA-NJ-DE Area. The EPA is approving the LMP because it provides for the maintenance of the 2006 24-hour PM
                        <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS through the end of the second 10-year maintenance period. In addition, the EPA is finalizing the process to find the LMP adequate for transportation conformity purposes. The EPA is approving this revision to the Delaware SIP in accordance with the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2025-0205. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         confidential business information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                        , or please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section for additional availability information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sarah McCabe, Planning &amp; Implementation Branch (3AD30), Air &amp; Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1600 John F Kennedy Boulevard, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19103. The telephone number is (215) 814-5786. Ms. McCabe can also be reached via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">mccabe.sarah@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 13, 2009 (74 FR 58688), the EPA designated the Philadelphia area as nonattainment for the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     74 FR 58775 (November 13, 2009) and 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 81.308. New Castle County, Delaware was included in the Philadelphia nonattainment area.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         On October 17, 2006 (71 FR 61144), the EPA lowered the level of the 24-hour PM
                        <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS to 35 µg/m
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         based on a 3-year average of the annual 98th percentile values of 24-hour concentrations.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 12, 2012, the State of Delaware submitted to the EPA a redesignation request and maintenance plan for the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia Area. The EPA redesignated the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and approved the maintenance plan for the first 10-year maintenance period into the Delaware SIP.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         79 FR 45350 (August 5, 2014).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 15, 2024, DNREC, on behalf of the State of Delaware, submitted an LMP to fulfill the second 10-year planning requirement of CAA section 175A(b) to ensure 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS compliance for the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia Area through 2034. On November 20, 2025 (90 FR 52290), the EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) for the State of Delaware, proposing approval of the LMP because the State made a showing, consistent with the EPA's Guidance on the Limited Maintenance Plan Option for Moderate PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     Nonattainment Areas and PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     Maintenance Areas (PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance), that the area's PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     concentrations are well below the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, have been historically stable, and that it has met all other maintenance plan requirements.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The guidance document titled “Guidance on the Limited Maintenance Plan Option for Moderate PM
                        <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                         Nonattainment Areas and PM
                        <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                         Maintenance Areas” can be found at 
                        <E T="03">nepis.epa.gov/Exe/ZyPDF.cgi?Dockey=P1015UL4.pdf.</E>
                         A copy of the guidance is in the docket for the rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, in the November 20, 2025 action, the EPA initiated the adequacy process and proposed that the LMP demonstrated that it is unreasonable to expect that this area would experience enough motor vehicle emissions growth for a violation of the NAAQS to occur, per the EPA's transportation conformity regulations.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The adequacy process is set forth in the transportation conformity regulation at 40 CFR 93.118(f).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See 40 CFR 93.109(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA is approving the plan because it meets all applicable requirements under CAA sections 110 and 175A. As a general matter, the LMP relies on the same control measures and contingency provisions to maintain the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS during the second 10-year portion of the maintenance period as the maintenance 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40407"/>
                    plan submitted by DNREC for the first 10-year period.
                </P>
                <P>Further explanation of the CAA requirements, a detailed analysis of the revision, and the EPA's reasons for proposing approval were provided in the NPRM (90 FR 52290). The November 20, 2025 NPRM also includes additional detail about the adequacy process and the EPA's assessment of the adequacy of Delaware's submission. A summary of the comments received, as well as the EPA's responses, are in section II of this preamble.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The EPA's Response to Comments Received</HD>
                <P>The EPA's November 20, 2025 NPRM (90 FR 52290) opened a public comment period, which closed on December 22, 2025. The EPA received comments from one commenter. All comments received have been placed in the docket for this action.</P>
                <P>A summary of the relevant comments and the EPA's response thereto are listed below.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 1:</E>
                     The commenter asks the EPA to include the PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance in the docket and explain how CAA section 175A is satisfied under the guidance. Additionally, the commenter requests that if the guidance is being used as a binding norm, the EPA should consider a notice-and-comment rulemaking as treating guidance as binding could bypass the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 1:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with this comment. The PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance was included in the docket at the time of NPRM publication. Additionally, section 175A of the CAA defines the general framework of a maintenance plan. The LMP is a tool that allows certain nonattainment and maintenance areas to provide for maintenance under CAA section 175A based on an analysis of current and historical air quality data, rather than modeling or emissions projections. Moderate PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     nonattainment areas or existing PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     maintenance areas meeting the criteria in the PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance may demonstrate maintenance for purposes of CAA section 175A using the method described in the PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance and the NPRM for this rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Importantly, the PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance as binding nor bypassing APA requirements. To the extent that it builds upon previous EPA guidance, such guidance does not impose legally binding requirements either.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 2:</E>
                     The commenter urges the EPA to ensure transparency and public accessibility when incorporating by reference. They stress compliance with 1 CFR part 51 by identifying the LMP documents by title, date, and version, and making them freely available to the public.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 2:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenter's assertion that it did not comply with 1 CFR part 51. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, all the requested documentation was provided at the time of proposal. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     docket ID EPA-R03-OAR-2025-0205. Through this rule, the EPA is amending 40 CFR 52.420(e) by adding the entry “2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     Standard Second Maintenance Plan for the Delaware Portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington, PA-NJ-DE Area” to the table. It simply adds the LMP to 40 CFR 52.420(e), 
                    <E T="03">EPA-approved non-regulatory and quasi-regulatory material.</E>
                     The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region III Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of the preamble for more information).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 3:</E>
                     The commenter claimed that the EPA did not comply with multiple statutory requirements and Executive Order 12866. First, the commenter claims that the EPA did not comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) as the Limited Maintenance Plan commits the State to requirements for periodic verification of continued attainment, reporting of ambient monitoring data, and the submission of emissions inventories. The commenter states that once approved into the SIP, these are federally enforceable duties to submit information to a Federal agency. The commenter argues that as a result, the EPA must explain why this action is exempt from the PRA or identify an approved Information Collection Request or take steps to obtain one. Second, the commenter claims that the EPA did not comply with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA), as the EPA's conclusory statement that the action does not impose Federal mandates is inadequate. The commenter indicates that the LMP and its contingency measures can impose federally mandated duties on the state, which by extension may lead to impacts on local jurisdictions. The commenter references potential costs associated with implementing contingency measures. Third, the commenter claims that the EPA did not comply with the Regulatory Flexibility Act/Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (RFA/SBREFA), as it does not explain why the LMP does not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. Specifically, the commenter indicates that the LMP's contingency measures, once federally approved, may trigger the adoption and implementation of measures by small governmental jurisdictions. It states that the EPA should either provide an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis or provide a reasoned, evidence-based certification. Lastly, the commenter claims that the EPA did not comply with Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 as it appears to treat the action as not significant, and thus not subject to OMB review, but due to the multi-state metropolitan area covered by the LMP, OMB review would aid interagency coordination and transparency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 3:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenter with respect to its compliance with each statute and E.O. 12866. Regarding the PRA, it does not apply to this action. The PRA generally provides that every Federal agency must obtain OMB approval before using identical questions to collect information from 10 or more persons. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     44 United States Code (U.S.C.) 3502(3); 3507. The EPA is not conducting nor sponsoring the collection of information from 10 or more persons. The EPA is merely approving Delaware's Limited Maintenance Plan to ensure continued compliance with the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. It is approving State choices as meeting the Clean Air Act. The approval of the LMP does not impose any additional regulatory requirements, beyond those required by State law. The EPA has complied with the PRA by certifying in the rule that the PRA does not apply because this action does not involve an information collection burden as defined by the Act.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See 44 U.S.C. 3502(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With regard to the UMRA, the EPA disagrees with the commenter. As stated above, it merely approves Delaware's LMP and thus Delaware's choices as meeting Clean Air Act requirements. This action does not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those required by State law. In the context of the UMRA, it therefore does not impose any Federal mandate on Delaware as that term is defined in the Act. 2 U.S.C. 1555 (“Notwithstanding section 1502 of this title, for purposes of this subchapter [2 U.S.C. 1551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ] the term “Federal mandate” means any provision in statute or regulation or any Federal court ruling that imposes an enforceable duty upon State, local, or Tribal governments including a condition of Federal assistance or a duty arising from participation in a voluntary Federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40408"/>
                    program.”). Accordingly, the EPA has complied with the UMRA by making its own determination that this rule will not result in expenditures of $100M or more in any one year by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, and therefore the Agency does not need to complete a statement under 2 U.S.C. 1532.
                </P>
                <P>Specific to the RFA and SBREFA, the EPA disagrees with the commenter. These statutes are inapplicable to this rule because the EPA has certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The regulatory analysis provisions of the RFA are only triggered by a threshold determination by the Agency that this rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The EPA has considered the approval of the LMP in the context of the RFA and SBREFA. As previously noted, this action merely approves Delaware's LMP and thus Delaware's choices as meeting Clean Air Act requirements. This action does not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those required by State law. The EPA's approval of the LMP does not establish any new regulatory requirement for any entity. Accordingly, as the EPA has certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, sections 603 and 604 of the RFA do not apply to this rule. 5 U.S.C. 605(b).</P>
                <P>Lastly, the EPA disagrees with the commenter's assertions regarding Executive Order 12866. The EPA has complied with Executive Order 12866 by determining that this rule is not a significant regulatory action. Again, the EPA is approving Delaware's LMP and as a result Delaware's choices as meeting Clean Air Act requirements. This action does not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those required by State law. Accordingly, the EPA has determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined in E.O. 12866. The EPA did not consult with the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) as it is not required for this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the CAA and for the reasons set forth in the NPRM, the EPA is finalizing approval of Delaware's second 10-year LMP for the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia area for the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. The EPA's review of the air quality data for the area indicates that it continues to show attainment well below the level of the 2006 PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and meet all the LMP qualifying criteria set forth in the PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP Guidance, consistent with CAA section 175A. The EPA finds the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     LMP for the New Castle County portion of the Philadelphia area to be sufficient to provide for maintenance of the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS in its respective area over the second 10-year maintenance period, through 2034, and thereby satisfy the requirements for such a plan under CAA section 175A(b). The EPA finds the LMP adequate for transportation conformity purposes because it demonstrates that it would be unreasonable to expect that the area would experience enough motor vehicle emissions growth for a PM
                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS violation to occur, as required by 40 CFR 93.109(e). The EPA is approving this second maintenance plan as a revision to the Delaware SIP.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve State choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves State law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 31, 2026. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy Van Blarcom-Lackey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region III.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the EPA amends 40 CFR part 52 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40409"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Delaware</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        2. In § 52.420, the table in paragraph (e) is amended by adding an entry “2006 24-hour PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         Standard Second Maintenance Plan for the Delaware Portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington, PA-NJ-DE Area” at the end of the table to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.420</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r15,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Name of
                                    <LI>non-regulatory</LI>
                                    <LI>SIP revision</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Applicable
                                    <LI>geographic</LI>
                                    <LI>area</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>submittal</LI>
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    EPA
                                    <LI>approval</LI>
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Additional
                                    <LI>explanation</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *         </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    2006 24-hour PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     Standard Second Maintenance Plan for the Delaware Portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington, PA-NJ-DE Area
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>New Castle County</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/15/24</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/26, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>2nd maintenance plan (limited maintenance plan).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13396 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R06-OAR-2024-0031; FRL-12970-02-R6]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Oklahoma; Updates to the State Implementation Plan for New Source Review Permitting and General SIP Provisions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving identified portions of revisions to the Oklahoma State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Oklahoma designee between 2002 and 2025 to update the Oklahoma New Source Review (NSR) permit program and make general updates to the Oklahoma SIP.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2024-0031. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Confidential Business Information or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet. Publicly available docket materials are available electronically through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Adina Wiley; EPA Region 6 Office; Air Permits Section (ARPE); telephone number: (214) 665-2115; email address: 
                        <E T="03">wiley.adina@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” means the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The background for this action is discussed in detail in our November 17, 2025, proposal (90 FR 51247). In that document we proposed approving identified portions of revisions to the Oklahoma SIP submitted by the State of Oklahoma designee between 2002 and 2025 to update the Oklahoma NSR permit program and make general updates to the Oklahoma SIP. We received comments on our proposal. Our responses to the comments follow.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that the EPA withdraw any final action until it either (a) prepares and dockets an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) for this action or (b) supplements the record with a reasoned factual basis supporting a certification under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that the action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, including data specific to Oklahoma NSR applicability and permitting costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with this comment. The regulatory analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) are only triggered by a threshold determination by the Agency that this rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action merely approves Oklahoma's choices for implementing the air permitting requirements of the Clean Air Act and does not impose any additional requirements beyond those required by State law. Because the Agency has certified this rule will not have a significant economic impact, sections 603 and 604 of the RFA do not apply to this rulemaking. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 605(b). No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that the EPA prepare and docket an Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) statement or, at a minimum, a non-conclusory analysis explaining why this action does not impose a “Federal private sector mandate” or meet the expenditure threshold and why UMRA section 202 does not apply, given that EPA's approval renders the NSR requirements federally enforceable on private parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees that this action triggers any obligation to prepare and docket an UMRA statement. The UMRA requirements are triggered if the direct cost of all Federal private sector mandates will exceed $100 million annually. This action merely approves the State of Oklahoma's choices of revisions as meeting Clean Air Act requirements. This action does not impose any Federal private sector mandate on Oklahoma as that term is defined in 2 U.S.C. 658.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that EPA identify the applicable Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number(s) for any information collection requirements (ICR) implicated by the approved NSR program (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permit applications, monitoring, recordkeeping, reporting, public notice submissions), and explain whether the SIP revisions increase or otherwise alter the burden under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). If the burden changes, submit the necessary ICR revision to OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The PRA generally provides that every Federal agency must obtain OMB approval before using identical questions to collect information from 10 or more persons. See 44 U.S.C. 3502(2); 3507. The EPA is not conducting nor sponsoring the collection of information from 10 or more persons. The EPA approves the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40410"/>
                    revisions to the Oklahoma permitting programs and general SIP updates, thereby approving State choices as meeting the Clean Air Act. The EPA has complied with the PRA by certifying that the PRA does not apply to this action. This approval does not impose any additional requirements beyond those required by State law. No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that EPA confirm it is not invoking the Administrative Procedure Act's good cause exceptions to shorten the effective date or bypass ordinary notice-and-comment, or else provide a specific, record-supported good cause showing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA's November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), proposed rulemaking included a 30-day public comment period which closed on December 17, 2025. In this action, we are finalizing our November 17, 2025, proposed rulemaking. The EPA did not invoke or rely on the good cause exceptions at Administrative Procedure Act Section 553(b). No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that the EPA provide a side-by-side of the SIP-approved NSR text and the proposed replacement, with a plain-language explanation of practical impacts on applicability, exemptions, monitoring/recordkeeping, and public notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section II of the November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247 at 51249), preamble states “the accompanying Technical Support Document for this action includes a detailed analysis of the submitted revisions to the Oklahoma SIP which are the subject of this proposed rulemaking.” The November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), proposed rulemaking included instructions on how to access the rulemaking docket on 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     The rulemaking docket includes our Technical Support Document, which provides a side-by-side comparison of the existing SIP requirements and the proposed revisions, the EPA's evaluation of each proposed revision and the EPA's justification for approval. The Technical Support Document was available in the rulemaking docket for the entirety of the 30-day public comment period. No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requests that the EPA extend the comment period at least 30 days after the EPA dockets the supplemental RFA/UMRA/PRA materials.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA published a proposed rule on November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     proposing action on Oklahoma's SIP submissions. This proposed rulemaking included significant detail in the preamble regarding the nature of the proposed action and the EPA's basis for approving the Oklahoma submissions under the Clean Air Act. The proposed rulemaking provided a 30-day comment period for the public to submit data, views, or arguments regarding the EPA's proposed action. As demonstrated by the responses to comments in this document, the EPA has considered all relevant comments received on its proposal. The EPA has no obligation to extend the comment period because no supplemental materials have been added to the docket. No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     During a discussion on December 5, 2025, the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality (ODEQ) provided the following requests for clarification and typographical errors for the EPA's consideration: 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The EPA has docketed the Record of Communication of the December 5, 2025, discussion with ODEQ in our rulemaking docket, EPA-R06-OAR-2024-0031, accessible on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>1. The discussion at 90 FR 51249 providing the general overview of the Oklahoma tiering system could be misinterpreted to indicate that all Tier I applications require web public notice (90 FR 51247, November 17, 2025). The Tier I web notice only applies to specific air quality permit applications as indicated elsewhere in the preamble rather than broadly to all Tier I applications.</P>
                <P>2. There is a typographical error in the submittal date for the reasonable possibility in recordkeeping rulemaking. See 90 FR 51247 at 90 FR 51250, “On January 24, 2023, Oklahoma submitted revisions to OAC 252:100-8-36.2 adopted on June 21, 2002, effective September 15, 2022.” (emphasis added)</P>
                <P>3. The overview description of the general permitting program at 90 FR 51249, incorrectly states that general permits apply to facilities between 40 TPY and 100 TPY in an industry group for which a general permit has been issued (90 FR 51247, November 17, 2025). The ODEQ clarified that the general permit does not have a lower TPY limit.</P>
                <P>4. The ODEQ requests that the EPA update the description of permit exempt overview at 90 FR 51255 to more closely reflect the rule language and avoid any misinterpretation (90 FR 51247, November 17, 2025). Suggested edits would be:</P>
                <P>
                    A permit exempt facility cannot be subject to any major source permitting requirement under OAC 252:100-8, 
                    <E T="03">any work practice standard, equipment standard, or emission standard under either (a)</E>
                     New Source Performance Standards in 40 CFR part 60, or 
                    <E T="03">(b)</E>
                     National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants at 40 CFR part 63.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA appreciates the clarifications and typographical corrections to the November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), proposed rulemaking identified by the ODEQ. We agree that each clarification and typographical correction of the proposed rulemaking preamble is appropriate and instruct the public to read the November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), preamble with these clarifications and corrections. No changes have been made to this final rule because of these comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The Quapaw Nation requested clarification on how the EPA expects the State of Oklahoma to implement the SIP in certain areas of Indian Country pursuant to the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act of 2005 (“SAFETEA”). Specifically, the Quapaw Nation requested clarification on the EPA's expectations for the State with respect to engaging the Quapaw Nation on issues that may affect the Nation's members or resources.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As explained in section III. Impact on Areas of Indian Country in the November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), proposed rulemaking and again in this final action, on May 12, 2025, the EPA approved the State of Oklahoma's request under section 10211(a) of SAFETEA to administer all of the State's EPA-approved environmental regulatory programs—including the State's SIP—in certain areas of Indian country. This means the ODEQ will implement the SIP-approved requirements for the Indian country lands included in the SAFETEA approval that are located within the Quapaw Nation reservation. Neither the May 12, 2025, SAFETEA decision, nor the approval of the State's SIP under the CAA, requires the State to engage with affected Tribes. However, although not required by the EPA's approvals, consistent with longstanding Agency policy, the EPA encourages Tribes and States to coordinate on environmental matters of mutual concern and believes such coordination may be particularly useful in this case, where the State is administering a program in Indian country. Thus, the EPA encourages the Quapaw Nation and other interested Tribes to coordinate 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40411"/>
                    with the State on issues relating to implementation of the SIP. The Nation specifically raised permitting as an example where State/Tribal engagement would be useful. The EPA notes that because the Nation has CAA Treatment as a State (TAS) approval under sections 126 and 505(a)(2) of the CAA, the State is required to comply with affected State status notifications to neighboring States, which includes the Nation. No changes have been made to our final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The Quapaw Nation does not support, and requests that the EPA disapprove, the expansion of the “permit exempt facility” categories for minor new source review permitting under OAC 252:100-7-1.1 and OAC 252:100-7-2. The Quapaw Nation states that Oklahoma should “be imposing more stringent permitting requirements rather than expanding exemptions, even for minor contributors to air pollution.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenter. As stated in the November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247), proposed rulemaking, “State agencies have discretion to determine the scope of the State's minor NSR program, provided that the program continues to satisfy the requirements of 40 CFR 51.160-51.164.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     90 FR 51247 at 90 FR 51255. The EPA provided our evaluation of the Oklahoma permit exempt program, including the technical justification provided by the ODEQ regarding the impact of the permit exempt program on air quality. No changes have been made to our final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The Quapaw Nation does not support, and requests that the EPA disapprove, the revisions to OAC 252:100, Subchapters 7 and 8 that would allow permit applicants to begin construction prior to receiving the construction permit. The Quapaw Nation expressed concern “that allowing a project to move forward up to this stage of construction, after significant resources are expended but before a requisite permit is granted, could create unnecessary pressure on the permit decision-makers that would not otherwise be present.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA appreciates the concern presented by the commenter but disagrees that the provisions for allowing construction prior to permit issuance will create unnecessary pressure on the permit decision-makers. The November 17, 2025 (90 FR 51247 at 90 FR 51254 through 51255), proposed rulemaking provides our analysis of the provisions for construction prior to minor NSR permit issuance and demonstrates consistency with the requirements of the CAA and the EPA's regulations. The SIP-approved language at OAC 252:100-7-2(b)(5) and OAC 252:100-8-4(a)(1)(D) expressly provides that the Oklahoma DEQ retains the authority to deny the permit application without consideration of and regardless of any investment made by the permit applicant prior to permit issuance. No changes have been made to the final rule because of this comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Impact on Areas of Indian Country</HD>
                <P>
                    Following the U.S. Supreme Court decision in 
                    <E T="03">McGirt</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Oklahoma,</E>
                     140 S. Ct. 2452 (2020), the Governor of the State of Oklahoma requested approval under section 10211(a) of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act of 2005: A Legacy for Users, Public Law 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1937 (August 10, 2005) (“SAFETEA”), to administer in certain areas of Indian country (as defined at 18 U.S.C. 1151) the State's environmental regulatory programs that were previously approved by the EPA outside of Indian country. The State's request excluded certain areas of Indian country further described below. In addition, the State only sought approval to the extent that such approval was necessary for the State to administer a program in light of 
                    <E T="03">Oklahoma Dept. of Environmental Quality</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     740 F.3d 185 (D.C. Cir. 2014).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         In 
                        <E T="03">ODEQ</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         the D.C. Circuit held that under the CAA, States have the authority to implement a SIP in non-reservation areas of Indian country in the State, unless there has been a demonstration of Tribal jurisdiction. Under the D.C. Circuit's decision, the CAA does not provide authority to States to implement SIPs in Indian reservations.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The EPA has approved Oklahoma's SAFETEA request to administer all of the State's EPA-approved environmental regulatory programs in the requested areas of Indian country. As requested by Oklahoma, the EPA's approval under SAFETEA does not include Indian country lands, including rights-of-way running through the same, that: (1) qualify as Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, under 18 U.S.C. 1151(c); (2) are held in trust by the United States on behalf of an individual Indian or Tribe; or (3) are owned in fee by a Tribe, if the Tribe (a) acquired that fee title to such land, or an area that included such land, in accordance with a treaty with the United States to which such Tribe was a party, and (b) never allotted the land to a member or citizen of the Tribe (collectively “excluded Indian country lands”).</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA's approval under SAFETEA expressly provided that to the extent the EPA's prior approvals of Oklahoma's environmental programs excluded Indian country, any such exclusions are superseded for the geographic areas of Indian country covered by the EPA's approval of Oklahoma's SAFETEA request.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The approval also provided that future revisions or amendments to Oklahoma's approved environmental regulatory programs would extend to the covered areas of Indian country (without any further need for additional requests under SAFETEA).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The EPA's prior approvals relating to Oklahoma's SIP frequently noted that the SIP was not approved to apply in areas of Indian country (except as explained in the D.C. Circuit's decision in 
                        <E T="03">ODEQ</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA</E>
                        ) located in the State. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         85 FR 20178 at 85 FR 20180 (April 10, 2020). Such prior expressed limitations are superseded by the EPA's approval of Oklahoma's SAFETEA request.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As explained above, the EPA is approving revisions to the Oklahoma air permitting program which will apply statewide in Oklahoma. Consistent with the D.C. Circuit's decision in 
                    <E T="03">ODEQ</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA</E>
                     and with the EPA's SAFETEA approval, these SIP revisions will apply to areas of Indian country as follows: (1) pursuant to the SAFETEA approval, the SIP revisions will apply to all Indian country in the State of Oklahoma other than the excluded Indian country lands as described above; and (2) pursuant to the D.C. Circuit's decision in 
                    <E T="03">ODEQ</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     the SIP revisions will also apply to any Indian allotments or dependent Indian communities that are located outside of any Indian reservation over which there has been no demonstration of Tribal authority.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Final Action</HD>
                <P>We are approving under section 110 of the CAA, revisions to the Oklahoma SIP that update the Oklahoma NSR programs to maintain consistency with Federal requirements and revise the incorporation by reference dates for Federal requirements. We have determined that the following revisions were developed in accordance with the CAA and the EPA's regulations, policy, and guidance for SIP development and NSR permitting. The EPA approves the following as revisions to the Oklahoma SIP:</P>
                <P>• Removal of Regulations 1.4.1(a)-(c) and 1.4.2(a)-(d), (f), and (g) adopted on March 30, 1994, submitted May 16, 1994.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:4-7-13, Notices, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>
                    • Revisions to OAC 252:100-4-7-32, Air quality applications—Tier I, adopted on March 25, 2003, effective 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40412"/>
                    June 1, 2003, and submitted to the EPA on May 24, 2018.
                </P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-4-7-32, Air quality applications—Tier I, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-4-7-33, Air quality applications—Tier II, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Repeal of OAC 252:4, Appendix C—Permitting Process Summary, adopted on June 11, 2001.</P>
                <P>• New OAC 252:4, Appendix C—Permitting Process Summary, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-1-2, Statutory definitions, adopted on June 25, 2020, effective September 15, 2020, and submitted to the EPA on February 9, 2021.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-1-3, Definitions, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-1-3, Definitions, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-1-4, Units, abbreviations and acronyms, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-2-3, Incorporation by reference, adopted on May 31, 2023, effective September 15, 2023, and submitted to the EPA on January 16, 2024.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-2-3, Incorporation by reference, adopted on June 21, 2024, effective September 16, 2024, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Repeal of OAC 252:100, Appendix Q—Incorporation by reference, adopted on September 15, 2022.</P>
                <P>• New OAC 252:100, Appendix Q—Incorporation by reference, adopted on June 21, 2024, effective September 16, 2024, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-5-1.1, Definitions, adopted on May 1, 2009, effective July 1, 2009, and submitted to the EPA on July 27, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on May 1, 2003, effective June 12, 2003, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on April 28, 2004, effective June 11, 2004, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on March 27, 2007, effective June 15, 2007, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on June 9, 2016, effective September 15, 2016, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on June 18, 2018, effective September 15, 2018, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-1.1, Definitions, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on April 28, 2004, effective June 11, 2004, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on March 27, 2008, effective July 1, 2008, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on June 9, 2016, effective September 15, 2016, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on June 18, 2018, effective September 15, 2018, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-2, Requirement for permits for minor facilities, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on March 28, 2002, effective June 1, 2002, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on April 28, 2004, effective June 11, 2004, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on March 27, 2008, effective July 1, 2008, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on May 1, 2012, effective July 1, 2012, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-15, Construction permit, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-18, Operating permit, adopted on April 28, 2004, effective June 11, 2004, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-18, Operating permit, adopted on March 27, 2008, effective July 1, 2008, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-18, Operating permit, adopted on May 1, 2012, effective July 1, 2012, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-18, Operating permit, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-60, Permit by rule, adopted on June 19, 2024, effective September 12, 2014, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-60.6, Emergency engine facilities, adopted on June 9, 2016, effective September 15, 2016, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-7-60.7, Gasoline dispensing facilities and gasoline dispensing facilities with emergency engines, adopted on June 18, 2018, effective September 15, 2018, and submitted to the EPA on September 9, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-1.1, Definitions, adopted on March 27, 2008, effective July 1, 2008, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on March 25, 2003, effective June 1, 2003, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective on June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>
                    • Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on April 28, 2006, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40413"/>
                    effective June 15, 2006, and submitted to the EPA on July 16, 2010.
                </P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on March 24, 2009, effective on July 1, 2009, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on May 3, 2011, effective on July 1, 2011, and submitted to the EPA on February 6, 2012.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on March 29, 2012, effective on July 1, 2012, and submitted to the EPA on January 18, 2013.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on June 13, 2017, effective September 15, 2017, and submitted to the EPA on January 8, 2018.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-2, Definitions, adopted on March 1, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-4, Requirements for construction and operating permits, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-4, Requirements for construction and operating permits, adopted on March 24, 2009, effective July 1, 2009, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-4, Requirements for construction and operating permits, adopted on March 29, 2012, effective July 1, 2012, and submitted to the EPA on January 18, 2013.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-4, Requirements for construction and operating permits, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-4, Requirements for construction and operating permits, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-5, Permit applications, adopted on March 25, 2003, effective June 1, 2003, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-5, Permit applications, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-6, Permit content, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-6.1, General permits, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-7, Permit issuance, adopted on March 30, 2005, effective June 15, 2005, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-7.2, Administrative permit amendments and permit modifications, adopted on March 25, 2003, effective June 1, 2003, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-7.2, Administrative permit amendments and permit modifications, adopted on June 15, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-8, Permit review by EPA and affected states, adopted on March 28, 2002, effective June 1, 2002, and submitted to the EPA on June 24, 2010.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-8, Permit review by EPA and affected states, adopted on June 11, 2021, effective September 15, 2021, and submitted to the EPA on September 13, 2022.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-36.1, Public participation, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on January 24, 2023.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-8-36.2, Source obligation, adopted on June 21, 2022, effective September 15, 2022, and submitted to the EPA on January 24, 2023.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-23-3(a), Applicability, general requirements, adopted on June 21, 2024, effective September 16, 2024, and submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Revisions to OAC 252:100-35-1, Purpose, adopted on June 21, 2024, effective September 16, 2024, submitted to the EPA on May 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>• Definitions of “Air contaminants,” “Air pollution,” “Council,” “Director,” and “Person” at 27A Oklahoma Statutes (O.S.) 2-5-104.</P>
                <P>• Definitions of “Department,” “Executive Director,” and “Person” at 27A 2-1-102.</P>
                <P>The EPA finds that the provisions in OAC 252:4-7-1, 4-7-2, 4-7-3, 4-7-4, 4-7-5, 4-7-6, 4-7-7, 4-7-8, 4-7-9, 4-7-10, 4-7-11, 4-7-12, 4-7-13, 4-7-14, 4-7-15, 4-7-16, 4-7-17, 4-7-18, 4-7-19, and 4-7-31 are applicable to the entirety of the Oklahoma air permit program and the amendatory language table at 40 CFR 52.1920(c) will be modified to reflect this finding and remove the comments from the Explanation column.</P>
                <P>The EPA is removing OAC 252:100-5-2.2 from the Oklahoma SIP at 40 CFR 52.1920(c) because the CAA section 110(a)(2)(L) fee requirement has been superseded by the approved Oklahoma part 70 program.</P>
                <P>The EPA is removing definitions of “affected source,” “affected unit,” paragraph (E) of “applicable requirement,” “designated representative,” “responsible official,” “small unit,” and “unit” from OAC 252:100-8-2, OAC 252:100-8-4(b)(9), OAC 252:100-8-6(a)(5), and OAC 252:100-8-6.3 from the Oklahoma SIP at 40 CFR 52.1920(c) because these provisions pertain solely to Acid Rain program requirements that are implemented through the approved Oklahoma part 70 program.</P>
                <P>The EPA is updating the amendatory language table at 40 CFR 52.1920(c) to correct the citation for OAC 252:100-7-60.1, Cotton gins, and correct the State effective dates for OAC 252:100-5-1, OAC 252:100-8-1, OAC 252:100-8-1.2, OAC 252:100-8-1.3, OAC 252:100-8-1.4, OAC 252:100-8-1.5, OAC 252:100-8-3, OAC 252:100-8-6.2, OAC 252:100-8-7.3, OAC 252:100-8-7.4, OAC 252:100-8-7.5, OAC 252:100-8-30, OAC 252:100-8-37, OAC 252:100-8-38, OAC 252:100-8-50, OAC 252:100-8-53, OAC 252:100-8-54.1, OAC 252:100-8-55, OAC 252:100-8-56.</P>
                <P>The EPA is also taking ministerial action to correct an error in our final rule published on January 26, 2026 (91 FR 3046), effective February 25, 2026. In this rule, the EPA finalized our approval of all the revisions to the Open Burning provisions OAC 252:100-13 submitted on November 22, 2024. We inadvertently excluded inclusion of OAC 252:100-13-8.1 from the amendatory instructions for 40 CFR 52.1920(c). We are correcting this omission in this final approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of revisions to the Oklahoma regulations for air permitting as described in section IV of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     a (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information). Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final action of EPA's approval, and will be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40414"/>
                    incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve State choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves State law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>This approval of revisions to the Oklahoma SIP that that update the Oklahoma regulations for air permitting will apply to certain areas of Indian country throughout Oklahoma as discussed in the preamble, and therefore has Tribal implications as specified in E.O. 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). However, this action will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized Tribal governments, nor preempt Tribal law. This action will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized Tribal governments because no actions will be required of Tribal governments. This action will also not preempt Tribal law as no Oklahoma Tribe implements a regulatory program under the CAA, and thus does not have applicable or related Tribal laws. Consistent with the EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes (December 7, 2023), the EPA offered consultation to Tribal governments that may be affected by this action and provided information about this action. The EPA received no requests for Tribal consultation on the proposed rule.</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 31, 2026. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See CAA section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Walter Mason,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 6.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends 40 CFR part 52 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart LL—Oklahoma</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.1920:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (c), revise and republish the table titled, “EPA Approved Oklahoma Regulations”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (e), amend the second table titled “EPA Approved Statutes in the Oklahoma SIP” by adding the entries for “27A O.S. 2-1-102” and “27A O.S. 2-5-104” in numerical order.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.1920</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="xs80,r50,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>EPA Approved Oklahoma Regulations</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">State citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State effective
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">OKLAHOMA ADMINISTRATIVE CODE, TITLE 252. DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">CHAPTER 4 (OAC 252:4). RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 1. General Provisions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose and authority</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Organization</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Office location and hours; communications</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Availability of a record</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="40415"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Administrative fees</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2005</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Fee credits for regulatory fees</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Board and councils</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-1-9</ENT>
                                <ENT>Severability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 3. Meetings and Public Forums</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-3-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Meetings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-3-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Public forums</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 5. Rulemaking</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Adoption and revocation</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rule development</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petitions for rulemaking</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Notice of permanent rulemaking</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rulemaking hearings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Council actions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Presentation to Board</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Board actions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-5-9</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rulemaking record</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 7. Environmental Permit Process</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. THE PROCESS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Authority</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Preamble</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Compliance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Filing an application</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Fees and fee refunds</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2017</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Receipt of applications</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Administrative completeness review</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Technical review</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-9</ENT>
                                <ENT>When review times stop</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-10</ENT>
                                <ENT>Supplemental time</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-11</ENT>
                                <ENT>Extensions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="40416"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-12</ENT>
                                <ENT>Failure to meet deadline</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-13</ENT>
                                <ENT>Notices</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-14</ENT>
                                <ENT>Withdrawing applications</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit issuance or denial</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-16</ENT>
                                <ENT>Tier II and III modifications</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-17</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit decision-making authority</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-18</ENT>
                                <ENT>Pre-issuance permit review and correction</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-19</ENT>
                                <ENT>Consolidation of permitting process</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-20</ENT>
                                <ENT>Agency review of final permit decisions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. AIR QUALITY DIVISION TIERS AND TIME LINES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-31</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air quality time lines</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-32</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air quality applications—Tier I</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-33</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air quality applications—Tier II</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-7-34</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air quality applications—Tier III</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 9. Administrative Proceedings</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. ENFORCEMENT</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Notice of Violation (“NOV”)</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Administrative compliance orders</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Determining penalty</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Assessment orders</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Considerations for self-reporting of noncompliance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. INDIVIDUAL PROCEEDINGS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-31</ENT>
                                <ENT>Individual proceedings filed by DEQ</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-32</ENT>
                                <ENT>Individual proceedings filed by others</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-33</ENT>
                                <ENT>Scheduling and notice of hearings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="40417"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-34</ENT>
                                <ENT>Administrative Law Judges and Clerks</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-35</ENT>
                                <ENT>Service</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-36</ENT>
                                <ENT>Responsive pleading</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-37</ENT>
                                <ENT>Prehearing conferences</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-38</ENT>
                                <ENT>Discovery</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-39</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subpoenas</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-40</ENT>
                                <ENT>Record</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-41</ENT>
                                <ENT>Motions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-42</ENT>
                                <ENT>Continuances</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-43</ENT>
                                <ENT>Summary judgment</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-44</ENT>
                                <ENT>Default</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-45</ENT>
                                <ENT>Withdrawal and dismissal</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-46</ENT>
                                <ENT>Orders in administrative hearings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 5. AIR QUALITY ADVISORY COUNCIL HEARINGS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-51</ENT>
                                <ENT>In general</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2004</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-52</ENT>
                                <ENT>Individual proceedings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2004</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-53</ENT>
                                <ENT>Variance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-9-54</ENT>
                                <ENT>State implementation plan hearings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: in the first sentence, the phrase “under 252:100-11” and the last sentence which begins with “Additional requirements for a SIP hearing * * *.”</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 17. Electronic Reporting</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose, authority and applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Use of electronic document receiving system</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Electronic signature agreement</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Valid electronic signature</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Effect of electronic signature</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4-17-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Enforcement</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Appendices for OAC 252: Chapter 4</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4, Appendix A</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petition for Rulemaking Before the Environmental Quality Board</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4, Appendix B</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petition for Declaratory Ruling</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:4, Appendix C</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permitting Process Summary</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:4, Appendix D</ENT>
                                <ENT>Style of the Case in an Individual Proceeding</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">CHAPTER 100 (OAC 252:100). AIR POLLUTION CONTROL</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 1. General Provisions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-1-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/12/2003</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-1-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Statutory definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-1-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-1-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Units, abbreviations and acronyms</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40418"/>
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 2: Incorporation by Reference</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-2-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-2-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Incorporation by reference</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/16/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 3. Air Quality Standards and Increments</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-3-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-3-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Primary standards</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-3-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Secondary standards</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-3-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Significant deterioration increments</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 5: Registration, Emission Inventory and Annual Operating Fees</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-5-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/12/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-5-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-5-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Registration of potential sources of air contaminants</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/12/2014</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/30/2018, 83 FR 44236</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-5-2.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission inventory</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/30/2018, 83 FR 44236</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-5-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Confidentiality of proprietary information</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/12/2014</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/30/2018, 83 FR 44236</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 7. Permits for Minor Facilities</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/15/2017, 82 FR 22281</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirement for permits for minor facilities</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. CONSTRUCTION PERMITS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Construction permit</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 4. OPERATING PERMITS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-17</ENT>
                                <ENT>Relocation permits for portable sources</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/15/2017, 82 FR 22281</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-18</ENT>
                                <ENT>Operating permit</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 9. PERMITS BY RULE</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-60</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit by rule</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/12/2014</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-60.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Cotton gins</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/15/2017, 82 FR 22231</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-60.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Grain elevators</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/15/2017, 82 FR 22231</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-60.6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emergency engine facilities</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40419"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-7-60.7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Gasoline dispensing facilities and gasoline dispensing facilities with emergency engines</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2018</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 8. Permits for Part 70 Sources</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2008</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>General information</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1.3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Duty to comply</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1.4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Cancellation or extension of a construction permit or authorization under a general construction permit</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-1.5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Stack height limitations</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 5. PERMITS FOR PART 70 SOURCES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: “affected source,” “affected unit,” paragraph (E) of “applicable requirement,” “designated representative,” “responsible official,” “small unit,” and “unit”</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for construction and operating permits</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: OAC 252:100-8-4(b)(9)</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit applications</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit content</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2005</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: OAC 252:100-8-6(a)(5)</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-6.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>General permits</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2005</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-6.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Temporary sources</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit issuance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2005</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit renewal and expiration</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Administrative permit amendments and permit modifications</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7.3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Reopening of operating permits for cause</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7.4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Revocations of operating permits</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-7.5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Judicial review</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/26/2010, 75 FR 72695</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit review by EPA and affected states</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 7. PREVENTION OF SIGNIFICANT DETERIORATION (PSD) REQUIREMENTS FOR ATTAINMENT AREAS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-30</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-31</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2017</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="40420"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-32.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Ambient air increments and ceilings</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-32.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exclusion from increment consumption</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-32.3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Stack heights</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-33</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exemptions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2017</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-34</ENT>
                                <ENT>Control technology review</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-35</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air quality impact evaluation</ENT>
                                <ENT>9/15/2018</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-35.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Source information</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-35.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Additional impact analyses</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-36</ENT>
                                <ENT>Source impacting Class I areas</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-36.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Public participation</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-36.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Source obligation</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-37</ENT>
                                <ENT>Innovative control technology</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-38</ENT>
                                <ENT>Actuals PALs</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-39</ENT>
                                <ENT>Severability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 9. MAJOR SOURCES AFFECTING NONATTAINMENT AREAS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-50</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-50.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Incorporation by reference</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-51</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-51.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission reductions and offsets</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2017</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/10/2020, 85 FR 20178</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-52</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability determination for sources in attainment areas causing or contributing to NAAQS violations</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-53</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exemptions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-54</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for sources located in nonattainment areas</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-54.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Ozone and PM
                                    <E T="0732">10</E>
                                     precursors
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-55</ENT>
                                <ENT>Source obligation</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-56</ENT>
                                <ENT>Actuals PALS</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-57</ENT>
                                <ENT>Severability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 11. VISIBILITY PROTECTION STANDARDS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-8-70 to 252:100-8-77</ENT>
                                <ENT>Visibility Protection Standards</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/28/2011, 76 FR 81728</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 13. Open Burning</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/12/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Open burning prohibited</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowed open burning</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>01/26/2026, 90 FR 3046</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Use of air curtain incinerators</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>01/26/2026, 90 FR 3046</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-8.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Transported material</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>01/26/2026, 91 FR 3046</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-9</ENT>
                                <ENT>General conditions and requirements for allowed open burning</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-10</ENT>
                                <ENT>Disaster relief</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/12/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-13-11</ENT>
                                <ENT>Responsibility for consequences of open burning</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/12/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 17. Incinerators</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Reference to 40 CFR</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-1.3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Incinerators and fuel-burning equipment or units</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40421"/>
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. GENERAL PURPOSE INCINERATORS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/12/2014</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-2.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exemptions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-2.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Opacity</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Particulate matter</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Incinerator design and operation requirements</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-5.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Alternative incinerator design requirements</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Test methods</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 4. BIOMEDICAL WASTE INCINERATORS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-8</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-9</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-10</ENT>
                                <ENT>Design and operation</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-17-11</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission limits</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2011</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 19. Control of Emission of Particulate Matter</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable particulate matter emission rates from fuel-burning units</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-10</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable particulate matter emission rates from indirectly fired wood fuel-burning units</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-11</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable particulate matter emission rates from combined wood fuel and fossil fuel fired steam generating units</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-12</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable particulate matter emission rates from directly fired fuel-burning units and industrial processes</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-19-13</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit by rule</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 23. Control of Emissions From Cotton Gins</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability, general requirements</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/16/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: paragraph (b)(2)</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Visible emissions (opacity) and particulates</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission control equipment</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Fugitive dust controls</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-23-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit by rule</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 24. Particulate Matter Emissions From Grain, Feed or Seed Operations</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability, general requirements</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: paragraph (b)(2).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Visible emissions (opacity) limit</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Certification</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Fugitive dust controls</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-24-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit by rule</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 25. Visible Emissions and Particulates</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>General prohibition</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-2.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Opacity limit</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Alternative for particulates</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40422"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-25-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Continuous emission monitoring for opacity</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 29. Control of Fugitive Dust</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-29-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-29-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>General provisions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-29-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Precautions required in maintenance or nonattainment areas</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-29-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exception for agricultural purposes</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 31. Control of Emission of Sulfur Compounds</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 2. AMBIENT AIR CONCENTRATION LIMITS OR IMPACTS FOR NEW AND EXISTING EQUIPMENT, SOURCES, OR FACILITIES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Allowable hydrogen sulfide (H
                                    <E T="0732">2</E>
                                    S) ambient air concentrations for new and existing sources
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. EXISTING EQUIPMENT STANDARDS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-13</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for existing sulfuric acid plants</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for existing kraft pulp mills</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-16</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for existing fossil fuel-fired steam generators</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 5. NEW EQUIPMENT STANDARDS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-25</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for new fuel-burning equipment</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2013</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-31-26</ENT>
                                <ENT>Requirements for new petroleum and natural gas processes</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2012</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 33. Control of Emission of Nitrogen Oxides</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-33-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-33-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-33-1.2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-33-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission limits</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2001</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 35. Control of Emission of Carbon Monoxide</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-35-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/16/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-35-1.1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-35-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission limits</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/2000</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 37. Control of Emission of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC)</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability and compliance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exemptions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Operation and maintenance</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. CONTROL OF VOCS IN STORAGE AND LOADING OPERATIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Storage of VOCs</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40423"/>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-16</ENT>
                                <ENT>Loading of VOCs</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/28/2023, 88 FR 89589</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 5. CONTROL OF VOCS IN COATING OPERATIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-25</ENT>
                                <ENT>Coating of parts and products</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-26</ENT>
                                <ENT>Clean up with VOCs</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-27</ENT>
                                <ENT>Control of emission of VOCs from aerospace industries coatings operations</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 7. CONTROL OF SPECIFIC PROCESSES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-35</ENT>
                                <ENT>Waste gas disposal</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-36</ENT>
                                <ENT>Fuel-burning and refuse-burning equipment</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-37</ENT>
                                <ENT>Effluent water separators</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-38</ENT>
                                <ENT>Pumps and compressors</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 9. PERMIT BY RULE FOR VOC STORAGE AND LEADING FACILITIES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-41</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-37-42</ENT>
                                <ENT>Permit-by-rule requirements</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 39. Emission of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCS) in Nonattainment Areas and Former Nonattainment Areas</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>General applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exemptions</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/29/2022, 87 FR 45654</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. PETROLEUM REFINERY OPERATIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum refinery equipment leaks</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-16</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum refinery process unit turnaround</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>7/29/2022, 87 FR 45654</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-17</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum refinery vacuum producing system</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-18</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum refinery effluent water separators</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 5. PETROLEUM PROCESSING AND STORAGE</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-30</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum liquid storage in vessels with external floating roofs</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 7. SPECIFIC OPERATIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-40</ENT>
                                <ENT>Cutback asphalt (paving)</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/29/2022, 87 FR 45654</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-41</ENT>
                                <ENT>Storage, loading and transport/delivery of VOCs</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/29/2022, 87 FR 45654</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-42</ENT>
                                <ENT>Metal cleaning</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-43</ENT>
                                <ENT>Graphic arts systems</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-44</ENT>
                                <ENT>Manufacture of pneumatic rubber tires</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-45</ENT>
                                <ENT>Petroleum (solvent) dry cleaning</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/28/2023, 88 FR 89589</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-46</ENT>
                                <ENT>Coating of parts and products</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/11/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-39-47</ENT>
                                <ENT>Control of VOC emissions from aerospace industries coatings operations</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 43. Sampling and Testing Methods</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-43-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-43-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Test procedures</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-43-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Conduct of tests</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40424"/>
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">PART 3. SPECIFIC METHODS</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-43-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Gasoline vapor leak detection procedure by combustible gas detector</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 45. Monitoring of Emissions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-45-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>Purpose</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-45-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Monitoring equipment required</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-45-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Records required</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/1999, 64 FR 59629</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-45-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Compliance certifications</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/1995</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100-45-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Enforceability</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/1995</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Appendices for OAC 252: Chapter 100</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix A</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable Particulate Matter Emission Rate for Incinerators</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/11/2010</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix C</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable Particulate Matter Emission Rates for Indirectly Fired Fuel-Burning Units</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix D</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable Particulate Matter Emission Rates for Indirectly Fired Wood Fuel-Burning Units</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix E</ENT>
                                <ENT>Primary Ambient Air Quality Standards</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix F</ENT>
                                <ENT>Secondary Ambient Air Quality Standards</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2016</ENT>
                                <ENT>08/01/2019, 84 FR 37579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix G</ENT>
                                <ENT>Allowable Particulate Matter Emission Rates for Directly Fired Fuel-Burning Units and Industrial Process</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/2009</ENT>
                                <ENT>11/03/2015, 80 FR 67650</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix H</ENT>
                                <ENT>De minimis Facilities</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/25/1998</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/15/2017, 82 FR 22281</ENT>
                                <ENT>NOT in SIP: “and/pr toxic.”</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix L</ENT>
                                <ENT>PM-10 Emission Factors for Permit by Rule for Grain Elevators</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/01/1999</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/29/2008, 73 FR 79400</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix N</ENT>
                                <ENT>Specialty Coatings VOC Content Limits</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/25/2023, 88 FR 24918</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix P</ENT>
                                <ENT>Regulated Air Pollutants</ENT>
                                <ENT>06/15/2007</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/28/2016, 81 FR 66535</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">252:100, Appendix Q</ENT>
                                <ENT>Incorporation by reference</ENT>
                                <ENT>09/16/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">OKLAHOMA ADMINISTRATIVE CODE, TITLE 595. DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY, CHAPTER 20 (OAC 595:20). INSPECTION AND EQUIPMENT FOR MOTOR VEHICLES</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 3. Emission and Mechanical Inspection of Vehicles</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>General instructions</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (2) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>When emission anti-tampering inspection required where population less than 500,000</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Emission inspection areas</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Documentation for every inspection</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-12</ENT>
                                <ENT>Inspection required each year</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-25</ENT>
                                <ENT>Motorcycle or motor-driven cycles (Class “B”)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-26</ENT>
                                <ENT>Trailer and semitrailer trucks, (Class “C”)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-27</ENT>
                                <ENT>School Buses (Class “D”)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-41</ENT>
                                <ENT>Supervisory responsibility of inspection station owners and operators</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (o) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-42</ENT>
                                <ENT>Responsibility for signs, forms, etc</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-46</ENT>
                                <ENT>Security measures</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (a) and (b) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-61</ENT>
                                <ENT>Refund of unused stickers</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (a), (b), (e), and (f) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="40425"/>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-3-63</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rejected vehicles</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (b) and (g) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 7. Inspection Stickers and Monthly Tab Inserts for Windshield and Trailer/Motorcycle</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>General</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (c) and (f) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Inspection certificate</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rejection receipt—Form VID 44</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Station monthly report—Form VID 21</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>Signature card—Form VID 17</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-6</ENT>
                                <ENT>Request for inspection stickers—Form VID 19</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-7-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Request for refund—Form VID 25</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 9. Class AE Inspection Station, Vehicle Emission Anti-Tampering Inspection</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>General</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Vehicle emission inspection</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (l) and (m) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-7</ENT>
                                <ENT>Catalytic Converter System (C.A.T.)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-10</ENT>
                                <ENT>Evaporative emission control system (E.N.P.)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (a), (b), and (c) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-11</ENT>
                                <ENT>Air injection system (A.I.S. or A.I.R.)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-12</ENT>
                                <ENT>Positive crankcase ventilation system (P.C.V. Valve)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-13</ENT>
                                <ENT>Oxygen sensor</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-14</ENT>
                                <ENT>Thermostatic air intake system (T.A.C)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsections (a) and (b) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-9-15</ENT>
                                <ENT>Exhaust gas recirculation system (E.G.R.)</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Subchapter 11. Annual Motor Vehicle Inspection and Emission Anti-Tampering Inspection Records and Reports</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-11-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>General</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-11-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>Inspection certificate—VEC-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-11-3</ENT>
                                <ENT>Rejection certificate—VIID-44</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT>Subsection (a) only.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">595:20-11-4</ENT>
                                <ENT>Appeal procedure</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/26/1994</ENT>
                                <ENT>02/29/1996, 61 FR 7709</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>EPA Approved Statutes in the Oklahoma SIP</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs80,r50,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">State citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>effective</LI>
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                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
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                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">27A O.S. 2-1-102</ENT>
                                <ENT>Oklahoma Environmental Quality Code, Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/1993</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>SIP only includes definitions of “Department,” “Executive Director,” and “Person”.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="40426"/>
                                <ENT I="01">27A O.S. 2-5-104</ENT>
                                <ENT>Oklahoma Clean Air Act, Definitions</ENT>
                                <ENT>07/01/1993</ENT>
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                                    07/02/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
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                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
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                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
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                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13398 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>45 CFR Part 1351</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 0970-AD37</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Reducing Bureaucracy and Burden for Children, Youth, and Family Programs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB), Administration on Children, Youth and Families (ACYF), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule removes duplicative and unnecessary sections from the Runaway and Homeless Youth Program regulations. These amendments will streamline the Runaway and Homeless Youth Program regulations to make them more accessible to the public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective August 31, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Adam N. Jones, Deputy Chief of Staff, Immediate Office of the Assistant Secretary, Administration for Children and Families, Department of Health and Human Services, Washington, DC 202-417-0115 or 
                        <E T="03">Deregulation@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         A plain language summary of the final rule is posted at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Statutory Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This final rule is being issued under the authority granted to the Secretary of Health and Human Services by the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act of 1974, as amended, hereafter referred to as the “Act,” 34 U.S.C. 11201 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     34 U.S.C. 11202 specifically authorizes rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Runaway and Homeless Youth (RHY) Program, authorized under the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act (34 U.S.C. 11201 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), authorizes HHS to provide grants to public and nonprofit private entities to deliver services to runaway and homeless youth and youth at risk of homelessness. The RHY program includes the Basic Center Program, the Transitional Living Program (including the Maternity Group Home Program), and the Street Outreach Program, which together support emergency shelter, transitional housing, outreach, counseling, and comprehensive supportive services to promote youth safety, well-being, and long-term stability. The RHY program also funds a national communications system, grants for training and technical assistance, and grants for research, evaluation, training, and service projects. HHS has issued regulations for the RHY Program at 45 CFR part 1351.
                </P>
                <P>
                    HHS initially published regulations for the RHY Program on November 20, 1978. Office of Human Development Services, Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, 43 FR 55634 (Nov. 20, 1978) (codified at 45 CFR pt. 1351). The regulations were most recently amended on December 20, 2016 at Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030. The most recent revisions added program performance standards and provided additional updates to reflect changes in the RHY Act made through the Reconnecting Homeless Youth Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-378). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93030 (Dec. 20, 2016). We are now rescinding several sections of 45 CFR part 1351 to clarify program requirements, reduce unnecessary administrative burden, and better align the regulations with current statutory authority and language, while maintaining program operations and effective management of grant funds.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>This final rule rescinds multiple RHY Program regulation sections that can be delineated into two categories: those that are duplicative and those that are unnecessary because they are better suited for a different format.</P>
                <P>The duplicative regulation sections are those that carry no legal weight because their requirements are listed elsewhere in applicable law, such as in statute. Duplicative regulations impose no new obligations and offer no new guidance because the authority and requirements are pulled directly from other statutes and regulations. In many cases, the language in the regulation is identical to the language in the RHY Act.</P>
                <P>Several of the regulation sections are better suited to a different format, such as a Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO). These sections either include summaries of program goals or objectives that do not impose any requirements beyond the language in the authorizing statute or they include information generally found in grant documents such as NOFOs. In some cases, the sections merely direct grant applicants and recipients to follow instructions in NOFOs and provide no additional information. These sections are being removed to allow them to be published in the more appropriate format.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Effective Date</HD>
                <P>This final rule will become effective 60 days from the date of its publication.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Severability</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this section is to clarify ACF's intent with respect to the severability of the provisions of this NPRM. As explained above, ACF is removing sections of the RHY regulations because we determined that doing so would make the regulations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40427"/>
                    clearer, less burdensome, and more accessible to the public. To the extent that any portion of the removals are declared invalid by a court, ACF intends for all other provisions of this final rule to remain in effect to the greatest extent possible to ensure that the RHY regulations remain as concise and accessible as possible. The changes address a variety of issues relevant to the Family and Youth Services Bureau. None of the provisions contained herein are central to an overall intent of the proposed rule, nor are any provisions being removed in this final rule dependent on the validity of other, separate provisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Summary of Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    ACF published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 6, 2026, (91 FR 17235) proposing revisions to 45 CFR part 1351. ACF provided a 30-day comment period during which interested parties could submit comments in writing electronically through 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     or via email to the Immediate Office of the Assistant Secretary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    During the 30-day comment period, ACF received 918 comments from individuals and organizations including students and clergy; human services, educational, and medical professionals; national, state and local runaway and homeless youth focused advocacy organizations, research and policy organizations; and individual provider organizations. All comments received were posted on 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Of the 918 submissions received, there were 537 unique comments and 381 are duplicates. Additionally, of the 537 unique comments received, 506 of the comments raise the same concerns about the NPRM with minor distinguishing details describing commenters' personal experiences.. Comments were received from national organizations, advocating on behalf of runaway and homeless youth and RHY service providers.</P>
                <P>At the conclusion of the public comment period, ACF analyzed the content of the comments to inform the development of this final rule. To support the analysis of public comments, ACF staff used a large language model, a type of artificial intelligence (AI), as a tool to conduct an initial scan of comment content, sentiment, and language. The AI output was thoroughly analyzed and refined by FYSB program subject matter experts. All comments were reviewed by content experts to determine each commenter's support, opposition, or suggestions concerning the policies proposed in the NPRM.</P>
                <P>Public comments reflected a range of perspectives, with some commenters expressing general support for the proposed changes and the majority opposing the proposed rescissions. All responsive comments informed our consideration of the final rule.</P>
                <P>The preamble in this final rule discusses the changes to current regulations. Where language of previous regulations remains unchanged, the preamble explanation and interpretation of that language published with all prior final rules are also retained, unless specifically modified in the preamble to this rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. General Comments and Cross-Cutting Issues</HD>
                <P>
                    A couple comments expressed overall support for the proposed changes in the NPRM but did not discuss specific provisions or make any suggestions for change. Several comments expressed opposition to the proposed changes but made no specific suggestions for change. We address the general concerns raised in those comments in this section. Comments addressing specific sections of the regulation proposed for removal are discussed in the section-by-section analysis later in this final rule. Several commenters expressed concern that removing the regulation sections discussed in the NPRM could weaken consistency of RHY program requirements and limits stakeholders' ability to hold the agency accountable for enforcing consistent standards. Commenters raising this issue were primarily advocacy organizations supporting runaway and homeless youth providers and youth at risk of homelessness or who are experiencing homelessness. While we acknowledge commenters' concerns, we do not agree that the proposed rescissions will create inconsistencies in program requirements or enforcement. Most of the regulation sections slated for removal either impose no requirements or merely list program requirements already articulated in the RHY statute at 34 U.S.C. 11201 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     or other in federal regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.10 (summarizing the RHY program purpose but including no program requirements); 1351.11 (restating program eligibility requirements listed at Sections 11211(a)(1), 11222, and 11261(a) of the RHY Act). Where regulatory language differs from statute, such distinctions may be included in NOFOs without creating inconsistencies in program requirements or limiting enforcement. Grant application reviewers are fully trained on new provisions that may be added to NOFOs, and applicants are encouraged to contact RHY program staff listed in the NOFO with any questions about NOFO content. NOFOs are publicly available and may be easily accessed by any stakeholders seeking to better understand RHY program requirements. Importantly, RHY program-specific performance standards, the basis for most enforcement actions, remain intact. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.30 through 32. ACF declines to make any changes to the proposed rescissions based on commenter concerns about consistency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Many commenters, primarily representing advocacy organizations, also raised general concerns that the proposed section removals will weaken RHY program clarity and transparency. We acknowledge these concerns but disagree. Removing repetitive sections of the regulation and sections that are better suited for NOFOs makes the remaining regulation sections clearer and easier to follow. RHY stakeholders will no longer need to parse out minor distinctions between statute and regulation to understand program requirements because the RHY regulation will be limited to requirements that are not articulated elsewhere and that carry legal weight rather than, for example, directing grant applicants to follow instructions in the funding opportunity announcement (NOFO) to apply for RHY funding. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.17. ACF will therefore decline to make any changes to the proposed removals based on commenter concerns about clarity or transparency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Most individual commenters, as well the advocacy organizations that opposed the NPRM, argued that the changes will reduce protections for vulnerable youth, particularly youth who identify as “LGBTQ.” Many of these commenters emphasized negative consequences associated with “conversion therapy” and protecting youth identifying as “LGBTQ” from harm. Commenters raised concerns that the proposed recissions will discourage such youth from seeking RHY-funded services. While most of these comments do not cite a specific section of the RHY regulations, we recognize that these sentiments likely respond to ACF's proposal to remove 45 CFR 1351.16 from regulation. 45 CFR 1351.16(b) prohibits grant recipients from using RHY funds for “any treatment or referral to treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression,” a practice commonly referred to as conversion therapy. We will address general comments about protections for these individuals in this section and provide a more detailed analysis of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40428"/>
                    concerns about removing § 1351.16(b) in in the section-by-section discussion.
                </P>
                <P>ACF maintains that the proposed removals will have no impact on protections for vulnerable youth, including youth who identify as “LGBTQ.” ACF does not discriminate against any individual or group based on any Federally protected classification, including in the administration of the RHY Program. Services are provided to all eligible youth consistent with applicable Federal civil rights laws and program requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Nothing in this rule alters or limits existing nondiscrimination protections or the obligation of recipients to provide safe and appropriate services to all youth served under the program. ACF remains committed to serving all eligible youth per statutory requirements, including youth who are at risk for trafficking, exploitation, and housing instability. We disagree that the proposed rescissions will discourage youth participation. RHY programs, including the Basic Center Program and the Transitional Living Program, must include outreach efforts in accordance with the RHY Act. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     34 U.S.C. 11212(b)(6) (Basic Center Program), 34 U.S.C. 11222(a)(8). ACF will continue to support RHY grant recipients to enhance outreach efforts through guidance and technical assistance in partnership with the Runaway and Homeless Youth Training, Technical Assistance, and Capacity Building Center (RHYTTAC).
                </P>
                <P>Because the proposed recissions do not weaken protections for vulnerable youth or discourage eligible youth from participating in RHY-funded programming, ACF declines to make any changes to the NPRM based on these commenter concerns.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Section-by-Section Discussion of Comments and Regulatory Provisions</HD>
                <P>HHS received the following comments about changes proposed to specific subparts of the regulation. Below, HHS identifies each subpart, summarizes the comments, and responds to them accordingly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart B—Runaway and Homeless Youth Program Grants</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.10 What is the purpose of Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants?</HD>
                <P>This section is proposed for removal because it is unnecessary. This section explains the general purpose of RHY Program grants but provides no instructions to grant applicants or recipients, nor does it impose any new obligations. Thus, this section is not needed in regulation and would better serve grant applicants and recipients if it were moved into the opening of a Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO) and described elsewhere in sub-regulatory guidance.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     HHS received six comments, all of which were from advocacy organizations, opposing the removal of § 1351.10 arguing that the section provides foundational regulatory direction on the purpose of RHY grants, the youth population served, and key service expectations that should not be shifted into annual NOFOs. Commenters argued that § 1351.10 helps anchor the program by identifying core approaches such as Positive Youth Development, services tailored to youth needs, and connections to education and employment, and they argue that removing it could weaken consistency, reduce legal clarity, and erode explicit protections for youth facing barriers to safe services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     While we recognize the value in providing “foundational regulatory direction” for RHY grants, we maintain that this section of the RHY regulation may be removed without impact. As explained above, this section provides no clarifying instructions to grant applicants or recipients, nor does it impose any new obligations. Its removal from regulation cannot jeopardize “explicit protections” for youth because this section does not create any new protections. As recipients of Federal Financial Assistance (FFA), all RHY grant recipients must ensure that the programs they administer do not discriminate on the basis of a participant protected characteristics, including the participant's race, sex, ethnicity, national origin, religion, or disability. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 200.300. These protections are enshrined elsewhere in Federal statute and regulation and this section does not affect their applicability.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.11 Who is eligible to apply for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?</HD>
                <P>This section discusses eligibility for RHY Program grants. We are removing it from RHY regulations because it generally duplicates statutory language. This section is not needed in regulation because the statute that authorizes this section (Sections 11211(a)(1), 11222, and 11261(a) of the RHY Act) is already prescriptive in terms of eligibility for grant funds and the regulatory language does not provide additional clarification.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     HHS received three comments addressing removal of § 1351.11 from the RHY regulations. One commenter supported the removal of this section because it appears duplicative and adds little clarity. The other two comments, opposed removal, arguing the regulation is still needed because it clarifies who may apply for RHY grants and preserves the program's boundary with the juvenile justice system. The opposing comments say that the RHY statute does not clearly articulate applicant eligibility, so the regulation confirms that public agencies, private nonprofits, and coordinated networks can participate, while juvenile justice systems cannot; they also warn that removing the section could create confusion for existing grantees, including faith-based organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     ACF acknowledges the importance of ensuring that grant applicants and recipients understand eligibility requirements but disagrees that removing this section will cause confusion. This section of the RHY regulations was most recently updated to more closely align with statutory requirements rather than to add new content not found in statute. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93041 (Dec. 20, 2016) (“[W]e proposed changes to this section to confirm the regulatory language to the current statute.”). While the prohibition against awarding RHY grants to entities within the juvenile justice system is not explicitly included in the RHY statute, the statute does, as commenters note, make clear that the intent of the RHY program is to develop an “effective system of care . . . outside the welfare system and the law enforcement system.” 34 U.S.C. 11201(4). Furthermore, ACF ensures that each fiscal year NOFO clearly defines who eligible applicants are and, when appropriate, cites specific eligibility criteria provided in RHY Act. Consulting NOFOs, as all grant applicants and recipients must do to receive funding, will also assist faith-based organizations to understand their eligibility. All RHY NOFOs include specific language clarifying that faith-based organizations that otherwise meet eligibility requirements may apply for funding. Referring applicants and grant recipients to all eligibility requirements and restrictions in one place, such as the NOFO, will reduce administrative burden for prospective awardees and will avoid, rather than cause confusion.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40429"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.12 Who gets priority for the award of a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?</HD>
                <P>
                    This section discusses which applicants receive priority for the RHY Program grant awards. We are removing this section from regulation because it is largely duplicative of statutory text from the RHY Act. In most cases, the language used in this regulation section is identical to the language describing grant eligibility requirements in the statute. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     34 U.S.C. 11213(b) (priority requirements for the Basic Center Program); 34 U.S.C. 11222(b) (priority requirements for the Transitional Living Program); 34 U.S.C. 11261(b) (priority requirements for the Street Outreach Program); 34 U.S.C. 11231 (priority requirements for the national communications system) 34 U.S.C. 11243(b) (priority requirements for research, evaluation, demonstration and service projects).
                </P>
                <P>Where the regulatory language has modified statutory language slightly, such as at 45 CFR 1351.12(d) (expanding the statutory requirement for the national communications grant to prioritize applicants with experience providing telephonic services to runaway and homeless youth to prioritize applicants who have experience providing “electronic communication services”), distinctions can be explained via NOFO. NOFOs can likewise appropriately articulate 45 CFR 1351.12(f), which requires the Secretary to incorporate program performance standards listed at 45 CFR 1351.30 through 32 into grantmaking, monitoring, and evaluation. This subsection already states that NOFOs will include such content.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     HHS received three comments addressing the removal of § 1351.12. One commenter supported removal and agreed that the regulation section does not add new information or clarity to the statutory requirements concerning applicant priorities. The other two commenters, which were organizations representing a collection of stakeholders, argued that certain subsections add meaningful clarification that should be retained, especially language allowing flexibility on preferred Basic Center Program (BCP) award amounts, broadening priority for the national communications system beyond telephone services to include internet, mobile, and other technology-driven services, and preserving the regulatory requirement to incorporate performance standards into NOFOs, monitoring, and evaluation. A commenter also expressed concern that the phrase “or such figure as Congress may specify” would no longer appear in regulation following the requirement that ACF prioritize applicants requesting $200,000 or less in funding.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As explained above, most of the language in this section “mirrors the statutory language exactly.” Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93041 (Dec. 20, 2016). ACF disagrees that the minor distinctions between statutory and regulatory language concerning priorities justify retaining this section of the RHY regulation. ACF has already incorporated the regulatory language that differs from statute at 45 CFR 1351.12(d) and (f) into NOFOs. The NOFO supporting the National Communication System has been revised to ensure services meet modern communication technologies to include adding text and chat functionality, which were not envisioned when the RHY Act was first introduced. ACF recognizes The RHY Performance Standards remain enshrined in regulation and grant recipients must agree to adhere to the Performance Standards to accept RHY funds. Additionally, removing the phrase “or such figure as Congress may specify” has no impact on the statutory requirement to prioritize applicants seeking $200,000 or less; Congress always has authority to modify statutory requirements, and removing this section from regulation allows ACF to respond more efficiently if Congress does raise the amount specified in the RHY Act. For these reasons, we decline to make any changes to the proposal to remove this section from regulation. §  1351.13 What are the Federal and non-Federal match requirements under a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?
                </P>
                <P>
                    This section discusses match requirements for RHY Program grants. We are removing this section from the RHY regulation because it duplicates statutory match requirements almost exactly. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     34 U.S.C. 11274. This section does not assist the public to better understand the statutory match requirement and therefore serves no purpose.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     HHS received one comment supporting removal of § 1351.13 but no specific rationale was provided.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Both the RHY statute and annual NOFOs effectively communicate that the federal share of each funded project is 90 percent of the total project cost, and the remaining 10 percent must be met by the grant recipient.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 1351.14 What is the period for which a grant will be awarded?</HD>
                <P>This section discusses the grant period for RHY Program grants. We are removing this section because it is unnecessary. Information about grant periods already appears in NOFOs and is better suited there. Furthermore, this Section is ambiguous because it states, “generally the grant will initially be for one year.” Corresponding language in NOFOs is therefore already necessary to inform grant applicants and recipients about the specific period of their grants. NOFO language communicates that grants are awarded as a three year period of performance with three distinct one-year budget periods.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     ACF received three comments opposing the removal of § 1351.14 arguing that the section still serves an important operational purpose by giving stable regulatory direction for NOFO development and grantee expectations, even when NOFOs vary from year to year. The commenters emphasize subsection (b), which details the duration of grants, arguing that it adds useful guidance on continuation awards by making clear that multi-year grants should be reviewed annually for satisfactory performance, essential for outcomes, accountability, and responsible use of limited RHY funds.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     ACF agrees that providing clear information about grant duration is important but declines to make any changes to our proposal to remove this section from regulation. RHY NOFOs provide sufficient clarity about project periods, deeming this section unnecessary. Additionally, we do not anticipate that removal of this section will have any impact on grant recipient performance or accountability. ACF ensures responsible use of RHY Program funds by utilizing a robust monitoring process that includes desk and onsite reviews of grant recipients' compliance with program requirements and performance standards. RHY grant recipients are also required to submit client-level and performance data through established reporting processes, including quarterly Runaway and Homeless Youth—Homeless Management Information System (RHY-HMIS) uploads, Performance Progress Reports (PPRs), and other required reporting. Information gathered through monitoring and data reporting may be used in decisions about future RHY funding opportunities. Applicants are expected to look to NOFOs for relevant grant terms, and centralizing requirements in one place will reduce the administrative burden on applicants.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40430"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 1351.15 What costs are supportable under a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?</HD>
                <P>This section discusses allowable costs for RHY Program grants. We are removing this section because grant terms and conditions, including allowable expenditures of a grant, are best suited for NOFOs and other grant documents and in most cases, already appear in those documents. Including them in regulation is unnecessary.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     We received four comments, all of which came from advocacy organizations, specific to § 1351.15. The commenters opposed removal and argued that the section should remain in regulation because it gives stable guidance on allowable costs, including support for staff training, and helps providers plan, budget, and maintain consistent services across grant cycles. Commenters said that this clarity is especially important for smaller and community-based RHY grant recipients that rely on regulatory language for fiscal decision-making, staff onboarding, compliance, and audit defense, and they raise concerns that moving cost rules only into NOFOs could create confusion, inconsistency, and service instability from year to year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     ACF acknowledges commenter sentiment about the importance of providing clear, consistent guidance to grant recipients, particularly small, community-based grant recipients, about allowable program costs. We do not agree, however, that removing this section of the RHY regulation will negatively impact grant recipient access to such information. Grant terms and conditions, including allowable expenditures of a grant, are already included in NOFOs and other grant documents. Grant recipients will already be looking to NOFOs for relevant terms, and to win future awards, are incentivized to use awarded funds in the most efficient manner. In addition, grant recipients must meet the terms and conditions of their Federal award.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Furthermore, while § 1351.15 includes several examples of allowable costs for RHY programs, the list is not exhaustive. Rather, all Federal grant recipients are bound by cost principles outlined in 2 CFR part 200, subpart E, which require all allowable costs to be necessary, reasonable, and allocable the grant award. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     2 CFR 200.403-405. Retaining § 1351.15 in regulation would still require RHY grant recipients to determine whether unlisted costs meet these Federal cost allocation standards, so its removal does not impose a burden on grant recipients or create additional confusion. For these reasons, we will proceed with removing this section from RHY regulations. 
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.16 What costs are not allowable under a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?</HD>
                <P>This section discusses unallowable costs for RHY Program grants. As with 45 CFR 1351.15, we are removing this section because grant terms and conditions, including lists of unallowable expenditures of a grant, are best suited for NOFOs and other grant documents. NOFOs already include lists of unallowable expenses, including those listed in this section.</P>
                <P>This section is also duplicative in part. 45 CFR 1351.1 already prohibits the activities described in 45 CFR 1351.16(b) under the definitions of “counseling services” and “health care services,” there is no need to include the same expense prohibition repeatedly in the RHY regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     Most of the comments that we received on the NPRM either directly or indirectly raised concerns about removing § 1351.16 from regulation, particularly § 1351.16(b). Seven advocacy organizations opposed removal of this section. These commenters expressed general concerns about removing regulatory guidance on unallowable costs, asserting that the section provides stable, practical guidance on allowable and unallowable costs that grant recipients—especially smaller community-based organizations—use for budgeting, compliance, training, and audits. One commenter reasoned that ACF's decision to include a limitation on using RHY funds for constructing or operating existing facilities that are used “partially or incidentally” for RHY services in the 2016 Final Rule was because grant applicants had proposed inappropriate budgets due to unclear NOFOs, so retaining this section in regulation was necessary to preserve clarity.
                </P>
                <P>As discussed above, most commenters opposed removing § 1351.16(b), arguing that this subsection's explicit prohibition on efforts to change a young person's “sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression” is a critical youth safety protection that should not be weakened or left to NOFO language alone. Many commenter contend that including this prohibition in the definition section of the RHY regulation (45 CFR 1351.1) is insufficient, because the funding prohibition included in the definition of “counseling services” may not fully cover harmful conduct by non-clinical staff., Commenters expressed concern that removing § 1351.16 could create confusion, increase compliance risk, and discourage vulnerable youth, particularly those identifying as “LGBTQ,” from seeking services. Some commenters also viewed removal of this subsection as an endorsement of conversion therapy, or “a treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We recognize that our proposal to remove § 1351.16 from RHY regulations raises concerns for some commenters. Nonetheless, we disagree that removing this section will create instability for grant applicants and recipients or that it will erode protections for vulnerable youth. We offer the following explanations for our decision to proceed with removal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    First, as with § 1351.15, grant terms and conditions, including unallowable expenditures of a grant, are already included in NOFOs and other grant documents. Grant applicants and recipients must rely on NOFOs to understand the terms of their grant, and providing clear, detailed information about allowable and unallowable expenses in NOFOs is the best way to ensure that grant applicants and recipients receive all relevant information. While commenters pointed to earlier unclear NOFOs as the 2016 RHY Final Rule's justification for including limitations on using capital and operating costs for facilities only partially or incidentally used for RHY programs, the Final Rule draws no such conclusion. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93042-43 (Dec. 20, 2016). Rather, the Final Rule states that ACF has “seen proposed project budgets that include disproportionate allocations of facility-wide or overhead costs to Runaway and Homeless Youth projects that use only a small proportion of the facility.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     We maintain that NOFOs are the most appropriate place to explain limitations on capital and operating costs with RHY funds. Additionally, ACF has since undergone significant efforts in recent years to ensure that NOFOs are simple, clear, and accessible to grant applicants. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     89 FR 30046. Even if funding opportunity announcements were insufficient to provide applicants with clear funding guidance when the 2016 Final Rule was published, ACF's updated efforts to streamline NOFOs will ensure that grant applicants and recipients receive a clear explanation of allowable and unallowable expenses without the need to include this information in regulation.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40431"/>
                </P>
                <P>Further, as with § 1351.15, the list of unallowable expenses in § 1351.16 is not exhaustive; the section lists only two examples of unallowable expenses under the RHY program. Yet, all Federal grant recipients are bound by cost principles outlined in 2 CFR part 200, subpart E, which includes a long list of specific unallowable costs not referenced in the RHY regulations. Grant recipients must still confirm that all costs are allowable under Part 200, Subpart E, so § 1351.16's presence in the RHY regulations creates, rather than reduces burden for grant recipients.</P>
                <P>We next address commenter concerns about removing § 1351.16(b) from RHY regulations and the impact that such removal would have on vulnerable youth, including those who identify as “LGBTQ.” § 1351.16(b) was added to the RHY regulations in the 2016 Final Rule based on one commenter's request to specifically prohibit conversion therapy. ACF responded that “[w]e are not aware of any instance where any RHY grantee has used `conversion therapy' or `reparative therapy' to aim to change an individual's sexual orientation or gender identity. However, we agree it would be wholly inappropriate for this to take place and are amending this final rule to explicitly exclude, by definition, conversion therapy from allowable services and health care services. Additionally, we have revised the final rule by adding a new § 1351.16(b) . . . .” Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93045 (Dec. 20, 2016).</P>
                <P>
                    As explained in the 2016 Final Rule, § 1351.16(b) is not the only place in regulation that a prohibition on using RHY funds for conversion therapy appears. Both the definition of “counseling services” and the definition of “health care services” explicitly prohibit “any treatment or referral to treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity, or gender expression.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.1. The prohibition against using RHY funds remains enshrined in regulation. Removing § 1351.16(b) therefore cannot and should not be viewed as an endorsement of conversion therapy, nor will it weaken protections for vulnerable youth. ACF remains unaware of any instance when RHY funds have been used for conversion therapy, and we maintain that the prohibitions in § 1351.1, which include referrals for such services, are sufficient to prevent grant recipients from using RHY funds for this purpose even when non-clinical staff are involved.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.17 How is application made for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?</HD>
                <P>This section discusses the process of applying for RHY Program grants. This section is removed as it is unnecessary; it merely directs grant applicants to follow the instructions in the NOFO (references in regulation as “funding opportunity announcements”) without further detail or clarification.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     ACF received one comment opposed to the removal of § 1351.17 arguing that removal will lead to the destabilization of services and confusion related to requirements. The comment raised concerns that annual changes in NOFO content could be confusing for programs applying to and receiving RHY grants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We acknowledge the commenter's concerns but disagree that removing this section from the RHY regulations will cause any confusion or destabilization. § 1351.17 provides no substantive guidance and instructs applicants to “follow instructions included in the funding opportunity announcement, which describe procedures for receipt and review of applications.” The section directs applicants to follow the NOFO, which they are already obligated to do. Because NOFOs are issued on an annual basis and may vary from year to year, applicants are expected to review the instructions for preparing an application and the specific requirements set forth in the NOFO applicable to the relevant fiscal year when preparing their submissions. We will proceed with removing this section from the RHY regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart C—Additional Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§  1351.20 What Government-wide and HHS-wide regulations apply to these programs?</HD>
                <P>
                    This section is removed because it is duplicative. The section restates a list of Federal regulations applicable to RHY grant recipients and subrecipients without explanation of why each regulation is flagged yet excludes other Federal regulations that apply to all grant recipients and subrecipients. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Runaway and Homeless Youth, 81 FR 93030, 93044-45 (Dec. 20, 2016) (“This new list does not attempt to list all of the Federal laws and regulations . . . that pertain to organizations that may be grant awardees.”). The listed regulations apply to RHY grant recipients and subrecipients (and in many cases, all HHS or Federal agency grant recipients and subrecipients) regardless of whether they are included in the RHY regulations, and the arbitrary nature by which the listed regulations were selected for inclusion demonstrates further that this section serves no purpose.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     ACF received two comments regarding the removal of § 1351.20, one supporting removal and one opposing removal. The supporting commenter agreed that the protections detailed in the list of government-wide and HHS-wide regulations can be found elsewhere. A national advocacy organization opposed removal of this section because it contended that § 1351.20 serves as a centralized reminder of RHY grant recipients' civil rights and nondiscrimination responsibilities. The commenter argued that deleting this section could reduce clarity on legal obligations applicants and signal less emphasis on civil rights compliance even if the underlying legal obligations still remain. The opposing commenter expressed concern that removing this regulation would threaten civil rights entirely without regulation to create enforcement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We agree that grant applicants and recipients must clearly understand their legal obligations but disagree that removing this section will make such obligations more difficult to understand. All Federal grant recipients, including RHY grant recipients, are required to adhere to all applicable statutory and regulatory requirements regardless of whether they are expressly stated in the program regulation. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     2 CFR 200.300. Applicable civil rights laws are also incorporated in all ACF NOFOs and in the ACF Standard Terms and Conditions, incorporated into Notices of Awards for all ACF discretionary grant recipients, including all RHY grant recipients. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     ACF Standard Terms and Conditions, 
                    <E T="03">https://acf.gov/grants/manage-grant/grant-award/award-terms.</E>
                     As such, we will remove § 1351.20 from regulation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 1351.24 What are the additional requirements that the Basic Center Program grantees must meet?</HD>
                <P>
                    This section discusses requirements for the Basic Center Program (BCP). This section is removed because it is unnecessary. Grant requirements are better suited for NOFOs or other grant documents, such as supplemental terms and conditions. Further, this section already directs grant applicants and recipients to the NOFO (referred to as the “funding opportunity announcement”) for additional requirements, making any guidance provided by the regulation incomplete. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.24(f).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     ACF received eight comments, all from advocacy 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40432"/>
                    organizations, opposing the removal of § 1351.24 arguing that it sets the core, legally enforceable baseline for BCP operations and should not be shifted into NOFOs that may change from year to year. Commenters noted that § 1351.24 provides stable program requirements for crisis response and service quality, including 24/7 intake and shelter access, trauma-informed practice, services for youth and families both inside and outside the shelter setting, and prompt family reunification efforts; they argued that removing it could create confusion, inconsistency, and weaker accountability for grant recipients across funding cycles. One commenter expressed concerns that moving the requirements in § 1351.24 to NOFOs could result in future administrations eliminating the service requirements and expectations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We agree with commenters that clear program requirements are necessary for grant recipients to effectively carry out the BCP and other RHY grant programs, but we disagree that regulation is the best place for these requirements and, as such, decline to change our proposal to remove this section from RHY regulations. The requirements articulated in § 1351.24 are rooted in the RHY statute, so they will not become, as one commenter contends, “entirely discretionary” if they are moved to the BCP NOFO. The RHY Act requires BCP grant recipients to “develop adequate plans for contacting the parents or other relatives of the youth and ensuring the safe return of the youth according to the best interests of the youth, for contacting local government officials pursuant to informal arrangements established with such officials by the runaway and homeless youth center and for providing for other appropriate alternative living arrangements.” 34 U.S.C. 11212(b)(3). The Act also requires BCP grant recipients to “develop an adequate plan for providing counseling and aftercare services to such youth, for encouraging the involvement of their parents or legal guardians in counseling, and for ensuring, as possible, that aftercare services will be provided to those youth who are returned beyond the State in which the runaway and homeless youth center is located.” 34 U.S.C. 11212(b)(5). The requirements in § 1351.24 provide more detail than the statutory mandates but may be appropriately moved to NOFOs. Because the requirements are closely tied to the statute, commenter concerns that future administrations may fundamentally change them once they are moved to NOFOs are unfounded. Additionally, centralizing requirements in the NOFO reduces the burden for applicants, who must already review NOFOs in the regular course of applying for grants, to fulfill both best practice and grant requirements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 1351.25 What are the additional requirements that the Transitional Living Program and Maternity Group Home grantees must meet?</HD>
                <P>
                    This section discusses additional requirements for the Transitional Living Program (TLP) and Maternity Group Home (MGH) grant. This section is removed because it is unnecessary. Grant requirements are better suited for NOFOs or other grant documents, such as supplemental terms and conditions. Further, this section already directs grant applicants and recipients to the NOFO (referred to as the “funding opportunity announcement”) for additional requirements, making any guidance provided by the regulation incomplete. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.25(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     ACF received eight comments, all from legal and advocacy organizations, opposing the removal of § 1351.25 arguing that it provides an essential regulatory floor for TLP and MGH requirements. As with comments concerning § 1351.24, commenters asserted that removing these requirements from regulation and shifting them to NOFOs would create instability, confusion, and uneven expectations across funding cycles, while weakening the consistent minimum standards that RHY grant recipients rely on for service delivery, compliance, and partnership coordination. Several of the commenters stated that TLP requirements should remain explicit because they define the core model of care for youth, including supportive services tied to long-term stability, and that consolidation would blur important distinctions between RHY program types.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We acknowledge commenter concerns about the importance of the requirements in this section and recognize the necessity of providing consistent, comprehensive guidance for TLP and MGH grant implementation. Nonetheless, we disagree that moving these requirements to NOFOs will create instability, inconsistency, or otherwise weaken RHY grant requirements and intend to remove this section of regulation. Like the BCP requirements in § 1351.24, the TLP and MGH requirements listed in this section expand on requirements in the RHY Act. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     34 U.S.C. 11222(a). The differences between the statutory and regulatory requirements are minimal enough that NOFOs are an appropriate mechanism for providing the additional details currently available in § 1351.25. ACF maintains that such grant requirements are better suited for NOFOs or other grant documents than regulations. Additionally, centralizing requirements in one location, such as the NOFO, reduces the burden for applicants to fulfill both best practice and grant requirement.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 1351.27 What are the additional requirements that the Street Outreach Program grantees must meet?</HD>
                <P>
                    This section discusses requirements for Street Outreach Program (SOP). This section is removed because it is unnecessary. Grant requirements are better suited for NOFOs or other grant documents, such as supplemental terms and conditions. Further, this Section already directs grant applicants and recipients to the NOFO (referred to as the “funding opportunity announcement”) for additional requirements, making any guidance provided by the regulation incomplete. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     45 CFR 1351.27(c).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Eight commenters, all of which were advocacy or legal organizations, oppose removal and describe the section as an important regulatory anchor for the SOP. Commenters argue that it clarifies the distinct purpose of the SOP in relation to other RHY programs, keeps core duties explicit, such as helping youth leave the streets, make safer choices, build trust, and connect to shelter and services, and preserves a consistent minimum standard that should not be left solely to changing NOFO language. Several of these commenters also argue that removing § 1351.27 could create inconsistent expectations across funding cycles and weaken accountability for serving vulnerable youth. One commenter, a national advocacy organization representing several stakeholders, noted that the requirements listed in § 1351.27 are not listed in the RHY Act.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     We recognize the importance of distinguishing the SOP from other RHY grant programs and the necessity of listing core duties for the program, but we disagree that removing § 1351.27 from the RHY regulations will have the negative impact that the commenters contemplate. We will proceed with removing this section from the RHY regulations. As with §§ 1351.24 and 1351.25, ACF maintains that grant requirements are better suited for NOFOs or other grant documents, such as supplemental terms and conditions. ACF can still ensure that grant applicants and recipients recognize SOP's unique role in the RHY Program if its program requirements are listed in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40433"/>
                    NOFOs rather than in regulation, and, while NOFOs may change annually, we do not believe commenter concerns that program requirements will become unstable as a result is justified.
                </P>
                <P>The statutory authorization for the SOP is less specific than the authorization for the BCP, TLP, and MGH programs. 34 U.S.C. 11261, which authorizes the SOP, does not include detail for the kinds of services that grant recipients must provide beyond a directive to provide “street-based services to runaway and homeless, and street youth, who have been subjected to, or are at risk of being subjected to, sexual abuse, prostitution, sexual exploitation, severe forms of trafficking in persons (as defined in section 7102(9) of Title 22), or sex trafficking (as defined in section 7102(10) of Title 22).” Yet, while § 1351.27 provides more detail about what the required “street-based services” must include, such as “services designed to assist clients in leaving the streets, making healthy choices, and building trusted relationships,” the regulation section still leaves significant ambiguity about the nature of such services and how those services should be delivered. Including the requirements listed in § 1351.27 in NOFOs instead of regulation will therefore not weaken RHY program requirements or jeopardize the standards of the SOP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Regulatory Process Matters</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as amended) (PRA), all Departments are required to submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval any reporting or recordkeeping requirements inherent in a proposed or final rule. This final rule does not contain any information requiring OMB approval under the PRA and, therefore, will not create any new paperwork burdens or modify existing burdens subject to OMB review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13132 requires federal agencies to consult with State and local government officials if they develop regulatory policies with federalism implications. Federalism is rooted in the belief that issues that are not national in scope or significance are most appropriately addressed by the level of government close to the people. This final rule does not have substantial direct impact on the States, on the relationship between the federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This final rule does not pre-empt State law. The sections the final rule is removing are duplicative and unnecessary regulations from the Family and Youth Services Bureau rules. Therefore, in accordance with Section 6 of Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this action does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Assessment of Federal Regulations and Policies on Families</HD>
                <P>Assessment of Federal Regulations and Policies on Families Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires federal agencies to determine whether a policy or regulation may negatively affect family well-being. If the agency determines a policy or regulation negatively affects family well-being, then the agency must prepare an impact assessment addressing seven criteria specified in the law. ACF believes it is not necessary to prepare a family policymaking assessment because the actions in this final rule will not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <P>We have examined the impacts of the proposed rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, Executive Order 14192, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all benefits and costs of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Rules are “significant” under Executive Order 12866 Section 3(f)(1) if they “have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities.” Executive Order 14192 requires that any new incremental costs associated with significant new regulations “shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least ten prior regulations.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has determined that this final rule is not a significant action under Executive Order 12866 Section 3(f).</P>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires agencies to consider the impact of their regulatory proposals on small entities. Because this is simply repealing obsolete and unnecessary language, we certify that the final rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) generally requires that each agency conduct a cost-benefit analysis; identify and consider a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives; and select the least costly, most cost effective, or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule before promulgating any proposed or final rule that includes a Federal mandate that may result in expenditures of more than $100 million (adjusted for inflation) in at least one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector. Each agency issuing a rule with relevant effects over that threshold must also seek input from State, local, and tribal governments. The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $193 million, using the most current (2005) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This final rule would not result in an expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Tribal Consultation Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 13175, 
                    <E T="03">Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,</E>
                     requires agencies to consult with Indian Tribes when regulations have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.” Similarly, ACF's Tribal Consultation Policy says that consultation is triggered for any legislative proposal, new rule adoption, or other policy change that significantly affects Tribes, meaning there exists a reasonable presumption that it has or may have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, on the amount or duration of ACF program funding, on the delivery of ACF programs or services to one or more Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 45 CFR Part 1351</HD>
                    <P>
                        Administrative practice and procedure, Grant programs—social programs, Homeless, Reporting and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40434"/>
                        recordkeeping requirements, Technical assistance, Youth.
                    </P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, ACF amends 45 CFR part 1351 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1351—RUNAWAY AND HOMELESS YOUTH PROGRAM</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="1351">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1351 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 42 U.S.C. 5701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§§ 1351.10, 1351.11, 1351.12, 1351.13, 1351.14, 1351.15, 1351.16, 1351.17, 1351.20, 1351.24, 1351.25, and 1351.27</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Removed and Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Sections 1351.10, 1351.11, 1351.12, 1351.13, 1351.14, 1351.15, 1351.16, 1351.17, 1351.20, 1351.24, 1351.25, and 1351.27 are removed and reserved.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert F. Kennedy, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13451 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-33-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40435"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Part 250</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: OPM-2026-0368]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3206-AO77</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Personnel Management in Agencies: Strategic Human Capital Management</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) proposes amending 5 CFR part 250 by replacing Human Capital Operating Plans (HCOPs) with Annual Staffing Plans (ASPs), Human Capital Reviews (HCRs) with Annual Staffing Reviews (ASRs), and the HRStat quarterly review process with Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews. The proposed changes also strengthen the role of the agency Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO) by requiring the CHCO to have appropriate visibility, control and oversight of human capital functions within the agency. The proposed rule would modify, and reduce in number, the required survey questions for annual employee surveys.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments using the Federal eRulemaking Portal: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments received after the close of the comment period will be marked “late,” and OPM is not required to consider them in formulating a final decision. Before acting on this proposal, OPM will consider and respond to all comments within the scope of the regulation that OPM receives on or before the closing date for comments. Changes to this proposal may be made in light of the comments received.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The general policy for comments from members of the public is to make them available for public viewing at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information. However, OPM retains discretion to redact personal or sensitive information from comments before they are posted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this rule may be found in the docket for this rulemaking at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Makisha Brown at (202) 606-2796 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">workforce@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>Federal agencies operate in a complex environment characterized by evolving mission demands, rising public expectations, rapid technological advancements, and the need for efficient, effective service delivery. To meet these challenges, agencies must move beyond traditional, transactional personnel management toward a strategic, modern human capital model that treats workforce decisions with the same rigor used in successful private-sector organizations. This shift is essential for building and managing a Federal workforce that is highly skilled, agile, and capable of adapting to emerging priorities while maintaining quality government services.</P>
                <P>Effective human capital management is essential to enable agencies to anticipate mission needs, recruit and retain critical talent, and build long-term organizational capacity. It supports a Federal workforce that is not only competent and mission-focused but also innovative, responsive, and prepared to navigate uncertainty. Often attributed to management theorist Peter Drucker, a common principle is that organizations cannot effectively manage what they do not measure. This approach requires clear metrics, closer to real-time analysis, performance differentiation, and regular accountability reviews to assess progress on the pathway to higher performance and specific workforce objectives. By grounding workforce decisions in data, evidence, and forward-looking planning, agencies strengthen their ability to deliver programs that meet the needs of the American people.</P>
                <P>To advance this transformation, agencies must adopt integrated and evidence-based human capital strategies and systems that are aligned with mission priorities. These strategies and systems encompass workforce planning, talent acquisition, reskilling and upskilling, leadership development, and performance accountability. Agencies that embrace this integrated approach are better positioned to deploy talent effectively, enhance organizational resilience, and improve mission delivery.</P>
                <P>Reflecting these needs, OPM developed this proposed rule amending 5 CFR part 250 to reinforce statutory human capital responsibilities and strengthen governmentwide workforce management practices.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM guides, enables, and assesses agency strategic human capital management processes. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 1103(c). This proposed rule would amend 5 CFR part 250 to apply these principles and best practices to Federal human capital management and reinforce OPM's statutory responsibilities under 5 U.S.C. 1103(c). By replacing static planning documents with dynamic, measurable tools and embedding a quarterly performance cadence consistent with Executive Order (E.O.) 14356, 
                    <E T="03">Ensuring Continued Accountability in Federal Hiring</E>
                     (90 FR 48387, Oct. 20, 2025), the proposed rule would give agency leaders the same business-oriented capabilities used by private-sector executives: frequent visibility into workforce metrics, direct linkage between staffing and mission outcomes, and the ability to make timely, evidence-based adjustments. It would embed accountability, foster cross-functional coordination, improve data analytics, and ensure mission-aligned, performance-oriented strategies.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Legislative History</HD>
                <P>
                    In 2002, the Chief Human Capital Officers Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-296, 116 Stat. 2289) (CHCO Act) was enacted to elevate human capital management to a strategic level across the Federal Government, comparable to financial and information technology management. The CHCO Act responded to long-standing concerns about the need for more effective, mission-aligned workforce planning, particularly in the wake of the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks and the creation of the Department of Homeland Security. The Act also established agency Chief Human Capital Officers and the Chief Human Capital Officers Council (CHCO 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40436"/>
                    Council) to advise and coordinate on governmentwide human capital issues.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Congress's impetus for passing the CHCO Act was vividly described by its sponsor, Sen. George Voinovich, as follows: “During the course of 12 hearings and numerous meetings with national leaders in management and public policy, it became crystal clear that we were in the midst of a human capital crisis in the U.S. Government.” 148 Cong. Rec. S11169-01, S11182, 2002 WL 31537145. Sen. Voinovich defined this “human capital crisis” as “the inability of the Federal Government to properly manage its workforce.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     In light of this crisis, it was necessary, Sen. Voinovich believed, to “give human capital a much higher priority in the Federal Government, just as it is given in most corporations that are successful.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    To give human capital management a higher priority within the Federal Government, Congress created the position of Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO) at all agencies covered under the Chief Financial Officers Act (31 U.S.C. 901(b)). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 1401. Congress assigned the CHCOs great responsibilities at their agencies. They must, as their primary duty, advise and assist the agency head and other agency leaders in selecting, developing, training, and managing the agency's workforce. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     And they must, as a further primary duty, implement the rules and regulations of the President and OPM and the laws governing the civil service within the agency. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     CHCOs are also responsible for workforce planning and development at their agencies. 5 U.S.C. 1402(a). To perform their duties, Congress required that the agency CHCO have access to all information available to the agency that relates to the programs and operations under the CHCO's control. 5 U.S.C. 1402(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    To better coordinate strategic human capital management across the government, the CHCO Act established the CHCO Council. The CHCO Council must be chaired by the OPM Director, with the Deputy Director of Management of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) as the Vice Chair, and all CHCOs as members. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 1401 note. Further, it must meet periodically to “advise and coordinate” regarding government-wide human capital challenges. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The CHCO Act also directed OPM to design a set of systems, including appropriate metrics, for assessing the management of human capital by Federal agencies and to define those systems in regulation. 5 U.S.C. 1103(c). The systems, which “shall be defined in regulations of the Office of Personnel Management,” are required to include standards addressing:</P>
                <P>• aligning human capital strategies of agencies with the missions, goals, and organizational objectives of those agencies and integrating those strategies into the budget and strategic plans of those agencies;</P>
                <P>• closing skill gaps in mission-critical occupations;</P>
                <P>• ensuring continuity of effective leadership through implementation of recruitment, development, and succession plans;</P>
                <P>• sustaining a culture that cultivates and develops a highly performing workforce;</P>
                <P>• developing and implementing a knowledge management strategy supported by appropriate investment in training and technology; and</P>
                <P>• holding managers and human resources officers accountable for efficient and effective human resources management in support of agency missions in accordance with merit system principles.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This authority built upon the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-454, Oct. 13, 1978), which created OPM to replace the former Civil Service Commission and emphasized the modernized administration of the civil service under merit system principles. It also built on E.O. 13197, 
                    <E T="03">Governmentwide Accountability for Merit System Principles; Workforce Information</E>
                     (Jan. 18, 2001). E.O. 13197 promulgated Civil Service Rules IX and X, which allow OPM to collect workforce data from Executive agencies and give OPM the power to set standards for application of merit system principles in agencies and review the human resources management programs and practices of any agency for effectiveness.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Subsequent legislation reinforced these requirements. The Government Performance and Results Act Modernization Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-352, Jan. 4, 2011) (the GPRA) amended 31 U.S.C. 1115 and 1116 to require agencies to integrate human capital resources into their strategic plans and annual performance plans, further aligning workforce planning with mission delivery and results-oriented management. The GPRA also required OMB to “coordinate with agencies to develop priority goals to improve the performance and management of the Federal Government.” 31 U.S.C. 1120(a)(1). Such goals must include, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     goals for improving “human capital management” across the government. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     These goals are typically expressed in the President's Management Agenda, prepared by OMB.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See OMB, President's Management Agenda (Dec. 8, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2025/12/M-26-03-Presidents-Management-Agenda.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>These statutory provisions collectively authorize OPM to issue and update regulations to establish streamlined, measurable tools for strategic workforce planning, accountability, and alignment with Presidential priorities and agency missions. OPM's implementing regulations for this authority are codified at 5 CFR part 250.</P>
                <P>Part 250 establishes a framework for aligning human capital management with agency missions and Presidential priorities. The most recent comprehensive revision to part 250 was issued in 2016 (81 FR 89357) with a minor technical amendment in 2018 (83 FR 55931). The 2016 revision was meant to clarify the purpose of various human capital planning reports, plans and reviews. However, commenters still expressed confusion about the relationship of the various reports and plans to one another, and to other reporting required under the GPRA. The 2016 revision also reduced the number of required employee survey questions from 45 to 16.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule updates the regulations by replacing duplicative requirements with streamlined, measurable, and performance-oriented processes. It aligns the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 1103(c) with the workforce planning cadence established by E.O. 14356. E.O. 14356 establishes an annual cycle whereby agencies must develop Annual Staffing Plans at the beginning of each fiscal year to ensure hiring is in the highest-need areas. Agencies must then provide quarterly updates to OPM and OMB demonstrating progress in implementing their Annual Staffing Plan. Agencies may adjust their Annual Staffing Plans throughout the fiscal year in coordination with OPM and OMB.</P>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule incorporates oversight, evaluation, and data-driven performance reviews into a unified structure, integrating the workforce planning cadence established by E.O. 14356 with the workforce planning requirements established by 5 U.S.C. 1103(c). This alignment would reduce the burdens on CHCOs and other agency human resources professionals from having to prepare and participate in a multiplicity of overlapping reports, reviews and updates.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40437"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Actions</HD>
                <P>
                    The Trump Administration has issued a series of executive actions designed to elevate the role of human capital in government performance. E.O. 14170, 
                    <E T="03">Reforming the Federal Hiring Process and Restoring Merit to Government Service</E>
                     (January 20, 2025), established a framework to confirm that Federal hiring is efficient, merit-based, and focused on identifying individuals with the skills and commitment needed for public service. The E.O. additionally mandated the development of a Federal Hiring Plan, implemented by the Assistant to the President for Domestic Policy and OPM as the Merit Hiring Plan,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which standardizes best practices in recruitment, strengthens the use of competency-based assessments, and reduces unnecessary barriers that impede the identification of qualified candidates. Through these reforms, agencies are better able to attract the best talent and tackle the complex demands of federal missions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         White House Domestic Policy Council &amp; OPM, 
                        <E T="03">Merit Hiring Plan,</E>
                         (May 29, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/latest-memos/creating-federal-hr-20-by-consolidating-core-human-capital-management-across-the-federal-government.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Building on this foundation, E.O. 14356 further embeds accountability and strategic oversight into hiring and workforce planning. It establishes Strategic Hiring Committees in each agency to ensure that leadership reviews and approves position creation and hiring actions, aligning staffing decisions with mission needs, operational efficiency, and budget constraints. These committees, typically composed of senior executives including the Deputy Secretary, the chief of staff to the agency head, the CHCO, the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), and other key leaders, provide a structured mechanism for evaluating hiring requests based on criteria such as mission criticality, cost effectiveness, and alignment with strategic goals. The order also requires agencies to develop Annual Staffing Plans that prioritize high-impact mission areas, promote cost-effective workforce investments, and maintain alignment with governmentwide human capital priorities.</P>
                <P>
                    Complementing these directives, OPM and OMB issued additional guidance to help agencies implement these requirements.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This guidance emphasizes cost effectiveness, mission-critical needs, and the importance of merit-based hiring. It also reinforces the Administration's expectation that agencies modernize their human capital functions by leveraging workforce data, strengthening analytic capabilities, and ensuring leadership accountability for hiring outcomes. Together, these policies seek to enable a more strategic, evidence-driven approach to human capital management across government.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         See OMB and OPM, Guidance on Executive Order 14356, Ensuring Continued Accountability in Federal Hiring (Nov. 5, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/latest-memos/guidance-on-executive-order-14356-ensuring-continued-accountability-in-federal-hiring.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Proposed Amendments</HD>
                <P>OPM proposes several amendments to 5 CFR part 250 to modernize workforce planning requirements, strengthen accountability for staffing decisions, and improve flexibility for administering employee surveys. These reforms to 5 CFR part 250 will streamline mandates for enhanced workforce planning placed on Federal agencies by recent executive orders, harmonizing those requirements with existing regulations found in part 250 regarding strategic workforce planning. The changes will also help fulfill a key purpose of the CHCO Act by ensuring that CHCOs have sufficient visibility, oversight and control so as to allow the CHCO to fulfill his or her statutory obligation to serve as the agency human resources leader under 5 U.S.C. 1401 and 1402(a), and have seamless access to information that the CHCO must be able to access under 5 U.S.C. 1402(b). The changes will also revise the questions required for governmentwide employee surveys.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Clarifying Delegated Authorities</HD>
                <P>In Subpart A, OPM proposes to clarify § 250.102, which deals with OPM-delegated authorities. OPM proposes to add language from 5 U.S.C. 1104(b)(4) that, at the request of the head of an agency to whom a function has been delegated, OPM may provide assistance to agencies performing such personnel functions, including on a reimbursable basis through the revolving fund established under 5 U.S.C. 1304(e). OPM believes that this language clarifies OPM's support of agency personnel functions even where a delegation agreement is in place.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Annual Staffing Plans and Quarterly Updates</HD>
                <P>Turning to Subpart B of Part 250, the proposed rule replaces the Human Capital Operating Plan (HCOP) with a new Annual Staffing Plan (ASP) framework. The ASP would serve as the agency's primary workforce planning and accountability document and must align with:</P>
                <P>• the Agency Strategic Plan,</P>
                <P>• the Annual Performance Plan,</P>
                <P>• the Agency Budget, and</P>
                <P>• the President's Management Agenda.</P>
                <P>The ASP must also contain specific plans and goals for improvements regarding the four HCF systems and standards with the Human Capital Framework (HCF) set forth in 5 CFR 250.203. Thus, it must include measurable and observable performance targets that correspond to agency goals; strategies for talent management (including developing employees and closing knowledge, skill, and competency gaps); plans for building and maintaining a high-performance culture; and evaluation systems to confirm accountability.</P>
                <P>In addition to aligning with the HCF, the ASP must utilize metrics, frameworks, and criteria for evaluating the agency's current and future workforce and staffing needs, and it must target the agency's hiring to address skills gaps, enhance service delivery, enable succession planning, and ensure that new appointments in the upcoming year are in the highest-need areas. In so doing, the ASP helps fulfill the requirement of the CHCO Act for OPM to “design a set of systems, including appropriate metrics, for assessing the management of human capital by Federal agencies.” 5 U.S.C. 1103(c)(1). The required ASP helps fulfill the goals for those systems set forth in 5 U.S.C. 1103(c)(2), including aligning human capital strategies of agencies with the missions, goals, and organizational objectives of those agencies, and closing skills gaps in mission-critical occupations. While ASPs will be prepared annually, they should consider both present and future workforce planning needs and include broad-scope workforce planning goals along with strategies for how to execute upon those goals in the upcoming fiscal year.</P>
                <P>In alignment with E.O. 14356, the ASP must consider efficiencies derived from organizational restructuring; elimination of unnecessary management layers; elimination of duplicative or nonessential functions and positions; consolidation of administrative functions; reduction of unnecessary or low-value contractor positions; performance management of employees; internal reassignments; redistribution of workload across positions with similar duties and skill sets; process improvement; and adoption of technology.</P>
                <P>
                    By consolidating planning and oversight functions into the ASP, the proposed rule strengthens leadership accountability for workforce decisions and improves alignment between staffing strategies and mission priorities. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40438"/>
                    In addition, consistent with E.O. 14356, the proposed rule aligns agency workforce planning with budgetary planning and broader government-wide workforce priorities by requiring that ASPs be prepared in coordination with OPM and OMB.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed rule includes the requirement of E.O. 14356 that ASPs must be prepared at the start of each fiscal year. The proposed § 250.205 also accounts for the quarterly updates required of agencies under E.O. 14356, stating that each agency must submit updates to OPM and OMB at the beginning of each quarter that show progress in implementing their ASP and explain any significant variances from the ASP. The proposed rule acknowledges that agencies may update their ASPs throughout the fiscal year based on enactment of relevant appropriations or authorizing legislation, or otherwise in coordination with OPM and OMB.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Annual Staffing Reviews</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule replaces Human Capital Reviews (HCRs) with Annual Staffing Reviews (ASRs).</P>
                <P>Under the proposed framework, OPM and OMB will conduct Annual Staffing Reviews to evaluate agency implementation of their Annual Staffing Plans and assess whether workforce strategies effectively support agency mission objectives. OPM believes that including OMB in the Annual Staffing Reviews will help align workforce planning with overall management objectives and budgetary constraints. OPM also believes that replacing HCRs with ASRs will ensure that the agency's strategic human capital planning resources are focused on implementation of Annual Staffing Plans, and that agency human resources staff are not required to engage in duplicative human capital planning activities.</P>
                <P>OPM anticipates that these reviews will assess several areas closely tied to the agency's ASP, such as progress toward hiring and staffing goals, review of workforce analytics, and assessment of skill gap mitigation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule requires agency CHCOs to conduct quarterly staffing performance reviews in coordination with their Performance Improvement Officer (PIO) and Strategic Hiring Committee.</P>
                <P>These reviews must assess agency progress toward workforce goals and evaluate implementation of the agency's ASP. Findings from quarterly reviews must be incorporated into quarterly updates to the agency's ASP. These reviews replace HRStat quarterly reviews to reduce duplication and the workload of CHCOs and human resources staff.</P>
                <P>Agencies should conduct Quarterly Staffing Plan Reviews within the framework of the existing quarterly performance reviews required under 31 U.S.C. 1121(c). Because the CHCO and PIO are already engaged in section 1121(c) reviews, this approach eliminates the need for a separate standalone meeting, reducing administrative burden on CHCOs and human resources staff consistent with the intent of this rule. Aligning ASP performance reviews with the broader strategic performance review process also reinforces a foundational principle of sound workforce planning. Agencies that conduct their section 1121(c) reviews on a schedule other than quarterly should verify that Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews occur at least four times per fiscal year to meet the quarterly cadence this rule requires.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Human Capital Framework Updates</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule retains the four systems established in the Human Capital Framework (Strategic Planning and Alignment, Talent Management, Performance Culture, and Evaluation) but updates the regulatory language for clarity and consistency.</P>
                <P>
                    On January 20, 2025, President Trump issued an E.O. titled “Ending Radical and Wasteful Government DEI Programs and Preferencing.” E.O. 14151, 90 FR 8339 (Jan. 29, 2025). This order directs the termination of all DEI policies, programs, and preferences in the Federal Government, under whatever name they appear. President Trump took this action to combat numerous wasteful and unlawful government DEI programs.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See U.S. Department of Justice, Implementation of Executive Orders 14151 and 14173: Eliminating Unlawful DEI Programs in the Federal Operations (March 21, 2025). available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/ag/media/1409556/dl?inline;</E>
                         OPM, Further Guidance Regarding Ending DEIA Offices, Programs and Initiatives (Feb. 5, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/transmittals/2025/OPM%20Memo%20Further%20Guidance%20Regarding%20Ending%20DEIA%20Offices%20Programs%20and%20Initiatives%202-5-2025%20FINAL.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>OPM appreciates that the term “diverse” may have many meanings. However, the current regulatory references to a “diverse” workforce may be read to suggest that agencies either are required or permitted to take race or other protected characteristics into account in hiring, evaluation and promotion decisions. Thus, OPM proposes removing this unnecessary and potentially harmful language. While the proposed rule removes references to “diverse” workforce language in certain sections, requirements that agencies comply with applicable equal employment opportunity and merit system principles (including non-discrimination) remain under applicable statutes and executive orders (such as 5 U.S.C. 2301 and 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Alignment With President's Management Agenda</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule replaces references to the Federal Workforce Priorities Report with requirements for agencies to align workforce planning with the President's Management Agenda.</P>
                <P>
                    This change reflects the Administration's emphasis on integrating workforce management with broader governmentwide performance priorities. As noted above, the GPRA requires OMB to “coordinate with agencies to develop priority goals to improve the performance and management of the Federal Government.” 31 U.S.C. 1120(a)(1). Such goals must include, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     goals for improving “human capital management” across the government. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     These goals are expressed in the President's Management Agenda prepared by OMB.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See OMB, President's Management Agenda (Dec. 8, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2025/12/M-26-03-Presidents-Management-Agenda.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM understands that the Federal Workforce Priorities Report was conceived to address a 2014 recommendation from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) that there be a single governmentwide strategic human capital plan.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     GAO meant for this strategic plan to contain “specific, actionable goals, the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in achieving them, and timeframes and other metrics to help ensure the entire effort stays on track.” 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, given the competing demands on agencies, OPM decided that the Federal Workforce Priorities Report would not “serve as a plan that obligates the human capital community to specific 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40439"/>
                    actions, time frames, and measures of success,” 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     but instead merely identify general workforce priorities and suggested strategies, and it codified this understanding of the Federal Workforce Priorities Report in the current § 250.204.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See OPM, Federal Workforce Priorities Report, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/human-capital-management/federal-workforce-priorities-report/;</E>
                         see also GAO-14-168, Human Capital: Strategies to Help Agencies Meet Their Missions in an Era of Highly Constrained Resources (May 7, 2014) at p. 10, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-14-168.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         GAO-14-168, Human Capital: Strategies to Help Agencies Meet Their Missions in an Era of Highly Constrained Resources (May 7, 2014) at p. 10, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-14-168.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See OPM, Federal Workforce Priorities Report, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/human-capital-management/federal-workforce-priorities-report/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>These limitations mean that the Federal Workforce Priorities Report has not driven the sort of coordination and alignment that GAO hoped that a government strategic human capital plan would provide. Instead, OPM has found that the workforce priorities expressed in the President's Management Agenda are more impactful in driving coordination, alignment, and action to improve human capital management. Thus, OPM proposes substituting references to the Federal Workforce Priorities Report in Part 250 with the President's Management Agenda (and Agency Strategic Plan), and sunsetting the Federal Workforce Priorities Report.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Enabling CHCO Leadership Over Strategic Human Capital Management</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the CHCO Act established the CHCO position and the CHCO Council to effectively address “the inability of the Federal Government to properly manage its workforce” 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and “give human capital a much higher priority in the Federal Government, just as it is given in most corporations that are successful.” 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         148 Cong. Rec. S11169-01, 148 Cong. Rec. S11169-01, S11182, 2002 WL 31537145.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         148 Cong. Rec. S11169-01, 148 Cong. Rec. S11169-01, S11183, 2002 WL 31537145.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Congress gave agency CHCOs statutory responsibility to oversee strategic human capital management and implement the laws, rules and regulations governing the civil service at their agencies. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 1401, 1402. The CHCO Act requires that CHCOs have access to information necessary to enable them to perform their duties. 5 U.S.C. 1402(b). However, in 2014, GAO reported that, in spite of the CHCO Act, CHCOs reported that they were not included in strategic planning processes and their agencies had not elevated the role of the human capital office to enable the CHCO to effectively engage in strategic human capital management.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         GAO-14-168, Human Capital: Strategies to Help Agencies Meet Their Missions in an Era of Highly Constrained Resources (May 7, 2014) at pp. 10-11, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-14-168.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>OPM has found that, over a decade later, these challenges remain, and CHCOs often lack the authority and visibility to effectively oversee strategic human capital management at their agencies. This is especially the case in large, highly decentralized Federal agencies where diffuse and uncoordinated technological systems, delegations, organizational structures, and agency policies can frustrate meaningful CHCO oversight and result in fragmented and siloed human resources leadership.</P>
                <P>To address this issue, OPM proposes that each agency must ensure that its internal delegations, organizational structure, internal policies, and technological systems enable the agency's CHCO to have sufficient visibility, oversight and control so as to allow the CHCO to carry out his or her statutory functions under 5 U.S.C. 1401 and 1402(a), and to efficiently access the information they must be able to access under 5 U.S.C. 1402(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Strategic Hiring Committees</HD>
                <P>
                    In alignment with E.O. 14356, this proposed rule requires agencies to establish and maintain Strategic Hiring Committees to oversee hiring within the agency.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Strategic Hiring Committee must confirm that agency hiring is consistent with the agency's mission needs and the agency's Annual Staffing Plan.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         E.O. 14356 exempted various categories of civil service positions from its requirements, including non-career positions and positions related to immigration enforcement, national security, and public safety. OPM intends for this general language regarding the role of the Strategic Hiring Committee within agencies to be applied consistent with those exceptions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>OPM believes that maintaining a Strategic Hiring Committee is a key strategy to align staffing decisions with mission needs, operational efficiency, and budget constraints, thus implementing the goals set forth in 5 U.S.C. 1103(c)(2). These committees provide a structured mechanism for evaluating hiring requests based on criteria such as mission criticality, cost effectiveness, and alignment with strategic goals. By requiring committee approval for new positions or backfills, the order promotes thoughtful and disciplined resource allocation. The order also requires agencies to develop Annual Staffing Plans that prioritize high-impact mission areas, promote cost-effective workforce investments, and maintain alignment with governmentwide human capital priorities.</P>
                <P>OPM proposes that the Strategic Hiring Committee must include the agency's Deputy Secretary, or equivalent, along with the agency's CHCO. This required membership aligns with E.O. 14356 (which requires that the deputy agency head be part of the committee) and the human capital leadership responsibilities of the agency CHCO under the CHCO Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Annual Employee Surveys</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule amends Subpart C, governing annual employee surveys. The statute requiring annual employee surveys (Pub. L. 108-136, div. A, title XI, sec. 1128, 117 Stat. 1641, 5 U.S.C. 7101 note) states that OPM “shall issue regulations prescribing survey questions that should appear on all agency surveys under subsection (a) in order to allow a comparison across agencies.”</P>
                <P>Currently, OPM has prescribed 16 required survey questions in § 250.302(a)(2). OPM proposes reducing this number to 10 required questions, retaining 4 in their current form, modifying one, removing 11 required questions, and adding 5 new required questions (though two of these questions, relating to poor performers, were asked in prior surveys). One question, “I am given a real opportunity to improve my skills in my organization,” is being substituted for a question that OPM believes to be a more specific, actionable and helpful question that gets at the same information: “My supervisor provides ongoing feedback to help me succeed and progress in my career.” OPM proposes to add the word “clearly” to one required question, so that it becomes: “Managers clearly communicate the goals of the organization.”</P>
                <P>OPM considers the 10 proposed questions to be the most probative of effective leadership and management practices and employee satisfaction. These questions measure whether employees understand the organization's objectives and how the employee's work contributes to those objectives; whether there is performance accountability at the agency or agency subunit; whether there is meaningful recognition of differences in performance; whether employees perceive that they have opportunities for career development; whether employees feel empowered to get things done; and whether they have regular, ongoing feedback from management. OPM believes that employees who are most engaged are those who understand their organization's mission and how their work contributes to it, who work under supervisors who provide regular feedback, and who work in organizations that have a strong performance and accountability culture.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM observes, as it did in its 2016 rulemaking, that “asking questions 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40440"/>
                    which are not well written or no longer relevant to agency success, as well as reporting indexes used in the past when newer indexes would better fit agency needs, confines the survey to be a formality rather than a dynamic and useful management tool.” 81 FR 89357, 89364 (Dec. 12, 2016). OPM believes that a “smaller set of understandable and well-written questions,” with the opportunity for OPM to provide further questions via guidance, will be more effective. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>OPM believes that the 10 required questions it proposes will provide specific and actionable information for agency leadership. It proposes removing questions that are unlikely to provide helpful information for agency leadership or help achieve organizational goals in a meaningful way. OPM invites comments on the 10 required questions it proposes. OPM intends that agencies may add additional agency-specific survey questions to their own administration of the survey.</P>
                <P>OPM proposes modifying § 250.303 to remove a section that prescribes six specific pieces of information that agencies must include in their posted survey results. Although the operative statute requires that survey results be posted publicly on the agency's website (unless doing so would jeopardize or negatively impact national security), these specific requirements are not spelled out in the statute requiring annual employee surveys (codified at 5 U.S.C. 7101 note). Instead, OPM proposes to note simply that each agency may determine the specific content of its public disclosure of its annual survey results.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule also modifies reporting timelines by requiring agencies to submit survey results to OPM and OMB within 90 days of survey completion, providing OPM and OMB with faster access to governmentwide data, and thus supporting more timely analysis and workforce management decisions, while maintaining the 120-day public posting requirement (which preserves transparency and confirms agencies have sufficient time to prepare results for release). While, in previous years, OPM has typically administered the annual employee survey for all agencies, the requirement for agencies to report results to OPM and OMB would allow OPM to devolve survey administration to agencies, while still being able to timely access the results of agency surveys for OPM's use in workforce planning and policymaking (along with OMB's similar use of the surveys for workforce analysis and policymaking).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Regulatory Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statement of Need</HD>
                <P>OPM has not comprehensively updated the strategic human capital management regulations in several years. Changes in workforce management practices, technology, and agency mission demands require a more flexible and performance-oriented framework for workforce planning. OPM believes that the current reporting and review processes required by its part 250 regulations are unduly burdensome and not sufficiently aligned with the GPRA reporting processes. In addition, OPM believes that the current reporting and review processes required by its part 250 regulations are too often confined to HR specialists within the agency, and do not incorporate robust input and feedback from broader agency leadership. OPM has also observed that CHCOs too frequently lack appropriate control, visibility, and oversight regarding strategic human capital management necessary to fulfill their roles under 5 U.S.C. 1401 and 1402(a).</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, OPM believes that its current regulations requiring agencies to prepare Human Capital Operating Plans and engage in Human Capital Reviews and HRStat reviews are duplicative of the process established under E.O. 14356 whereby agencies are to create Annual Staffing Plans each fiscal year, along with quarterly updates. OPM also believes that the Federal Workforce Priorities Report is unnecessary in light of the President's Management Agenda, which is required to include, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     goals for improving “human capital management” across the government. 31 U.S.C. 1120(a)(1).
                </P>
                <P>OPM additionally believes that the current requirements around annual employee surveys discourage agencies from utilizing these surveys as robust workforce planning tools and changing management practices in response to the results. Instead, agencies and employees too often view the annual surveys as simply a means by which employees may register their broad approval or disapproval of agency leadership, instead of an opportunity for the agency to gain insight into the effectiveness of management practices. Creating additional flexibility around annual employee surveys is necessary to make the annual employee survey a helpful tool instead of a popularity contest.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule is intended to reduce administrative burden, strengthen accountability for staffing decisions, and confirm that workforce planning supports mission delivery.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Impact</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule would affect Federal agencies responsible for workforce planning and hiring decisions. Agencies may need to revise internal policies and procedures to implement the new Annual Staffing Plan framework and integrate quarterly performance review processes.</P>
                <P>However, the proposed rule is expected to reduce duplicative reporting requirements and improve efficiency in workforce planning processes. OPM also anticipates that this rule would improve the quality of workforce planning, leading to better alignment between mission needs, workforce capabilities, and the budgetary process. OPM also believes that the proposed rule would allow CHCOs greater visibility, control and oversight regarding strategic human capital functions at their agencies, allowing for more efficient and accountable management of the Federal workforce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Regulatory Alternatives</HD>
                <P>OPM considered maintaining the existing Human Capital Operating Plan framework, including HRStat and Human Capital Reviews. However, OPM tentatively determined that the current system does not adequately integrate workforce planning with leadership oversight of hiring decisions and may impose unnecessary administrative requirements on agencies in light of E.O. 14356 and reporting required under the GPRA.</P>
                <P>OPM believes that the proposed Annual Staffing Plan framework (required by E.O. 14356) provides a more streamlined and mission-focused planning process, and that continuing with the current Human Capital Operating Plan framework would impose unnecessary costs and burdens on agencies that are pressed to rapidly implement human capital initiatives and priorities.</P>
                <P>OPM considered retaining the Federal Workforce Priorities Report but tentatively concluded that sunsetting the report is the better option for the reasons discussed in section II.F. in the Supplementary Information.</P>
                <P>OPM considered simply maintaining the status quo regarding CHCO authority within agencies. However, OPM observed that the problem of lack of CHCO visibility and oversight within agencies is a longstanding problem that has not adequately been addressed in the nearly quarter century since the CHCO Act was passed and tentatively concluded that a regulatory change was necessary.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM considered retaining all of the 16 required annual employee survey 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40441"/>
                    questions in their current form. However, it tentatively concluded that, while continuity regarding the survey questions is important, the benefits of refreshing the required survey questions with content that OPM considers most probative of effective leadership and management practices and employee satisfaction (perceived opportunities for growth and advancement, meaningful recognition of differences in performance, and clear accountability for poor performance) outweighed retaining all of the current prescribed survey questions in their current form.
                </P>
                <P>OPM also considered expanding the number of survey questions but concluded (for similar reasons described in its 2016 rulemaking) that a better course was to reduce the number of questions required by regulation. OPM appreciates the need for consistency from year to year in the required questions but believes that agencies and the Federal Government need more flexibility to adjust the questions based on emergent workforce and agency needs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Costs</HD>
                <P>This rule would affect the operations of over 80 Federal agencies—ranging from cabinet-level departments to small independent agencies. Agencies may incur limited administrative costs associated with updating policies and procedures to implement the new planning framework. For the purpose of this cost analysis, OPM assumes an average salary rate of Federal employees performing this work will be the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate). OPM assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 per hour.</P>
                <P>Affected agencies may need to review and update their delegations, policies and procedures. OPM estimates that, in the first year following publication of a final rule, this will require an average of 100 hours of work by employees with an average hourly cost of $156.30, resulting in estimated costs in the first year of implementation of about $15,630 per agency, and about $1,250,400 in total Governmentwide. These costs are expected to be minimal and largely included in the ongoing administrative costs to agencies (including the administrative costs of administering the program and hiring and training new staff).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Benefits</HD>
                <P>OPM expects this proposed rule to yield important benefits by strengthening agency leadership accountability for staffing decisions, improving alignment between hiring and agency mission requirements, reducing administrative reporting that has become duplicative with the issuance of E.O. 14356, increasing CHCO visibility and oversight over strategic human capital management in alignment with the CHCO Act, and supporting more effective workforce management practices across CHCO agencies.</P>
                <P>By incorporating the requirement from E.O. 14356 that agencies use Strategic Hiring Committees to oversee hiring within 5 CFR part 250, the proposed rule would help ensure that human capital decisions are made strategically, with appropriate senior-level accountability and in closer connection to agency performance and organizational goals. The proposed rule would strengthen leadership accountability for staffing decisions by making clear that workforce decisions are not merely transactional personnel actions but management decisions that should be tied to broader agency priorities and goals.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule clarifies the ASP's role as an agency's central workforce planning document, specifies that it must include plans and goals metrics, frameworks, and criteria for evaluating the agency's current and future workforce and staffing needs, and requires that the ASP must further align with, and include specific plans and goals regarding, the four HCF systems and standards, including measurable performance targets. The proposal would reduce administrative reporting requirements by replacing fragmented and duplicative reporting expectations with a more coherent regulatory structure that is integrated with E.O. 14356 requirements and other agency planning processes (including the agency budget and performance plan) and is focused on information that is genuinely useful for management and oversight. Of note, the proposed rule requires that OMB be part of workforce planning and evaluation processes, strengthening alignment with the President's Management Agenda and between the budgetary process and workforce planning processes—which too often have been fragmented, hindering focused workforce planning and development efforts. The proposal also clarifies that the ASP is a broad-scope workforce planning document that is prepared annually but must also align with broader agency human capital goals and planning.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule also clarifies the CHCO's statutory role as the agency human capital leader, elevating the CHCO's institutional role in workforce planning, staffing oversight, and coordination with agency leadership and HR offices. This will strengthen accountability for agency workforce planning by reinforcing the CHCO's required statutory role under the CHCO Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the proposed rule would support more effective workforce management practices overall by encouraging agencies to manage human capital as an enterprise function rather than as a series of disconnected personnel actions. OPM believes that clearer lines of responsibility, improved strategic alignment, and stronger CHCO oversight will help agencies make more informed decisions about hiring, deployment, performance management, and organizational needs, improving the effectiveness, consistency, and strategic value of agency human capital management.</P>
                <P>Finally, by reducing the number of required questions for annual employee workforce surveys and giving agencies additional flexibility regarding the reporting of such surveys, this proposed rule will make the survey more efficient to deliver and increase agency control regarding the survey. OPM expects that this will allow agencies to use the annual employee survey as an actionable workforce planning tool, rather than a burdensome “popularity contest.” Requiring that survey results be reported to OPM and OMB after completion of survey administration will allow for OPM to decentralize administration of the annual survey, further strengthening agency ownership of the annual survey.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Severability</HD>
                <P>OPM proposes that, if any provision of this proposed rule as finalized is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, it would be severable from its respective section(s) and would not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Procedural Issues and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget has designated this as a significant regulatory action 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40442"/>
                    under E.O. 12866 section 3(f). Accordingly, OPM has examined the impact of this rule as required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563, which direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis must be prepared for rules that have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities. This rulemaking does not reach that threshold. This action is expected to be considered an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Director of the Office of Personnel Management certifies that this regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because the rule applies only to Federal agencies and employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Federalism</HD>
                <P>This regulation will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with E.O. 13132 (Aug. 10, 1999), the Director of the OPM certifies that this rulemaking does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant preparation of a Federalism Assessment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>This regulation meets the applicable standards set forth in section 3(a) and (b)(2) of E.O. 12988 (Feb. 7, 1996).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that would impose spending costs on State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or on the private sector, in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. That threshold is currently approximately $206 million. This rulemaking will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, in excess of the threshold. Thus, no written assessment of unfunded mandates is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule contains a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35. Proposed § 250.302(a)(2) would prescribe 10 governmentwide questions for annual employee surveys, and proposed § 250.303 would require agencies to submit survey results to OPM and OMB. Under 5 CFR 1320.3(c)(3), a “collection of information” includes questions posed to agencies, instrumentalities, or employees of the United States if the results are to be used for general statistical purposes, including statistical compilations of general public interest showing the status or implementation of Federal activities and programs. The annual employee survey responses and related survey-result submissions are expected to be used for governmentwide and agency-level statistical compilations concerning Federal workforce management and implementation of Federal human capital programs.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM is publishing in this issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a separate Paperwork Reduction Act notice for a new common form that agencies could use for this information collection. Should agencies add additional questions, agencies would be responsible for their own collections separate from the OPM common form and would need to seek their own OMB control number. OPM's notice describes the prescribed survey questions and related reporting requirements, provides estimated burden information, requests a new OMB control number, and solicits public comment as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act. This proposed rule does not itself approve or revise any OMB control number, and OPM will obtain any required OMB approval before requiring use of the revised collection in a manner requiring PRA approval.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 5 CFR Part 250</HD>
                    <P>Authority delegations (Government agencies), Government employees.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Statement</HD>
                <P>The Director of OPM, Scott Kupor, reviewed and approved this document and has authorized the undersigned to electronically sign and submit this document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Jerson Matias,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Office of Personnel Management proposes amending 5 CFR part 250 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 250—PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT IN AGENCIES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for Part 250 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 5 U.S.C. 105, 1101 note, 1103(a)(5), 1103(c), 1104, 1302, 3301, 3302; 7101 note (sec. 1128, Pub. L. 108-136). E.O. 10577, 12 FR 1259, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218; E.O. 13197, 66 FR 7853, 3 CFR 748 (2002); E.O. 14356. Subpart B also issued under 5 U.S.C. 1103(a)(7); 5 U.S.C. 1401 and 1401 note (Pub. L. 107-296); 5 U.S.C. 1402; 5 U.S.C. 5105 note (Pub. L. 111-352); 31 U.S.C. 901(b)(1); 31 U.S.C. 1115(a)(3), (f), and note (Pub. L. 103-62); 31 U.S.C. 1116(c)(5); E.O. 14356, 90 FR 48387; 5 CFR 10.2.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Authority for Personnel Actions in Agencies</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 250.102 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.102</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Delegated authorities.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) OPM may delegate its authority, including authority for competitive examinations, to agencies, under 5 U.S.C. 1104(a)(2), through a delegation agreement. The delegation agreement developed with the agency must specify the conditions for applying the delegated authorities. The agreement must also set minimum standards of performance and describe the system of oversight by which the agency and OPM will monitor the use of each delegated authority.</P>
                    <P>(b) At the request of an agency to whom a function has been delegated under paragraph (a) of this section, OPM may provide assistance to the agency performing such function.</P>
                    <P>(c) To the extent determined appropriate by OPM, an agency must reimburse OPM through payments to the revolving fund established under 5 U.S.C. 1304(e) for work performed by OPM pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Strategic Human Capital Management</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for subpart B of part 250 is removed.</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.202</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 250.202 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Adding in alphabetical order definitions for “Annual Staffing Plan” and “Annual Staffing Review”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>
                    b. Removing the definitions of “HRStat”, “Human Capital Evaluation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40443"/>
                    Framework”, “Human Capital Operating Plan (HCOP)”, and “Human Capital Review (HCR)”; and
                </AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Adding in alphabetical order definitions for “President's Management Agenda” and “Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Review”.</AMDPAR>
                <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.202</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Annual Staffing Plan (ASP)</E>
                         means an agency's workforce planning document that aligns with the agency strategic plan, annual performance plan, budget formulation process, and the President's Management Agenda, along with the HCF, and that establishes workforce priorities, hiring goals, and staffing strategies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Annual Staffing Review (ASR)</E>
                         means the annual evaluation of an agency's implementation and effectiveness of its Annual Staffing Plan conducted by OPM and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">President's Management Agenda</E>
                         means the governmentwide management priorities and initiatives issued by OMB that establish strategic direction for improving Federal management functions, including human capital management, across executive branch agencies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Review</E>
                         means a review conducted pursuant to § 250.207.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.203</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 250.203 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (b), removing the words “and diverse”; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (c), removing “diverse, ” in both places it appears.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 250.204 as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a)(1), remove the words “Federal Workforce Priorities Report” and add in their place “President's Management Agenda”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (c)(2), remove the words “Federal Workforce Strategic Priorities Report” and add in their place “President's Management Agenda”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (c)(3), remove the words “HRStat reviews” and add in their place “Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>d. In paragraph (d)(7):</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>i. Remove the words “Federal Workforce Priorities Report, which is published by OPM every four years” and add in their place “President's Management Agenda and Agency Strategic Plan”; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>ii. Remove the words “HRStat quarterly data-driven reviews of human capital performance” and add in their place “Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews”; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>e. Add paragraphs (e) and (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.204</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Agency roles and responsibilities.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(e) Each agency must ensure that its internal delegations, organizational structure, internal policies, and technological systems enable the agency's Chief Human Capital Officer to have sufficient visibility, oversight and control so as to allow the Chief Human Capital Officer to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Fulfill his or her responsibilities under 5 U.S.C. 1401 and 1402(a); and</P>
                    <P>(2) Efficiently access the information described in 5 U.S.C. 1402(b).</P>
                    <P>(f) Each agency must establish and maintain a Strategic Hiring Committee to oversee hiring within the agency. The Strategic Hiring Committee must ensure that agency hiring is consistent with the agency's mission needs and the agency's Annual Staffing Plan. The Strategic Hiring Committee must include the agency's Deputy Secretary, or equivalent, along with the agency's Chief Human Capital Officer.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 250.205 by revising the section heading and text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.205</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Annual Staffing Plans and quarterly updates.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) Each agency must develop an Annual Staffing Plan that aligns with the Agency Strategic Plan, Annual Performance Plan, Agency Budget, President's Management Agenda, and the HCF. The plan must identify workforce priorities, hiring goals, and staffing strategies necessary to support mission accomplishment.</P>
                    <P>(b) Each agency's Annual Staffing Plan must include metrics, frameworks, and criteria for evaluating the agency's current and future workforce and staffing needs, and it must target the agency's hiring to address skills gaps, enhance service delivery, enable succession planning, and ensure that new appointments in the upcoming year are in the highest-need areas. An agency Annual Staffing Plan also must include specific plans and goals for improvements regarding the four HCF systems and standards, including measurable performance targets.</P>
                    <P>(c) Each agency's Annual Staffing Plan also must consider potential efficiencies that may be derived from organizational restructuring; elimination of unnecessary management layers; elimination of duplicative or nonessential functions and positions; consolidation of administrative functions; reduction of unnecessary or low-value contractor positions; performance management of employees; internal reassignments; redistribution of workload across positions with similar duties and skill sets; process improvement; and adoption of technology.</P>
                    <P>(d) Each agency must prepare an Annual Staffing Plan at the start of the fiscal year in coordination with OPM and OMB. Each agency may, in coordination with OPM and OMB, update its Annual Staffing Plan during the course of the fiscal year based on enactment of relevant appropriations or authorizing legislation or otherwise amend their plans.</P>
                    <P>(e) Each agency must submit updates to OPM and OMB at the beginning of each quarter, showing progress in implementing their Annual Staffing Plan, and explaining any significant variances from the Annual Staffing Plan.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>8. Amend § 250.206 by revising the section heading and text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.206</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Annual Staffing Reviews.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Each agency must participate in an Annual Staffing Review conducted by OPM and OMB to evaluate implementation of the agency's Annual Staffing Plan and assess progress toward workforce goals.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 250.207 by revising the section heading and text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.207</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Quarterly Staffing Plan Performance Reviews.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The Chief Human Capital Officer must coordinate quarterly staffing performance reviews with the agency Performance Improvement Officer and the Strategic Hiring Committee to evaluate implementation of the agency's Annual Staffing Plan and assess progress toward workforce goals. Findings from quarterly reviews must be incorporated into the quarterly updates to the agency's Annual Staffing Plan described in § 250.205(e).</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Employee Surveys</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>10. The authority citation for subpart C is removed.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>11. Amend § 250.302 by revising paragraph (a)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.302</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Survey requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) * * *</P>
                    <P>(2) The 10 prescribed survey questions are listed below:</P>
                    <P>(i) Managers clearly communicate the goals of the organization.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The people I work with cooperate to get the job done.</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) In my work unit, differences in performance are recognized in a meaningful way.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40444"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(iv) My supervisor provides ongoing feedback to help me succeed and progress in my career.</P>
                    <P>(v) My supervisor holds my team accountable for achieving results.</P>
                    <P>(vi) I know how my work relates to the agency's goals.</P>
                    <P>(vii) I feel empowered to get things done at my organization.</P>
                    <P>(viii) I can disclose a suspected violation of any law, rule or regulation without fear of reprisal.</P>
                    <P>(ix) In my work unit, steps are taken to deal with a poor performer who cannot or will not improve.</P>
                    <P>(x) In my work unit, poor performers usually (select all that apply):</P>
                    <P>• Remain in the work unit and improve their performance over time;</P>
                    <P>• Remain in the work unit and continue to underperform;</P>
                    <P>• Leave the work unit—removed or transferred;</P>
                    <P>• Leave the work unit—quit;</P>
                    <P>• There are no poor performers in my work unit.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 250.303 by revising paragraph (a) and adding paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 250.303</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Availability of results.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) Each agency will make the results of its annual survey available to the public and post the results on its website unless the agency head determines that doing so would jeopardize or negatively impact national security. Each agency may determine the specific content of its public disclosure of its annual survey results.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) Each agency must submit survey results to OPM and OMB no later than 90 days after completion of survey administration.</P>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13441 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-39-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Parts 412, 432, 715, and 752</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: 2025-OPM-0012]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3206-AO91</RIN>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Part 1201</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3124-AA35</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Promoting Employee Accountability</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management and Merit Systems Protection Board.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) and Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB or Board) are issuing proposed regulations governing performance-based reduction in grade and removal actions, non-disciplinary separations, and adverse actions, along with the MSPB's review of those actions, and proposing improved and additional training to supervisors. With this rule, OPM seeks to improve the accountability of employees for poor performance and misconduct by streamlining the administrative procedures used by agencies to take performance-based and adverse actions; and MSPB seeks to refocus its penalty review on a totality of the circumstances test rather than a rigid application of prescribed factors. The proposed rule also promotes transparency regarding employee poor performance and misconduct by restricting agencies' ability to engage in settlement agreements that remove official documentation of performance or conduct detrimental to the efficiency of the service.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments for this proposed rulemaking through the Federal eRulemaking Portal: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Please arrange and identify your comments on the regulatory text by subpart and section number. If your comments relate to the supplementary information, please refer to the heading and page number. All comments will be docketed in the OPM docket for this rulemaking. All comments must be received by the end of the comment period for them to be considered by OPM and MSPB. All comments and other submissions received generally will be posted on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://regulations.gov</E>
                         as they are received, without change, including any personal information provided. However, OPM retains discretion to redact personal or sensitive information, including but not limited to, personal or sensitive information pertaining to third parties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this rule may be found in the docket for this rulemaking at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        Noah Peters, Senior Advisor to the Director, by email at 
                        <E T="03">employeeaccountability@opm.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at (202) 606-2930.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Gina K. Grippando, Clerk of the Board, by email at 
                        <E T="03">mspb@mspb.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at (202) 653-7200.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    OPM proposes to amend its regulations governing performance-based reduction in grade, removal actions, and adverse actions. OPM proposes these regulations under its congressionally granted authority to regulate agency actions to hold employees accountable for unacceptable performance and misconduct detrimental to the efficiency of the service and to implement the President's expressed policy direction. Specifically, OPM proposes revisions to regulations governing performance-based reduction in grade, and removal actions, and adverse actions under statutory authority vested in it by Congress in 5 U.S.C. 4305, 4315, 7504, 7514 and 7543. The regulations will update current procedures to make them more efficient and effective.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed regulations also will clarify procedures and requirements to support managers in addressing unacceptable performance and promoting employee accountability for performance-based reduction-in-grade, removal actions, and adverse actions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See also OPM Memorandum, “Guidance on Revocation of Executive Order 14003,” Feb. 7, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/latest-memos/guidance-on-revocation-of-eo-14003.pdf;</E>
                         OPM Memorandum, “Guidance on Executive Order 
                        <E T="03">Exclusions from Federal Labor-Management Programs,</E>
                        ” March 27, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/latest-memos/guidance-on-executive-order-exclusions-from-federal-labor-management-programs.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    MSPB proposes to amend its regulations governing its review of agency actions taken under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75. Specifically, MSPB proposes to no longer apply the 12 factors established in 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Veterans Administration,</E>
                     5 M.S.P.R. 280 (1981) (
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                    ), in reviewing whether an agency's chosen penalty for an action taken under chapter 75 is reasonable. Instead, MSPB proposes to assess reasonableness of the penalty under a more flexible totality of the circumstances standard.
                </P>
                <P>OPM and MSPB recognize the interactions between the proposed changes to each of their regulations. To that end, OPM and MSPB are publishing these proposals in a joint notice of proposed rulemaking and welcome comment on those interactions and related impacts. After consideration of comments, the agencies may issue a joint final rule or each agency may finalize its respective proposals in separate final rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Previous Attempts To Promote Accountability of the Federal Workforce</HD>
                <P>
                    One of the major purposes of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 (CSRA) was 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40445"/>
                    to “preserve the ability of federal managers to maintain an effective and efficient Government.” 
                    <E T="03">Cornelius</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Nutt,</E>
                     472 U.S. 648, 662 (1985) (internal formatting omitted). “In order to achieve this purpose, one of the `central tasks' of the [CSRA] was to [a]llow civil servants to be able to be hired and fired more easily, but for the right reasons.' ” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     (quoting S.Rep. No. 95-969, p. 4 (1978), U.S.C. Cong. &amp; Admin. News 1978, p. 2726). However, contrary to Congress's objectives that the CSRA would “give agencies greater ability to remove or discipline expeditiously employees who engage in misconduct, or whose work performance is unacceptable,” 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     (internal quotation marks omitted), reports and surveys consistently document that the Federal government struggles to effectively address widespread performance and conduct issues in the Federal workforce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    During his first administration, President Trump prioritized federal employee accountability by issuing E.O. 13839, “Promoting Accountability and Streamlining Removal Procedures Consistent with Merit System Principles;” 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     E.O. 13839 recognized that implementation of Merit System Principles has fallen short of their ideals of promoting high levels of performance and correcting poor performance and misconduct.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Among many reforms to reestablish these Merit System Principles, President Trump sought changes to agencies' use of performance improvement plans to promote greater accountability. He also sought to lift the restrictions on supervisors and managers seeking to levy penalties commensurate with employee misconduct by eliminating requirements that agencies use progressive discipline measures in every disciplinary action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         83 FR 25343 (May 25, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(4)-(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On September 17, 2019, OPM issued a proposed rule to incorporate these principles and actions into its regulations to address the long-standing problem of employee accountability.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM proposed modifications to 5 CFR parts 432 and 752 to streamline the procedures for holding employees accountable for unacceptable performance and conduct detrimental to the efficiency of the service. OPM proposed, for example, clarifying that neither law nor OPM regulations prescribed the nature of any assistance agencies must provide to an employee during an opportunity to improve period, nor could the nature of any such assistance be determinative of the penalty imposed for a reduction in grade or pay or removal. Additionally, the proposed rule modified OPM's adverse action regulations under Part 752 to loosen the restrictions on management in assessing the appropriate penalty for misconduct by eliminating any requirement to use progressive discipline; expanding the scope of past discipline and work performance considered; narrowing the appropriate comparators; and allowing managers and supervisors to impose more severe penalties where appropriate. The proposed rule also limited the use of settlement agreements to hide adverse performance or misconduct information from other federal agencies. On October 16, 2020, OPM issued a final rule adopting these provisions with some modifications.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         84 FR 48794.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    President Biden issued E.O. 14003 (86 FR 7231; Jan. 27, 2021), which rescinded E.O. 13839. As directed by E.O. 14003, OPM issued a proposed rule on January 4, 2022, to rescind most of OPM's employee accountability reforms adopted in its October 16, 2020 final rule.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM argued that these changes were necessary to effectuate President Biden's policy to “protect, empower and rebuild the career Federal workforce as well as its current policy to encourage employee organizing and collective bargaining.” 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         87 FR 200.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As part of its justification, OPM articulated several reasons for amending its regulations. On the timing and nature of assistance offered by an agency to improve an employee's unacceptable performance, OPM expressed concerns that the then-current rule would incentivize supervisors to offer minimal assistance during an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance (ODAP) period. OPM also stated that returning to the previous regulations would merely restate the statutory requirements under 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(5).</P>
                <P>OPM noted that its plan to rescind amendments to adverse action procedures under part 752 was consistent with established regulatory principles. OPM decided not to adopt the amendments in regulations and determined that rescinding them provides agencies greater flexibility in addressing employee misconduct. OPM also justified revoking the limitations on the use of settlement agreements it previously imposed arguing that they inhibited dispute resolution options; reduced the likelihood of reaching settlement; potentially increased the cost of litigation and arbitration; and crowded the docket of federal administrative adjudicative agencies. OPM stated that there were greater benefits to giving agencies flexibility to resolve disputes over their ability to access adverse information during the hiring process.</P>
                <P>On November 10, 2022, OPM issued a final rule adopting its proposed rule with few modifications despite significant opposition. In justifying why it chose to proceed with proposed changes that would not credit an agency's attempts to correct an employee's unacceptable performance before the formal ODAP, OPM merely asserted that it favored returning to the statutory language. Despite many commenters arguing that OPM was giving extra-statutory protections to employees, OPM argued that agencies still had adequate means to take swift action to address unacceptable performance. OPM also generally asserted that the previous final rule placed restrictions and limitations on when agencies could offer performance assistance to struggling employees.</P>
                <P>OPM also explained that it declined to modify its proposed changes to adverse action procedures under Part 752 because they reflected consistency with law while providing agencies with the necessary tools and flexibility to address unacceptable performance and misconduct. OPM also rebutted concerns that it failed to cite to data or evidence to support its change in policy, arguing that a change in administration is a sufficient basis for revising its regulations. OPM also argued that the final rule adopted during the first Trump administration lacked sufficient reliance interests since less than three-months lapsed between the final rule and the issuance of E.O. 14003.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, in explaining why it decided to adopt its rescission of its limitations on clean record settlements, OPM stated that it “deem[ed] impracticable, unrealistic, and unhelpful because it absolutely prohibits agencies from altering or removing information about performance or misconduct as a condition to resolve or settle a complaint or challenge to a personnel action, even where doing so furthers the best interests of an effective and efficient Government and the interests, voluntarily expressed, of both parties to personnel litigation.” 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         87 FR 67774.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Shortly after taking the oath of office on January 20, 2025, President Trump revoked E.O. 14003 and restored the policies of E.O. 13839.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     President 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40446"/>
                    Trump made it a priority of his Administration to ensure that the federal civilian workforce is accountable to the American people. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     E.O. 14171, 90 FR 8625 (Jan. 31, 2025) (“A critical aspect of this executive function is the responsibility to maintain professionalism and accountability within the civil service.”). The need to promote accountability within the federal workforce comes at a critical time to ensure that the federal government meets the needs of the American people while agencies seek to eliminate waste and find efficiencies to deliver on their missions. To accomplish the President's vision for the federal workforce, OPM finds it necessary to amend its regulations issued during the Biden Administration and return to the regulations finalized during the first Trump Administration.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         90 FR 8237 (Jan. 28, 2025). Note that section 6 of E.O. 14171 directed agencies to reverse changes to agency policies pertaining to disciplinary actions 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        and unacceptable performance effectuated under E.O. 14003. That order in turn had required agencies to reverse changes to such policies effectuated under E.O. 13839. Consequently, E.O. 14171 on net directed agencies to return to the disciplinary and unacceptable performance policies implemented pursuant to E.O. 13839 and reversed under E.O. 14003.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Reinvigorating Merit System Principles</HD>
                <P>
                    President Trump made it a priority of his Administration to ensure that the federal civilian workforce is accountable to the American taxpayer. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     E.O. 14171, 90 FR 8625 (Jan. 31, 2025) (“A critical aspect of this executive function is the responsibility to maintain professionalism and accountability within the civil service.”). The need to promote accountability within the federal workforce comes at a critical time to ensure that the federal government meets the needs of the American people while agencies seek to eliminate waste and find efficiencies to deliver on their missions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In establishing the Merit System Principles that underpin the federal government, Congress intended to require a professional workforce designed to be used efficiently and effectively, where employees are retained based on performance or released from service; and, where high performance and achievement are demonstrated, agencies provide incentives and recognition for employee achievement. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(3), (5)-(6). Congress also intended for federal employees to uphold exemplary standards of integrity and demonstrate a commitment to the public interest. 5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(4).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Over an extended period, numerous studies have documented that agencies face serious challenges holding federal employees accountable for poor performance and misconduct. While the CSRA “was passed, in part, to make it easier for managers to remove poor performers from the Federal workplace. Experience . . . shows that this goal has not been achieved.” 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Government Accountability Office (GAO) reported in 1990 that “[a]bout half of the supervisors [it surveyed] said they had experienced difficulty in implementing the process for dealing with poor performers . . . [and] cited the significant amount of calendar time” the process may require, among other cumbersome reasons.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, GAO reported that “91,770, or 51 percent, of the supervisors experienced one or more problems, including the amount of time involved.” 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     GAO also reported that “19,730, or 11 percent, of the supervisors would be unlikely to use their agency's process to deal with poor performers in the future, primarily because the process takes too long and uses too much of their time.” 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In a survey of more than 5,700 federal managers conducted in 1995, the MSPB found “most supervisors . . . perceive [chapter 43 procedures] to be too complicated, time consuming, or onerous.” 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     And in 2015, GAO “reviewed the rules and trends relating to the review and dismissal of federal employees for poor performance,” and found that “it can take six months to a year (and sometimes longer) to dismiss an employee.” 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It also found “agencies rarely use chapter 43 to dismiss employees,” noting only 280 employees were dismissed under chapter 43 procedures in 2013, 45 percent of whom appealed, the average length of which took 243 days to complete.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Merit Sys. Prot. Bd., “Removing Poor Performers in the Federal Service,” September 1995, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mspb.gov/studies/studies/Removing_Poor_Performers_in_the_Federal_Service_Issue_Paper_September_1995_253662.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “Performance Management: How Well Is the Government Dealing With Poor Performers?” October 1990, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/ggd-91-7.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “Federal Workforce: Improved Supervision and Better Use of Probationary Periods Are Needed to Address Substandard Employee Performance,” February 2015, p. 1, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-15-191.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 25.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The use of legal settlement agreements also contributes to the problem of employee accountability in the federal workforce. Settlement agreements often contain terms that require agencies to remove any negative information about employees' performance or conduct from their official personnel folder and provide for a neutral reference during reference checks. The incorporation of these terms means that a hiring official may not become aware of an employee's past issues at another agency, which can interfere with agencies' ability to hire the best candidate for a position. Settlement agreements, thus, contribute to a cycle of passing around underperforming or problematic employees who suffer few, if any, consequences. OPM understands that this practice is colloquially described as the “Dance of the Lemons” within agencies.</P>
                <P>OPM is proposing to incorporate the policies and changes first identified in E.O. 13839 into its regulations, as well as other revisions discussed below, as a necessary step toward ensuring accountability in the federal workforce. These proposed changes align with President Trump's vision for restoring merit to the workforce, promoting stewardship of taxpayers' money, and facilitating agencies' ability to deliver on their missions.</P>
                <P>
                    While E.O. 13839 is not currently in effect, President Trump directed agencies to rescind regulations and other policies implemented pursuant to E.O. 14003 that rescinded or reversed policies issued under E.O. 13839.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This directive applies to OPM's November 10, 2022, final rule. As stated in the 2022 final rule, OPM finds that “a change in administration brought about by the people casting their votes is a perfectly reasonable basis for an executive agency's reappraisal of its regulations and programs.” 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further and as discussed in greater detail below, even if E.O. 14171 had not directed restoration of E.O. 13839 policies, OPM independently believes these changes are necessary to promote greater employee accountability.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         E.O. 14171, section 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         87 FR 67767 (cleaned up).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Retiring the Douglas Factors</HD>
                <P>
                    One of Congress's primary purposes in enacting 5 U.S.C. 7701, establishing the MSPB's appellate jurisdiction, was “to give agencies greater ability to remove or discipline expeditiously employees who engage in misconduct, or whose work performance is unacceptable.” 
                    <E T="03">Cornelius</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Nutt,</E>
                     472 U.S. 648, 662-63 (1985). This principal objective, however, has been frustrated by the perceived requirement to consider the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in every adverse action case—a requirement that is not mandated by statute. 
                    <E T="03">Nagel</E>
                     v. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40447"/>
                    <E T="03">Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs.,</E>
                     707 F.2d 1384, 1386 (Fed. Cir. 1983).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Since the Board's decision in 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Veterans Administration,</E>
                     5 M.S.P.R. 280 (1981) establishing 12 factors for assessing the reasonableness of an agency's chosen penalty for adverse actions taken under 5 U.S.C. 7513, agencies have often mechanically applied each of these factors. Considering each of these factors before taking an appropriate adverse action against an employee may now be seen by Federal managers as a requirement, as though the 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors were statutorily mandated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Quite the opposite, nothing in 5 U.S.C. 7513, or for that matter in 
                    <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                     requires, or even suggests, the use of the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in every case. Instead, Congress carefully and deliberately established the following standard for Federal agencies taking covered adverse actions: “Under regulations prescribed by [OPM], an agency may take an action covered by this subchapter against an employee only for such cause as will promote the efficiency of the service.” 5 U.S.C. 7513.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The “efficiency of the service” standard enacted by Congress should be the basis upon which covered adverse actions are taken and reviewed under 5 U.S.C. 7513, not a weighing of the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors. The Board set forth the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors as a method for elucidating what constituted “efficiency of the service” in the context of review of agency penalty determinations, but the rigid application of the factors since that time, and the perceived obligation among Federal supervisors to consider each of the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in every case, has demonstrated that another method is needed. 
                    <E T="03">See Douglas,</E>
                     5 M.S.P.R. at 306 (1981) (cautioning against a “mechanistic” or “formulaic” weighing of the 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in every case).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         The requirement that an adverse action promote the “efficiency of the service” originated with the Lloyd-La Follette Act, ch. 389, sec. 6, 37 Stat. 539 (1912).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, MSPB does not view consideration of the 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in every adverse action case as necessary to uphold merit principles. On the contrary, it is concerned that the perceived requirement to consider each of the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors in taking an action under 5 U.S.C. 7513 may undermine merit principles, particularly Merit System Principle 4 (“All employees should maintain high standards of integrity, conduct, and concern for the public interest”) and Merit System Principle 6 (“Employees should be retained on the basis of adequacy of their performance, inadequate performance should be corrected, and employees should be separated who cannot or will not improve their performance to meet required standards”). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 2301.
                </P>
                <P>
                    MSPB therefore proposes to amend its regulations at 5 CFR part 1201 regarding its review of the agency's choice of penalty to make clear that it will no longer apply the 12 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors but, instead, will consider the penalty in each case under the totality of the circumstances. MSPB also proposes to codify existing case law regarding how it determines whether to sustain or mitigate penalties, consistent with 
                    <E T="03">Lachance</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Devall,</E>
                     178 F.3d 1246, 1260 (Fed. Cir. 1999).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Proposed Amendments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">a. 5 CFR Part 412 Supervisory, Management, and Executive Development</HD>
                <P>
                    Part 412 applies to all incumbents of (and candidates for) supervisory, managerial, and executive positions in the General Schedule (GS), the Senior Executive Service (SES), or equivalent pay systems that are also covered by 5 CFR part 410. Among some of the most common refrains that supervisors, managers, and executives report is the lack of training on effectively and efficiently managing their workforces and aligning their work units to the broader strategic goals of the agencies.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         U.S. Government Accountability Office, “2020 Federal Managers Survey: Results on Government Performance and Management Issues,” July 27, 2021, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://files.gao.gov/special.pubs/gao-21-537sp/resultsall.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The revisions to 412.202 proposed in this rule are intended to ensure agencies train and develop these individuals so that they may become more effective managers, improve their employees' performance without needing to take performance-based or adverse actions, and become better prepared to take any such action to address poor performance or misconduct.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 412.202 Systematic Training and Development of Supervisors, Managers, and Executives</HD>
                <P>While current regulation requires agencies to establish leadership development plans, programs, and strategies, provide periodic training to ensure quality managers, and to assist employees transitioning from non-supervisory employee to manager, or from manager to executive, the current requirements lack rigor and specificity. This proposed rule intends to improve the quality of such policies and programs.</P>
                <P>Namely, under the proposed rule, agencies would be required to design and implement training and development programs for supervisors, managers, and executives with improved focus on promoting high levels of performance and accountability and align with OPM guidance. The proposed rule also reduces the interval for training to supervisory, managerial, and executive positions from once every three years to annually, to ensure such personnel are well-versed in the use of actions, options, and strategies to oversee and manage the productivity of their workforces. The proposed rule modifies four existing subjects and adds eight new ones agencies must incorporate into their annual trainings for supervisors, managers, and executives under 5 CFR 412.202(b). Among the new subjects, agencies will be required to provide training on: the procedures for holding employees accountable for unacceptable performance; effective use of probationary and trial periods, awards, bonuses, and other forms of employee recognition; and addressing reports of hostile work environment, retaliation, or harassment.</P>
                <P>
                    Additional and qualitatively-improved supervisor training is important to ensure supervisors, managers, and executives are appropriately equipped to build the high-performance culture essential to individual and organizational success as President Trump has directed.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For example, GAO's 2020 Federal Managers Survey found that a plurality of managers self-reported they have not been provided trainings to help accomplish basic workforce management tasks including but not limited to conducting strategic planning, setting performance goals, or using program performance to inform future decision-making.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, as it relates to the authorities of chapter 43 and 75 specifically, GAO reports supervisors may suffer from a lack of “basic understanding of the processes under chapter 43 and 75; and . . . knowledge or an understanding of requirements for addressing poor 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40448"/>
                    performance. . .” 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM seeks to rectify this reported lack of expertise by increasing the cadence and improving the quality of the training provided pursuant to § 412.202.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         E.O. 14284, 
                        <E T="03">Strengthening Probationary Periods in the Federal Service,</E>
                         90 FR 17729-33 (April 29, 2025); E.O. 14171, 
                        <E T="03">Restoring Accountability to Policy-Influencing Positions Within the Federal Workforce,</E>
                         90 FR 8625 (Jan. 31, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">Restoring Accountability for Career Senior Executives,</E>
                         90 FR 8481 (Jan. 30, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">Return to In-Person Work</E>
                         (Jan. 28, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “2020 Federal Managers Survey: Results on Government Performance and Management Issues,” July 27, 2021, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://files.gao.gov/special.pubs/gao-21-537sp/resultsall.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         U.S. Government Accountability Office, “Federal Workforce: Improved Supervision and Better Use of Probationary Periods are Needed to Address Substandard Employee Performance,” February 2016, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-15-191.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM recognizes that agencies may have separate training requirements established by law. For example, 5 U.S.C. 9902(d) requires supervisors of the Department of War to complete a training program once every three years on authorities and topics detailed under that specific Section. The plain reading of the statute sets a floor—not a mandate—for supervisors to meet. Notwithstanding the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 9902(d)(2) or similar statute, OPM may establish training requirements under 5 U.S.C. 4118. As applicable here, 5 U.S.C. 4103 directs each agency to establish training programs in accordance with the regulations promulgated by OPM under 5 U.S.C. 4118; and 5 U.S.C. 4103(a)(1). This directive, housed in 5 U.S.C. chapter 41, is in part the underlying predicate authority for 5 CFR 412.202. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 CFR part 412.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">b. 5 CFR Part 432—Performance-Based Reduction in Grade and Removal Actions</HD>
                <P>Part 432 applies to reduction in grade and removal of covered employees based on performance at the unacceptable level. Congress enacted 5 U.S.C. chapter 43, in part, to create a simple, dedicated, though not exclusive, process for agencies to use in taking adverse actions based on unacceptable performance. Since that time, however, chapter 43 has not worked as Congress intended. Specifically, interpretations of chapter 43 that are not statutorily required have hindered agencies from taking effective action against poor performers and sustaining those actions on appeal.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule is intended to clarify the requirements in 5 U.S.C. chapter 43. The proposed amendments to 5 CFR part 432 should be construed to be read in concert with related provisions of Federal law (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 6384 and 29 U.S.C. 791(f)) as well as OPM's proposed rulemaking modifying part 430 of this subchapter. Finally, OPM notes that 5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(2) provides that employees should receive fair and equitable treatment without regard to political affiliation, race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or handicapping condition, and with proper regard for their privacy and constitutional rights. All personnel actions must meet this statutory requirement.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 432.103 Definitions</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule modifies the definition of “acceptable performance” in paragraph (a) to account for OPM's proposed rule “Performance Appraisal for General Schedule, Prevailing Rate, and Certain Other Employees,” 91 FR 8780 (Feb. 24, 2026), which eliminates Level 2 summary levels in part 430. If adopted, these changes to part 430 would require employees to demonstrate performance at the Level 3 “Fully Successful” or equivalent level during an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance to avoid a performance-based action. Such employees would also need to sustain their performance at the Fully Successful level for one year from the beginning of an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance to avoid a performance-based action under 5 CFR 432.105(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 432.104 Addressing Unacceptable Performance</HD>
                <P>OPM proposes several changes to streamline its procedures agencies must follow in addressing unacceptable performance. First, under § 432.104 agencies are only required to provide performance assistance to employees performing unacceptably when the employee is given an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance. Under the proposed rule, agencies will be required to provide such assistance before or during the period in which an employee is given an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance. The proposed rule also provides that any such assistance provided to the employee before or during the opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance meets the requirement under 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(5).</P>
                <P>
                    Second, OPM is proposing to generally limit the opportunity period to demonstrate acceptable performance to 30 calendar days. Under the current regulation at § 432.104, OPM limited the amount of time for an employee to demonstrate acceptable performance to a “reasonable opportunity” without further defining the term. This undefined term allowed agencies the discretion through policies and collective bargaining agreements, to provide extensive time periods for employees to improve their performance. The MSPB has articulated factors it uses to determine whether the period of time granted is reasonable under the circumstances. 
                    <E T="03">Macijauskas</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Dep't of the Army,</E>
                     34 M.S.P.R. 564, 566 (1987), 
                    <E T="03">aff'd</E>
                     847 F.2d 841 (Fed. Cir. 1988). Agencies are typically left using their best predictive judgment on whether an administrative judge would retroactively agree that the amount of time afforded an employee was reasonable. This uncertainty results in lengthy opportunity periods, as managers seek risk aversion, that drag out the process and chills supervisors' willingness to engage in the chapter 43 process. The proposed rule sets a maximum of 30 calendar days for employees to demonstrate acceptable performance. However, an agency retains sole and exclusive discretion to extend this period when circumstances warrant additional time for performance evaluation.
                </P>
                <P>Third, the proposed rule provides that agencies are not permitted to provide additional informal periods to demonstrate acceptable performance. OPM is aware that some agency collective bargaining agreements require managers to provide employees with “performance assistance periods” before they can initiate opportunity periods under 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(6). This can significantly extend the amount of time necessary to remove an underperforming employee through chapter 43 procedures, as the agency must proceed through both an informal performance assistance period and then an opportunity period.</P>
                <P>Although the current regulation at § 432.104 does not prohibit or authorize these additional periods, OPM believes this prohibition is necessary to avoid agencies, whether through policy or collective bargaining agreement, from adding time beyond what OPM considers to be a reasonable amount of time for an employee to improve his or her performance to an acceptable level—30 calendar days. Establishing limits on the opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance by precluding informal performance assistance periods or similar additional periods beyond what is required by law encourages efficient use of the procedures under chapter 43, reduces the burden of using these procedures on supervisors, and furthers effective delivery of agency mission while still providing employees with sufficient opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance as required by law.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM notes that under this proposal supervisors would remain free to informally provide employees with assistance in improving performance at any time and indeed are expected to do so. This proposed regulation would only prohibit agency policies or practices, including those required by collective 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40449"/>
                    bargaining agreements, that establish definite periods (beyond those provided for in 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(6)) for demonstrating acceptable performance.
                </P>
                <P>Lastly, the proposed rule specifies that the nature of the assistance provided to the employee is not determinative of any penalty imposed upon the employee who fails to demonstrate acceptable performance. This would prohibit an administrative judge or arbitrator from mitigating or reversing an agency-imposed penalty of a reduction in grade or removal based on a finding that the agency did not offer sufficient or certain types of assistance during the opportunity to improve period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 432.105 Proposing and Taking Action Based on Unacceptable Performance</HD>
                <P>Section 4302(c)(5) requires OPM to ensure each performance appraisal system provides for assisting employees in improving unacceptable performance. Similarly, performance appraisal systems must provide for reassigning, reducing in grade, or removing employees who continue to have unacceptable performance but only after an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance. 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(6). Currently, § 432.105 does not specifically address whether assistance provided to an employee before or during an opportunity period satisfies the requirement under Section 4302(c)(5). The proposed rule decouples 5 U.S.C. 4302(c)(5) and (6) by clarifying in § 432.105 that the opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance required prior to initiating an action pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 4303 is separate from the requirement to provide assistance with improving unacceptable performance. Aiding with improving unacceptable performance includes any and all performance assistance measures taken during the performance appraisal period to assist an employee to improve his or her performance and is not limited to any efforts taken during the formal opportunity period.</P>
                <P>Moreover, Section 4303(a) authorizes agencies to reduce in grade or remove an employee for unacceptable performance. Neither 5 U.S.C. 4303 nor 5 CFR 432.105 specify which penalty must be proposed by an agency taking an action for unacceptable performance. Agencies are free to propose either a reduction in grade or removal. The proposed rule removes this choice by establishing removal as the default penalty agencies must propose for unacceptable performance. Agencies will, however, retain their discretion to mitigate a reduction in grade or lesser penalty such as a written warning consistent with their internal policies. Any such mitigation will be left to the sole and exclusive discretion of the higher agency official or agency head and may only be exercised consistent with the agency's mission. These updates are essential to ensure agencies can hold employees responsible for poor performance that negatively impacts the agency's mission, especially as resources become more limited. Agencies must concentrate exclusively on their missions when determining whether to keep employees who are unable to fulfill the responsibilities of their positions.</P>
                <P>OPM is further proposing to clarify an agency's and an employee's obligations under 5 U.S.C. 4303(b) by standardizing the timelines for chapter 43 actions, with appropriate qualifications for circumstances that may arise that would necessitate the non-adherence to those timelines. As a general matter, OPM is proposing to direct agencies to effectuate a proposed action no later than 30 days after the date on which an employee is notified of the proposed action. The proposed rule also limits the circumstances when an agency may extend the advance notice to only those situations where (1) it is necessary to comply with a stay ordered by a member of the MSPB under 5 U.S.C. 1214(b)(1)(A) or (B), or (2) to consider information gathered as part of a medical examination. Otherwise, an agency, through its Chief Human Capital Officer or equivalent official (such as the agency's HR Director), must request prior approval from OPM to extend the advance notice period for any other reason.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule would provide an employee, in general, 7 to 10 calendar days from the date of the agency's proposed action to provide an answer to the proposed removal. The proposal also provides an agency with sole and exclusive discretion and authority to provide for a 10-day extension so that the employee may consider a settlement or other offer from the agency to terminate employment. The proposed rule would require that an employee raise any medical issues, such as illness, incapacitation, or disability, that might have impacted the employee's performance as part of the employee's answer. Failure to do so at that juncture would be considered a waiver of the ability to do so prior to the proposed action being effectuated, except where prohibited by statute.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to statutory requirements, employees have the right to representation. The proposed rule provides clarification regarding the selection process for representatives and outlines the specific, limited circumstances under which an agency may, at its sole discretion, deny an employee's chosen representative. Namely, the proposed rule allows the agency to disallow a representative if the representative is also an employee of the agency and his or her activities would cause a conflict of interest, the employee cannot be released from official duties because of priority needs of the Government, or that employee's release would give rise to unreasonable costs to the Government. The proposed rule also requires the employee to provide a written designation of his or her chosen representative to the agency</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule also prohibits the use of taxpayer-funded union time under 5 U.S.C. 7131(d) for a Federal employee serving as a representative of an employee during the procedures established under subparts B and D of part 752. OPM believes that American taxpayers should not pay for the representation of Federal employees charged with conduct detrimental to the efficiency of the service. As detailed in the 
                    <E T="03">Taxpayer-Funded Union Time Usage in the Federal Government: Fiscal Year 2024,</E>
                     taxpayers subsidize labor union representatives at a total compensation rate of $64.05 per hour to represent bargaining unit employees or at a total annual compensation cost of more than $207 million.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2019, the total annual compensation cost was slightly below $135 million. OPM, thus, finds it entirely appropriate and necessary to reduce these growing costs by ending the general subsidization of employee opposition to proposed removals. Employees may represent themselves in such proceedings or bring in outside counsel. But agencies should not be required to subsidize employee opposition to removal actions. to shift these costs away from taxpayers to employees. This prohibition is also consistent with the policies of E.O. 13837 and two other OPM-proposed rulemakings. If adopted in the final rule, the regulation would prevent agencies from agreeing to a proposal or provision in a collective bargaining agreement or authorizing the use of taxpayer-funded union time under section 7131(d) for the purposes of representing employees during proceedings established under subparts B and D. Where agencies have agreed to provide such time in a collective bargaining agreement before any such 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40450"/>
                    final rule, this prohibition would apply at the expiration of the term of that agreement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/about-us/reports-publications/agency-reports/fiscal-year-2024-taxpayer-funded-union-time-usage-in-the-federal-government/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To align with 5 U.S.C. 4303(c)(1) and to promote efficiency, the proposed rule directs agencies to make their final written decision within 30 days after the expiration of the advance notice period but encourages an agency to make its final written decision as soon as practicable. The proposal empowers the deciding official, in his or her sole and exclusive discretion, to mitigate the proposed action only where doing so is consistent with the mission of the agency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 432.108 Settlement Agreements</HD>
                <P>
                    Under E.O. 13839, President Trump prohibited agencies from agreeing to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another Federal agency any information about a civilian employee's performance or conduct in that employee's official personnel records, including an employee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an adverse action. Such agreements or provisions thereof have traditionally been referred to as “clean record” settlements or become a part of agreements described as “last chance agreements.” 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This proposed rule is intended to promote the high standards of integrity, transparency, and accountability within the Federal workforce by requiring agencies to maintain personnel records that reflect complete information and preventing the alteration of information contained in those records in connection with a formal or informal complaint or adverse action. These limitations pertain to the exchange of information among Federal agencies and do not extend to external employers. Thus, agencies may agree to, for example, a provision in a settlement agreement that would provide a “neutral reference” 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to a non-Federal agency employer. This requirement would also ensure that those records are preserved so that agencies can make appropriate and informed decisions regarding an employee's qualification, suitability or fitness, and eligibility for access to classified information as applicable to future employment.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         These types of agreements call for an agency to hold a proposed action in abeyance for a period of time, typically one or two years, subject to an employee's good behavior. If the employee does not engage in any misconduct during this time, the agency would, as a condition of the agreement, mitigate or rescind the proposed action including removing evidence of the misconduct giving rise to the proposed action. Such agreements would be prohibited under this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Agencies sometimes agree as part of a settlement agreement to provide a neutral reference to prospective employers. The terms of a typical neutral reference provide that an agency will only confirm the dates of employment, salary history, and title of an employee to a prospective employer conducting a reference check.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>These requirements should not be construed to prevent agencies from correcting records of an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency has the authority—unilaterally or by agreement—to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. Specifically, the proposed rule states that the requirement would not prevent agencies from taking corrective action should it come to light, including during or after the issuance of an adverse personnel action, that information contained in a personnel record is inaccurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency would have the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal or a complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. In all events, however, the agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency itself has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. Documents subject to withdrawal or modification could include, for example, an SF-50 issuing a disciplinary or performance-based action, a decision memorandum accompanying such action, or an employee performance appraisal.</P>
                <P>Finally, to the extent that an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency would have the authority to remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files. Under the proposed rule, if persuasive evidence emerges before a final agency decision that questions the validity of an adverse personnel action or the agency's ability to defend it in litigation, the agency may cancel or vacate the action. Additional information can emerge at any point in the process before the agency makes its final decision, including during an employee's response period. To the extent an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency would have the authority to remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files. However, the requirements would continue to apply to any accurate information about the employee's performance or conduct which comes to light prior to issuance of a final agency decision on an adverse action.</P>
                <P>Should an agency cancel an action or proposed action and remove it from an employee's personnel file, the agency may need to retain the removed documentation to comply with other obligations such as litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and national security clearance background investigations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">c. 5 CFR Part 715—Nondisciplinary Separations, Demotions, and Furloughs</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 715.201 Applicability</HD>
                <P>The proposed language in this section removes the term “requested” to accommodate the proposed changes to 715.203.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 715.203 Abandonment</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed language in this section establishes a clear standard for agencies to use in determining whether an employee abandons his or her position. An employee deemed to have abandoned his position is not entitled to the statutory procedures under subparts D and F of Part 752 in the separation process. An employee who does not report for duty, or fails to return from leave or furlough of 30 days or less, for a period of 10 consecutive calendar days or longer without submitting a resignation is considered to have voluntarily abandoned their position. The D.C. Circuit has observed that the abandonment doctrine aligns with 5 U.S.C. 7512, which delineates the categories of adverse actions subject to MSPB review and specifically excludes abandonment. The abandonment doctrine is recognized in MSPB decisions, judicial decisions, and OPM's Guide to Processing Personnel Actions.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">McLane</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Burgum,</E>
                         No. 23-5205, 2025 WL 817423, at *2 (D.C. Cir. Mar. 14, 2025); see also 
                        <E T="03">Carroll</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Dep't of Interior,</E>
                         2014 WL 6791369 (M.S.P.B. Dec. 3, 2014); Off. of Personnel Mgmt., Guide to Processing Personnel Actions (2017), Ch. 35 at 1, Ch. 31 at 25.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM is convinced that it would benefit agency HR professionals if the abandonment doctrine were officially included in its regulations. OPM believes this proposal would clearly define the time required to establish abandonment, offering a regulatory standard where case law is unclear. OPM based its determination that 10 calendar days is reasonable on the Civil 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40451"/>
                    Service Commission's prior rule from the Federal Personnel Manual.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         See FPM Chapter 715, subchapter 3-2 (July 1969).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">d. 5 CFR Part 752—Adverse Actions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.104 Settlement Agreements</HD>
                <P>The proposed language in this section establishes the same requirement that is detailed in the proposed rule changes at § 432.108, Settlement agreements. Through revocation of E.O. 14003 and rescission of policies effectuated under it, President Trump directed a return to policies promulgated under E.O. 13839 to promote transparency and accountability in the federal workplace. This includes prohibiting the use of settlement agreements by agencies to obscure poor performance or misconduct of federal employees. As such, the same prohibition of settlement agreements under § 432.108 is appropriate when agencies utilize adverse action procedures under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75. Please see prior discussion of § 432.108.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.202 Standard for Action and Penalty Determination</HD>
                <P>Currently, § 752.202 establishes the standard for action when agencies suspend employees for 14 days or less. An agency may only suspend an employee for 14 days or less for such cause as will promote the efficiency of the service under 5 U.S.C. 7503(a). Although the standard for action under this subpart is unchanged, the proposed rule introduces three additional requirements to be considered when determining the appropriate penalty pursuant to this subpart.</P>
                <P>First, the proposed rule clarifies that an agency is not required to use progressive discipline under this subpart. This change mirrors the same policy articulated in E.O. 13839 which stated that supervisors and managers should not use progressive discipline and that each instance of conduct should be penalized based on the facts and circumstances.</P>
                <P>Second, OPM proposes to prohibit agencies from establishing or using tables of penalties or similar policies that prescribe mandatory or recommended disciplines. Certain agencies create penalty tables to help supervisors determine what discipline might best apply in specific cases. The creation and use of a table of penalties is neither required by statute, case law, or OPM regulation; nor does OPM provide written guidance on this topic. The applicable standard, “to promote the efficiency of the service,” is broad and flexible enough to encompass all occurrences that may occasion an adverse action. Thus, agencies can address misconduct appropriately without a table of penalties, and with sufficient flexibility to determine the appropriate discipline for each instance of misconduct.</P>
                <P>
                    Tables of penalties may also create significant drawbacks to the viability of a particular action and to effective management. By establishing a range of penalties for an offense, tables of penalties restrict management's discretion to adjust disciplines according to the specific facts and circumstances of each case by eliminating certain options along the continuum. For example, an arbitrator mitigated a federal employee's seven-day suspension to a reprimand despite the employee's prior discipline two years earlier for “conduct unbecoming a federal employee,” on the grounds that the previous offense did not count as a second offense of “disrespectful response to directions” under the agency's table of penalties.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM also recognizes that the existence of a table of penalties can encourage supervisors to assign more severe penalties than they believe are warranted in the particular case in order to align with the table's prescriptions. OPM believes supervisors should have discretion to tailor the penalty to the facts of the case without feeling restricted, in either direction, by a table of penalties.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM also encourages supervisors and managers to think carefully and coherently about when and how to impose discipline in a way that fosters an effective and efficient workplace, in the best interests of all employees and the agency's mission. By contrast, tables of penalties can foster a “paint-by-numbers” approach in which managers may hide behind a chart imposed from above rather than take direct responsibility for their workplace.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Energy and Am. Fed'n of Gov't Emps.,</E>
                         73 FLRA No. 100 (2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Indeed, OPM has long cautioned that “
                        <E T="03">surface</E>
                         consistency should be avoided” in favor of allowing for consideration of all relevant factors in the specific case. 
                        <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                         5 M.S.P.B. at 333 (emphasis in original). The MSPB has cautioned against “rigid formalism” in choosing a penalty and the “inflexible” use of tables of penalties. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Ultimately, managers must use their own judgment to thoughtfully address each situation as it happens, determining or recommending the most suitable discipline when required.</P>
                <P>
                    Third, OPM proposes in § 752.202(e) that agencies should not replace removal with suspension as a penalty when removal is warranted. Additionally, it should not be required that an employee be previously suspended or demoted before being removed. OPM previously adopted into regulations these commonsense principles.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Supervisors and managers should retain the flexibility to appropriately sanction misconduct so detrimental to the efficiency of the service that only removal is the appropriate penalty. Artificial constraints that only serve to reward such poor behavior should be removed to restore the public's trust in the federal workforce.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         85 FR 65940.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.203 Procedures</HD>
                <P>The proposed changes in § 752.203(a) prohibit agencies from supplementing the procedures under subpart B when taking a performance-based action. This prohibition applies to both agency policies as well as collective bargaining agreements. Consistent with the proposed changes to the regulations under Part 432, OPM believes these changes are necessary to free supervisors and managers from administrative burdens placed upon them by agency policy or collective bargaining agreements that prevent them from quickly addressing misconduct in the workplace.</P>
                <P>The proposed language in § 752.203(c) revises the timeline an employee is to be given to prepare an answer to a proposed action. OPM proposes to clarify that a reasonable amount of time for an employee to respond to such a proposal is not less than one business day but no more than 5 business days. The proposed language provides for an agency, in its sole and exclusive discretion, to offer an extension of no more than 5 additional calendar days, for a total of 10 calendar days, to consider a settlement or other offer from the agency, as well as an unlimited extension in such cases in which additional time is necessary for compliance with a statute, regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests.</P>
                <P>The proposed § 752.203(d) establishes the same requirement outlined in the proposed rule changes in § 432.105(d)(3) regarding appropriate representation of federal employees during the procedures established under this Subpart. Providing consistent rules across similar procedures promotes compliance across OPM's employee accountability regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed § 752.203(e) also strongly encourages agencies to issue a decision on the proposed action as soon as practicable and establishes a recommended timeline for agencies to respond within five business days from 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40452"/>
                    the end of the employee's opportunity to respond. While decisions rendered after this deadline are still valid, OPM views it necessary to establish this time limit for agencies to measure their performance in effectively addressing conduct detrimental to the efficiency of the service.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed § 752.203(f) authorizes employees to file an administrative grievance concerning an action taken under this subpart. It also proposes to prohibit bargaining unit employees or labor organizations on behalf of the bargaining unit employees from filing a negotiated grievance procedure contesting short-term suspensions taken under this subpart unless the agency and OPM agree that the negotiated grievance procedure does not impair the effective use of actions taken under this subpart. If either the agency or OPM subsequently determines that the negotiated grievance procedure impairs the effective use of actions under this subpart either may revoke their previous determination. OPM views these changes as necessary to prevent negotiated grievance procedures from creating significant delays and imposing significant expenses when agencies utilize short-term suspensions. Such delays and costs disincentivize supervisors and managers from carrying out relatively minor disciplinary actions. Congress intended suspensions of 14 days or less to be less administratively burdensome than adverse actions. The proposed amendments permit continued grievance arbitration of such actions, but only where the agency and OPM find the use of grievance procedures does not impair their use as a disciplinary tool.</P>
                <P>The proposed language in § 752.203(h) establishes the same requirements restricting settlement agreements that is detailed in the proposed rule changes at § 432.108, Settlement agreements. See prior discussion about §§ 432.108 and 752.104 for additional context.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart D—Regulatory Requirements for Removal, Suspension for More Than 14</HD>
                <P>Days, Reduction in Grade or Pay, or Furlough for 30 Days or Less</P>
                <P>This subpart addresses the procedural requirements for removals, suspensions for more than 14 days, including indefinite suspensions, reductions in grade, reductions in pay, and furloughs of 30 days or less for covered employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.401 Coverage</HD>
                <P>The proposed § 752.401(b)(18) reflects the changes to 5 CFR part 11 established under E.O. 14284. Employees terminated for failing to complete a probationary or trial period will not be able to avail themselves of the procedures established under subpart D. This is also consistent with the definition of employee under 5 U.S.C. 7511(a)(1). Similarly, the proposed § 752.401(d)(2) adds those employees appointed to positions in Schedule G to the list of employees excluded from coverage under this subpart. The proposed rule reflects the prohibition under 5 U.S.C. 7511(b)(2) excluding employees occupying positions established under Schedule Policy/Career from adverse action procedures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.403 Standard for Action and Penalty Determination.</HD>
                <P>For the same reasons articulated previously, OPM is proposing to adopt the same changes proposed under § 752.202 and § 752.203(a) under § 752.403. The proposed § 752.403(a) adopts the same limitations found at § 752.203(a) on supplementing the procedures used by agencies in taking adverse actions under subpart D. The proposed § 752.403(c)-(e) add the same penalty determination standards proposed at § 752.202(c), (e), and (f). OPM is also proposing in § 752.403(b) to adopt the same standard in § 752.202(b) to clarify that agencies shall not take any action under subpart D prohibited by 5 U.S.C. 2302.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, OPM proposes in § 752.403(d) to clarify that in assessing an appropriate penalty, agencies should focus on comparators in the same work unit, with the same supervisor, and who were subjected to the same standards governing discipline. OPM is adopting the approach articulated by the United States Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit (Federal Circuit) in 
                    <E T="03">Miskill</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Social Security Administration,</E>
                     863 F.3d 1379 (Fed. Cir. 2017), to guide agencies in identifying the appropriate comparators. The Federal Circuit held that an agency need only provide “proof that the proffered comparator was in the same work unit, with the same supervisor, and was subjected to the same standards governing discipline.” 
                    <E T="03">Miskill,</E>
                     863 F.3d at 1384. A line of since-repudiated Board decisions functionally required supervisors to consider agency-wide comparators when assessing penalties for misconduct.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This both made removals for misconduct difficult and strongly discouraged agencies from showing leniency in appropriate circumstances, as a single incident of leniency anywhere in the agency could prevent it from removing any other employee for similar conduct. OPM accordingly proposes to regulatorily codify that the use of comparator employees is optional on the part of agencies; and, when used, appropriate comparators are those in the same work unit and with the same supervisor. This approach reinforces the key principle that each case stands on its own factual and contextual footing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Lewis</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">VA,</E>
                         2010 MSPB 98 (2010); 
                        <E T="03">Woebcke</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">DHS,</E>
                         2010 MSPB 85 (2010); and 
                        <E T="03">Villada</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">USPS,</E>
                         2010 MSPB 232 (2010) (requiring agencies to look at agency-wide comparators when evaluating proposed discipline for misconduct). 
                        <E T="03">But see Singh</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">USPS, 2022</E>
                         MSPB 15 (2022) (abandoning the standard set out in 
                        <E T="03">Lewis</E>
                         and related cases).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.404 Procedures</HD>
                <P>Section 752.404(b) discusses the requirements for a notice of proposed action issued under this subpart. Specifically, § 752.404(b)(1) provides that, to the extent an agency, in its sole and exclusive discretion deems practicable, agencies should limit written notice of adverse actions taken under this subpart to the 30 days prescribed in 5 U.S.C. 7513(b)(1). Any notice period greater than 30 days must be reported to OPM. OPM will use this information to evaluate whether agencies are (1) promoting a culture of high performance and accountability and (2) holding managers and human resources professionals accountable for efficient and effective human resources management. The proposed rule leaves unchanged the requirement that the notice must provide detailed information with respect to any right to appeal the action pursuant to Public Law 115-91 section 1097(b)(2)(A); specifically, the forum in which the employee may file an appeal, and any limitations on the rights of the employee that would apply because of the forum in which the employee decides to file. This additional language implements the requirement in Public Law 115-91 section 1097(b)(2)(A), which mandates that information on whistleblower appeal rights be included in any notice provided to an employee under 5 U.S.C. 7503(b)(1), 7513(b)(1), or 7543(b)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    OPM is proposing to modify § 752.404(b)(3) to remove language that it believes discourages supervisors from placing an employee on notice leave. The current regulation states that agencies ordinarily should not take employees they have proposed to suspend or remove out of the worksite and should instead generally keep them in a regular duty status. OPM believes the current regulation serves as a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40453"/>
                    deterrent to supervisors and managers taking action under this subpart because it conveys a policy preference of discouraging use of the notice leave authority. According to MSPB, over 40% of supervisors “cited their discomfort” as a barrier to removing employees for misconduct.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     GAO has also noted that “dislike of confrontation may deter supervisors from taking steps to address poor performance issues.” 
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Put simply, evidence supports that a supervisor is less likely to take an appropriate adverse action if faced with the prospect of being required to see the employee against whom the action is taken each day for as long as the process may take. These proposed changes, nonetheless, still require the agency to make the appropriate assessment under 5 U.S.C. 6329b(b)(2) and 5 CFR 630.1503(b) when placing an employee on notice leave.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Merit Sys. Prot. Bd., “Remedying Unacceptable Employee Performance in the Federal Civil Service,” p. 6, June 18, 1995, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/studies/researchbriefs/Remedying_Unacceptable_Employee_Performance_in_the_Federal_Civil_Service_1627610.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         U.S. Government Accountability Office, “Issues Related to Poor Performers in the Workplace,” June 30, 2005, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/a93353.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Additionally, OPM is proposing changes to § 752.404(c)(1) similar to its proposed changes at § 752.203(c). The proposed change under this subpart would narrow the window for employees to respond to a proposed adverse action to a 7-10 calendar day window. OPM is also proposing to enable agencies to offer a limited extension of this time period to allow an employee to consider a settlement or other offer from the agency, as well as allow an unlimited extension in cases in which additional time is necessary for compliance with a statute, regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests.</P>
                <P>Finally, the proposed rule at § 752.404(g) discusses the requirements for an agency decision issued under this subpart. Specifically, the proposed rule at § 752.404(g)(3) includes new language that, to the extent practicable, an agency should issue the decision on a proposed removal under this subpart within 10 calendar days of the conclusion of the employee's opportunity. However, an agency that exceeds this time limit is still authorized to take an action under this subpart. These proposed changes facilitate timely resolution of adverse actions while preserving employee rights.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.407 Settlement Agreements</HD>
                <P>The proposed language in this section establishes the same requirement that is detailed in the proposed rule changes at § 432.108, Settlement agreements. See prior discussion regarding §§ 432.108 and 752.104 for additional context.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart F—Regulatory Requirements for Taking Adverse Actions Under the Senior Executive Service</HD>
                <P>This subpart addresses the procedural requirements for suspensions for more than 14 days and removals from the civil service as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7542.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.603 Standard for Action and Penalty Determination</HD>
                <P>As with the rule changes proposed for §§ 752.202 and 752.403, the standard for action under this subpart remains unchanged. OPM also proposes to add nearly identical language to that proposed for § 752.202 and 752.403 regarding penalty determinations. Please see the prior discussion about § 752.202 and 752.403, with one notable difference. OPM proposes in 752.603(d) to remove language that limits the appropriate comparators to the same work unit, same supervisor, those employees subject to the same standards of discipline for purposes of determining the appropriate penalty. In OPM's view, including these limits for SES would likely produce no valid comparators as most SES members are the only executives within a work unit. Additionally, the proposed rule adds the same paragraph (f) proposed at § 752.403 as paragraph (f) at § 752.603 which states that a suspension or a reduction in pay or grade should not be a substitute for removal in circumstances in which removal would be appropriate. Agencies should not require that an employee have previously been suspended or reduced in pay or grade before a proposing official may propose removal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.604 Procedures</HD>
                <P>§ 752.604(b) discusses the requirements for a notice of proposed action issued under this subpart. OPM proposes revising the language in this subpart to be consistent with the advance notice period for general schedule employees. Specifically, § 752.604(b)(1) provides that, to the extent an agency, in its sole and exclusive discretion deems practicable, agencies should limit written notice of adverse actions taken under this subpart to the 30 days prescribed in 5 U.S.C. 7543(b)(1). Any notice period greater than 30 days must be reported to OPM.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule also retains existing language that the notice must provide detailed information with respect to any right to appeal the action pursuant to Public Law 115-91 section 1097(b)(2)(A); specifically, the forum in which the employee may file an appeal, and any limitations on the rights of the employee that would apply because of the forum in which the employee decides to file. This additional language implements the requirement within Public Law 115-91 section 1097(b)(2)(A), which mandates that information on whistleblower appeal rights be included in any notice provided to an employee under 5 U.S.C. 7503(b)(1), 7513(b)(1), or 7543(b)(1).</P>
                <P>Finally, the proposed rule at § 752.604(g) discusses the requirements for an agency decision issued under this subpart. Specifically, the proposed rule at § 752.604(g)(3) includes new language that, to the extent practicable, an agency should issue the decision on a proposed removal under this subpart within 30 calendar days of the conclusion of the employee's opportunity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 752.607 Settlement Agreements</HD>
                <P>The proposed language in this section establishes the same requirement that is detailed in the proposed rule changes at §§ 432.108, 752.203 and 752.407. Please see prior discussion regarding §§ 432.108 and 752.104 for additional context.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">e. § 1201.56 Burden and Degree of Proof</HD>
                <P>
                    The MSPB proposes to amend its regulations to modify the 12-factor test used to assess penalty determinations, as initially established in its decision in 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Veterans Administration,</E>
                     5 M.S.P.R. 280 (1981), and replace it with a new test for assessing whether an agency's chosen penalty under chapter 75 is reasonable. Under the proposed 5 CFR 1201.56(b)(3), MSPB will evaluate whether an agency's penalty is within the tolerable limits of reasonableness in light of the totality of the circumstances. MSPB will make this determination on a case-by-case basis; no particular set of factors must be considered in every case.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In proposing this departure from the 12-factor 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     test, MSPB acknowledges that 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     has long been a cornerstone of federal employment law. However, over the ensuing decades, agencies and, occasionally, MSPB, have applied 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     in a rigid, mechanistic way that the original decision never contemplated or prescribed. For the reasons set forth in this proposed rule, and in conjunction with OPM's streamlining of performance management policy, the Board proposes to correct this rigid application and reaffirm the Board's commitment to adjudicating disciplinary action appeals 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40454"/>
                    under a more flexible standard in conformance with its statutory authority.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, MSPB proposes to codify existing case law regarding how the Board determines whether to sustain or mitigate penalties. Consistent with 
                    <E T="03">Lachance</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Devall,</E>
                     178 F.3d 1246, 1260 (Fed. Cir. 1999) (hereinafter “
                    <E T="03">Devall”</E>
                    ), if MSPB sustains all charges by the agency and determines that the agency's penalty is reasonable, it will sustain the agency's action. If MSPB sustains all the charges but determines the penalty is not reasonable, it may mitigate the penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty. If MSPB sustains fewer than all of the agency's charges, MSPB may mitigate the agency's penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty so long as the agency did not indicate either in its final decision, or during proceedings before MSPB, that it desired that a lesser penalty be imposed if the Board did not sustain all of its charges. If an agency so indicated, MSPB may impose a lesser penalty the agency indicated it would have imposed or give the agency an opportunity to institute a lesser penalty. If an agency did not indicate that it desired a lesser penalty be imposed if MSPB did not sustain all its charges, MSPB may mitigate the agency's penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty or give the agency an opportunity to institute a lesser penalty.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Devall,</E>
                         178 F.3d at 1260.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Legal Standards Governing Penalty Review Under Statute and Regulation</HD>
                <P>
                    Congress has directed that an agency may take an adverse action “only for such cause as will promote the efficiency of the service.” 
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the statute requires that the employee receive procedural rights—notice, an opportunity to respond, representation, and a written decision.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 7513(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 7513(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    When an employee appeals a chapter 75 action, the Board adjudicates the appeal under 5 U.S.C. 7701. The agency bears the burden of proof, and the Board must sustain the agency action only if supported by the applicable evidentiary standard.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, for actions under chapter 75, the agency must prove its charge and its penalty by a preponderance of the evidence and for actions under chapter 43, by substantial evidence.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An appellant may prevail by establishing that the agency has committed harmful procedural error in arriving at its decision, the agency's decision was based on a prohibited personnel practice, or the agency's decision was contrary to law.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 7701(c)(1); 5 CFR 1201.56(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         5 CFR 1201.56(b)(1)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         5 CFR 1201.56(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Regarding the penalty imposed, nothing in the governing statutes or regulations mandates the use of any particular set of enumerated factors. The statutory command is that the action must be reasonable and “promote the efficiency of the service,” and the Board must evaluate the agency's justification on the record as a whole.</P>
                <P>The Douglas Decision and the Emergence of the Twelve Factors</P>
                <P>
                    In 
                    <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                     the Board confronted the question of how to assess the reasonableness of penalties selected by agencies under chapter 75. The Board held that it possessed the authority—previously exercised by the Civil Service Commission—to mitigate penalties in appropriate circumstances.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It then summarized prior decisions into a nonexhaustive list of twelve relevant considerations, now commonly called the 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         The Board's proposal to overrule the 
                        <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                         test will not alter its holding regarding its mitigation authority, which the Federal Circuit has also recognized. 
                        <E T="03">Devall,</E>
                         178 F.3d at 1256.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This nonexhaustive list of 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors included: (1) the nature and seriousness of the offense, and its relation to the employee's duties, position, and responsibilities, including whether the offense was intentional or technical or inadvertent, or was committed maliciously or for gain, or was frequently repeated; (2) the employee's job level and type of employment, including supervisory or fiduciary role, contacts with the public, and prominence of the position; (3) the employee's past disciplinary record; (4) the employee's past work record, including length of service, performance on the job, ability to get along with fellow workers, and dependability; (5) the effect of the offense upon the employee's ability to perform at a satisfactory level and its effect upon supervisors' confidence in the employee's ability to perform assigned duties; (6) consistency of the penalty with those imposed upon other employees for the same or similar offenses; (7) consistency of the penalty with any applicable agency table of penalties; (8) the notoriety of the offense or its impact upon the reputation of the agency; (9) the clarity with which the employee was on notice of any rules that were violated in committing the offense, or had been warned about the conduct in question; (10) potential for the employee's rehabilitation; (11) mitigating circumstances surrounding the offense such as unusual job tensions, personality problems, mental impairment, harassment or bad faith, malice or provocation on the part of others involved in the matter; and (12) the adequacy and effectiveness of alternative sanctions to deter such conduct in the future by the employee or others.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors quickly became circulated throughout agency policies, OPM guidance, and Board case law.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                         5 M.S.P.R. at 305.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    From the outset, 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     cautioned that not all factors apply in every case and that the list should not supplant the statutory inquiry. Nonetheless, although nothing in 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     or subsequent case law 
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     so required, the factors became the framework around which agencies structured penalty determinations and the manner in which appellants and advocates litigated penalty issues. The Board has observed that application of 
                    <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                     primarily by agencies but at times also by MSPB, has gradually become overly formalistic and rigid, at times divorced from the statutory standard. Agencies regularly rely on standardized “
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     worksheets” as if they were legally compulsory. Parties before the Board routinely litigate whether each of the twelve factors was considered in a case, whether the deciding official assigned an adequate weight to each factor, whether the agency's decision letter mechanically checked each box, or whether the administrative judge conducted an explicit factor-by-factor review. This checklist-centered mindset has increasingly overshadowed the statutory question: whether the agency's chosen penalty reasonably promotes the efficiency of the service under 5 U.S.C. 7513(a).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">E.g., Nagel</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Department of Health and Human Services,</E>
                         707 F.2d 1384 (Fed. Cir. 1983) (rejecting the contention that 
                        <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                         created a checklist that must be specifically considered and addressed “one by one” in every case and stating that the factors should not be applied mechanically either by agencies or the Board).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Thus, while 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     intended flexibility, the evolution of practice has led to rigidity, formalism, and a risk of misplacing emphasis on a checklist of factors rather than the reasonableness inquiry. The Board concludes that a return to a simpler, more flexible, statute-focused inquiry is required to remain faithful to Congress's directives.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For all these reasons, the Board proposes to reconsider 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     and its progeny to the extent they require a factor-by-factor penalty analysis in appeals arising under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75. Going forward, the Board proposes to assess the reasonableness of an agency's penalty under a totality-of-the-
                    <PRTPAGE P="40455"/>
                    circumstances standard, consistent with the statutory command that discipline be “for such cause as will promote the efficiency of the service.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Board Deference to an Agency's Choice of Penalty</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     and countless other decisions since have recognized that the Board must give due weight to the agency's primary discretion in maintaining employee discipline and efficiency, acknowledging that the Board's function is not to displace management's responsibility, but to ensure that managerial judgment has been properly exercised.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In other words, an agency's choice of penalty is generally entitled to deference.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">E.g., Thomas</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Dep't of the Army,</E>
                         2022 MSPB 35, at 6 (2022); 
                        <E T="03">Douglas,</E>
                         5 M.S.P.R. at 302.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    That deference is not unbounded, however. The Federal Circuit explained in 
                    <E T="03">Devall</E>
                     that the Board's degree of deference to an agency's penalty depends on whether the Board sustains all of the agency's charges or only some of them.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">Devall</E>
                     evaluated the Board's and OPM's relative statutory authorities, and its formulation binds both agencies. Accordingly, the Board proposes to codify the 
                    <E T="03">Devall</E>
                     standard in its penalty review regulation, so all parties, and the Board's administrative judges, understand how the Board will exercise its penalty review authority.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         178 F.3d at 1260.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, this proposed rule, if finalized, will not alter longstanding case law directing that if an agency intends to rely on “aggravating factors” as the basis for the imposition of a penalty, such factors should be included in the advance notice of adverse action so that the employee will have a fair opportunity to respond to those factors before the agency's deciding official.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, the agency risks reversal of an otherwise supported adverse action, including its reasonable penalty, on due process grounds.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">E.g., Ward</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Postal Serv.,</E>
                         634 F.3d 1274, 1280 (Fed. Cir. 2011); 
                        <E T="03">Solis</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Dep't of Justice,</E>
                         117 M.S.P.R. 458, 461-462 (2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Ward,</E>
                         634 F.3d at 1280; 
                        <E T="03">Solis,</E>
                         117 M.S.P.R. at 461-462.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">f. Limits on Agencies' Policies and Labor-Management Relations Implications</HD>
                <P>A component of these proposed government-wide rules would be to in effect create an outer bound outside which an agency would be precluded from providing for or otherwise authorizing any requirements, process, standards, or allowances not contemplated, in whole or in part, by this rule. Thus, these procedures are proposed to supersede any conflicting provisions found in agency policies or collective bargaining agreements.</P>
                <P>The Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute (the FSLMRS, enacted as part of the CSRA) provides that “the duty to bargain in good faith shall, to the extent not inconsistent with any Federal law or any Government-wide rule or regulation, extend to matters which are the subject of any rule or regulation only if the rule or regulation is not a Government-wide rule or regulation.” 5 U.S.C. 7117(a)(1). This would be such a government-wide rule. It is proposed to apply to each agency and employee covered under chapter 43 and 75, respectively, and proposes to regulate and tailor how each agency is to exercise its broad workforce management authorities under 5 CFR parts 412, 432, and 752. For example, this rule is proposing to strictly circumscribe the length of an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance to 30 calendar days with limited exceptions.</P>
                <P>
                    Therefore, it would firmly and completely limit the flexibility of agencies to provide processes not contemplated by this rule, including by agreeing to conflicting provisions in collective bargaining agreements. 
                    <E T="03">See U.S. Dep't of Treasury, I.R.S.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">FLRA,</E>
                     996 F.2d 1246, 1250-51 (D.C. Cir. 1993) (5 U.S.C. 7117(a)(1) “permits the government to pull a subject out of the bargaining process by issuing a government-wide rule that creates a regime inconsistent with bargaining,” including where a regulation “directs the exercise of existing management prerogatives in a 
                    <E T="03">specific</E>
                     way, so that 
                    <E T="03">particular</E>
                     subjects or appropriate arrangements are identified as appropriate topics of bargaining,” citing 
                    <E T="03">Office of Personnel Management</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">FLRA,</E>
                     864 F.2d 165, 171 (D.C. Cir. 1988) (emphasis in original)).
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM takes this approach to limit agency discretion and limit the scope of collective bargaining to reduce and eliminate barriers to employee accountability. As noted by GAO, the average dismissal process for removing an employee for unacceptable performance utilizing chapter 43 and 5 CFR part 432 procedures takes up to one year.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This extensive delay to correct employee performance is intolerable for an efficient and effective government and inconsistent with Merit System Principles.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         OPM also notes that any collective bargaining agreement that conflicts with a government-wide regulation, the conflicting provisions of the agreement will prevail until the expiration of its term. 5 U.S.C. 7116(a)(7).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “Federal Workforce: Improved Supervision and Better Use of Probationary Periods Are Needed to Address Substandard Employee Performance,” GAO-15-191, pp. 13-14 (Feb. 2015). 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-15-191.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As a result, under this proposal, an agency would be unable to, for example, categorically establish through agency policy (including policy set forth in a collective bargaining agreement) a 45-day ODAP prior to initiating a performance-based removal under chapter 43. Many collective bargaining agreements currently require agencies to provide ODAPs prior to effectuating performance-based removals not just under 5 CFR part 432, but also under 5 CFR part 752. The proposed prohibition on requiring procedures beyond those set forth in this rule would prohibit such requirements for Part 752 performance-based actions. Agencies should strictly construe the exceptions established under this rule as just that-exceptions. OPM will monitor agencies' use of these exceptions to ensure they do not `swallow the rule' and undermine the executive branch's agenda of promoting high levels of employee accountability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Statement of Need</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule is needed to improve performance, accountability, and transparency within the federal workforce. Without streamlined processes for holding employees accountable, agencies will continue to suffer from segments of their workforces that detract from their maximum potential in delivering on their critical missions. Moreover, current regulations do not empower agency leaders, supervisors, and managers to hold employees accountable. As discussed in the preamble, regulations and agency policies unnecessarily create impediments that frustrate supervisors and managers attempting to hold employees accountable. Holding employees accountable for unacceptable performance or misconduct has become too difficult without reform.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In a 2016 study conducted by MSPB, federal employees expressed skepticism that their agencies successfully addressed performance and conduct issues. One in four employees “agreed that management addressed poor performances effectively,” while two in five “agreed that their agency retains its 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40456"/>
                    best performers.” 
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     One agency recently reported how difficult it is to remove employees for poor performance and misconduct, citing, for example, one situation where it took an entire year to effectuate a removal for poor performance.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The result is a federal workplace filled with poorly performing employees and a frustrated workforce. From Fiscal Years 2019-2025, agencies terminated or removed 2,996 employees on average 
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    , or about 0.15% of the federal workforce.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The evidence, thus, supports this rulemaking to streamline an overcomplicated process for removing employees for unacceptable performance and misconduct; remove extra-statutory processes that impede accountability; promote transparency; and fulfill Congressional intent of fostering a workforce that maintains high standards of integrity and performance.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         E.O. 14171, “Restoring Accountability to Policy-Influencing Positions Within the Federal Workforce,” 90 FR 8625 (Jan. 31, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         MSPB, “The Merit System Principles: Guiding the Fair and Effective Management of the Federal Workforce,” Sept. 2016, p. 51, 
                        <E T="03">available at: https://www.mspb.gov/studies/studies/The_Merit_System_Principles_Guiding_the_Fair_and_Effective_Management_of_the_Federal_Workforce_1340293.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         Comment 29917 to OPM's notice of proposed rulemaking, “Improving Performance, Accountability and Responsiveness in the Civil Service,” April 23, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">available at: https://www.regulations.gov/comment/OPM-2025-0004-29917.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         OPM used data from its Enterprise Human Resources Integration to calculate this seven-year average. This data is uploaded and available in the docket.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         OPM used the average number of terminations and removals between Fiscal Years 2019-2025 and the government-wide on-board strength as of February 2026 (2,028,138) to determine this figure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         See 5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Impact</HD>
                <P>The proposed changes are expected to allow greater flexibility for agency leaders, supervisors, and managers to take decisive action when faced with federal employees performing unacceptably or who commit misconduct that harms the efficiency of the service. Among the many proposed changes, supervisors will be able to fashion penalties based on the facts and circumstances on each individual case, not based on required progressive discipline. Supervisors will also be able to make quicker decisions on an employee's ability to perform acceptably by limiting the period for performance improvement plans. And agencies will no longer be able to obscure an employee's poor performance or misconduct through a settlement agreement, thereby ending the Dance of the Lemons and empowering agencies to hire and retain employees that are capable and willing to contribute to mission success.</P>
                <P>Current federal employees subject to the provisions of chapters 43 and 75 of the United States Code, or whose agencies adopt such provisions under their own legal authorities, will be impacted by the rule. For employees, the proposed changes will reduce the period afforded during a performance improvement plan to demonstrate acceptable performance to 30 calendar days. It may also result in increased penalties for actions taken under part 752. The proposed changes will also preclude agencies and employees from engaging in settlement agreements that obscure, modify, and remove from an employee's personnel files documented poor performance or misconduct. Such information would, therefore, be available to hiring officials seeking information on past performance or misconduct when making a hiring decision. This will improve the quality of agency hiring. Agency leaders, supervisors, and managers will benefit from having greater flexibility and streamlined processes for holding employees accountable. OPM also acknowledges that the prohibition of clean record settlement agreements will make it more difficult for agencies to persuade employees to voluntarily quit and, thus, further complicate or delay resolution of an action. The proposed regulations also require, to the extent practicable, that leaders, supervisors, and managers render decisions on a proposed removal within 30 calendar days and, therefore, require them to devote more time to such decision making. Relatedly, agencies whose personnel are subject to these proposed changes will be required to update their internal disciplinary policies and procedures. Agencies will also need to monitor internal processing of proposed actions under subparts D and F and report to OPM where it provides more than 30 days' advance written notice to employees and members of the Senior Executive Service, respectively. Labor unions, too, will see impacts to their collective bargaining agreements. If a final rule is adopted with the proposed changes, any change in the regulation that does not conflict with a collective bargaining agreement will be immediately enforceable. For those collective bargaining agreements that conflict with any change, the government-wide regulation will become enforceable upon the expiration of the term of the agreement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Costs</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">One-Time Costs</HD>
                <P>The rule would affect the operations of more than 80 Federal agencies, ranging from cabinet-level departments to small independent agencies. The cost analysis to update policies and procedures assumes an average salary rate of Federal employees performing this work at the 2026 rate for a GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate). OPM assumes the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 per hour. OPM estimates that it will take 100 hours of work by employees with an average hourly cost of $156.30 per hour, or approximately $1.25 million.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Recurring Costs</HD>
                <P>
                    The rule would likely result in an increase in the number of actions taken against employees under parts 432 and 752. OPM estimates that the number of such actions will rise by 20% based on an analysis of OPM data as well as annual reporting from the MSPB. As noted above, agencies terminate or remove 2,996 employees each year. During the last full fiscal year of President Trump's first term when the policies and requirements of E.O. 13839 were in place, 2,574 employees were terminated or removed for discipline or performance in Fiscal Year 2020 under procedures governed by OPM regulations.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2021, that number fell by 4.4% to 2,434.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     More recently, the number of terminations or removals from Fiscal Year 2024 to Fiscal Year 2025 grew from 3,126 to 4,160, a 33% increase as the federal government entered the second Trump administration.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM also reviewed the MSPB's annual reports for Fiscal Years 2020 and 2022 to analyze appeals data filed by federal employees seeking to reverse appealable actions.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2020, the MSPB issued 5,265 initial decisions of which 2,903 involved adverse actions, performance-based actions, individual right of action appeals, or raised claims under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA).
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2022, the MSPB issued 4,241 initial decisions or 20% fewer 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40457"/>
                    than Fiscal Year 2020. Of these 4,241 initial decisions, the Board issued 2,275 initial decisions that fell within these four categories and represented a 22% decline compared to Fiscal Year 2020.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         This data is uploaded and available in the docket at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/OPM-2025-0012.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         MSPB, “Annual Report for FY 2020,” January 19, 2021, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2020_Annual_Report_1800131.pdf</E>
                         (MSPB 2020); MSPB, “Annual Report for FY 2022,” April 18, 2023, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2022_Annual_Report_2022671.pdf</E>
                         (MSPB 2022).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         MSPB 2020 at p. 12.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         MSPB 2022 at p. 11.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM recognizes that the effects from the workforce reductions beginning on January 20, 2025, may reduce the total number of actions taken under these regulations. However, based on the latest publicly available, full fiscal year data from OPM and the MSPB's annual report,
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OPM estimates that agencies will take an additional 599 terminations or removals governed by these regulations and the MSPB will issue an additional 366 initial decisions due to this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         The MSPB annual report for FY 2024 reported 1,832 initial decisions across the four categories relevant to this rulemaking. MSPB, “Annual Report for FY 2024,” June 24, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2024_Annual_Report.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In determining the additional costs to agencies in processing 599 terminations or removals governed by these regulations, OPM assumes that each action will require one first-level supervisor, one second-level supervisor, and one human resources subject matter expert, to execute an action, each paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate). OPM assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $183.86. We estimate that each action requires one first-level supervisor, one second-level supervisor, and one human resources subject matter expert to perform 24, 16, and 36 hours of work, respectively. Thus, each action costs approximately $13,973.36 or $8.37 million each year.</P>
                <P>To determine the additional costs to the MSPB for adjudicating an additional 366 initial appeals, OPM assumes that the Board's administrative judges at the GS-15 grade levels will adjudicate appeals. In estimating the cost of adjudicating these cases, we assume that each appeal requires one administrative judge paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate); one paralegal at the rate in 2026 for a GS-11, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($96,843 annual locality rate and $46.40 hourly locality rate); and one chief administrative judge paid at the rate in 2026 for a GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table. We assume that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $183.86, $92.80, and $183.86 per hour for these respective positions. We estimate that each initial appeal requires 60, 12, and 4 hours for an administrative judge, paralegal, and chief administrative judge, respectively, to adjudicate an appeal. Based on these assumptions, we estimate the cost for the MSPB to adjudicate each additional appeal at $12,880.64 per appeal or $4.71 million per year for 366 appeals.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM also expects that the MSPB will adjudicate an additional 15% increase in petitions for review (PFRs). OPM notes that it is difficult to assess how many additional PFRs should be expected as a result of this proposed rule. Nonetheless, OPM expects an increase commensurate with the increase in initial appeals as a consequence of additional adverse actions taken by agencies. In estimating an increase in PFRs, OPM considered the number and types of issues raised in PFRs before and after the loss in quorum at the MSPB from January 8, 2017, through March 3, 2022. In reviewing the number of PFRs, in Fiscal Year 2016 the Board adjudicated 1,022 PFRs of which 762 involved adverse actions, performance-based actions, individual right of actions, or USERRA.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2023, the Board adjudicated 1,252 PFRs of which 907 involved adverse actions, performance-based actions, individual right of actions, or USERRA.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In Fiscal Year 2024, the Board adjudicated 2,129 PFRs of which 1,370 involved adverse actions, performance-based actions, individual right of actions, or USERRA.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         Merit Sys. Prot. Bd., “Annual Report for FY 2016,” p. 26, January 18, 2017, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2016_Annual_Report_1374269.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         Merit Sys. Prot. Bd., “Annual Report for FY 2023,” p. 16, May 1, 2024, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2023_Annual_Report.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Merit Sys. Prot. Bd., “Annual Report for FY 2024,” p. 9, June 24, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.mspb.gov/about/annual_reports/MSPB_FY_2024_Annual_Report.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Across these three Fiscal Years, the number of PFRs filed rose to more than double from Fiscal Years 2016 to 2024. The proportion of PFRs involving matters potentially impacted by the changes proposed in this rule were 75%, 72%, and 64%, respectively. OPM anticipates the number of PFRs adjudicated at the Board will rise consistent with the expected number of initial appeals. OPM estimates that the number of PFRs involving adverse actions, performance-based actions, individual right of actions, and USERRA will rise by 205 to 1,575, or 15% from Fiscal Year 2024 levels, as a result of this rulemaking.</P>
                <P>
                    To determine the additional costs to the MSPB for adjudicating an additional 205 PFRs, MSPB assumes that each PFR requires the Chairman and two Members of the Board paid at the 2026 rate of Executive Schedule Levels III ($168,400, $80.69 hourly rate) and IV ($158,500, $75.95 hourly rate),
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     respectively; and one attorney paid at the rate in 2026 for a GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate). We assume that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $161.38 for the Chairman, $151.90 for the two Members, and $183.86 for the attorney. We estimate that each PFR requires 2 hours each for the Chairman and two Members, and 8 hours for the attorney to adjudicate each PFR. Based on these assumptions, we estimate the cost for the MSPB to adjudicate each additional PFR at $2,401.24, or approximately $492,254.20 per year for 205 PFRs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         These positions are subject to the pay freeze imposed under the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2026 (Pub. L. 119-75, Feb. 3, 2026). See OPM, Updated Guidance—Pay Freeze for Certain Senior Political Officials, CPM 2026-06, Feb. 12, 2026, 
                        <E T="03">available at: https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/latest-memos/updated-guidance-pay-freeze-for-certain-senior-political-officials-1.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM also expects that agencies and the EEOC will see an increase in costs from an increase in Equal Employment Opportunity complaint processing attributed to the prohibition of clean record settlements and supervisors encouraged to correct unacceptable performance and misconduct. OPM reviewed the last two publicly available annual reports published by the EEOC to assess the potential impacts of the proposed rule. OPM anticipates that federal agencies will see an increase of 8% in the number of completed counselings and an increase of 15% in the number of complaints of discrimination filed by employees. For Fiscal Year 2020, federal employees entered and completed 36,359 counselings.
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Subsequently, federal employees filed 14,812 complaints of discrimination.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Of these, 3,562 complaints involved various types of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40458"/>
                    disciplinary actions and 1,468 complaints concerned an employee's performance evaluation or appraisal.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For Fiscal Year 2021,
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     federal employees entered and completed 33,561 counselings.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Subsequently, federal employees filed 12,946 complaints of discrimination.
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Of these, 3,057 complaints involved various types of disciplinary actions and 1,241 complaints concerned an employee's performance evaluation or appraisal.
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Between the two fiscal years, EEOC data shows the number of completed counselings fell by 8%, while complaints concerning disciplinary actions and performance evaluations or appraisals fell by 14% and 16%, respectively. Thus, OPM views an increase of 2,684, or 8%, in the number of completed counselings, and 350, or 15%, in the number of complaints of discrimination concerning disciplinary actions and performance evaluations or appraisals over Fiscal Year 2021 levels as reasonable given that Fiscal Year 2020 encompasses the final year of the first Trump administration which established similar policies as the ones encompassed in this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         EEOC Fiscal Year 2020 Annual Report on the Federal Work Force, “Table B-1 FY 2020 Total Work Force, Counselings, and Complaints,” March 2023, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.eeoc.gov/sites/default/files/2023-02/FY%202020%20Annual%20Report%20Complaint%20Tables.zip.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at “Table B-8 FY 2020 Complaints Filed Basis and Issues—Grand Total.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         The EEOC has not published its annual report for any fiscal year after 2021.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         EEOC Fiscal Year 2021 Annual Report on the Federal Work Force, “Table B-1 FY 2021 Total Work Force, Counselings, and Complaints,” December 2024, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.eeoc.gov/sites/default/files/2024-12/2021%20Annual%20Report%20Complaints%20Tables.zip.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at “Table B-8 FY 2021 Complaints Filed Basis and Issues—Grand Total.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In assessing the cost of 2,684 additional EEO counselings, OPM believes that agencies will use existing EEO specialists to process at the rate in 2026 for GS-12, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($116,071 annual locality rate and $55.62 hourly locality rate), taking 16 hours of time to process. OPM assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $111.24 per hour. The total additional cost to federal agencies to provide this EEO counseling is approximately $4.78 million. OPM also anticipates that agencies will utilize existing EEO specialists to process the 350 complaints of discrimination it attributes to the proposed rule. Using the same cost information for a GS-12, step 5, EEO Specialist to conduct an investigation over the course of 30 hours, OPM estimates that the total additional cost to federal agencies to investigate complaints of discrimination is approximately $1.17 million.</P>
                <P>Following the investigative stage, OPM assumes that 250 complaints will proceed to a final agency decision while 100 will be adjudicated by an EEOC administrative judge. In drafting and issuing a final agency decision, OPM estimates that agencies will employ one EEO Specialist paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-12, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($116,071 annual locality rate and $55.62 hourly locality rate) to perform 12 hours of work to draft the decision; and one EEO Director paid at the GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate) to perform 4 hours of work to review and sign the decision. OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $111.24 and $183.86 per hour, respectively. OPM estimates that the total cost to the Federal Government to issue 250 final agency decisions is approximately $517,580.</P>
                <P>In adjudicating the 100 cases filed with the EEOC, OPM assumes that an EEOC administrative judge paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate) will adjudicate complaints; the chief administrative judge paid at the GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate) will review the administrative judge's decision; and a paralegal paid at the GS-11, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($96,843 annual locality rate and $46.40 hourly locality rate) will assist the administrative judge during the adjudicative hearing process. OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30, $183.86, and $92.80 per hour, respectively. OPM estimates that each complaint will require 60, 4, and 6 hours, respectively, of an administrative judge, chief administrative judge, and paralegal to adjudicate each complaint. Therefore, OPM estimates that the total cost to adjudicate these 100 complaints is approximately $1.07 million.</P>
                <P>OPM also estimates that 40 of the 100 complaints adjudicated will be appealed to the EEOC's Office of Federal Operations. OPM assumes that an EEOC attorney paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate) will draft and issue the opinion, requiring 8 hours of work per appeal. OPM also assumes that an EEOC paralegal paid at the GS-11, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($96,843 annual locality rate and $46.40 hourly locality rate) will assist the attorney, requiring 2 hours of work. OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 and $92.80 per hour, respectively. Thus, OPM calculates that the total cost to adjudicate 40 appeals is approximately $57,440.</P>
                <P>
                    OPM also considered the defensive litigation costs to agencies when employees pursue appeals, counselings, or complaints under the MSPB or EEOC processes detailed immediately above. For the 366 initial appeals filed at the MSPB and 100 complaints of discrimination filed at the EEOC, OPM assumes that agencies will require an attorney paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate), and two supervisors and one human resources subject matter expert paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-15, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($191,850 annual locality rate and $91.93 hourly locality rate). OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 and $183.86 per hour, respectively. For each initial appeal or complaint of discrimination, OPM estimates that each appeal will require 100 hours of work from an agency's attorney and 120 hours total for the two supervisors and one human resources subject matter expert. OPM also estimates $7,500 in miscellaneous litigation costs (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     court reporter fees, discovery). Therefore, the total estimated cost to agencies to defend initial appeals and complaints of discrimination is $21.06 million.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For counselings and the process for drafting and issuing a final agency decision, OPM assumes that agencies will require the services of an attorney to advise their Equal Employment Opportunity office during the course of these proceedings. OPM estimates this advisory function will be performed by an attorney paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate). OPM also assumes that the total 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40459"/>
                    dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 per hour. OPM estimates these matters will require four hours of legal advisory services for each counseling or final agency decision. Thus, OPM estimates that the total cost to agencies to provide these legal advisory services across government is $1.83 million.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, OPM assumes the costs borne by agencies to pursue and defend 205 petitions for review and 40 appeals to the EEOC's Office of Federal Operations will require agencies to employ an attorney paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate). OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 per hour. OPM estimates that each petition and appeal will require 100 hours of work for the attorney per petition for review and appeal. Thus, OPM estimates that the total cost to agencies to litigate petitions and appeals is $3.83 million.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Benefits</HD>
                <P>
                    OPM expects this proposed rule will generate qualitative benefits for each agency. OPM anticipates the revisions to § 412.202 would result in supervisors having more proficiency in subjects integral to proper workforce management. As noted above, managers report they suffer from a severe lack of adequate training.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For example, managers are the connective tissue between the large, organizational objectives and the line employees who implement those objectives. Yet more than 40 percent of managers report they have not been provided adequate training to link the performance of their programs to the agency's strategic goals.
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It is undoubtedly to the benefit of each employee, manager, agency, and the American public for that matter, for management to be taught how to more closely align programs to strategic agency goals. OPM anticipates the added training it is proposing—and the improvements to the quality thereof—would help to close this gap and accrue those benefits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “2020 Federal Managers Survey: Results on Government Performance and Management Issues,” July 27, 2021, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://files.gao.gov/special.pubs/gao-21-537sp/resultsall.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OPM further expects that the proposed revisions to 5 CFR parts 432 and 752 will allow agencies to exert more quality control on its workforce to ensure those “who cannot or will not improve their performance to meet required standards” can be “separated” quickly, efficiently and effectively.
                    <SU>75</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Overall, these revisions are expected to increase the quality and efficiency of the federal workforce, resulting in resource cost savings and improved service delivery for the American public. Streamlining the process for performance-based and adverse actions will reduce the burden on supervisors of undertaking these actions and facilitate removals of employees who undercut agency effectiveness. This will facilitate the removal of underperforming employees and those who engage in serious misconduct. Heightened accountability will also help set higher standards of performance and conduct for the entire workforce, promoting more effective accomplishment of agency missions. Prohibiting clean record settlements will prevent problematic employees from being shuffled between agencies, and will instead help agencies hire the best candidates initially. While it will require more resources to litigate removals against employees who would have voluntarily separated in exchange for a clean record settlement, agencies will benefit from gaining a fuller picture about applicants' prior work history during the hiring process and screening out employees unlikely to perform effectively based on documented evidence of prior poor performance or misconduct. OPM cannot quantify these qualitative benefits but believes they are substantial.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 2301(b)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Lastly, OPM expects that some agencies will determine and OPM concur that some negotiated grievance procedures will impair the effective use of actions covered under subpart B of part 752 and, therefore, bar the use of grievance-arbitration to challenge short-term suspensions. OPM conservatively estimates that agencies will forego approximately 100 arbitrations each year. OPM estimates that each agency will utilize one attorney and one labor relations specialist paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-14, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($163,104 annual locality rate and $78.15 hourly locality rate). OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $156.30 per hour. OPM also assumes that each grievant and one union representative are paid at the rate in 2026 for GS-12, step 5, from the Washington, DC, locality pay table ($116,071 annual locality rate and $55.62 hourly locality rate). OPM also assumes that the total dollar value of labor, which includes wages, benefits, and overhead, is equal to 200 percent of the wage rate, resulting in an assumed labor cost of $111.24 per hour. OPM also assumes each arbitration lasts one regular workday of 8 hours. Thus, the total labor costs for the parties are $4,280.64 for each arbitration. OPM also assumes that cost for arbitration services is $3,000 for one arbitrator for one day and $1,000 for one court reporter for one day. Thus, OPM assumes that the total cost savings for each arbitration is $8,280.64 and $828,064 for 100 arbitrations each year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Alternatives</HD>
                <P>
                    An alternative to this rulemaking is to retain the current regulatory landscape and provide additional guidance to practitioners to improve their competencies as it relates both to the adverse action procedures and general supervisory obligations. It is true that many supervisors report they in fact need tutelage in these areas, including, but not limited to, in the adverse action procedures.
                    <SU>76</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This reported lack of knowledge is in part the impetus for the proposed revisions to part 412 in this proposed rule. However, failing to rewrite these regulations would fail to address many of the substantive issues addressed herein which will empower supervisors to best manage and hold their employees accountable.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         Government Accountability Office, “Federal Workforce: Improved Supervision and Better Use of Probationary Periods Are Needed to Address Substandard Employee Performance,” GAO-15-191, (Feb. 2015). 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-15-191.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A second alternative to this rulemaking would be to repeal the relevant portions of parts 412, 432, and 752 proposed to be revised without replacing them. This is suboptimal for several reasons. As it relates to § 412.202, the principles of good governance mandate that supervisors be adequately equipped via training and other professional development programs to execute their responsibilities to the best of their ability. While some supervisors may be equipped to do so without regular training, OPM believes these would be the exception, not the rule.
                    <SU>77</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Government Accountability Office, “2020 Federal Managers Survey: Results on Government Performance and Management Issues,” GAO-21-537SP, (July 27, 2021). 
                        <E T="03">https://files.gao.gov/special.pubs/gao-21-537sp/resultsall.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Repealing the prescribed regulations for parts 432 and 752 would also create 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40460"/>
                    more issues than doing so would solve. First, without providing clear processes and guidance to supervisors and employees, attempts to remove underperforming personnel or those who have committed misconduct would be mired in conflicting and litigious interpretations of the relevant portions of statute. In an attempt to avoid this inevitability, Congress presupposed that OPM would issue regulations to provide additional clarity and specificity to the provisions of the relevant statutory authorizations—and at times directed it to do so.
                    <SU>78</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 4303(b)(2) (“An agency may extend the notice period for more than 30 days only in accordance with regulations issued by the Office of Personnel Management.”); 5 U.S.C. 7503(a) (“Under regulations prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management . . .”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As part of the development of this proposed rulemaking, OPM also considered whether to maintain the current regulatory landscape without providing additional guidance but opted against this conclusion as well. For the same reasons as discussed previously in this section, this option similarly would contravene the principles of good governance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>OPM requests public comments to assist OPM better understand the impacts of the proposed rule on key stakeholders. The types of information which OPM is interested in include, but are not limited to, the following:</P>
                <P>• To what extent have federal agencies, employees, labor unions, and other impacted stakeholders made commitments, plans, or other decisions in a reasonable reliance on the regulations impacted by this proposed rulemaking that would be disrupted, frustrated, or rendered economically or otherwise unviable by the proposed rule? Commenters are encouraged to describe the (1) specific actions taken or foregone in reliance on current regulations; (2) the timeframe over which such reliance occurred; (3) the financial, operational, economic, or other costs that would result from the changes under the proposed rule; and (4) any factors that may have caused regulated parties to anticipate that a regulatory change of this nature was forthcoming, thereby potentially limiting the reasonableness of any such reliance.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the MSPB requests comments on whether it should adopt in the final rule the totality of the circumstances rule as proposed or retain all or some of the 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factors. Commenters should include as part of their response a discussion of why any specific individual 
                    <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                     factor should or should not be retained.
                </P>
                <P>Lastly, OPM and MSPB request comments on whether any reliance interests identified by commenters in response to the previous questions could be adequately addressed through transitional, phase-in, grandfathering, or other provisions or accommodations, and, if so, what specifically should OPM or MSPB adopt in a final rule?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Procedural Issues and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Severability</HD>
                <P>OPM and MSPB propose that, if any of the provisions of this proposed rule as finalized is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, it shall be severable from its respective section(s) and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances. In enforcing civil service protections and merit system principles, OPM and MSPB will comply with all applicable legal requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>OPM and MSPB have examined the impact of this rule as required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563, which direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public, health, and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis must be prepared for rules that have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities. This rulemaking does not reach that threshold but has otherwise been designated as a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866. This rulemaking is not expected to be an E.O. 14192 regulatory action because it imposes no more than de minimis costs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Director of OPM and Chairman of the MSPB certify that this regulation will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities because it applies only to Federal agencies and employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Federalism</HD>
                <P>This regulation will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with E.O. 13132, the Director of OPM and the Chairman of the MSPB certify that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant preparation of a Federalism Assessment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>This regulation meets the applicable standard set forth in section 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988 (61 FR 4729; Feb. 7, 1996).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that would impose spending costs on State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or on the private sector, in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. That threshold is currently approximately $206 million. This rulemaking will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, in excess of the threshold. Thus, no written assessment of unfunded mandates is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This regulatory action will not impose any reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 412</CFR>
                    <P>Education, Government employees.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 432</CFR>
                    <P>Government employees.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 715</CFR>
                    <P>Government employees.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 752</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Government employees.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 1201</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Government employees.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    The Director of OPM, Scott Kupor, reviewed and approved this document and has authorized the undersigned to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40461"/>
                    electronically sign and submit this document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                    <NAME>Jerson Matias,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison, Merit Systems Protection Board.</TITLE>
                    <NAME>Gina K. Grippando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clerk of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, OPM proposes to amend 5 CFR parts 412, 432, 715, and 752 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 412—SUPERVISORY, MANAGEMENT, AND EXECUTIVE DEVELOPMENT</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 412 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         5 U.S.C. 1103(c)(2)(C), 3396, 3397, 4101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 412.202 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 412.202</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Systematic training and development of supervisors, managers, and executives.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>All agencies must provide for the development of individuals in supervisory, managerial and executive positions, as well as individuals whom the agency identifies as potential candidates for those positions, based on the agencies' succession plans. In coordination with OPM, agencies also must issue written policies to ensure they achieve each of the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        (a) Design and implement leadership development programs integrated with the employee development plans, programs, and strategies required by 
                        <E T="03">5 CFR 410.201</E>
                         and guidance issued by OPM on required supervisory competencies, and that foster a broad agency and Governmentwide perspective.
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) Provide training within one year of an employee's initial appointment to a supervisory position and follow up periodically, but at least annually, by providing each supervisor and manager additional training on the use of appropriate actions, options, and strategies to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Mentor and coach employees and improve employee engagement, performance, and productivity;</P>
                    <P>(2) Improve employee performance and productivity;</P>
                    <P>(3) Conduct employee performance appraisals in accordance with agency appraisal systems and OPM guidance;</P>
                    <P>(4) Effectively manage employees with unacceptable performance, including understanding the disciplinary options and procedures available to the supervisor, manager, or executive;</P>
                    <P>(5) Develop and discuss relevant performance goals and objectives with the employee and ensure the performance goals and objectives align to the mission and priority goals of the agency;</P>
                    <P>(6) Communicate and discuss progress relative to performance goals and objectives, and conduct performance appraisals;</P>
                    <P>(7) Effectively use probationary and trial periods to examine whether an employee should continue past the probationary or trial period pursuant to the factors set forth in 5 CFR 11.5(b), and to assess the needs and interests of the agency with respect to the probationary or trial period employee's final appointment;</P>
                    <P>(8) Effectively use awards, bonuses, and other means of employee recognition to motivate employees, reinforce desired behaviors, and incentivize high performance;</P>
                    <P>(9) Address reports of a hostile work environment, retaliation, or harassment of, or by, another supervisor, manager, executive, or employee;</P>
                    <P>(10) Identify and prevent violations of the prohibited personnel practices under 5 U.S.C. 2302;</P>
                    <P>(11) Develop supervisory competencies established by OPM that are applicable to the supervisor, manager or executive; and</P>
                    <P>(12) Collaborate with human resources offices to recruit, select, appraise, and reward employees to build a workforce based on merit and competence, organizational goals, budget considerations, and staffing needs.</P>
                    <P>(c) Provide training when individuals make critical career transitions, for instance from non-supervisory to manager or from manager to executive. This training should be consistent with assessments of the agency's and the individual's needs.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 432—PERFORMANCE BASED REDUCTION IN GRADE AND REMOVAL ACTIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 432 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 5 U.S.C. 4303, 4305.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 432.103 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 432.103</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Acceptable performance</E>
                         means performance that meets an employee's performance requirement(s) or standard(s) at a level of performance at or above the “Fully Successful” level in the critical element(s) at issue.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 432.104 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 432.104 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Addressing unacceptable performance.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Notice.</E>
                         At any time during the performance appraisal cycle that an employee's performance is determined, in the sole and exclusive discretion of the agency, to be unacceptable in one or more critical elements, the agency must:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Notify the employee of the critical element(s) for which performance has been found unacceptable and an explanation of the reasons therefore;</P>
                    <P>(2) Inform the employee of the performance requirement(s) or standard(s) that must be attained in order to demonstrate acceptable performance in his or her position; and</P>
                    <P>(3) Inform the employee that, unless his or her performance in the critical element(s) improves to and is sustained at an acceptable level, the employee must be reduced in grade or removed.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance.</E>
                         For each critical element in which the employee's performance is unacceptable, the agency must afford the employee a reasonable opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance, commensurate with the duties and responsibilities of the employee's position. A reasonable opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance may last no more than 30 calendar days subject to an agency's sole and exclusive discretion to offer a longer period of time as may be necessary to account for situations in which 30 calendar days may be insufficient to evaluate an employee's performance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Assistance.</E>
                         Before or during the opportunity for acceptable performance, the agency must provide assistance to improve unacceptable performance. There is no requirement regarding the nature of any assistance offered during the opportunity period. The nature of such assistance is not determinative of a reduction in grade or pay or a removal. Except as provided for in § 432.105(c), an agency is not permitted to provide an additional opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance or similar informal period prior to or in addition to the opportunity period provided under paragraph (b) of this section.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>6. Revise § 432.105 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 432.105 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Proposing and taking action based on unacceptable performance.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) Once an employee has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance pursuant to § 432.104 of this part, an agency must propose a removal action if the employee's performance during or following the opportunity to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40462"/>
                        demonstrate acceptable performance is unacceptable in one or more of the critical elements for which the employee was afforded an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance. Agencies may satisfy the requirement to provide assistance before or during the opportunity period.
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) A proposed action may be based on instances of unacceptable performance which occur within a 1-year period ending on the date of the notice of proposed action.</P>
                    <P>(c) If an employee has performed acceptably for 1 year from the beginning of an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance (in the critical element(s) for which the employee was afforded an opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance), and the employee's performance again becomes unacceptable, the agency shall afford the employee an additional opportunity to demonstrate acceptable performance before determining whether to propose a removal under this part.</P>
                    <P>(d) An employee whose removal is proposed under this part is entitled to:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Advance notice.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) The agency shall notify the employee of the proposed removal action which, subject to the agency's sole and exclusive discretion to mitigate or cease the proposed removal, should take effect 30 calendar days thereafter, and such notice shall identify both the specific instances of unacceptable performance by the employee on which the proposed action is based and the critical element(s) of the employee's position involved in each instance of unacceptable performance.</P>
                    <P>(ii) An agency, in its sole and exclusive discretion, may extend the advance notice period for a period not to exceed 30 days under regulations prescribed by the head of the agency necessary for compliance with law, rule, or regulation, or where necessary to ensure mission effectiveness. An agency may extend this notice period further without prior OPM approval where necessary to comply with a stay ordered by a member of the Merit Systems Protection Board under 5 U.S.C. 1214(b)(1)(A) or (B), or to consider information gathered as part of a medical examination as described in (d)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) If an agency believes that an extension of the advance notice period is necessary for another reason, it must request and obtain prior approval for such extension from the Office of Personnel Management by emailing 
                        <E T="03">employeeaccountability@opm.gov</E>
                         with a letter signed by the agency's Chief Human Capital Officer (or equivalent) stating the reasons for requesting an extension.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Opportunity to answer.</E>
                         The agency shall afford the employee a reasonable time, but not less than 7 calendar days or more than 10 calendar days from the date of the agency's notice of proposed action to answer the agency's notice of proposed removal action orally and in writing.
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) The agency may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, grant the employee an extension of no more than 10 calendar days to answer an agency's notice of proposed removal action in order to consider any settlement or other offer from an agency to terminate employment, provided that additional time beyond 10 days may be provided if doing so is necessary to comply with law, rule, or regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests.</P>
                    <P>(ii) As part of any answer to a proposed action, the employee must raise any medical issues (including illness or incapacitation) or disabilities that have precluded the employee's ability to perform acceptably. Failure to raise such medical issues constitutes waiver of the ability to do so before any decision is effected, except where prohibited by statute. In the event an employee raises a medical issue, the employee must furnish medical documentation (as defined in § 339.104 of this chapter) of the condition for the agency's consideration. If warranted, the agency shall require or offer a medical examination in accordance with the procedures of part 339 of this chapter. The examination may occur after the employee submits his or her answer and any information gathered through an examination is to be considered furnished as part of the answer. The agency shall be aware of the affirmative obligations of 29 CFR 1630.14. If the employee who raises a medical condition has the requisite number of years of service under the Civil Service Retirement System or the Federal Employees Retirement System, the agency shall provide information concerning application for disability retirement. As provided at § 831.501(d) of this chapter, an employee's application for disability retirement shall not preclude or delay any other appropriate agency decision or personnel action.</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Representation.</E>
                         An employee may select a representative of his or her choice to assist in the preparation and presentation of the answer under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, provided that the employee submits his or her designation in writing. If the selected representative is a Federal employee, the representative may not perform such representational functions while in a duty status (including while on official time authorized under 5 U.S.C. 7131), nor may the representative claim agency reimbursement for any expenses incurred while performing such representational function. The agency proposing the action may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, disallow an employee's choice of representative when the representative is an employee of the agency and his or her activities as a representative would cause a conflict of interest or position; that employee cannot be released from his or her official duties because of the priority needs of the Government; or that employee's release would give rise to unreasonable costs to the Government.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Final written decision.</E>
                         The agency shall make its final decision within 30 days after expiration of the advance notice period but should make its final decision as quickly as practicable. Unless proposed by the head of the agency, such written decision shall be concurred in by an employee who is in a higher position than the person who proposed the removal action. In arriving at its decision, the agency shall consider any answer of the employee or his or her representative furnished in response to the agency's proposal. The higher level official or agency head, in their sole and exclusive discretion, may mitigate or rescind a proposed removal action only when doing so is consistent with the mission of the agency. A decision to reduce in grade or remove an employee for unacceptable performance may be based only on those instances of unacceptable performance that occurred during the 1-year period ending on the date of issuance of the advance notice of proposed action under 
                        <E T="03">paragraph (d)(1)</E>
                        (i) of this section. The agency shall issue written notice of its decision to the employee at or before the time the action will be effective. Such notice shall specify the instances of unacceptable performance by the employee on which the action is based and shall inform the employee of any applicable appeal and grievance rights.
                    </P>
                    <P>(e) An agency's exceeding of the timelines set forth in this subpart is not grounds for mitigating or overturning an action.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>7. Add § 432.108 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 432.108 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Settlement agreements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Agreements to alter personnel records.</E>
                         An agency must not agree to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another agency any information about a civilian employee's performance or conduct in that employee's official 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40463"/>
                        personnel records, including an employee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this part.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on discovery of agency error.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an agency may take corrective action, including during or after the issuance of an action taken under this part, if the agency determines the information contained in a personnel record is not accurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency has the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal/complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. The agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency itself has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on persuasive information prior to final agency action.</E>
                         An agency may cancel or withdraw a proposed action taken under this part prior to the issuance of a final agency decision when persuasive evidence casts doubt on the validity of the action or the ability of the agency to sustain the action in litigation. To the extent an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency must remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files; however, paragraph (a) applies to any accurate information about the employee's performance leading up to that proposed action or separation from Federal service.
                    </P>
                    <P>(d) Notwithstanding the provisions in paragraphs (b) and (c), an agency must retain the documentation removed from an employee's personnel file as needed to comply with other obligations, including but not limited to litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and security clearance investigations.</P>
                    <P>(e) Nothing in this section restricts an agency's ability to withhold information about an employee's performance or conduct from an employer that is not an Executive agency as defined under 5 U.S.C. 105 as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this part.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 715—NONDISCIPLINARY SEPARATIONS, DEMOTIONS, AND FURLOUGHS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>8. Amend § 715.201 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 715.201</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>This subpart applies to voluntary separations of employees in the executive departments and independent establishments of the Federal Government, including Government-owned or controlled corporations, and in those portions of the legislative and judicial branches of the Federal Government and the government of the District of Columbia having positions in the competitive service.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>9. Add a new § 715.203 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 715.203</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Abandonment.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>When an employee fails to report for duty (or to return from leave or from furlough of 30 days or less) for a period of 10 consecutive calendar days or more, and does not submit a resignation, an employee voluntarily abandons his or her position. An employee who voluntarily abandons his or her position may be separated without regard to the provisions of part 752 of this chapter. Authorized leave does not constitute a failure to report for duty under this section.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 752—ADVERSE ACTIONS</HD>
                    <P>10. The authority citation for part 752 continues to read as follows:</P>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 6329b, 7504, 7514, 7515, and 7543; Sec. 1097, Pub. L. 115-91, 131 Stat. 1617 (5 U.S.C. 7503 note).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Discipline of Supervisors Based on Retaliation Against Whistleblowers</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>11. Add § 752.104 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.104</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Settlement agreements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Agreements to alter official personnel records.</E>
                         An agency must not agree to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another agency any information about a civilian employee's performance or conduct in that employee's official personnel records, including an employee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on discovery of agency error.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (a), an agency may take corrective action, including during or after the issuance of action taken under this subpart, if the agency determines the information contained in a personnel record is not accurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency would have the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal/complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. The agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency itself has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on persuasive information prior to final agency action.</E>
                         An agency may cancel or withdraw a proposed action taken under this subpart prior to the issuance of a final agency decision when persuasive evidence casts doubt on the validity of the action or the ability of the agency to sustain the action in litigation. To the extent an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency must remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files; however, paragraph (a) applies to any accurate information about the employee's performance or conduct leading up to that proposed action or separation from Federal service.
                    </P>
                    <P>(d) Notwithstanding the provisions in paragraphs (b) and (c), an agency must retain the documentation removed from an employee's personnel file as needed to comply with other obligations, including but not limited to litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and security clearance investigations.</P>
                    <P>(e) Nothing in this section restricts an agency's ability to withhold information about an employee's performance or conduct from an employer that is not an Executive agency as defined under 5 U.S.C. 105 as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Regulatory Requirements for Suspension for 14 Days or Less</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 752.202 by revising the section heading and adding paragraphs (c) through (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40464"/>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.202</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Standard for action and penalty determination.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) An agency is not required to use progressive discipline under this subpart. The penalty for an instance of misconduct must be tailored to the facts and circumstances. A proposed penalty is in the sole and exclusive discretion of a proposing official, and a penalty decision is in the sole and exclusive discretion of the deciding official.</P>
                    <P>(d) Unless required by law, an agency must not establish or use an existing table of penalties or similar policy, nor agree to do so through collective bargaining, to prescribe mandatory or recommended disciplinary penalties.</P>
                    <P>(e) A suspension should not be a substitute for removal in circumstances in which removal would be appropriate. Agencies should not require that an employee have previously been suspended or demoted before a proposing official may propose removal, except as may be appropriate under applicable facts.</P>
                    <P>(f) An agency's exceeding of the timelines set forth in this subpart is not grounds for mitigating or overturning an action under this subpart.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>13. Revise § 752.203 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.203</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Statutory entitlements.</E>
                         An employee covered under this subpart whose suspension is proposed under this subpart is entitled to the procedures provided in 5 U.S.C. 7503(b). Unless required by law, agencies must not apply any other procedures established by agency regulation or policy, or through collective bargaining authorized under 5 U.S.C. chapter 71, when taking an action under this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Notice of proposed action.</E>
                         The notice must state the specific reason(s) for the proposed action and inform the employee of his or her right to review the material which is relied on to support the reasons for action given in the notice. The notice must further include detailed information with respect to any right to appeal the action pursuant to section 1097(b)(2)(A) of Public Law 115-91, the forums in which the employee may file an appeal, and any limitations on the rights of the employee that would apply because of the forum in which the employee decides to file.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Employee's answer.</E>
                         The employee must be given a reasonable time, but not less than one business day or more than five business days, to answer orally and in writing and to secure and furnish affidavits and other documentary evidence in support of the answer. The agency may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, grant the employee an extension of no more than five calendar days to answer an agency's proposed action or to consider any settlement or other offer from an agency to terminate employment, unless additional time is necessary for compliance with law, rule, or regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Representation.</E>
                         An employee covered by this subpart is entitled to be represented by an attorney or other representative. An employee must submit his or her designation in writing related to the specific answer. If the selected representative is a Federal employee, the representative may not perform such representational functions while in a duty status (including while on official time under 5 U.S.C. 7131), nor may the representative claim agency reimbursement for any expenses incurred while performing such representational function. The agency proposing the action may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, disallow an employee's choice of representative when the representative is an employee of the agency and his or her activities as a representative would cause a conflict of interest or position; that employee cannot be released from his or her official duties because of the priority needs of the Government; or that employee's release would give rise to unreasonable costs to the Government.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Agency decision.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) In arriving at its decision, the agency will consider only the reasons specified in the notice of proposed action and any answer of the employee or his or her representative, or both, made to a designated official.</P>
                    <P>(2) The agency must specify in writing the reason(s) for the decision and advise the employee of any grievance rights under paragraph (f) of this section. The agency must deliver the notice of decision to the employee on or before the effective date of the action.</P>
                    <P>(3) An agency should issue the decision on a proposed action under this subpart as soon as practicable, which should be no later than 5 business days of the conclusion of the employee's opportunity to respond under paragraph (c) of this section. An agency's exceeding of the timelines set forth in this subpart is not grounds for mitigating or overturning an action.</P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Grievances.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) The employee may file a grievance through an agency administrative grievance system if authorized by agency policy. Except as provided in paragraph (2), a suspension under this subpart may not be challenged through a grievance procedure negotiated under 5 U.S.C. 7121.</P>
                    <P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a suspension under this subpart of an employee in a particular agency or subdivision thereof or bargaining unit may be subjected to the coverage of a grievance procedure negotiated pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7121, only if the agency head or, if designated by the agency head, the agency's Chief Human Capital Officer, has determined that the applicability of such grievance procedure will not impair the effective use of actions covered by this subpart and the Office of Personnel Management concurs in that assessment. Either the agency head or the Office of Personnel Management may, in their sole and exclusive discretion, revoke such determination at any time and such revocation shall become immediately effective. Where negotiated grievances are authorized, employees may file grievances only under that procedure and not under an agency's administrative grievance procedure. Sections 7114(a)(5) and 7121(b)(1)(C) of title 5, U.S. Code, and the terms of any collective bargaining agreement, will govern representation for employees in a bargaining unit who grieve a suspension under this subpart through the negotiated grievance procedure.</P>
                    <P>
                        (g) 
                        <E T="03">Agency records.</E>
                         The agency must maintain copies of, and will furnish to the Merit Systems Protection Board and to the employee upon their request, the following documents:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Notice of the proposed action;</P>
                    <P>(2) Employee's written reply, if any;</P>
                    <P>(3) Summary of the employee's oral reply, if any;</P>
                    <P>(4) Notice of decision; and</P>
                    <P>(5) Any order effecting the suspension, together with any supporting material.</P>
                    <P>
                        (h) 
                        <E T="03">Settlement agreements.</E>
                         (1) An agency must not agree to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another agency any information about a civilian employee's performance or conduct in that employee's official personnel records, including an employee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (h)(1) of this section, an agency may take corrective action, including during or after the issuance of an action taken under this subpart, if the agency determines the information contained in a personnel record is not accurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40465"/>
                        cases, an agency has the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal/complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. The agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error.
                    </P>
                    <P>(3) If an agency determines, prior to the issuance of a final agency decision on an action taken under this subpart, the validity of the action or the ability of the agency to sustain the action in litigation is in question due to persuasive evidence, an agency may cancel or withdraw the proposed action. To the extent an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency may remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files; however, paragraph (h)(1) applies to any accurate information about the employee's performance or conduct leading up to that proposed action or separation from Federal service.</P>
                    <P>(4) Nothing in this section restricts an agency's ability to withhold information about an employee's performance or conduct from an employer that is not an Executive agency as defined under 5 U.S.C. 105 as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Retaining personnel records.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (h), an agency must retain the documentation removed from an employee's personnel file as needed to comply with other obligations, including but not limited to litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and security clearance investigations.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Regulatory Requirements for Removal, Suspension for More Than 14 Days, Reduction in Grade or Pay, or Furlough for 30 Days or Less</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>14. Amend § 752.401 by adding paragraph (b)(18) and revising paragraph (d)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.401</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Coverage.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(18) Termination of an employee who fails to complete a probationary or trial period under part 11 of this chapter.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(d) * * *</P>
                    <P>(2) An employee whose position is in Schedules C, G, or Policy/Career;</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>15. Revise § 752.403 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.403</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Standard for action and penalty determination.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) An agency may take an adverse action, including a performance-based adverse action or an indefinite suspension, under this subpart only for such cause as will promote the efficiency of the service. Unless required by law, agencies must not apply any other procedures established by agency regulation or policy, or through collective bargaining authorized under 5 U.S.C. chapter 71, when taking an action under this subpart.</P>
                    <P>(b) An agency may not take an adverse action against an employee on the basis of any reason prohibited by 5 U.S.C. 2302.</P>
                    <P>(c) An agency is not required to use progressive discipline before taking an action under this subpart. The penalty for an instance of misconduct must be tailored to the facts and circumstances. A proposed penalty is in the sole and exclusive discretion of a proposing official, and a penalty decision is in the sole and exclusive discretion of the deciding official. Penalty decisions are subject to appellate or other review procedures prescribed in law.</P>
                    <P>(d) Employees should be treated impartially. Conduct that justifies discipline of one employee at one time does not necessarily justify similar discipline of a different employee at a different time. An agency may, but is not required to, consider appropriate comparators as the agency evaluates a potential adverse action. In such cases appropriate comparators are individuals in the same work unit, with the same supervisor, and who were subjected to the same standards governing discipline.</P>
                    <P>(e) Unless required by law, an agency must not establish or use an existing table of penalties or similar policy, nor agree to do so through collective bargaining, to prescribe mandatory or recommended disciplinary penalties for an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                    <P>(f) A suspension should not be a substitute for removal in circumstances in which removal would be appropriate. Agencies should not require that an employee have previously been suspended or demoted before a proposing official may propose removal, except as may be appropriate under applicable facts.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>16. Amend § 752.404 by revising paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) introductory text, and (c)(1), and adding paragraph (g)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.404</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(1) An employee against whom an action is proposed is entitled to 30 calendar days' advance written notice unless there is an exception pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. Advance notices of greater than 30 days must be reported to the Office of Personnel Management. The notice to an employee must state the specific reason(s) for the proposed action and inform the employee of his or her right to review the material which is relied on to support the reasons for action given in the notice. The notice must further include detailed information with respect to any right to appeal the action pursuant to section 1097(b)(2)(A) of Public Law 115-91, the forums in which the employee may file an appeal, and any limitations on the rights of the employee that would apply because of the forum in which the employee decides to file.</P>
                    <P>(2) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) An employee whose removal or suspension, including indefinite suspension, has been proposed may remain in a duty status in his or her regular position during the advance notice period. Where the agency determines that the employee's continued presence in the workplace during the notice period may pose a threat to the employee or others, result in loss of or damage to Government property, or otherwise jeopardize legitimate Government interests, the agency may elect one or a combination of the following alternatives:</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) An employee may answer orally and in writing except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. An employee must be given a reasonable time, but not less than 7 calendar days or more than 10 calendar days, to review the material relied upon to support the proposed action, prepare an answer orally and in writing, and to secure and furnish affidavits and other documentary evidence in support of the answer. The agency may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, grant the employee an extension of no more than 10 calendar days in order to answer an agency's proposed action or to consider any settlement or other offer from an agency to terminate employment, unless additional time is necessary for compliance with law, rule, or regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests. If the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40466"/>
                        employee remains in an active duty status, the agency must give the employee a reasonable amount of official time (to be determined in the sole and exclusive discretion of the agency) to engage in the activities described under this paragraph.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(g) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) To the extent practicable, an agency should issue the decision on a proposed removal under this subpart within 30 calendar days of the conclusion of the employee's opportunity to respond under paragraph (c) of this section. An agency's exceeding of the timelines set forth in this subpart is not grounds for mitigating or overturning an action.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>17. Add § 752.407 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.407</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Settlement agreements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Agreements to alter official personnel records.</E>
                         An agency must not agree to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another agency any information about a civilian employee's performance or conduct in that employee's official personnel records, including an employee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on discovery of agency error.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an agency may take corrective action, including during or after the issuance of an action taken under this subpart, if the agency determines the information contained in a personnel record is not accurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency has the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an employee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal/complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. The agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency itself has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on persuasive information prior to final agency action.</E>
                         If an agency determines, prior to the issuance of a final agency decision on an action taken under this subpart, the validity of the action or the ability of the agency to sustain the action in litigation is in question due to persuasive evidence, an agency may cancel or withdraw the proposed action. To the extent an employee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency may remove that action from the employee's personnel file or other agency files; however, paragraph (a) applies to any accurate information about the employee's performance or conduct leading up to that proposed action or separation from Federal service.
                    </P>
                    <P>(d) Notwithstanding the provisions in paragraphs (b) and (c), an agency must retain the documentation removed from an employee's personnel file as needed to comply with other obligations, including but not limited to litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and security clearance investigations.</P>
                    <P>(e) Nothing in this section restricts an agency's ability to withhold information about an employee's performance or conduct from an employer that is not an Executive agency as defined under 5 U.S.C. 105 as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the employee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Regulatory Requirements for Taking Adverse Actions Under the Senior Executive Service</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>18. Amend § 752.603 by revising the section heading and adding paragraphs (c) through (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.603</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Standard for action and penalty determination.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) An agency is not required to use progressive discipline under this subpart. The penalty for an instance of misconduct must be tailored to the facts and circumstances. A proposed penalty is in the sole and exclusive discretion of a proposing official, and a penalty decision is in the sole and exclusive discretion of the deciding official. Penalty decisions are subject to appellate or other review procedures prescribed in law.</P>
                    <P>(d) Employees should be treated impartially. Conduct that justifies discipline of one employee at one time does not necessarily justify similar discipline of a different employee at a different time. An agency may consider appropriate comparators as the agency evaluates a potential adverse action.</P>
                    <P>(e) Unless required by law, an agency must not establish or use an existing table of penalties or similar policy to prescribe mandatory or recommended disciplinary penalties for an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                    <P>(f) A suspension should not be a substitute for removal in circumstances in which removal would be appropriate. Agencies should not require that an employee have previously been suspended or demoted before a proposing official may propose removal, except as may be appropriate under applicable facts.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>19. Amend § 752.604 by revising paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2) introductory text, and (c)(1) and adding paragraph (g)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.604</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(1) An appointee against whom an action is proposed is entitled to 30 days' advance written notice unless there is an exception pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. However, to the extent an agency, in its sole and exclusive discretion, deems practicable, the agency should limit a written notice of an adverse action to the 30 days prescribed in 5 U.S.C. 7543(b)(1). Advance notices of greater than 30 days must be reported to the Office of Personnel Management. The notice to an appointee must state the specific reason(s) for the proposed action and inform the appointee of his or her right to review the material that is relied on to support the reasons for action given in the notice. The notice must further include detailed information with respect to any right to appeal the action pursuant to section 1097(b)(2)(A) of Public Law 115-91, the forums in which the appointee may file an appeal, and any limitations on the rights of the appointee that would apply because of the forum in which the appointee decides to file.</P>
                    <P>(2) An appointee whose removal or suspension, including indefinite suspension, has been proposed may remain in a duty status in his or her regular position during the advance notice period. Where the agency determines that the appointee's continued presence in the workplace during the notice period may pose a threat to the appointee or others, result in loss of or damage to Government property, or otherwise jeopardize legitimate Government interests, the agency may elect one or a combination of the following alternatives:</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) An appointee may answer orally and in writing except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. An appointee must be given a reasonable time, but not less than 7 calendar days 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40467"/>
                        or more than 10 calendar days, to review the material relied upon to support the proposed action, prepare an answer orally and in writing, and to secure and furnish affidavits and other documentary evidence in support of the answer. The agency may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, grant the appointee an extension of no more than 10 calendar days to answer an agency's proposed action in order to consider any settlement or other offer from an agency to terminate employment, unless additional time is necessary for compliance with law, rule, or regulation, or where doing so is clearly in the government's interests. If the appointee remains in active duty status, the agency must give the appointee a reasonable amount of official time (to be determined in the sole and exclusive discretion of the agency) to engage in the activities described under this paragraph.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(g) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) To the extent practicable, an agency should issue the decision on a proposed removal under this subpart within 30 calendar days of the conclusion of the appointee's opportunity to respond under paragraph (c) of this section. An agency's exceeding of the timelines set forth in this subpart is not grounds for mitigating or overturning an action.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>20. Add § 752.607 to subpart F to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 752.607</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Settlement agreements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Agreements to alter official personnel records.</E>
                         An agency must not agree to erase, remove, alter, or withhold from another agency any information about an appointee's performance or conduct in that appointee's official personnel records, including an appointee's Official Personnel Folder and Employee Performance File, as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the appointee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on discovery of agency error.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an agency may take corrective action, including during or after the issuance of an action taken under this subpart, if the agency determines the information contained in a personnel record is not accurate or documents an action taken by the agency illegally or in error. In such cases, an agency has the authority, unilaterally or by agreement, to modify an appointee's personnel file to remove inaccurate information or the record of an erroneous or illegal action. An agency may take such action even if an appeal/complaint has been filed relating to the information that the agency determines to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error. The agency must ensure that it removes only information that the agency itself has determined to be inaccurate or to reflect an action taken illegally or in error.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Corrective action based on persuasive information prior to final agency action.</E>
                         If an agency determines, prior to the issuance of a final agency decision on an action taken under this subpart, the validity of the action or the ability of the agency to sustain the action in litigation is in question due to persuasive evidence, an agency may cancel or withdraw the proposed action. To the extent an appointee's personnel file or other agency records contain a proposed action that is subsequently cancelled, an agency may remove that action from the appointee's personnel file or other agency files; however, paragraph (a) applies to any accurate information about the appointee's performance or conduct leading up to that proposed action or separation from Federal service.
                    </P>
                    <P>(d) Notwithstanding the provisions in paragraphs (b) and (c), an agency must retain the documentation removed from an appointee's personnel file as needed to comply with other obligations, including but not limited to litigation holds, suitability background investigations, and security clearance investigations.</P>
                    <P>(e) Nothing in this section restricts an agency's ability to withhold information about an appointee's performance or conduct from an employer that is not an Executive agency as defined under 5 U.S.C. 105 as part of, or as a condition to, resolving a formal or informal complaint by the appointee or settling an administrative challenge to an action taken under this subpart.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, the Merit Systems Protection Board proposes to amend 5 CFR part 1201 as follows:</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1201—PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1201 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 5 U.S.C. 1204, 1305, and 7701, and 38 U.S.C. 4331, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Appellate Cases</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1201.56(b) by adding a new subparagraph (3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <STARS/>
                <P>(b) * * *</P>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">Penalty determination.</E>
                     (i) This subparagraph applies only to appeals filed under 5 U.S.C. 7513.
                </P>
                <P>(ii) The agency's choice of penalty is entitled to substantial deference. The Board will review a penalty only to determine whether it is within the tolerable limits of reasonableness in light of the charges sustained under subparagraph (b)(1)(ii). This determination is based upon the totality of the circumstances relating to the efficiency of the service, on a case-by-case basis.</P>
                <P>(iii) If the Board sustains all of the agency's charges, the Board will determine whether the penalty imposed by the agency is within the tolerable limits of reasonableness, and will not substitute its judgment for the judgment of the deciding official.</P>
                <P>(A) If the Board makes an affirmative finding in this regard, the Board will sustain the agency's action.</P>
                <P>(B) If the Board makes a negative finding in this regard, the Board may mitigate the agency's original penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty.</P>
                <P>(iv) If the Board sustains fewer than all of the agency's charges, the Board may mitigate the agency's original penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty so long as the agency did not indicate either in its final decision, or during proceedings before the Board, that it desired that a lesser penalty be imposed if the Board did not sustain all of its charges.</P>
                <P>(A) If the agency so indicated, the Board may:</P>
                <P>(i) Impose the lesser penalty the agency indicated it would have imposed; or</P>
                <P>(ii) If the Board cannot discern what that penalty would have been, accord the agency an opportunity to institute a lesser penalty.</P>
                <P>(B) If the agency did not so indicate, the Board may:</P>
                <P>(i) Mitigate the agency's original penalty to the maximum reasonable penalty; or</P>
                <P>(ii) Accord the agency an opportunity to institute a lesser penalty.</P>
                <STARS/>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13445 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-39-P; 7400-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40468"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Rural Housing Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>7 CFR Part 3560</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RHS-26-MFH-0265]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0575-AD50</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Direct Multifamily Housing Subsequent Loans for Acquisition</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Rural Housing Service, Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Rural Housing Service (RHS or the Agency), a Rural Development agency of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), proposes to amend the current regulation for the Direct Multifamily Housing (MFH) Loan and Grant Programs. The intent of this proposed rule is to include acquisition as an applicable form of assistance for direct MFH subsequent loans. This regulatory change would allow owners of MFH initially financed by the Agency to apply for Agency funds to help finance acquisition in preservation transactions, thereby reducing administrative and regulatory burden for both industry partners and the Agency.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the proposed rule must be received on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted electronically by the Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         and, in the “Search Field” box, labeled “Search for dockets and documents on agency actions,” enter the following docket number: RHS-26-MFH-0265 or RIN# 0575-AD50, then click search. To submit or view public comments, select the following document title: (Direct Multifamily Housing Subsequent Loans for Acquisition-Proposed Rule) from the “Search Results,” and select the “Comment” button. Before inputting your comments, you may also review the “Commenter's Checklist” (optional). Insert your comments under the “Comment” title, click “Browse” to attach files (if available). Input your email address and select “Submit Comment.” Information on using 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , including instructions for accessing documents, submitting comments, and viewing the docket after the close of the comment period, is available through the site's “FAQ” link.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Other Information:</E>
                         Additional information about Rural Development and its programs is available on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">rd.usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All comments will be available for public inspection online at the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jonathan Bell, Branch Director, Processing and Report Review Branch, Production and Division, Multifamily Housing Programs, Rural Development, United States Department of Agriculture, via email: 
                        <E T="03">MFHprocessing1@usda.gov</E>
                         or phone at: 202-205-9217.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Statutory Authority</HD>
                <P>The RHS administers the Direct Multifamily Housing Loan and Grant programs under the authority of the Housing Act of 1949, as amended (42 U.S.C. 1484, 1485 and 1486)) and operates under 7 CFR part 3560. The RHS has authority to issue rules and regulations pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1480.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>The USDA's RHS MFH program supports the expansion and revitalization of rural rental housing by providing loans, loan guarantees, and grants to property owners. The MFH program promotes rental housing affordability primarily serving low-income, elderly, domestic farm laborers, disabled individuals, and their families.</P>
                <P>Title V of the Housing Act of 1949 (Act) authorized the USDA to make housing loans to farmers to enable them to provide habitable dwellings for themselves or their tenants, lessees, sharecroppers, and laborers. The USDA then expanded opportunities in rural areas, making housing loans and grants to rural residents through the Single-Family Housing (SFH) and Multifamily Housing (MFH) programs.</P>
                <P>The purpose of the Direct MFH loan and grant programs is to provide economically designed and constructed rural rental, cooperative, and farm labor housing and related facilities operated and managed in an affordable, decent, safe, and sanitary manner for eligible very-low, low-and moderate-income households. RHS administers the direct MFH loan and grant programs. The direct loan program provides loans to eligible borrowers unable to get financing through traditional lenders. Direct loans financed by MFH feature terms and conditions that support the development or preservation of affordable rural rental housing for low-income, elderly, or disabled people. Loan funds may be used for all direct construction costs as well as land-related expenses, including buying and developing the property.</P>
                <P>Currently, the Agency may make a MFH direct subsequent loan to a borrower to complete, improve, repair, or make modifications to MFH initially financed by the Agency or for equity for preservation purposes.</P>
                <P>The Agency is proposing to include acquisition as an applicable use of MFH direct subsequent loan funds. By adding acquisition to the applicable forms of available assistance for direct subsequent loan funds, MFH owners could apply for Agency funds to help finance acquisition in preservation transactions, thereby reducing administrative and regulatory burden for both industry partners and the agency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>RHS is issuing a proposed rule to improve and streamline the transfer process when Agency funds are needed to help finance acquisition in preservation transactions.</P>
                <P>Purchasing or acquiring a property is currently an eligible use of initial Section 515 funds pursuant to 7 CFR 3560.53(b). For transfer transactions, the option for a potential new owner to obtain subsequent loan funds to purchase or acquire a property, in addition to assuming the initial Section 515 loan, is currently not allowed under 7 CFR 3560.73(a) Given that new owners generally need additional financing during an acquisition, this change in regulation would make transfers more marketable to potential buyers.</P>
                <P>Additionally, amending the subsequent loan section to explicitly include “acquisition” as an eligible use will establish a more efficient mechanism for preserving MFH properties. Potential transferees will have access to all the needed MFH direct acquisition financing in order to successfully transfer properties to new ownership, thereby reducing delays and supporting timely preservation efforts.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Summary of Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule will amend 7 CFR 3560.73(a) to include acquisition as an applicable use of MFH direct subsequent loan funds.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Orders/Acts</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs</HD>
                <P>
                    These loans are subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which require intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. RHS conducts intergovernmental consultations for each loan in accordance with 2 CFR part 415, subpart C.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40469"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Orders 12866</HD>
                <P>This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988. In accordance with this proposed rule: (1) unless otherwise specifically provided, all State and local laws that conflict with this proposed rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to this proposed rule except as specifically prescribed in the proposed rule; and (3) administrative proceedings of the National Appeals Division of the Department of Agriculture (7 CFR part 11) must be exhausted before bringing suit in court that challenges action taken under this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132, Federalism</HD>
                <P>The policies contained in this proposed rule do not have any substantial direct effect on states, on the relationship between the national government and states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This proposed rule does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments. Therefore, consultation with the states is not required and a federal summary impact statement is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with Tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have Tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and Indian Tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian Tribes. Consultation is also required for any regulation that preempts Tribal law or that imposes substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments and that is not required by statute.</P>
                <P>The Agency has determined that this proposed rule does not, to our knowledge, have Tribal implications that require formal Tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, RHS will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Assistance Listing</HD>
                <P>The program affected by this regulation is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under numbers 10.415, Rural Rental Housing Loans.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Civil Rights Impact Analysis</HD>
                <P>Rural Development has reviewed this rule in accordance with USDA Regulation 4300-4, Civil Rights Impact Analysis, to identify any major civil rights impacts the rule might have on program participants on the basis of age, race, color, national origin, sex, disability, marital or familial status. Based on the review and analysis of the rule and all available data, issuance of this proposed rule is not likely to negatively impact low and moderate-income populations, minority populations, women, Indian tribes or persons with disability, by virtue of their age, race, color, national origin, sex, disability, or marital or familial status. No major civil rights impact is likely to result from this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs designated this final rule as not a major rule, as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E-Government Act Compliance</HD>
                <P>Rural Development is committed to the E-Government Act, which requires Government agencies in general to provide the public the option of submitting information or transacting business electronically to the maximum extent possible and to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321-4347, as amended, this proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with 7 CFR part 1b, the Agency has determined that (i) this action meets the criteria established in 7 CFR 1b.4(c)(31) and (ii) no extraordinary circumstances exist. These findings require no documentation; therefore, the Agency has determined that the action does not have a significant effect on the human environment, and therefore neither an Environmental Assessment nor an Environmental Impact Statement is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by OMB and have been assigned OMB control number 0575-0189. This proposed rule contains no new reporting and recordkeeping requirements that would require approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-602) (RFA) generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”) or any other statute. The Administrative Procedures Act exempts from notice and comment requirements rules “relating to agency management or personnel or to public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts” (5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2)); therefore, an analysis has not been prepared for this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Severability</HD>
                <P>It is USDA's intention that the provisions of this rule shall operate independently of each other. In the event that this rule or any portion of this rule is ultimately declared invalid or stayed as to a particular provision, it is USDA's intent that the rule nonetheless be severable and remain valid with respect to those provisions not affected by a declaration of invalidity or stayed. USDA concludes it would separately adopt all of the provisions contained in this rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandate Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                <P>
                    Title II of the UMRA, Public Law 104-4, establishes requirements for Federal Agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal Governments and on the private sector. Under section 202 of the UMRA, Federal Agencies generally must prepare a written statement, including cost-benefit analysis, for proposed and final Rules with “Federal mandates” that may result in expenditures to State, local, or tribal Governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector, of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40470"/>
                    $100 million or more in any one-year. When such a statement is needed for a rule, section 205 of the UMRA generally requires a Federal Agency to identify and consider a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives and adopt the least costly, more cost-effective, or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule.
                </P>
                <P>This rule contains no Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of title II of the UMRA) for State, local, and tribal Governments or for the private sector. Therefore, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of the UMRA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">USDA Non-Discrimination Statement</HD>
                <P>In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.</P>
                <P>
                    Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication for program information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Braille, large print, audiotape, American Sign Language, etc.) should contact the State or local Agency that administers the program or contact USDA through the Telecommunications Relay Service at 711 (voice and TTY). Additionally, program information may be made available in languages other than English.
                </P>
                <P>
                    To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/sites/default/files/documents/ad-3027.pdf</E>
                     and at any USDA office or write a letter addressed to USDA and provide in the letter all of the information requested in the form. To request a copy of the complaint form, call (866) 632-9992. Submit your completed form or letter to USDA by: (1) mail: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Mail Stop 9410, Washington, DC 20250-9410; (2) fax: (202) 690-7442; or (3) email: 
                    <E T="03">program.intake@usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 7 CFR Part 3560</HD>
                    <P>Accounting, Administrative practice and procedure, Conflicts of interest, Government property management, Grant programs—housing and community development, Insurance, Loan programs—agriculture, Loan programs—housing and community development, Low and moderate—income housing, Migrant labor, Mortgages, Nonprofit organizations, Public housing, Rent-subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Agency is proposing to amend 7 CFR part 3560 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 3560—DIRECT MULTI-FAMILY HOUSING LOANS AND GRANTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 3560 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>42 U.S.C. 1480.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Direct Loan and Grant Origination</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend 7 CFR 3560.73 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 3560.73</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Subsequent loans.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                         The Agency may make a subsequent loan to a borrower to acquire, complete, improve, repair, or make modifications to MFH initially financed by the Agency or for equity for preservation purposes. Loan requests to add units to comply with accessibility requirements may be processed as a subsequent loan; however, loan requests to add units to meet market demand will be processed as an initial loan request and must compete under the NOFO.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>George Kelly,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Rural Housing Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13455 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-XV-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Parts 1 and 91</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2026-6935; Notice No. 26-07]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AM15</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Enabling Supersonic Overland Flight</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This proposal would advance the United States' leadership in next-generation aviation by replacing the longstanding prohibition on civil supersonic flight over land with a modern, performance-based regulatory framework. Consistent with national policy set forth by the Executive Order of June 6, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">Leading the World in Supersonic Flight,</E>
                         this action would enable the safe, efficient, and commercially viable operation of civil supersonic aircraft in the United States. Current regulations prohibit flight operations of civil aircraft at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 in the U.S., except under the conditions and limitations of an operation-specific authorization from the Administrator, to protect the public from sonic boom. FAA has determined the general ban on civil supersonic flight is outdated and no longer appropriate due to advancements in technology, flight techniques that prevent sonic booms from reaching the surface, and increased interest in civil supersonic flight. FAA proposes to repeal this outdated and unnecessary prohibition and establish a corresponding interim noise-based certification standard to allow supersonic flights without an operation-specific special authorization clearing the way for next-generation supersonic flight. This rule removes regulatory barriers, provides clear pathways for testing and early commercial operations, and positions the United States to serve as the leader in setting global standards for supersonic flight. These actions will ensure that the United States leads the world in the safe, lawful, and rapid development and deployment of next-generation supersonic aviation.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments on or before August 17, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2026-6935 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically. As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a plain language summary of the rule is also available on the Federal eRulemaking Portal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40471"/>
                        Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sterling Wiggins, Office of Environment and Energy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone 202-267-0747; email 
                        <E T="03">9-APL-Supersonic-Noise-Inquiries@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    Originally enacted in 1973, FAA regulations prohibit flight operations of civil aircraft at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 (referred to as “civil supersonic flight”) in the U.S., except as authorized by the Administrator, to protect the public from civil aircraft sonic boom.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                     Over time, advancements in scientific understanding, technology, and flight techniques have made it technologically practical to achieve supersonic flight without sonic booms reaching the surface, minimizing the impact of supersonic flight at the surface. In light of these advancements, Executive Order (E.O.) 14304, “Leading the World in Supersonic Flight,” directed the Administrator to repeal the outdated regulatory “prohibition on overland supersonic flight” and establish an interim noise-based certification standard.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                </P>
                <P>As directed by E.O. 14304, FAA proposes to repeal the prohibition on civil supersonic flight in the U.S. contained in 14 CFR 91.817 by revising the current regulatory text in § 91.817 to provide an interim noise-based operating certification standard. Further, the proposed revision would provide the conditions under which operators may engage in civil supersonic flight without the need for a special flight authorization (SFA) to exceed Mach 1, an operation-specific authorization that does not allow for civil supersonic flight outside of research and testing purposes in isolated test areas. To enable supersonic flight operations in the U.S., this proposal would require (1) the aircraft be operated such that sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 pound per square foot (psf), (2) the Administrator finds that the operator has shown, through measurement, modeling, or other methods, that primary and secondary (direct and indirect) sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 psf during operations, and (3) the aircraft be operated in compliance with any conditions and limitations issued by the Administrator.</P>
                <P>The method the operator intends to use to demonstrate it can comply with this standard (flight test measurement equipment and procedures, modeling methodology, etc.) would require approval by FAA. This concept as well as the factors FAA may consider in reviewing the method of demonstrating compliance are discussed in Section IV.D. In addition, the docket for this NPRM will include a draft Advisory Circular for public comment, which provides guidance for one method operators may use to demonstrate compliance.</P>
                <P>To receive a finding from the Administrator, this proposal would require the operator to demonstrate it has a means to comply with the standard proposed in this NPRM when conducting its operations. FAA does not propose prescriptive means of compliance in this proposal, and operators may propose a means of compliance they deem appropriate for consideration. Further, operators would be required to operate under any conditions and limitations issued by the Administrator. Once the Administrator makes the finding, the operator would not need to seek approval for individual flights or to specific operational areas, as is required under an SFA, as long as the finding remains valid and the operator operates within the conditions and limitations.</P>
                <P>FAA proposes to maintain the provisions of current § 91.817(b) by relocating them to proposed § 91.817(c) to continue to allow for offshore civil supersonic flight operations with sonic boom that may reach the surface, provided the flight crew has information on the flight limitations to prevent sonic boom from reaching the U.S.</P>
                <P>FAA also proposes to amend § 91.818 to conform with the proposed amendments to § 91.817. The SFA process would remain unchanged by this proposal and would continue to allow the Administrator to authorize civil supersonic flight in which sonic booms may reach the surface to allow for research, development, testing, and other operations in controlled areas. The proposal clarifies an SFA is not needed if an operator has a finding under § 91.817(a)(2) or flight limitations to ensure compliance with § 91.817(a).</P>
                <P>Finally, FAA proposes to add definitions of “sonic boom,” “primary sonic boom,” and “secondary sonic boom” to § 1.1 General Definitions. Specifically, FAA proposes to define sonic boom as the acoustic event on the earth's surface that is a manifestation of the shock wave system generated by an aircraft when it flies at a speed greater than the speed of sound. The surface impacts are labeled as primary or secondary sonic boom(s).</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the Executive Order, FAA was directed to finalize noise certification standards by June 6, 2027. This proposed rule, when finalized, would enable supersonic operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Costs and Benefits</HD>
                <P>Benefits from the proposed rule would be derived from providing regulatory certainty that will encourage the advancement of new supersonic aircraft and technology. This would serve as a first step in enabling supersonic flights, while safeguarding the public from the adverse impacts of sonic booms.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule would result in some costs and cost savings to operators and FAA. Operators would need to propose, and receive approval for, a method of compliance (flight test measurement equipment and procedures, modeling methodology, etc.) to demonstrate they can comply with the proposed standard. FAA anticipates that the first generation of aircraft seeking certification under this proposed rule would require flight testing to receive a finding from the Administrator to conduct civil supersonic flights. However, these operators are not expected to incur flight testing costs above those already required to obtain flight authorizations. Operators would also need a means of compliance, such as avionics or other technology, to demonstrate sonic boom overpressure will reach the surface with a force less than 0.11 psf during civil supersonic operations. FAA assumed that manufacturers would develop cost-effective abatement solutions since the rule is performance-based, which allows 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40472"/>
                    manufacturers the flexibility to develop or continue developing their own means to comply. FAA is not able to estimate these costs and invites further comment on costs associated with conducting sonic boom abatement techniques in Section V.A. In addition, FAA estimates the proposed rule would save industry $1,567,636 and FAA $852,135 in flight authorization processing over the analysis period, totaling $2,419,771.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code (49 U.S.C.). Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the FAA's authority. This proposal is issued under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44715, Controlling aircraft noise and sonic boom. Under section 44715, FAA is charged with prescribing both standards to measure aircraft noise and sonic boom and regulations to control and abate aircraft noise and sonic boom. This proposal is within the scope of these authorities because it would revise regulations to enable civil supersonic flight provided sonic boom overpressure at the surface of the U.S. does not exceed 0.11 psf, and FAA authorizes the operator of the aircraft to conduct civil supersonic flight operations in the U.S.</P>
                <P>In addition, E.O. 14304 directs the FAA Administrator to “take the necessary steps, including through rulemaking, to repeal the prohibition on overland supersonic flight in 14 CFR 91.817” and to establish an interim noise-based certification standard. It also directs FAA to make any necessary modifications to § 91.818. This proposal is within the scope of E.O. 14304 because it both removes the ban and establishes an interim noise-based certification standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. History of FAA Regulation of Sonic Booms</HD>
                <P>
                    Key to the scope of this rule is how a sonic boom is created and the characteristics of sonic booms. Any aircraft that moves through the atmosphere at speeds exceeding the local speed of sound (Mach 1) creates a system of nearly instantaneous pressure changes known as shock waves along the length of the aircraft. The system of individual shock waves due to aircraft features propagates through the atmosphere shifting in space over a long-distance, ultimately coalescing into two compressions, one at the nose and one at the tail, that form a sonic boom. When the energy from the shockwave reaches human ears, it is heard as the loud crack, or thunder-like, sonic boom.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 1973, FAA promulgated what is now § 91.817, which prohibited supersonic flight in the U.S. except when operating under the conditions and limitations of an SFA issued by the Administrator.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                     In the 1973 final rule, FAA stated that due to the limits of sonic boom monitoring and control technology at that time, a prohibition was needed to protect the public from sonic boom of any given intensity and ensure effective control of sonic boom at the source. As such, the regulation prohibited supersonic flight by preventing operations of a civil aircraft at a true flight Mach number greater than 1. This effectively eliminated the potential for sonic boom from civil aircraft operations in the U.S. unless authorized under an SFA. In establishing this requirement, FAA noted the intent of the prohibition was not to prohibit supersonic speed per se, but to protect the public from sonic booms that may reach the surface given researchers at the time were unable to identify an acceptable level of sonic boom exposure. FAA also said that in the future it may be possible to conduct supersonic flights without a sonic boom reaching the surface. One of the reasons cited for providing the SFA process in § 91.818 was to provide future aircraft the opportunity to demonstrate this possibility.
                    <E T="51">5 6</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In a 1978 rule, FAA established additional requirements for supersonic airplanes, including requiring supersonic aircraft (except for Concorde aircraft with flight time prior to 1980) to meet Stage 2 landing and takeoff (LTO) noise limits.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                     LTO regulations prescribe aircraft noise limits and assess aircraft noise levels against those limits based on measurement criteria that simulate operations at airports. In addition, the 1978 rule added what is now § 91.817(b) to the regulation, which prohibits civil supersonic airplanes that are outside the U.S. from causing sonic booms to reach the surface within the U.S. when flying to or from U.S. airports even if they are outside the U.S. at the time. The stated purpose of this provision was to protect the coastal areas from sonic booms generated by aircraft achieving supersonic speeds outside the U.S.
                    <E T="51">8 9</E>
                     The 1978 final rule did not mandate LTO noise standards for future supersonic aircraft because of the lack of adequate technical information, but FAA conveyed that it would not certificate any supersonic aircraft that failed to meet the noise standards applicable to subsonic airplanes at the time of type certification.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA expressed interest in amending its noise standard regulations in 1986 to account for future supersonic aircraft through the issuance of an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) seeking information on propulsion systems for supersonic aircraft, potential methods of noise certification, and the “noise/performance/cost tradeoffs” of supersonic technology.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                     Following the ANPRM, in 1990, FAA issued an NPRM to expand the applicability of part 36 subsonic LTO noise standards to supersonic aircraft and set noise limits for these aircraft at the same level as subsonic aircraft.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                     FAA withdrew this NPRM in 1994, stating further investigation and research were necessary before developing a final rule.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                     On the same day the agency withdrew the NPRM, FAA published a policy statement reiterating the agency's commitment to aviation's longstanding efforts to achieve increasingly effective noise abatement at its source. The policy also stated that any future supersonic transport airplane shall produce no greater noise impact on a community than a subsonic airplane certified to Stage 3 noise limits, the then-required limits for all newly certificated aircraft.
                    <E T="51">14 15</E>
                     FAA also indicated it would give consideration, to the extent possible, to the unique operational flight characteristics of future supersonic designs in developing provisions for the noise certification of those airplanes. FAA subsequently updated this policy statement in 2008 to state FAA's intent that future supersonic transport aircraft comply with the same noise limits as subsonic aircraft.
                    <E T="51">16 17</E>
                     At that time, FAA acknowledged there was still interest in supersonic aircraft technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Congressional interest in the potential operation of supersonic aircraft in the U.S. continued. Section 181 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                     directed the Administrator to exercise leadership in the creation of Federal and international policies, regulations, and standards relating to the certification and safe and efficient operation of civil supersonic aircraft.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                     FAA's first step in response to Section 181, and to update and modify civil supersonic regulatory framework, was modernizing the SFA process. On January 15, 2021, FAA issued a final rule to streamline the application procedure for SFAs by clarifying the necessary information required by the FAA.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                     This rule provided clear application criteria for the public and identified the appropriate office to direct applications 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40473"/>
                    and questions in order to streamline the application and processing of supersonic SFAs. Section 181 also directed the Administrator to revise part 36 to address LTO noise requirements for supersonic aircraft and incorporate necessary definitions and noise testing requirements. On April 13, 2020, FAA issued an NPRM pursuant to the Act's requirements to extend applicability of part 36 to provide LTO noise requirements for supersonic aircraft.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                     FAA's proposed standard would have only applied to aircraft seeking type certification in the U.S., as the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) had yet to adopt a standard for civil supersonic aircraft (takeoff, landing, or en route). The comment period for the 2020 NPRM closed on July 13, 2020. After issuance of the 2020 NPRM, FAA shifted focus from developing unilateral standards for the United States to working through ICAO to develop and shape a globally harmonized standard. The 2020 NPRM issued for the rulemaking required by Section 181 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 is separate and distinct from the rule FAA is proposing in this notice, which does not address LTO noise certification. Since the 2020 NPRM, FAA has continued to work with applicants on SFA requests and to work internationally with ICAO to address noise issues associated with supersonic aircraft.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. FAA's Current Efforts To Address Sonic Boom</HD>
                <P>The issuance of E.O. 14304 has accelerated FAA's efforts regarding supersonic aircraft. The E.O. directs FAA to take a series of actions to further enable the growth and development of the supersonic industry. Importantly, E.O. 14304 directs a series of rulemakings and other actions to remove regulatory barriers that, as E.O. 14304 describes, hinder the advancement of supersonic aviation technologies. E.O. 14304 directs the Administrator “to repeal the prohibition on supersonic overland flight,” establish interim and final noise-based standards (takeoff, landing, and en route) for supersonic aircraft, coordinate with other executive branch agencies to advance supersonic research and development, and promote international engagement and harmonization on civil supersonic flight regulations.</P>
                <P>The first rulemaking, as directed by E.O. 14304 in § 2(a), is “to repeal the prohibition on overland supersonic flight” in § 91.817, modify § 91.818 as necessary, and establish an interim noise-based certification standard consistent with applicable law. This NPRM is intended as the first step to address this mandate.</P>
                <P>Section 2(a) of E.O. 14304 also directs the Administrator to take immediate steps to repeal §§ 91.819 and 91.821. Both provisions were promulgated in the 1970s to address LTO noise issues related to the Concorde aircraft. As these provisions are closely aligned with a second rulemaking directed by § 2(b) of E.O. 14304, FAA intends to address the repeal of these provisions in that future rulemaking.</P>
                <P>Section 2(b) of E.O. 14304 directs FAA, through rulemaking, to establish a final standard for supersonic aircraft noise certification under part 36 and amend § 91.817 to incorporate this standard. The future rule to implement § 2(b) of E.O. 14304 would define an acceptable noise limit for LTO and en route supersonic operations based on operational testing and research, development, testing, and evaluation data and consider community acceptability, economic reasonableness, and technological feasibility. The future rule to implement § 2(b) of E.O. 14304 would also specify a process for periodic review and update of the rule to reflect future advances in aircraft noise reduction technology. If this rule is finalized, it would constitute the final en route sonic boom and LTO noise standards for supersonic aircraft.</P>
                <P>Collectively, these efforts are intended to help support the development of the supersonic industry, give regulatory certainty to aircraft manufacturers and other stakeholders, and provide the benefits of supersonic flight to the public. This proposed repeal of the prohibition on overland flight of civil supersonic aircraft and the establishment of an interim noise-based certification standard is a critical first step.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Statement of the Problem</HD>
                <P>
                    Manufacturers have demonstrated it is possible to fly supersonic aircraft without sonic booms reaching the surface by using sonic boom abatement techniques, making complete prohibition on civil supersonic flight outside of test areas no longer appropriate, and an unnecessary restraint on the growth of the U.S. aviation sector. One of these techniques, Mach cutoff operations (MCO), uses a combination of operational factors (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     altitude and Mach speed) and specific atmospheric conditions along the flight path of the aircraft to refract sonic booms within the atmosphere. This refraction prevents potential sonic boom with an overpressure greater than 0.11 psf from reaching the surface. Manufacturers have stated it may be possible with avionics technologies to scale MCO such that operators can use the technique to operate at supersonic speeds and abate sonic booms at the surface. This technique was demonstrated by Boom Supersonic on February 10, 2025, under an SFA authorized by the Administrator, and by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) during its Farfield Investigation of No Boom Threshold (FaINT) research project.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                     
                    <SU>23</SU>
                </P>
                <P>Current FAA regulations prohibit civil supersonic flight in the U.S., except under an SFA issued by the Administrator, regardless of whether the sonic booms reach the surface. SFAs are issued by the Administrator for an individual aircraft and for operation within a specific, limited operational area for aircraft research and testing. This speed-based restriction, with only limited exceptions with an SFA, limits the scalability and types of operations that aircraft capable of supersonic flight can conduct. This is true even if the aircraft's performance capabilities enable operation in a manner that obviates the purpose of the prohibition.</P>
                <P>
                    FAA held eight listening sessions with original equipment manufacturers and trade association stakeholders between August 11, 2025, and August 28, 2025.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                     Stakeholders supported a safe incremental transition from the current speed-based prohibition on sonic booms to a performance-based operational standard preventing sonic booms from reaching the surface. Stakeholders also supported continued domestic and international U.S. leadership in the development of standards for supersonic aircraft.
                </P>
                <P>Under 49 U.S.C. 44715, the Administrator is authorized to regulate aircraft noise and sonic booms and given a statutory duty to protect public health and welfare from aircraft noise and sonic booms. In addition, the Administrator must consider whether a regulation promulgated under § 44715 is economically reasonable, technologically practicable, and appropriate for the applicable aircraft. FAA also has a statutory duty to consider whether a regulation is consistent with the highest degree of safety and carries out the purposes of § 44715. As part of its obligations under § 44715, FAA has consulted with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) on this proposal.</P>
                <P>
                    Considering the advancements in technology and general feedback from stakeholders, FAA is proposing to amend its regulations to repeal the prohibition on civil supersonic flight in the U.S. and allow the Administrator to authorize operators to conduct 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40474"/>
                    supersonic flight in the U.S. without an SFA. Under this proposal, an operator would be able to conduct these flights in the U.S. if the operator: (1) operates in a manner that sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed the proposed limit of 0.11 psf, (2) receives a finding from the Administrator, and (3) operates the aircraft in compliance with any FAA-issued conditions and limitations. The proposal would replace the prescriptive speed-based prohibition on civil supersonic flight in the U.S. with a performance-based standard. FAA considers this proposal consistent with its obligations under 49 U.S.C. 44715.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Scope of This Proposal</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the direction in § 2(a) of E.O. 14304, this proposal would repeal the prohibition on supersonic flight in the U.S., establish an interim en route noise-based operating certification standard for sonic boom by revising § 91.817, and modify § 91.818 as needed. To implement these changes fully, the rule also proposes definitions and specifies findings required by the Administrator to operate above Mach 1 in the U.S.</P>
                <P>FAA recognizes this proposal is the first step of a multi-step regulatory process to enable the next generation of supersonic flight. Though this proposed rule would address some of the goals in E.O. 14304, future rulemakings will be necessary to enable civil supersonic flight fully in the U.S. Topics of future rulemakings may include: establishing LTO noise standards for supersonic aircraft, establishing technical standards for sonic boom abatement technology, and establishing other operational requirements for supersonic aircraft.</P>
                <P>FAA is required to prescribe regulations under § 44715 prior to issuance of a type certificate for any aircraft. FAA has traditionally addressed this mandate for subsonic aircraft by prescribing LTO regulations in part 36. Whereas subsonic aircraft noise is primarily regulated based on their LTO noise profile, supersonic aircraft have the addition of an en route noise profile because sonic booms have the potential to produce adverse impacts on the public. This proposed regulation would address the en route noise profile of supersonic aircraft. As FAA intends to address LTO noise profile in future rulemaking, LTO noise standards are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                <P>
                    Because LTO standards necessary to enable civil supersonic flight fully will be addressed in a future rulemaking, FAA does not anticipate receiving an application for a type certificate based on this rulemaking alone. If FAA were to receive an application for a type certificate prior to promulgating the LTO standards and noise limits, FAA would propose a rule of particular applicability establishing LTO standards for the applicant's aircraft as required by § 181(f) of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 to complete the noise certification for the applicant.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                     
                    <SU>26</SU>
                </P>
                <P>Supersonic flight using MCO may produce low-level noise on the ground that does not have all the characteristics of a sonic boom and are known as evanescent waves. These waves were measured and described by NASA as low “rumbling” noise at the level of background street noise. This proposal would permit evanescent waves on the ground with overpressures less than 0.11 psf and would prohibit any overpressures greater than 0.11 psf. Additional information on the rationale behind the selection of the 0.11 psf overpressure limit in this proposal can be found in Section IV.A. FAA may consider regulation of noise associated with supersonic flight, such as evanescent waves, in the future if the Administrator determines it is necessary to protect public health and welfare.</P>
                <P>
                    NASA has been investigating supersonic aircraft shaping to allow for supersonic flight without generating loud sonic booms. This research is being conducted under NASA's Quesst mission with planned flight campaigns of its X-59 aircraft.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                     This mission is designed to increase the understanding of low-boom technology and techniques, allow researchers to better understand the effects of sonic booms on communities, and gather data for correlating a noise limit that results in minimal noise. Though the Quesst mission holds the potential to reduce the adverse impact of sonic booms significantly at the surface, additional research is needed to assess the viability of implementing this technology in future commercial supersonic aircraft. Therefore, this proposed rule would not permit low-boom operations resulting in a sonic boom overpressure at the surface greater than 0.11 psf.
                </P>
                <P>This proposed rule would provide a first step in enabling supersonic flight by repealing the general prohibition against civil supersonic flight in the U.S. while protecting public health and welfare from sonic boom by establishing an en route interim noise-based certification standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Related International Efforts</HD>
                <P>
                    In 2020, FAA issued an NPRM to establish LTO standards for supersonic aircraft pursuant to the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 and based on interest from industry in developing next generation supersonic aircraft.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                     This 2020 NPRM and industry interest led to ICAO discussions on development of a globally harmonized LTO standard for supersonic aircraft.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                     Because of these discussions, FAA's focus shifted to working through ICAO to develop and shape a globally harmonized standard rather than a U.S.-specific standard for civil supersonic aircraft. ICAO's Committee on Aviation Environmental Protection (CAEP) endorsed this standard in February 2025, which is currently undergoing final review within ICAO before final acceptance by the ICAO Council. FAA intends to consider this standard as the agency develops the future rulemaking directed by § 2(b) of E.O. 14304.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to the LTO standard, ICAO plans to develop an en route low-boom noise standard. However, ICAO does not expect this standard to be complete until 2031.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                     Given this timetable and the current stage of development of low-boom civil supersonic aircraft, FAA does not consider it appropriate to wait for finalization of the ICAO en route low-boom standard. FAA's proposed performance-based en route standard will provide flexibility for industry to continue to develop technology while protecting the public from the adverse effects of sonic booms in the near-term. Should ICAO finalize an en route standard, FAA could address any complete en route low-boom noise standards from ICAO as part of a future rulemaking. Therefore, FAA is proposing a U.S.-specific en route interim noise-based certification standard. FAA continues to work through the ICAO CAEP and with member states to align regulatory approaches as directed by § 4(a) of E.O. 14304.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of the Proposal</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Repeal of the Prohibition on Civil Supersonic Flight in the U.S.</HD>
                <P>
                    As described, the current regulations were enacted in 1973 to preclude civil supersonic flight in the U.S., unless the operator is operating under an SFA, due to concerns about potential adverse impacts of sonic boom to people on the surface. These concerns remain true today, and ongoing research is working to address the characterization of sonic booms and how to limit their impacts.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                     
                    <SU>32</SU>
                     
                    <SU>33</SU>
                     E.O. 14304 also recognized the potential for adverse impacts on the surface from sonic booms in directing that FAA establish an interim noise standard while, at the same time, directing FAA to enable civil 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40475"/>
                    supersonic flight in the U.S. To address these concerns in a manner that enables supersonic flight in the U.S., FAA proposes to repeal the general speed-based prohibition and replace it with a regulation that would allow “supersonic overland flight” if the operator meets three conditions. These conditions would be: (1) the operator meets the performance-based interim en route certification standard of no sonic boom overpressure greater than 0.11 psf reaching the surface; (2) after an operator demonstration, the operator receives a finding from the Administrator; and (3) the aircraft is operated in compliance with FAA-issued conditions and limitations.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Prohibition on Sonic Boom Reaching the Surface</HD>
                <P>
                    Historically, the public has expressed concerns and a need for relief from sonic booms reaching the surface and their impact on public health. FAA conducted flight testing on the impact of sonic booms on the public in the 1960s and 1970s. Significant public backlash from those impacted by sonic booms during this testing resulted in the prohibition of civil supersonic flight over land that exists today, and the restrictions on Concorde operations in § 91.819.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                     To relieve the concerns that led to the initial prohibition on civil supersonic flight in the U.S. as next-generation supersonic aircraft prepare to enter the National Airspace System (NAS), FAA drew on the best available data to propose an overpressure limit that data indicated sufficiently abated sonic boom at the surface. Based on this data, FAA determined operators should be required to ensure primary and secondary (including direct and indirect) sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 psf, as proposed in § 91.817(a)(2)(i).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In developing the sonic boom noise levels in proposed § 91.817(a)(2)(i), FAA considered the NASA study entitled “Mach Cutoff Analysis and Results from NASA's Farfield Investigation of No-boom Thresholds (FaINT)” 
                    <SU>36</SU>
                     and a 1980 DOT Transportation Systems Center, now the John A. Volpe National Transportation Systems Center (“NTSC” or “Volpe”), study “Detection and Assessment of Secondary Sonic Booms in New England.” 
                    <SU>37</SU>
                     These studies followed a similar approach of examining sonic boom noise measures at the surface and quantified several distinct types of sonic booms from supersonic aircraft as overpressures in psf. The NASA study (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     FaINT) documented primary sonic booms that were abated operationally when the aircraft was flown within a constrained MCO flight airspeed-altitude envelope and under non-anomalous meteorological conditions. The FaINT study demonstrated a successfully abated sonic boom by measuring the resulting noise (evanescent waves measured upon successful abatement of the primary sonic boom) and quantifying the residual surface pressure. In other words, successful abatement of a sonic boom was determined when the only remaining noise related to the sonic boom was noise no longer characteristic of a sonic boom (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     evanescent waves).
                </P>
                <P>To further include the wider spectrum of residual pressure data from primary sonic boom impacted by atmospheric propagation effects, FAA included data from the NTSC study into the analysis of sonic boom impact at the surface. In this study, the NTSC examined data on sonic booms generated by Concorde aircraft and identified noise that the NTSC study termed as “secondary sonic booms.” These secondary sonic booms were classified as two types based on their refraction or reflection path—type 1 (which FAA defines as direct in proposed § 1.1) initially traveled upward before refracting off of the atmosphere and type 2 (which FAA defines as indirect in proposed § 1.1) initially traveled downward and were reflected off the surface, then traveled upward to the thermosphere before being refracted downward again to the ground. Utilizing microphone arrays and vibration measuring systems, NTSC recorded instances of peak-to-peak overpressure changes at surface-level. After logging these pressure changes into a database, NTSC was able to correlate these pressure changes with Concorde flights near the test areas utilizing air carrier schedules and FAA radar track data.</P>
                <P>FAA referenced both the NTSC and NASA study data to establish a level for purposes of this NPRM (see proposed § 91.817(a)(1)) where MCO was successful and only evanescent waves and unheard secondary sonic booms (attenuated secondary sonic booms) existed. Based on the FaINT and NTSC datasets, FAA determined the appropriate demarcation threshold where sonic booms were sufficiently abated at the surface was at an overpressure of 0.11 psf using MCO. Consistent with the Administrator's duty to protect the public health from sonic boom, and due to the lack of integrated metric data available to determine a tolerable level of sonic boom at the surface, FAA determined the level where sonic booms were sufficiently abated by MCO was the appropriate overpressure limit to propose in this NPRM. FAA seeks comment on this noise standard to protect the public, including any supporting data for an overpressure limit other than 0.11 psf.</P>
                <P>
                    While FAA is proposing a standard, FAA is providing flexibility to operators regarding methods of compliance to meet the standard. The method of compliance is how the noise would be assessed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     measured) at the surface to ensure that sonic boom overpressure does not exceed the limit in this standard. This proposal would require FAA to approve the method of compliance, rather than mandating a method of compliance as FAA does for subsonic aircraft. This method can vary from those contained in part 36.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA expects to consider the following information when approving a proposed method of compliance: (1) whether data used to develop the proposed method of compliance is based on, or validated by, physical noise measurement; (2) whether the proposed method of compliance is technologically practicable and appropriate for the aircraft to which it would apply; (3) whether the proposed method of compliance considers developments in noise measurement and other associated fields (such as research programs into quantification and control of aircraft noise); (4) whether the proposed method of compliance is based on an industry-consensus standard; and (5) whether the proposed method of compliance clearly documents all assumptions used in the development, validation, results, and limitations. These factors are similar to those factors FAA stated it would consider when approving voluntary noise consensus standards in the Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification final rule,
                    <SU>38</SU>
                     as well as the factors FAA proposed the agency would consider when approving an unmanned aircraft system (UAS) noise consensus standard in proposed part 108.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                     These factors represent best practices when evaluating industry-developed methods of compliance. FAA has proposed a draft Advisory Circular, which will be included in the docket for this NPRM, describing collection methods that fulfill the above criteria; however, the collection methods in the draft Advisory Circular are guidance and would not be mandatory. As supersonic flight without sonic boom reaching the ground is a new operational concept, FAA expects that flight testing will be the primary method of demonstrating compliance for the first-generation of aircraft seeking to comply with the proposed standard. As the data pool grows and develops based on flight testing, applicants may develop reusable 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40476"/>
                    mathematical models and analyses, validated through test data, that can confidently estimate the sonic boom overpressure at the surface without the need for additional flight testing. This proposal would require that an operator make certain demonstrations of compliance to the FAA, rather than complying in an operational sense.
                </P>
                <P>By prescribing sonic boom noise limits and not specific noise data collection requirements to demonstrate compliance, FAA intends to provide flexibility for the development of future collection methods that may be more novel or appropriate for supersonic aircraft. FAA invites comments on this approach to sonic boom methods of compliance, as well as on the draft Advisory Circular. FAA also requests comment on whether any material in the draft Advisory Circular should be included in the regulation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Finding by the Administrator To Conduct Operations and Conditions and Limitations Associated With the Finding</HD>
                <P>As previously discussed, the Administrator has a duty to protect the public health from sonic booms and ensure safe operations. In addition, the technology to enable the ability to operate civil aircraft at supersonic speeds on a routine and consistent basis without sonic booms reaching the surface remains new and novel. As such, to comply with the Administrator's duty to protect the public health from sonic booms, FAA proposes in § 91.817(a)(2) that it would make a finding, after an operator demonstration, that the operation does not exceed the stated limit and the operator has a means to comply with the limit. This process ensures the operator is properly equipped and capable of consistently operating in a manner that ensures that surface sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 psf.</P>
                <P>FAA proposes in § 91.817(a)(2) that the operator demonstrate, and FAA find, that: (1) through a method approved by FAA, surface sonic boom overpressure does not exceed 0.11 psf for primary and secondary sonic boom levels at the surface; and (2) the operator has a means to ensure sonic boom overpressure in excess of 0.11 psf does not reach the surface. This finding would remain valid as long as the operator meets the criteria that are the basis of the finding.</P>
                <P>Using the approved methods of demonstration (see discussion in Section IV.A.i.), surface sonic booms would be measured as sound overpressure. As proposed, measurement of each of the following at the surface could not exceed an overpressure of 0.11 psf: primary sonic boom levels, secondary direct sonic boom levels, and secondary indirect sonic boom levels.</P>
                <P>In identifying other factors appropriate as the basis of the Administrator's finding, FAA reviewed the criteria for SFA in current § 91.818 to see if any were applicable. Though not the same in context, FAA determined the concepts in § 91.818(a)(8)(iii), regarding establishing a means of compliance to reduce or eliminate the effects of sonic boom on the surface, would be helpful in evaluating a requested operation. The proposed addition of § 91.817(a)(2)(ii) is consistent with this approach. Whereas an operator's method of compliance is a showing to FAA through measurement, modeling, or other methods that the operator can achieve the conditions of the proposed noise standard in a demonstration environment, a means of compliance is how the operator intends to ensure that no overpressure over 0.11 psf reaches the surface in an operational scenario. Proposed § 91.817(a)(2)(ii) would allow an operator to propose its means of compliance with the standard in proposed § 91.817(a)(1) along the flight path on an operational basis. Means that the operator may use to comply with the proposal could be generic, as in MCO, or they could be a proprietary method developed by a stakeholder. Depending on the means of compliance, FAA would issue appropriate conditions or limitations (see proposed § 91.817(a)(3)).</P>
                <P>FAA is considering whether to incorporate a regulatory requirement that the applicant should provide specific information to FAA regarding its means of compliance. This specific information would define the operational conditions and limitations to ensure the sonic boom overpressure does not exceed 0.11 psf. For example, if proposing to conduct MCO, the operator would need to provide information defining its weather source, the model used to predict boom propagation, and how it would ensure the airspeed during an operation would not exceed the maximum speed that supports MCO, or other controlling factors that ensure successful MCO. FAA invites comment on whether operators should be required to submit this or other information to assist the Administrator with evaluating a request to conduct supersonic flight in the U.S.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on FAA's knowledge of the industry and what it has heard from stakeholders, FAA anticipates operators may mitigate the impacts of sonic boom on the surface either by modifying the aircraft through on-board technology or through directions by a dispatch command center. FAA expects that initial operations under the proposed rule will be based on MCO. As described previously, MCO is a flight technique where the sonic pressure wave is refracted upward through the atmosphere away from the ground, resulting in lower intensity evanescent waves reaching the ground. To operate consistently in MCO, the operator must be able to determine the optimal speed and altitude based on the non-anomalous, atmospheric conditions along the intended route of flight during flight planning and control the speed and route of flight during operation to ensure sonic boom noise levels remain within the sonic overpressure requirement. NASA has released a model, PCBoom,
                    <SU>40</SU>
                     which is a sonic boom propagation suite of programs with a proven record of utility in predicting MCO conditions when actual atmospheric conditions are known. Flight demonstrations of MCO by NASA as a part of the FaINT study used atmospheric sounding data in the specific area of the intended flight test to provide necessary weather information.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                     When conducting MCO, an operator must account for the uncertainty in the terrain, actual weather, and atmospheric parameters that ensure MCO are achievable along the flight path. The operator may also need to monitor certain weather conditions that are observable, such as the winds in real-time along the aircraft trajectory.
                </P>
                <P>The application to compute the maximum allowable speed for the route of flight and environmental conditions would need to be validated by the operator, through comparison with previously validated tools (such as PCBoom) or through specific flight testing designed to validate the model.</P>
                <P>
                    In the future, industry may develop aircraft that abate sonic boom to the point where only sonic boom overpressures below 0.11 psf reach the surface through aircraft design and operating configuration management systems. An aircraft with a low-boom design, such as the previously discussed X-59 aircraft, prevent the shock waves emanating from various aircraft surfaces from coalescing to form a single overpressure wave. The atmospheric conditions also play a key role in preventing the waves from coalescing between the aircraft and the ground. The operator would likely rely on models provided by the aircraft type certificate holder, and on aircraft systems that control the aircraft surfaces 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40477"/>
                    in real time, to manage the development of pressure waves at the airframe. Under the existing systems and equipment regulations (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     14 CFR part 25 subpart F), the applicant for an airplane type certificate would demonstrate that the systems governing the flight controls perform their intended function (including the management of pressure wave generation) and do not create a hazard upon failure. The operator of such an aircraft could propose these design and operating configuration management systems as its means of compliance with the levels in proposed § 91.817(a)(2)(i). Currently, FAA and industry are building experience with these aircraft. NASA has developed the X-59 and plans to conduct flight testing over the next few years, which will further inform the specific aerodynamic design and associated onboard systems appropriate for this potential means of compliance.
                </P>
                <P>In proposed § 91.817(a)(3), once established, the operator would be required to comply with FAA-issued conditions and limitations. FAA anticipates conditions and limitations would be limited to those related to meeting the operational limit in § 91.817 (a)(1) and the means of compliance in § 91.817 (a)(2)(ii). The conditions and limitations related to the means of compliance could identify the type of aircraft and include any specific equipment, parameters, instructions, or other items that are necessary to ensure the operator meets the requirements in § 91.817 (a)(1) and (2)(i). FAA does not intend that these conditions and limitations would address operation-by-operation specific items, such as geographical limitations, or mirror those under a special flight authorization in 91.818.</P>
                <P>FAA considered where it would be appropriate to document the conditions and limitations that would be required under proposed § 91.817(a)(3). FAA identified several alternatives for documenting the conditions and limitations, including placement in operations specifications, modification of § 21.5 to require information in the flight manual, or development of a stand-alone document. FAA invites comments on where it should place operator-specific conditions and limitations to ensure that the operator meets the requirements in § 91.817(a)(1). FAA determined that any conditions or limitations that would be necessary under this proposal can be addressed in the finding by the Administrator, including additions or changes to information in the flight manual. Therefore, changes to part 21 are not necessary.</P>
                <P>
                    FAA is also considering whether to limit FAA's review for en route noise certification purposes to approval by the Administrator of the method of compliance (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     flight demonstration or model-based evaluation) used to demonstrate the ability to comply with the 0.11 psf limit. Any potential conditions and limitations issued by the Administrator would only pertain to the approved method of compliance. FAA invites comments on whether FAA review should be limited to the method of compliance and whether potential conditions and limitations should pertain only to the method of compliance, rather than the operation of the aircraft.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Section-By-Section Analysis for § 91.817(a) and § 91.817(b)</HD>
                <P>For these reasons, FAA proposes the following amendments.</P>
                <P>Section § 91.817 is currently titled “Civil aircraft sonic boom.” FAA proposes to retitle this section “Civil supersonic flight” to capture the new regulation proposed in this NPRM accurately.</P>
                <P>Current § 91.817 prohibits operation of a civil aircraft in the U.S. at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 except in compliance with conditions and limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued to the operator in accordance with § 91.818. Proposed § 91.817 would create new paragraphs enabling civil supersonic flight. Under the proposed rule, no person may operate a civil aircraft in the U.S. at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 unless they meet the conditions in proposed §§ 91.817(a), 91.817(c), or 91.818. Section 91.817(a)(1) proposes that, to operate an aircraft at a true flight Mach number greater than 1, sonic boom overpressure at the surface must not exceed 0.11 psf. Proposed § 91.817(a)(2) would require the operator of the aircraft to demonstrate and the Administrator to make a finding prior to operation at a true flight Mach number greater than 1. Proposed § 91.817(a)(3) would require the aircraft be operated in compliance with any conditions and limitations to ensure compliance with proposed paragraph (a)(1) and (2)(ii).</P>
                <P>Proposed § 91.817(a)(2) contains the items the operator must demonstrate before the Administrator can issue a finding.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 91.817(a)(2)(i) would require the operator demonstrate through measurement, modeling, or other methods approved by FAA, that sonic boom overpressure does not exceed 0.11 psf from primary or secondary sonic booms.</P>
                <P>In proposed § 91.817(a)(2)(ii), the operator would be required to have a means of ensuring sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 psf.</P>
                <P>FAA would only issue a finding after the operator demonstrates that each of the criterion in proposed § 91.817(a)(2) is met.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Supersonic Flight to or From an Airport in the U.S.</HD>
                <P>
                    After initially prohibiting supersonic flight in the U.S. in 1973, except via SFAs, FAA realized areas along the coast were still being impacted by sonic booms. This was because the sonic booms were being caused by flights that had originated outside of the U.S. and not yet arrived in the U.S. territorial waters.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                     Research by NASA would term this phenomena “secondary sonic boom.” 
                    <SU>43</SU>
                     In response, in 1978, FAA promulgated current § 91.817(b) to prevent secondary sonic booms from Concorde reaching the shores of the U.S. when Concorde was flying to and from U.S. airports.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                     This effectively expanded the geographic area around the U.S. where supersonic flight was prohibited in response to the Administrator's statutory responsibility to protect the public health from sonic boom. FAA did provide exceptions to this requirement in current § 91.817(b) for operations of civil aircraft where (1) the flight crew has information available that ensures sonic booms do not reach the surface in the U.S. and they comply with those limitations, or (2) the operator complies with conditions and limitations in an SFA. The proposed rule would retain these exceptions. These exceptions ensure that in situations where a sonic boom would reach the surface, it would do so either outside the U.S. or in an area specifically authorized by FAA through an SFA.
                </P>
                <P>As operations authorized under proposed § 91.817(a) would prevent a sonic boom overpressure in excess of 0.11 psf from reaching the surface of the U.S., the operations would be consistent with the original intent and purpose of the exceptions in the 1978 regulation. For this reason, FAA proposes to add an additional exception to the exceptions in current § 91.817(b) to permit civil supersonic flight operations to or from an airport in the U.S. when authorized by the Administrator under proposed § 91.817(a).</P>
                <P>For these reasons, FAA proposes the following amendments.</P>
                <P>
                    FAA proposes current § 91.817(b) be revised and relocated to § 91.817(c). FAA proposes to add a new § 91.817(c)(1) to permit operations in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40478"/>
                    accordance with proposed § 91.817(a). FAA proposes to revise §§ 91.817(b)(1) and (b)(2) and relocate the provisions to new §§ 91.817(c)(2) and (c)(3). Current § 91.817(b)(1) requires that information available to the flight crew include the flight limitations that ensure flights entering or leaving the U.S. will not cause a sonic boom to reach the surface in the U.S. Current § 91.817(b)(2) requires, in part, that the operator complies with those flight limitations. These requirements would be relocated as new § 91.817(c)(2). Current § 91.817(b)(2) alternatively allows an operator to comply with conditions and limitations under an SFA. FAA proposes to relocate that portion of current § 91.817(b)(2) as new § 91.817(c)(3). This would maintain the exception for an operation to or from an airport in the U.S. that is in compliance with conditions and limitations in an SFA. These proposed changes would provide three avenues through which operators could operate civil supersonic flight to or from an airport in the U.S.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Special Flight Authorization To Exceed Mach 1 and Produce Sonic Booms That May Reach the Surface of the U.S.</HD>
                <P>FAA maintains there may be times when it is in the public interest for civil aircraft to produce a sonic boom that may reach the surface of the U.S. in controlled environments, for example when developing aircraft and demonstrating compliance with proposed § 91.817(a). Therefore, the ability for the Administrator to evaluate and continue to permit such operations under an SFA remains necessary.</P>
                <P>To implement these changes, FAA proposes the following amendments. Proposed § 91.817(b) would retain the exception in current § 91.817(a) allowing an operator to obtain an SFA. Specifically, this would retain the ability of the Administrator to permit operations in the U.S. at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 as an alternative to the requirements in proposed paragraph § 91.817(a), through an SFA issued under § 91.818. Proposed § 91.817(b) is substantially the same as the current § 91.817(a), however, it has been rephrased to capture the enabling nature of the proposed § 91.817 and revised to account for the proposed § 91.817(a).</P>
                <P>FAA proposes conforming amendments to § 91.818. Current § 91.818 contains the SFA process and is titled “Special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1.” FAA proposes to revise the introductory language for clarity and to account for the authorization to conduct operations at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 in proposed § 91.817(a) or (c)(2). In addition, current § 91.818(a)(8)(v) references the limits for operation in current § 91.817(b), which permits supersonic operations under the conditions and limitations of an SFA. As FAA is proposing to relocate current § 91.817(b) to § 91.817(c), FAA proposes to revise § 91.818(a)(8)(v) to reference § 91.817(c) instead of § 91.817(b) accordingly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Definitions of Sonic Boom</HD>
                <P>
                    Key to the scope of this rule is how a sonic boom is created and the characteristics of that sonic boom. Any aircraft that moves through the atmosphere at speeds exceeding the local speed of sound (Mach 1) creates a system of nearly instantaneous (about 3-6 milliseconds of rise time) pressure changes known as shock waves along the length of the aircraft. The system of individual shock waves due to aircraft features propagates through the atmosphere shifting in space over a long-distance, typically coalescing into two compressions, one at the nose and one at the tail, that form a sonic boom. When the energy from the shockwave reaches our ears, it is heard as the loud crack, or thunder-like, sonic boom.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                     Certain flight maneuvers, such as accelerating an aircraft to speeds above Mach 1 and conducting other maneuvers such as steep turns and push-overs, can result in louder sound events that are known as “focus booms”. These focus booms are transient, brief events. FAA is not proposing to regulate focus boom in this NPRM, as these booms are limited in area and duration. In addition, during civil operations, flight planning (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     milder maneuvers and controlled acceleration and deceleration) can be utilized to manage focus boom. Upon reaching speeds greater than Mach 1, the aircraft produces a sonic boom that radiates from the aircraft. A sonic boom that travels directly to the surface is termed as a primary sonic boom. This sonic boom is less intense than a focus sonic boom but continues for the duration of the time the aircraft is flying greater than Mach 1, including the duration of the en route phase of flight.
                </P>
                <P>
                    When an aircraft is producing a primary sonic boom, depending on the atmospheric conditions, that aircraft may also produce secondary sonic booms. Secondary sonic booms are the result of primary sonic booms reflecting off the surface reaching the upper atmosphere and returning to the surface, or refracting off the upper atmosphere and then reaching the surface. Secondary sonic booms are generally significantly quieter than focus and primary sonic booms, but travel over much longer distances. They may be difficult to notice outdoors, but can manifest indoors as vibrations.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                     The two types of secondary sonic booms are direct and indirect, which identify based on a single (“over the top” reflecting from the upper atmosphere) or double (initially reflecting from surface and then refracted by the upper atmosphere) reflection path, respectively.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA proposes to amend § 1.1, General definitions, to add definitions related to sonic boom. Specifically, FAA proposes to define “sonic boom” as the acoustic event, notably on the earth's surface, that is a manifestation of the shock wave system generated by an aircraft when it flies at a speed greater than the local speed of sound. This is the accepted definition of sonic boom established by the ICAO acoustics panel of noise experts while aiding the Air Navigation Bureau (ANB) with developing an ICAO circular.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                     In this circular, ICAO defines sonic boom and prescribes how it may be abated by flight operations to avoid land and population impacts. FAA proposes to add a final sentence to the ICAO ANB definition: “Its resulting surface impacts have been labelled as primary or secondary sonic boom(s).” For purposes of this proposed rule, sonic boom would include both types of sonic boom, primary and secondary, as well as both types of secondary boom, direct and indirect. Both are consequences of supersonic flight and both may reach the surface, though in different ways. FAA considers both primary sonic booms and secondary sonic booms harmful if they reach the surface.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                     FAA also proposes to define both primary and secondary sonic booms in § 1.1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA proposes to define “primary sonic boom” as the sonic boom which travels directly down from the supersonic aircraft to the surface. This definition was established by NASA in its compendium of sonic boom research based on scientific observations of primary sonic booms.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA proposes to define “secondary sonic boom” as the sonic boom that is refracted or reflected in certain atmospheric conditions to travel further from the source of the original boom and may eventually reach the surface. Secondary sonic booms are identified as either: Direct secondary that travels upward from the aircraft and refracts through the upper atmosphere down to the surface, or Indirect secondary that travels down to the surface after both (1) reflecting from the surface or refracting upward due to parameters being met (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     MCO conditions); and (2) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40479"/>
                    refracting downward through the upper atmosphere to the surface. This definition is adopted from the definition NTSC established in its 1980 study of Concorde flights off the coast of New England.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <P>E.O. 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and E.O. 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) require agencies to regulate in the “most cost-effective manner,” to make a “reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs,” and to develop regulations that “impose the least burden on society.”</P>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget has determined this proposed rulemaking is a significant regulatory action as defined in § (3)(f) of E.O. 12866. E.O. 14192 (“Unleashing Prosperity through Deregulation”) instructs agencies to “alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens.” FAA expects this rule, if finalized as proposed, to be an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action. This section provides FAA's analysis of the regulatory impact of the proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Need for Regulatory Action</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule would repeal the prohibition on civil supersonic flight and establish an interim noise-based certification standard for sonic boom to allow for supersonic flight over the U.S. without the need for a Special Flight Authorization (SFA). This action also addresses the direction in E.O. 14304, “Leading the World in Supersonic Flight.” The proposed rule would facilitate the development of new supersonic aircraft, new system technology, and enable future rulemakings to further expand the supersonic industry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Baseline for the Analysis</HD>
                <P>The baseline for the analysis comprises the existing regulatory framework for conducting civil supersonic flight operations over the U.S., including the affected entities and operations under this framework. While civil supersonic flight over the U.S. is prohibited, manufacturers or operators may apply for an SFA that authorizes a limited number of supersonic flights within an isolated test area for limited purposes and allows sonic booms to reach the surface. Only four SFAs have been issued to date. These authorizations were issued to: Scaled Composites for Spaceship One (2003); Gulfstream Aerospace Model 650 (2010); Boom Supersonic XB-1 demonstrator (2024); and Hermeus for the Supersonic Quarterhorse Mark 2.1 unmanned aircraft system (2026).</P>
                <P>Currently, two manufacturers are actively developing civil supersonic aircraft for passenger carrying operations in the NAS. Under this proposed rule, these manufacturers would continue to use the existing SFA process to conduct flight tests; therefore, the cost of these SFAs are excluded from this analysis. In addition, FAA anticipates five operators will apply for an SFA to operate supersonic aircraft within the analysis period. Because FAA limits SFAs to a specific operational area and a set number of flights, FAA assumes each SFA remains valid for no more than one year. Consequently, FAA assumes that each operator would apply for a new SFA annually. Table 1 displays the affected entities and new SFA applications in the analysis period.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs25,9,9">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Affected Entities and New SFA Applications</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Operators</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SFA 
                            <LI>applications</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01"> Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>FAA uses a 5-year analysis period for this preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis. FAA determined that a shorter analysis period is appropriate for this proposed rule because civil supersonic flight is still an emerging technology and may evolve in a manner different from current expectations. This timeframe also accounts for the time it will take for FAA to set final LTO standards that will allow supersonic aircraft to operate from U.S. airports.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Benefits</HD>
                <P>There is currently a prohibition on civil supersonic flights in the U.S., and no aircraft can operate at speeds exceeding Mach 1 unless the aircraft operator obtains an SFA. The proposed rule would remove this prohibition and implement an interim en route noise certification standard, thereby supporting the development of the next generation of supersonic flight while safeguarding the public from the adverse impacts of sonic booms.</P>
                <P>The repeal of the prohibition and defining interim noise standards would allow the commercial supersonic aircraft industry to innovate and promote economic viability by providing growth opportunities for the domestic aviation sector. Repeal of the prohibition establishes the necessary regulatory framework to enable the development of civil supersonic aircraft, paving the way for the public to benefit eventually from significantly reduced travel times and more efficient global connectivity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Costs</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule would result in some regulatory costs and cost savings for FAA and industry. FAA anticipates costs to demonstrate compliance with the proposed rule's noise requirements, including means of compliance costs and the incremental flight testing costs. FAA expects the proposed rule to generate administrative cost savings because operators would no longer need to apply for an SFA; instead, they will request a less burdensome, one-time authorization from the Administrator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Means of Compliance Costs</HD>
                <P>
                    FAA anticipates manufactures would incur costs to develop technology and flight techniques (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     MCO) to ensure a sonic boom overpressure in excess of 0.11 psf does not reach the surface during civil aircraft operations. The proposed rule would not require specific technology or techniques but instead would provide manufacturers with flexibility to develop or continue developing their own means to comply. FAA expects that this flexibility would lead manufacturers to choose the most cost-effective solution. Given the new and novel nature of MCO and other sonic boom abatement techniques and technology, FAA does not have data on the costs to implement MCO or other sonic abatement techniques and accompanying technologies and thus is unable to estimate these costs.
                </P>
                <P>FAA requests comment and supporting data on the assumption that manufacturers would choose the most cost-effective means of compliance, as well as on costs to develop MCO and other means of compliance to ensure sonic booms do not reach the surface.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Testing Costs</HD>
                <P>
                    FAA expects operators seeking to operate within the analysis period would need to use flight testing as a part of the process to obtain authorization from the Administrator. However, these operators are not expected to incur flight testing costs above those already required to obtain a flight authorization. In addition, as the inventory of sufficiently robust data increases, FAA expects other ways to demonstrate compliance, including modeling and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40480"/>
                    other methods that do not incur flight testing costs, to be sufficient. To conduct this testing, operators would use a method (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     microphones) to conduct acoustic data acquisition that assesses the sound level set forth in proposed § 91.817(a)(1). FAA assumes five operators would seek to operate civil supersonic aircraft in the U.S., and they would be required to demonstrate the method and means of compliance proposed in § 91.817(a)(2). FAA does not have flight testing cost data specific to measuring a sonic boom.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                     FAA seeks public comment on the costs of data collection and the assumption of no additional flight testing costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Cost Savings</HD>
                <P>FAA expects administrative cost savings for industry and FAA by replacing the yearly process for applying for an SFA with an authorization from the Administrator to conduct civil supersonic flights. The following analysis compares the baseline costs where operators would need to submit an SFA application against the proposed rule's costs in which operators would apply for a one-time authorization.</P>
                <P>
                    Currently, FAA estimates that each SFA application costs an operator $110,928 in administrative costs annually.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                     Over the five-year period of analysis, an operator would submit three applications, resulting in a per operator cost of $332,784 and a total industry cost of $1,663,920. The proposed rule would replace this recurring cost for operators with a one-time administrative cost per aircraft type. FAA estimates that an operator would spend 200 hours 
                    <SU>53</SU>
                     requesting the one-time authorization. Based on a 2024 fully loaded wage rate of $96.28 per hour for an aerospace engineer ($67.88 per hour base wage 
                    <SU>54</SU>
                     plus 1.42 overhead factor),
                    <SU>55</SU>
                     the one-time administrative cost would be $19,257 per operator, or $96,284 for the industry. FAA based the 200-hour estimate for the noise compliance reports in proposed § 91.817 on historical data from similar subsonic aircraft noise compliance reports under part 36.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAA currently incurs an administrative cost of $58,973 for each SFA.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                     Based on the 15 SFAs projected during the analysis period, total FAA processing costs are estimated to be $884,595. The proposed rule would reduce this burden by requiring only one initial authorization per operator per aircraft type. Under the proposed rule, FAA expects that an FAA engineer would process the initial flight authorizations for all five operators. For an FAA engineer (J Pay Band), the base wage is $59.56 per hour.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                     With overhead costs of 36.25 percent added,
                    <SU>58</SU>
                     the total salary is $81.15 per hour.
                    <SU>59</SU>
                     With each application estimated to take 80 hours 
                    <SU>60</SU>
                     to process, the cost to the FAA per operator to process each authorization would be $6,492. Therefore, FAA estimates the Agency to incur $32,460 in administrative costs under the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <P>The baseline costs are $1.66 million to industry and $0.88 million to FAA, for a total of $2.55 million. Under the proposed rule, the costs would decrease to $96,284 and $32,460, respectively, for a total of $128,744. Therefore, FAA estimates that the proposed rule would result in cost savings to industry and FAA of $2,419,771 in the analysis period. Table 2 displays the baseline and proposed rule's cost estimates, and Table 3 displays the industry and FAA cost savings.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s30,8,8,8,8p,14,8,8,8">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Baseline and Proposed Rule Administrative Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Baseline costs</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">SFAs</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Industry 
                            <LI>costs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            FAA 
                            <LI>costs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Total</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Proposed rule costs</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Operator 
                            <LI>authorizations</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Industry 
                            <LI>costs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            FAA 
                            <LI>costs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Total</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>554,640</ENT>
                        <ENT>294,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>849,505</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>96,284</ENT>
                        <ENT>32,460</ENT>
                        <ENT>128,744</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>554,640</ENT>
                        <ENT>294,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>849,505</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>554,640</ENT>
                        <ENT>294,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>849,505</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,663,920</ENT>
                        <ENT>884,595</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,548,515</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>96,284</ENT>
                        <ENT>32,460</ENT>
                        <ENT>128,744</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,21,16,18">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Administrative Cost Savings</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Industry cost savings</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">FAA cost savings</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total cost savings</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>458,356</ENT>
                        <ENT>262,405</ENT>
                        <ENT>720,761</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>554,640</ENT>
                        <ENT>294,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>849,505</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>554,640</ENT>
                        <ENT>294,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>849,505</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,567,636</ENT>
                        <ENT>852,135</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,419,771</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">v. Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule would remove the current barrier to developing the next generation of supersonic aircraft by establishing an interim noise standard. Benefits from the proposed rule include providing regulatory certainty that will encourage the advancement of new supersonic aircraft and technology. The proposed rule would also result in means of compliance and flight-testing costs that FAA cannot estimate due to a lack of data and uncertainty. However, FAA expects the incremental increase in these costs to be minimal as most compliance costs are already captured within the existing costs of obtaining a flight authorization. Lastly, FAA estimates undiscounted administrative cost savings of $1,567,636 for industry and $852,135 for the government, totaling $2,419,771. The proposed rule is the first step in providing regulatory certainty that would enable the supersonic industry and regular supersonic transport flights. Table 4 displays the qualitative benefits, qualitative costs, and undiscounted and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40481"/>
                    discounted cost savings of the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Summary Benefits and Costs </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[2024$]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Qualitative Benefits</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05">
                        <ENT I="22">• Supporting the development of supersonic flight.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22">• Establishes the necessary framework to enable the development of civil supersonic aircraft.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Qualitative Costs</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22">• Industry costs to demonstrate compliance, including means of compliance costs and incremental flight testing costs.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Cost Savings</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>2024$</ENT>
                        <ENT>7%</ENT>
                        <ENT>3%</ENT>
                        <ENT>7%</ENT>
                        <ENT>3%</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25">Category</ENT>
                        <ENT A="01">Present value</ENT>
                        <ENT A="01">Annualized</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Industry Cost Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,567,636</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,192,738</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,390,688</ENT>
                        <ENT>$290,898</ENT>
                        <ENT>$303,663</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">FAA Cost Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>852,135</ENT>
                        <ENT>649,386</ENT>
                        <ENT>756,475</ENT>
                        <ENT>158,379</ENT>
                        <ENT>165,180</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Cost Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,419,771</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,842,124</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,147,163</ENT>
                        <ENT>449,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>468,843</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">vi. Uncertainties</HD>
                <P>Due to the novel and innovative nature of the supersonic aircraft industry, FAA has noted several uncertainties that limit the ability to provide a quantitative economic impact analysis for this proposed rule. The table below summarizes the uncertainties in the analysis. FAA invites comment and requests additional information and data to consider in these areas.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs110,r150">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Uncertainties</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Uncertainty</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Population and Timeframe</ENT>
                        <ENT>The number of manufacturers and operators entering the industry after the analysis period.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>The time it will take for the industry to have a functioning supersonic transport category aircraft available to the public.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>The revenue and profits of manufacturers, operators, and third-party entities in the industry.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>The routes and the number of routes; size of the aircraft, including the number of seats in an aircraft; and price per seat and other economic factors of operations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>The methods and means of complying with the noise standard. This includes the cost of instruments to read the noise levels, software, data acquisition, and noise testing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>The administrative costs the industry will incur with compliance.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">vii. Alternatives</HD>
                <P>
                    FAA evaluated the alternative to not promulgate this proposed rule. Under this alternative FAA would work in conjunction with ICAO to set noise standards for en route supersonic transport, an effort that is currently underway.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                     FAA does not expect this ICAO effort to be complete until 2031. After the ICAO standard is established, FAA would then promulgate a proposed rule to implement these ICAO noise standards. However, this is a long-term effort and would hinder the supersonic industry's ability in the more immediate term to be innovative. This alternative would not be appropriate to meet the needs of the industry. It would not provide for advancements in technology and development of flight techniques that prevent sonic booms from reaching the surface.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) of 1980, Public Law 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121, 110 Stat. 857, Mar. 29, 1996) and the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240, 124 Stat. 2504 Sept. 27, 2010), requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.</P>
                <P>Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA. However, if an agency determines a rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, § 605(b) of the RFA provides that the head of the agency may certify and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. The certification must include a statement providing the factual basis for this determination with a reasoned explanation.</P>
                <P>
                    FAA used the definition of small entities in the RFA for this analysis. The RFA defines small entities as small businesses, small governmental jurisdictions, or small organizations. In 5 U.S.C. 601(3), the RFA defines “small business” to have the same meaning as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40482"/>
                    “small business concern” under section 3 of the Small Business Act. The Small Business Act authorizes the Small Business Administration (SBA) to define “small business” by issuing regulations. SBA (2023) has established size standards for various types of economic activities, or industries, under the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    SBA defines a small scheduled passenger air carrier as any operator with 1,500 or fewer employees and a small nonscheduled passenger air carrier as any operator with 1,500 or fewer employees.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                     FAA identified five operators contemplating supersonic overland flight operability. Based on the SBA size standard and on publicly available data on employment for these entities, both operators are large businesses. Therefore, FAA certifies the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because the proposed rule does not impact a small entity. FAA solicits comment regarding this determination.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. International Trade Impact Assessment</HD>
                <P>The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the U.S. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the U.S., so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.</P>
                <P>FAA has assessed the potential effect of this proposed rule and determined it ensures the safety of the American public and does not exclude imports that meet this objective. As a result, FAA does not consider this proposed rule as creating an unnecessary obstacle to foreign commerce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) governs the issuance of Federal regulations that require unfunded mandates. An unfunded mandate is a regulation that requires a State, local, or Tribal government or the private sector to incur direct costs without the Federal Government having first provided the funds to pay those costs. FAA determined the proposed rule would not result in the expenditure of $193,000,000 or more ($100,000,000 adjusted for inflation using the most current Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product) by State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector, in any one year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. According to the 1995 amendments to the Paperwork Reduction Act (5 CFR 1320.8(b)(2)(vi)), an agency may not collect or sponsor the collection of information, nor may it impose an information collection requirement unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.</P>
                <P>This action contains the following proposed new information collection requirements. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)), FAA has submitted these proposed information collection amendments to OMB for its review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                     FAA is proposing to require operators seeking to operate supersonic flight overland to demonstrate a means and method of compliance that ensures sonic boom overpressure in excess of 0.11 psf does not reach the surface. Each applicant's collected information would be incorporated into a noise compliance report that is provided to and approved by FAA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     The noise compliance report of test data would be used by FAA to make a compliance finding with proposed § 91.817.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents (including number of):</E>
                     There are currently five aircraft operators contemplating authorization for supersonic overland flight operability.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     There are estimated to be five supersonic airplane authorizations to enable supersonic overland flight operability in the 3-year period of this PRA and will occur in the first year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Estimate:</E>
                     For a private industry worker working full-time as an aerospace engineer, the 2024 base wage rate is $67.88 per hour.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                     Using an overhead factor of 1.42 makes total compensation $96.28 per hour.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                     For a single applicant spending 200 hours 
                    <SU>65</SU>
                     on compliance collection at a wage of $96.28 per hour, the cost would be $19,257 per applicant.
                </P>
                <P>There will be a total of five respondents for domestic projects who would report. FAA expects the respondents to report once as FAA assumes they have aircraft they will test. The cost for five applicants is $19,257 per applicant, the cumulative total is $96,284 in year three and no cost in the first two years. At a seven percent present value, the total cost is $78,596.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">FAA Cost</HD>
                <P>
                    For an FAA engineer in the J Pay Band, the base wage is $59.56 per hour.
                    <SU>66</SU>
                     With overhead costs of 36.25 percent added,
                    <SU>67</SU>
                     the total salary is $81.15 per hour.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                     Based on two requests expected in the first year, requiring 80 hours 
                    <SU>69</SU>
                     per response at a wage rate of $81.15 per hour, the total government cost is estimated to be $32,460. At seven percent present value, the total government cost is $26,497. FAA based its estimate of time spent on completing the noise compliance report for proposed § 91.817 on time estimates it uses for its review of similar noise compliance reports under part 36.
                </P>
                <P>FAA is soliciting comments to—</P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of FAA, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of FAA's estimate of the burden;</P>
                <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>(4) Minimize the burden of collecting information on those who are to respond, including by using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Individuals and organizations may send comments on the information collection requirement to the address listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section at the beginning of this preamble by August 31, 2026. Comments also should be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Desk Officer for FAA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10202, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20053.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. International Compatibility</HD>
                <P>
                    In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. FAA has determined there are no ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices that correspond to these proposed regulations. ICAO has not issued en route standards for supersonic aircraft.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40483"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Environmental Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department has analyzed the environmental impacts of this proposed rulemaking pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). FAA has determined this proposed rulemaking is categorically excluded pursuant to FAA Order 1050.1G § 1.4(f). Categorical exclusions are categories of actions the agency has determined normally do not significantly affect the quality of the human environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). See DOT Order 5610.1D § 9. In analyzing the applicability of a categorical exclusion, the agency must also consider whether extraordinary circumstances are present that would warrant the preparation of an EA or EIS.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                     This rulemaking, which as proposed would repeal the prohibition on supersonic overland flight and establish an interim noise-based (acoustical) en route sonic boom noise certification standard of no sonic boom overpressure greater that 0.11 psf reaching the surface, is categorically excluded pursuant to Appendix B-2.6(f) of FAA Order: “Regulations, standards, and exemptions (excluding those that if implemented may cause a significant impact on the human environment).” FAA does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Regulations Affecting Intrastate Aviation in Alaska</HD>
                <P>Section 1205 of FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 (110 Stat. 3213) requires the Administrator, when modifying 14 CFR regulations in a manner affecting intrastate aviation in Alaska, to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation, and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions. Because this proposed rule would apply to civil supersonic flight throughout the U.S., it is unlikely, if adopted, to affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. FAA, therefore, specifically requests comments on whether there is justification for applying the proposed rule differently in intrastate operations in Alaska.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Executive Order Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism</HD>
                <P>FAA has analyzed this proposed rule under the principles and criteria of E.O. 13132, Federalism. FAA has determined this action would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, would not have federalism implications.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>
                    Consistent with E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,
                    <SU>71</SU>
                     and FAA Order 1210.20, American Indian and Alaska Native Tribal Consultation Policy and Procedures,
                    <SU>72</SU>
                     FAA ensures Federally Recognized Tribes (Tribes) are given the opportunity to provide meaningful and timely input regarding proposed Federal actions that have the potential to affect uniquely or significantly their respective Tribes. FAA has not identified any unique or significant effects, environmental or otherwise, on Tribes resulting from this proposed rule. In accordance with the E.O. 13175 and FAA Order 1210.20, and in consideration of the requirements in 49 U.S.C. 44715 (b)(2) requiring the Administrator to consult with appropriate departments, agencies, and instrumentalities of the U.S. Government and State and interstate authorities, FAA intends to notify tribal authorities of the availability of this rulemaking for comment upon publication of this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 13211, Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</HD>
                <P>FAA analyzed this proposed rule under E.O. 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). FAA has determined that it would not be a “significant energy action” under the E.O. and would not be likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation</HD>
                <P>E. O. 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation, promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. FAA has analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of E.O. 13609 and has determined, given that ICAO and other civil aviation authorities have not adopted regulations for supersonic overland flight, this action would have no effect on international regulatory cooperation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 14192, Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</HD>
                <P>E.O. 14192 (“Unleashing Prosperity through Deregulation”) instructs agencies to “alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens.” FAA expects this proposed rule, if finalized as proposed, to be an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Additional Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comment, data, or views. FAA also invites comment relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. FAA encourages commenters to include supporting facts, research, and evidence in their comments. When doing so, commenters are encouraged to provide citations to the published materials referenced, including active hyperlinks. Likewise, commenters who reference materials which have not been published are encouraged to upload relevant data collection instruments, data sets, and detailed findings as a part of their comment. Providing such citations and documentation will assist FAA in analyzing the comments. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rule. Before acting on this proposal, FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Confidential Business Information (CBI) is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40484"/>
                    information that you actually and customarily treat as private, that will harm your commercial or financial interests if disclosed to the public, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document. Any commentary FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Electronic Access and Filing</HD>
                <P>
                    A copy of this NPRM, all comments received, any final rule, and all background material may be viewed online at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     using the docket number listed above. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from the Office of the Federal Register website at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov</E>
                     and the Government Publishing Office website at 
                    <E T="03">www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                     A copy may also be found at FAA's Regulations and Policies website at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/regulations_policies.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677. Commenters must identify the docket or notice number of this rulemaking.</P>
                <P>All documents FAA considered in developing this proposed rule, including economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed in the electronic docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     heading at the beginning of the preamble. To find out more about SBREFA on the internet, visit 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endnotes</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Civil Aircraft Sonic Boom Final Rule, 38 FR 8051 (March 28, 1973).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Executive Order 14304, “Leading the World in Supersonic Flight” (June 6, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www3.nasa.gov/specials/Quesst/science-of-sound.html.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Civil Aircraft Sonic Boom Final Rule, 38 FR 8051 (March 28, 1973).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Civil Aircraft Sonic Boom NPRM, 35 FR 6189 (April 16, 1970); 38 FR 8051 (March 28, 1973).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Additional reasons cited for provisions now in § 91.818 for SFAs include (1) recognize cases in which it may be in the public interest for sonic boom to reach the surface to show compliance with the airworthiness provisions of the Federal Aviation Regulations or for aircraft development; (2) allow for research and development flights necessary to determine the sonic boom characteristics of an aircraft; and (3) allow for flights to demonstrate conditions and limitations that reduce or eliminate the effect of sonic boom on the surface. In 2021, FAA added a fourth reason for an authorization to exceed Mach 1, to conduct noise testing during supersonic flight. 
                        <E T="03">Id.;</E>
                         Special Flight Authorizations for Supersonic Aircraft Final Rule, 86 FR 3782, 3786 (Jan. 15, 2021).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Aircraft noise limits have varied over time from Stage 1 in the 1970s to current Stage 5 certification limits. Noise limits for subsonic aircraft at the time of the 1978 rulemaking were Stage 3. FAA did not require then-current generation Concorde aircraft to meet Stage 3 limits because it was not economically reasonable or technologically practicable for them to do so. FAA's stated goal was to not certificate or permit to operate in the U.S. a supersonic airplane that did not meet the standards applicable to subsonic airplanes at the time of certification. However, if it was not technologically feasible to produce such an airplane, FAA considered Stage 2 the minimum level of stringency that was acceptable. Civil Supersonic Airplanes Final Rule, 43 FR 28406, 28414 (June 29, 1978).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Civil Supersonic Airplanes Supplemental NPRM, 42 FR 55176, 55181-55182 (Oct. 13, 1977).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Additional information on the regulatory history of § 91.817(b) is available in the FAA legal interpretation “Supersonic Aircraft Operations in the United States” (Feb. 29, 2016) available in the docket.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         43 FR at 28414 (June 29, 1978).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Noise Standards; Civil Supersonic Aircraft Noise Type Certification Standards and Operating Rules ANPRM, 51 FR 39663 (Oct. 30, 1986).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Civil Supersonic Aircraft Noise Type Certification Standards and Operating Rules NPRM, 55 FR 22020 (May 30, 1990). While the 1990 NPRM used phrase “noise standards” rather than “landing and takeoff noise standards,” FAA only directly regulates subsonic noise standards during the landing and takeoff phases of flight. The distinction is made in this proposal for clarity and to differentiate between LTO noise standards and the sonic boom noise standards proposed by this NPRM.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Civil Supersonic Aircraft Noise Type Certification Standards and Operating Rules Withdrawal of NPRM, 59 FR 39711 (Aug. 4, 1994).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Civil Supersonic Aircraft Noise Type Certification Standards and Operating Rules Statement of Policy, 59 FR 39679 (Aug. 4, 1994).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         A “Stage” is a 14 CFR part 36 designation of an airplane that reflects a stringency (noise limit reductions) change of U.S. noise certification standards for large transport jet airplanes. Such amendments are intended to lower the noise compliance limits for the flyover, lateral, and approach conditions based on advances of noise reduction technology. Stage 4 airplanes must comply with part 36, Amendment 36-26. See Stage 4 Aircraft Noise Standards Final Rule, 70 FR 38742 (July 5, 2005).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         At the time of issuance of this policy statement, Stage 4 noise limits were the limits required for certification of new transport category turbojet airplanes. Newly certificated transport category turbojet airplanes are now required to comply with Stage 5 noise limits. See 14 CFR 36.103 (d) and (e).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         73 FR 62871 (Oct. 22, 2008).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Public Law 115-254 (Oct. 5, 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Section 1110 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024 (Pub. L. 118-63) reiterated this leadership role and renewed the requirement that FAA report on efforts undertaken to fulfill this requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Special Flight Authorizations for Supersonic Aircraft Final Rule, 86 FR 3782 (January 15, 2021).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Noise Certification of Supersonic Airplanes NPRM, 85 FR 20431 (April 11, 2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         “Boom Supersonic Announces Boomless Cruise” (Feb. 10, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://boomsupersonic.com/press-release/boom-supersonic-announces-boomless-cruise</E>
                         .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         Mach Cutoff Analysis and Results from NASA's Farfield Investigation of No-Boom Thresholds; NASA Armstrong Flight Research Center (May 30, 2016), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://ntrs.nasa.gov/api/citations/20160007348/downloads/20160007348.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         FAA met with six original equipment manufacturers (Boom Supersonic, Pivotal SST, Gulfstream, Spike SST, Boeing, and Hermeus) and two trade associations (General Aviation Manufacturers Association and Aerospace Industries Association). Listening sessions were held in accordance with DOT Memorandum “Guidance on Communication with Parties outside of the Federal Executive Branch (Ex Parte Communications)” dated April 19, 2022 (
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/regulations/guidance-ex-parte-communications</E>
                        ), and DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/regulations/dot-order-21006b-policies-and-procedures-rulemakings</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Public Law 115-254 (Oct. 5, 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         FAA has not received any requests to-date for a rule of particular applicability (RPA) under § 181(f); however, FAA expects to follow a similar evaluation process as the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40485"/>
                        RPA process FAA has used for UAS. See “Noise Certification Standards: Matternet Model M2 Aircraft” 87 FR 19639 (Sept. 12, 2022) for an example of an RPA issued for a UAS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.nasa.gov/mission/quesst/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         85 FR 20431 (April 13, 2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.icao.int/supersonic-aircraft-noise-standards-development</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://www.icao.int/sites/default/files/sp-files/environmental-protection/Documents/EnvironmentReport-2010/ICAO-ENV-Report-2022-F4.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.icao.int/environmental-protection/Pages/envrep2025.aspx.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         “Acoustical Model of Mach Cut-Off”, Project 042, ASCENT Centers of Excellence, 
                        <E T="03">https://ascent.aero/project/acoustical-model-of-mach-cut-off/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.nasa.gov/mission/quesst.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         “Boom Supersonic Partners with Nasa to Capture Iconic Image of Civil Supersonic Flight”; 
                        <E T="03">https://boomsupersonic.com/press-release/boom-supersonic-partners-with-nasa-to-capture-iconic-image-of-civil-supersonic-flight</E>
                         (March 3, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         Though this proposal would require no sonic boom overpressure greater than 0.11 psf to reach the surface, FAA does not expect these flights to be completely silent. Supersonic aircraft will likely produce engine noise comparable to subsonic aircraft, as well as non-sonic boom noise associated with supersonic flight. See the discussion in Section III. D. regarding evanescent waves.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Civil Supersonic Airplanes Final Rule, 42 FR 28406 (June 29, 1978).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Cliatt, Hill, Hearing, “Mach Cutoff Analysis and Results from NASA's Farfield Investigation of No -boom Thresholds” AIAA 2016-3011.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         Edward J. Rickley and Allan D. Pierce, “Detection and assessment of secondary sonic booms in New England,” Report No. FAA-AEE-80-22 (May 1980) by. Another study expanded on the terminology from the NTSC study and changed the terminology from “Type 1” and “Type 2” secondary sonic booms to secondary “direct” sonic boom and secondary “indirect” sonic boom, respectively: K. Kaouri, D. Allwright, L. Dallois: “Secondary sonic boom in a stratified atmosphere and related issues,” 10th Intl. Symp. On Long Range Sound Propagation, Grenoble, France, NCPA Report No. JC 1003-01 (2002).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification Final Rule, 90 FR 35034 (July 24, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         Normalizing Unmanned Aircraft Systems Beyond Visual Line of Sight Operations, 90 FR 38316 (Aug. 7, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         PCBoom 7 Technical Reference, 2nd Edition, NASA/TM-20250003228 (August 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         Mach Cutoff Analysis and Results from NASA's Farfield Investigation of No-Boom Thresholds, by Larry J. Cliatt II, Michael A. Hill, &amp; Edward A Haering, Hr., NASA Armstrong Flight Research Center (May 30, 2016).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 40101.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         Detection and assessment of secondary sonic booms in New England, Report No. FAA-AEE-80-22, May 1980-05-01, by Edward J. Rickley and Allan D. Pierce.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         43 FR 28419.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www3.nasa.gov/specials/Quesst/science-of-sound.html.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         Maglieri, Bobbitt, Plotkin, Shepard, Coen, Richwine, “Sonic Boom, Six Decades of Research,” NASA SP 2014-622, Chap. 1, page 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         ICAO Circular 126, “Guidance for SST Aircraft Operations” (1975).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         FAA has acknowledged in a previous rulemaking that secondary sonic booms could reach the surface of the U.S. and that protection from secondary sonic booms similar to protection from primary sonic booms was needed. FAA proposed the current requirement in § 91.817(b) that flight crews have information that ensures sonic booms from flights outside the U.S. will not reach the surface of the U.S. following reports of sonic boom noise from aircraft outside U.S. territorial waters reaching coastal areas. In that NPRM, FAA stated that protection like the prohibition on supersonic overland flight in § 91.817(a) was needed to protect these areas from aircraft beyond U.S. territorial waters. (42 FR 55176, 55181, Oct. 13, 1977). The 1980 NTSC study subsequently identified sounds like those discussed in the NPRM and termed them secondary sonic booms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         Maglieri, Bobbitt, Plotkin, Shepard, Coen, Richwine, “Sonic Boom, Six Decades of Research,” NASA SP 2014-622.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         Edward J. Rickley and Allan D. Pierce, “Detection and assessment of secondary sonic booms in New England,” Report No. FAA-AEE-80-22 (May 1980)- by.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         FAA estimates the cost of transport category airplanes under part 36 to be between $1.21 million and $3.64 million in 2024 dollars (See: GAO Report to Congressional Committees: Aircraft Noise—Information on a Potential Mandated Transition to Quieter Airplanes (2020), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/710/708979.pdf</E>
                        ). Operators seeking to test a civil supersonic aircraft would incur these flight testing costs. However, these costs would be incurred as part of transport category flight testing and are not directly attributable to the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         FAA estimates that 6 applicant employees (level 1 and 2 technical project managers; level 1 and 5 engineers; and level 2 and 5 environmental engineers/scientists) spend 540 cumulative hours to apply for an SFA. FAA estimated the total SFA application burden using a weighted average wage of $144.21 per employee and a fringe benefit factor of 1.42 (See: Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—December 2024. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_03142025.htm</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         The 200 hours estimate obtained from the Supporting Statement in the Noise Certification Standards for Subsonic Jet Airplanes and Subsonic Transport Category Large Airplanes Information Collection Review (OMB 2120-0659). 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/DownloadDocument?objectID=139394001.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), “Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—May 2024,” Employee costs for private industry workers in Series: 17-2011 Aerospace Engineers, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         The 1.42 multiplier has been rounded up from 1.4184. The total wage includes BLS compensation data. For 2024, BLS estimates that wages are 70.5 percent total compensation while benefits are 29.5 percent. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—December 2024, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_03142025.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         FAA estimates that seven Washington, DC-based employees (a J-band and K-band technical project manager; a J-band and K-band program analyst; a J-band and K-band environmental engineer/scientist; and a K-band attorney) spend 520 cumulative hours processing an SFA application. FAA estimated the total SFA processing burden using a weighted average wage of $83.24 and a fringe benefit factor of 1.3625 (See: Update to Civilian Position Full Fringe Benefit Cost Factor, Federal Pay Raise Assumptions, and Inflation Factors used in OMB Circular No. A-76, “Performance of Commercial Activities,” Office of Management and Budget, March 11, 2008, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/memoranda/2008/m08-13.pdf</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         FAA Technical Pay Band J with Washington DC locality; effective Jan. 2024, minimum salary $123,884.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         Update to Civilian Position Full Fringe Benefit Cost Factor, Federal Pay Raise Assumptions, and Inflation Factors used in OMB Circular No. A-76, “Performance of Commercial Activities,”, Office of Management and Budget, March 11, 2008, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/memoranda/2008/m08-13.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         The total loaded salary of $168,792 is divided by 2,080 hours to get the $81.15 hourly wage. 2024 FAA Core Compensation Plan Pay Bands.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         The 80 hours estimate obtained from the Supporting Statement in the Noise Certification Standards for Subsonic Jet Airplanes and Subsonic Transport Category Large Airplanes Information Collection Review (OMB 2120-0659). 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/DownloadDocument?objectID=139394001.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         See ICAO Environmental Report 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         13 CFR 121.201.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—May 2024, BLS. Employee costs for private industry workers in Series: 17-2011 Aerospace Engineers, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         The 1.42 multiplier has been rounded up from 1.4184. The total wage includes BLS compensation data. For 2024, BLS estimates wages are 70.5 percent total compensation while benefits are 29.5 percent. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—December 2024. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_03142025.htm</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         The 200 hours estimate obtained from the Supporting Statement in the Noise Certification Standards for Subsonic Jet Airplanes and Subsonic Transport Category Large Airplanes Information Collection Review (OMB 2120-0659), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/DownloadDocument?objectID=139394001.</E>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40486"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         FAA Technical Pay Band, J Band with Washington DC locality; effective Jan. 2024, minimum salary $123,884.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         Update to Civilian Position Full Fringe Benefit Cost Factor, Federal Pay Raise Assumptions, and Inflation Factors used in OMB Circular No. A-76, “Performance of Commercial Activities,” Office of Management and Budget, March 11, 2008, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/memoranda/2008/m08-13.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         The total loaded salary of $168,792 is divided by 2,080 hours to get the $81.15 hourly wage. 2024 FAA Core Compensation Plan Pay Bands.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         The 80 hours estimate obtained from the Supporting Statement in the Noise Certification Standards for Subsonic Jet Airplanes and Subsonic Transport Category Large Airplanes Information Collection Review (OMB 2120-0659), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/DownloadDocument?objectID=139394001.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         DOT Order 5610.1D § 9(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         65 FR 67249 (Nov. 6, 2000).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         FAA Order No. 1210.20 (Jan.28, 2004), available at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/1210.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>14 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                    <P>Air transportation.</P>
                    <CFR>14 CFR Part 91</CFR>
                    <P>Afghanistan, Agriculture, Air carriers, Air taxis, Air traffic control, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Alaska, Aviation safety, Canada, Charter flights, Cuba, Drug traffic control, Ethiopia, Freight, Iran, Iraq, Libya, Mexico, Noise control, North Korea, Political candidates, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Somalia, Syria, Transportation, Yemen, Yugoslavia.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 1.1, add the definitions “Primary sonic boom,” “Secondary sonic boom,” and “Sonic boom” in alphabetical order to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>General definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary sonic boom</E>
                         is the sonic boom that travels directly down from the supersonic aircraft to the surface.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Secondary sonic boom</E>
                         is the sonic boom that is refracted or reflected in certain atmospheric conditions to travel farther and may eventually reach the surface. Secondary sonic booms are identified as either direct or indirect. Direct secondary sonic boom travels upward from the aircraft and refracts through the upper atmosphere down to the surface. Indirect secondary sonic boom travels down from the aircraft to the surface; (1) either reflecting from the surface or refracting upward due to atmospheric parameters being met; and (2) refracting downward through the upper atmosphere back to the surface.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Sonic boom</E>
                         is the acoustic event on the earth's surface that is a manifestation of the shock wave system generated by an aircraft when it flies at a speed greater than the local speed of sound. Its resulting surface impacts have been studied and labelled as primary or secondary sonic boom(s).
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 91 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534; Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); Sec. 828 of Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>4. Revise and republish § 91.817 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 91.817</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Civil Supersonic Flight.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) No person shall operate a civil aircraft in the United States at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 unless—</P>
                    <P>(1) The sonic boom overpressure at the surface does not exceed 0.11 pound per square foot (psf);</P>
                    <P>(2) The operator demonstrates and the Administrator finds each of the following:</P>
                    <P>(i) Through measurement, modeling, or other methods approved by the Administrator, that sonic boom overpressure—</P>
                    <P>(A) Does not exceed 0.11 psf for primary sonic boom levels at the surface;</P>
                    <P>(B) Does not exceed 0.11 psf for secondary direct sonic boom levels at the surface; and</P>
                    <P>(C) Does not exceed 0.11 psf for secondary indirect sonic boom levels at the surface.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The operator has a means to comply that ensures sonic boom overpressure in excess of 0.11 psf, as provided in paragraph (a)(1), does not reach the surface; and</P>
                    <P>(3) The aircraft is operated in compliance with any conditions and limitations issued by the Administrator to ensure compliance with paragraph (a)(1) and (a)(2)(ii).</P>
                    <P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), no person shall operate a civil aircraft in the United States at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 unless the operator of the aircraft is conducting operations in compliance with conditions and limitations in a special flight authorization issued to the operator in accordance with § 91.818.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) No person may operate a civil aircraft for which the maximum operating limit speed M
                        <E T="52">M0</E>
                         exceeds a Mach number of 1, to or from an airport in the United States, unless—
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) The person is conducting operations under paragraph (a) of this section;</P>
                    <P>(2) Information available to the flight crew includes flight limitations that ensure flights entering or leaving the United States will not cause a sonic boom to reach the surface within the United States and the operator complies with these flight limitations; or</P>
                    <P>(3) The operator complies with conditions and limitations in a special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued in accordance with § 91.818.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Revise the introductory paragraph and paragraph (a)(8)(v) of § 91.818 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 91.818</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>For all civil aircraft, any operation in excess of Mach 1 that does not meet the requirements of § 91.817(a) or (c)(2) of this part must be conducted only in accordance with a special flight authorization issued to an operator in accordance with the requirements of this section.</P>
                    <P>(a) * * *</P>
                    <P>(8) * * *</P>
                    <P>(v) Measure the noise characteristics of an aircraft to demonstrate compliance with noise requirements imposed under this chapter, or to determine the limits for operation in accordance with § 91.817(c).</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued under authority provided by 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701(a), and 44715 in Washington, DC.</P>
                    <NAME>Bryan K. Bedford,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13440 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40487"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4664; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01644-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2025-13-09, which applies to all Airbus Helicopters Model AS-365N2, AS 365 N3, EC 155B, EC155B1, SA-365N, and SA-365N1 helicopters. AD 2025-13-09 requires inspecting the tightening torque, reporting the results of the inspections, and, depending on the results of the inspection, taking corrective action. Since the FAA issued AD 2025-13-09, the manufacturer determined that additional inspections of the main rotor (MR) servo-controls nut torque should be required. This proposed AD would retain some of the actions of AD 2025-13-09 and would also require additional inspections and, depending on the results of the inspection, corrective actions. This proposed AD would also require reporting certain information to the manufacturer. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this NPRM by August 17, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4664; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this proposed AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Aryanna Sanchez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (520) 990-9321; email: 
                        <E T="03">aryanna.t.sanchez@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4664; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01644-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend the proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Aryanna Sanchez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2025-13-09, Amendment 39-23075 (90 FR 30581, July 10, 2025) (AD 2025-13-09), for all Airbus Helicopters Model AS-365N2, AS 365 N3, EC 155B, EC155B1, SA-365N, and SA-365N1 helicopters. AD 2025-13-09 was prompted by an MCAI originated by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. EASA issued EASA AD 2024-0110, dated June 6, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0110) to correct an unsafe condition identified as loss of tightening torque between the upper ball bearing end and the MR servo-control.</P>
                <P>AD 2025-13-09 requires a one-time inspection of the torque on each nut connecting the upper ball bearing end to all three MR servo-controls, reporting the inspection results (including no findings) and, depending on the results of this inspection, corrective action. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in disconnection between the upper ball bearing end and the MR servo-control and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2025-13-09 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>Since the FAA issued AD 2025-13-09, EASA superseded EASA AD 2024-0110 and issued EASA AD 2025-0239, dated October 27, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0239) (also referred to as the MCAI). The MCAI states that further investigations identified paint on the lock-washer as the root cause of the loss of tightening torque, and that the manufacturer determined additional inspections of the MR servo-controls nut torque should be necessary.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4664.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40488"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2025-0239, which specifies procedures for a one-time check (inspection) of the torque on each nut connecting the upper ball bearing end to all three MR servo-controls and, depending on the results, corrective actions, which include performing additional torque inspections, replacing the lock-washer, applying torque, lockwire, and sealing compound to the upper ball bearing end of the MR servo-control, inspecting the ball bearing end of the MR servo-control, replacing a ball bearing end, inspecting the upper end fitting of the MR servo-control, and replacing the MR servo-control. EASA AD 2025-0239 also requires reporting the inspection results (including no findings) to AH [Airbus Helicopters].</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority (CAA) of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2025-0239, described previously as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. See “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the MCAI” for a discussion of the general differences included in this proposed AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This Proposed AD and the MCAI</HD>
                <P>Where the material referenced in the MCAI specifies contacting Airbus Helicopters for certain actions, this proposed AD would require accomplishing actions in accordance with a method approved by the FAA, EASA, or Airbus Helicopters' EASA Design Organization Approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
                <P>The FAA considers this proposed AD an interim action. If final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking then.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some CAA ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate EASA AD 2025-0239 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2025-0239 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2025-0239 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2025-0239. Material required by EASA AD 2025-0239 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA-2026-4664 after the FAA final rule is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 63 helicopters of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,r50,10,10,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S. 
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspecting the tightening torque</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour × 3 (three MR servo-controls per helicopter) = $255</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$255</ENT>
                        <ENT>$16,065</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Reporting</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,355</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any replacements or repairs that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of helicopters that might need these replacements or repairs:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r25,r40">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect the condition of the threads of one main servo-control</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace ball bearing end</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,299</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,384.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace main rotor servo-control (three MR servo-controls per helicopter)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85 (per MR servo-control)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$41,039 (one MR servo-control)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $123,372 (three MR servo-controls per helicopter).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Re-inspect the nut tightening torque of the upper ball bearing end</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The extent of the corrective actions that may be needed as a result of any discrepancies detected, after the third inspection, could vary significantly from helicopter to helicopter. The FAA has no way of determining the cost to correct or repair each helicopter or the number of helicopters that may require repair.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40489"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 1 hour per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden, to: Information Collection Clearance Officer, Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177-1524.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2025-13-09, Amendment 39-23075 (90 FR 30581, July 10, 2025); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2026-4664; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01644-R.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by August 17, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD replaces AD 2025-13-09, Amendment 39-23075 (90 FR 30581, July 10, 2025).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to all Airbus Helicopters Model AS-365N2, AS 365 N3, EC 155B, EC155B1, SA-365N, and SA-365N1 helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 6710, Main rotor control.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by reports of two occurrences of the loss of tightening torque between the upper ball bearing end and the main rotor (MR) servo-control. The FAA is issuing this AD to detect loss of tightening torque. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in disconnection between the upper ball bearing end and the MR servo-control and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0239, dated October 27, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0239).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2025-0239</HD>
                    <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2025-0239 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2025-0239 requires compliance in terms of flight hours, this AD requires using hours time-in-service.</P>
                    <P>(3) Where EASA AD 2025-0239 defines “the ASB”, this AD requires replacing that definition with “Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) AS365-67-30-0001 Issue 003, dated May 21, 2025 (ASB AS365-67-30-0001 Issue 003), or ASB EC155-67-30-0001 Issue 004, dated June 18, 2025 (ASB EC155-67-30-001 Issue 004), as applicable for the model helicopter. For compliance with this AD, Model SA-365N and SA-365N1 helicopters are to use ASB AS365-67-30-0001 Issue 003 and Model EC 155B, EC155B1 are to use ASB EC155-67-30-0001 Issue 004”.</P>
                    <P>(4) Where paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2025-0239 and the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0239 specify “check”, this AD requires replacing that text with “inspect” or “inspection” as applicable.</P>
                    <P>(5) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0239 specifies discarding parts, this AD requires removing those parts from service.</P>
                    <P>(6) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0239 specifies hard point, for this AD a hard point may be indicated by resistance, ratcheting, blocking, or difficulty when turning the ball bearing end into the upper end fitting of the MR servo-control by hand.</P>
                    <P>(7) Where paragraph (9) of EASA AD 2025-0239 specifies reporting inspection results (including no findings) to AH [Airbus Helicopters] within 7 days after the inspection required by paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of EASA AD 2025-0239, this AD requires reporting that information at the applicable time in paragraph (h)(7)(i) or (ii) of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(i) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection required by paragraph (1), (2), and (3) of EASA AD 2025-0239.</P>
                    <P>(ii) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>
                        (8) Where paragraph (7) of EASA AD 2025-0239 specifies contacting AH [Airbus Helicopters] for applicable repair instructions if a discrepancy is detected after the third inspection, and where the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0239 specifies to contact Airbus Helicopters for repair instructions, this AD requires, before further 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40490"/>
                        flight, accomplishing these corrective actions in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus Helicopters' EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <P>(9) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2025-0239.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Special Flight Permits</HD>
                    <P>Special flight permits, as described in 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199, are not allowed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local Flight Standards District Office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Aryanna Sanchez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (520) 990-9321; email: 
                        <E T="03">aryanna.t.sanchez@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0239, dated October 27, 2025.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this EASA AD on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher R. Parker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13368 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Parts 1 and 31</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[REG-113229-25]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BR73</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Increase in Threshold for Requiring Information Reporting With Respect to Certain Payees; Extension and Modification of Limitation on Wagering Losses; Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of hearing.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document provides a notice of public hearing on the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-113229-25) published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on April 17, 2026. The proposed regulations contain proposed amendments relating to the dollar thresholds in regulations governing information reporting for payments made in the course of a trade or business and the corresponding backup withholding regulations. The proposed regulations also contain proposed amendments to the regulations governing wagering losses.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The hearing is scheduled to be held on July 17, 2026, at 10:00 a.m. Eastern Time (ET). The IRS must receive speakers' outlines of the topics to be discussed by July 7, 2026. If no outlines are received by July 7, 2026, the hearing will be cancelled.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The hearing will be conducted by teleconference only. Send an outline of topic submission electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (indicate IRS and REG-113229-25). Send paper submissions to CC:PA:01:PR, (REG-113229-25), Room 5503, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Concerning the proposed regulations, William Prater at (202) 317-6845 (not a toll-free number); concerning submissions of requests to testify or attend the hearing, the Publications and Regulations Section at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free number) or by email at 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         (preferred).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The subject of the hearing is the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-113229-25) published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 17, 2026 (91 FR 20599).
                </P>
                <P>The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the hearing. Individuals who wish to testify at the hearing must submit an outline of the topics to be discussed and the time to be devoted to each topic by July 7, 2026. A period of 10 minutes will be allotted to each testimony.</P>
                <P>
                    An agenda showing the scheduling of the speakers will be prepared after the deadline for receiving outlines has passed. Copies of the agenda will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under the title of Supporting &amp; Related Material. If no outline of the topics to be discussed is received by July 7, 2026, the hearing will be cancelled and a notice of cancellation of the public hearing will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who wish to testify at the hearing must send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to receive the telephone number and access code for the hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-113229-25) and the language “TESTIFY Telephonically.” For example, the subject line may say: Request to TESTIFY Telephonically at Hearing for REG-113229-25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who wish to attend the public hearing without testifying must also send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to receive the telephone number and access code for the hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number (REG-113229-25) and the language “ATTEND Hearing Telephonically.” For example, the subject line may say: Request to ATTEND Hearing Telephonically for REG-113229-25. Requests to attend the hearing must be received by July 15, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Hearings will be made accessible to people with disabilities. To request special assistance during a hearing please contact the Publications and Regulations Section by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     (preferred) or by telephone at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number) by July 14, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any additional questions regarding speaking at or attending the hearing may 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40491"/>
                    also be emailed to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Oluwafunmilayo A. Taylor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Section Chief, Publications and Regulations Section, Associate Chief Counsel, (Procedure and Administration).</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13370 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4831-GV-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R04-OAR-2024-0362; FRL-13404-01-R4]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Alabama; Transportation Conformity</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Alabama, through the Alabama Department of Environmental Management (ADEM) on April 7, 2026. The SIP revision replaces the previously approved transportation conformity memorandum of agreement (MOA) with an updated MOA concerning transportation conformity criteria and procedures related to interagency consultation, conflict resolution, public participation, and enforceability of certain transportation-related control and mitigation measures. The SIP revision also makes a minor stylistic change to the Transportation Conformity and General Conformity rules in the Alabama SIP. EPA is proposing to determine that Alabama's April 7, 2026, SIP revision is consistent with the applicable provisions of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2024-0362 at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Weston Freund, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. The telephone number is (404) 562-8773. Mr. Freund can also be reached via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">freund.weston@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is transportation conformity?</HD>
                <P>
                    Transportation conformity is required under section 176(c) of the CAA and is a process that ensures federally supported transportation activities are consistent with (“conform to”) the purposes of the SIP. Examples of transportation activities include federally supported highway projects, transit projects, transportation plans, and transportation improvement projects (TIPs). Transportation conformity applies to areas that are designated as nonattainment for transportation-related national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     ozone, particulate matter (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    ), carbon monoxide (CO), and nitrogen dioxide (NO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    )) and to certain areas that have been redesignated to attainment for a transportation-related NAAQS.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In general, transportation conformity does not apply for areas that have completed the entirety of the required maintenance period (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         typically 20 years after redesignation). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         40 CFR 93.102(b)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Pursuant to CAA section 176(c), conformity means conformity to a SIP's purpose of eliminating or reducing the severity and number of violations of the NAAQS and achieving expeditious attainment of such standards. Further, conformity also means that no federal or federally-supported activity under section 176(c)(1) will: (1) cause or contribute to any new violation of any NAAQS in any area, (2) increase the frequency or severity of any existing violation of any standard in any area, or (3) delay timely attainment of any standard or any required interim emission reductions or other milestones in any area. The requirements of section 176(c) of the CAA apply to all departments, agencies, and instrumentalities of the federal government.</P>
                <P>Transportation conformity refers only to the conformity of transportation plans, programs, and projects that are funded or approved under title 23 of the United States Code (U.S.C.) or the Federal Transit Act (49 U.S.C. Chapter 53). Pursuant to section 176(c) of the CAA, EPA issues criteria and procedures for determining conformity of transportation plans, programs, and projects to a SIP. One of the requirements is that each state submit a revision to its SIP to include conformity criteria and procedures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Why are states required to submit a transportation conformity SIP?</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA promulgated the first federal transportation conformity criteria and procedures (“Conformity Rule”) on November 24, 1993 (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     58 FR 62188), codified at 40 CFR part 51, subpart T and 40 CFR part 93. Among other things, the rule required states to address all provisions of the conformity rule in their SIPs, frequently referred to as “conformity SIPs.” Under 40 CFR 51.390, most sections of the Conformity Rule were required to be copied verbatim into the SIP. Since then, the rule has been revised several times.
                </P>
                <P>On August 10, 2005, the “Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users” (SAFETEA-LU) was signed into law. SAFETEA-LU revised section 176(c) of the CAA transportation conformity provisions by streamlining the requirements for conformity SIPs. Under SAFETEA-LU, states are required to address and tailor only three sections of the rule in their conformity SIPs: 40 CFR 93.105, 40 CFR 93.122(a)(4)(ii), and 40 CFR 93.125(c). In general, states are no longer required to submit conformity SIP revisions that address the other sections of the conformity rule. These changes took effect on August 10, 2005, when SAFETEA-LU was signed into law.</P>
                <P>
                    A transportation conformity SIP can be developed as a state rule, a memorandum of understanding, or a MOA. MOAs must establish the roles and procedures for transportation conformity and include the detailed consultation procedures developed for that particular area. The MOAs are enforceable through the signature of all the transportation and air quality agencies, including EPA and the U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT), 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40492"/>
                    which consists of the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) and the Federal Transit Administration (FTA). States may use an MOA as long as: (1) it is fully enforceable under state law against all parties involved in interagency consultation and in approving, adopting and implementing transportation projects, TIPs, or transportation plans, (2) the state submits it to EPA for inclusion into the SIP, and (3) it has been signed by all agencies covered by the conformity rule.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         “
                        <E T="03">Guidance for Developing Transportation Conformity State Implementation Plans (SIPs)”</E>
                         U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, EPA-420-B-09-001 (January 2009), available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://nepis.epa.gov/Exe/ZyPDF.cgi/P1002W5B.PDF?Dockey=P1002W5B.PDF.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How does transportation conformity work?</HD>
                <P>The Conformity Rule applies to certain NAAQS nonattainment and maintenance areas in a state. The Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO), the state department of transportation (DOT) (in absence of an MPO), state and local air quality agencies, EPA, and the USDOT are involved in the process of making conformity determinations. Conformity determinations are made on programs and plans such as a TIP, transportation plans, and transportation projects. The projected emissions that will result from implementation of the transportation plans and programs are calculated and compared to the motor vehicle emissions budget established in the SIP. The calculated emissions must be equal to or smaller than the federally approved motor vehicle emissions budget for the USDOT to make a positive conformity determination with respect to the SIP (40 CFR 93.118).</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to federal regulations, when an area is designated nonattainment for a transportation-related NAAQS, the state is required to submit a transportation conformity SIP within one year of the effective date of the nonattainment area designations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 51.390(c). After EPA published the first transportation conformity rule, it required states to submit a transportation conformity SIP revision by November 25, 1994. Alabama initially submitted a transportation conformity SIP to EPA on November 15, 1994, to respond to this requirement; however, EPA did not act on this SIP because it was in the process of revising the transportation conformity requirements. EPA completed a series of revisions to the transportation conformity rule on August 7, 1995 (60 FR 40098), November 14, 1995 (60 FR 57179), and August 15, 1997 (62 FR 43780). EPA codified these revisions under 40 CFR part 51, subpart T and 40 CFR part 93, subpart A—Conformity to State or Federal Implementation Plans of Transportation Plans, Programs, and Projects Developed, Funded or Approved Under Title 23 U.S.C. of the Federal Transit Laws in the final revision of the series.
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA has approved several revisions to the Alabama SIP to incorporate conformity requirements consistent with the federal regulations. EPA incorporated Alabama Administrative Code Rules 335-3-17-.01, 
                    <E T="03">Transportation Conformity,</E>
                     and 335-3-17-.02, 
                    <E T="03">General Conformity,</E>
                     into the regulatory portion of Alabama's SIP at 40 CFR 52.50(c) on May 11, 2000. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     65 FR 30358. EPA subsequently approved multiple revisions to these SIP-approved rules, with the most recent being an October 12, 2017, approval for 335-3-17-.01, 
                    <E T="03">Transportation Conformity,</E>
                     and a September 26, 2012, approval for 335-3-17-.02, 
                    <E T="03">General Conformity. See</E>
                     82 FR 47383 and 77 FR 59100, respectively. EPA approved a transportation conformity SIP revision containing the initial MOA and incorporated that MOA into the non-regulatory portion of Alabama's SIP at 40 CFR 52.50(e) on May 11, 2000. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     65 FR 30358. On March 26, 2009, EPA approved a revised MOA, superseding the initial MOA, that contained changes for consistency with the SAFTEA-LU revisions to the CAA and addressed the transportation conformity requirements in Alabama related to both the 8-hour ozone and PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     74 FR 13118.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. The South Coast II Decision</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 16, 2018, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit issued a decision in 
                    <E T="03">South Coast Air Quality Mgmt. Dist.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     882 F.3d 1138 (“
                    <E T="03">South Coast II”</E>
                    ) that affected the process for making transportation conformity decisions in areas that were either nonattainment or maintenance for the 1997 ozone NAAQS. The case involved a challenge to EPA's final rule establishing implementation requirements for the 2008 ozone NAAQS and revoking the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS, known as the 2008 ozone NAAQS SIP Requirements Rule. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     80 FR 12264 (March 6, 2015). As a result of this rule, areas that were nonattainment or maintenance for the 1997 ozone NAAQS were no longer required to implement transportation conformity requirements for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. In 
                    <E T="03">South Coast II,</E>
                     multiple environmental interest groups challenged EPA's 2008 ozone NAAQS SIP Requirements Rule. The Court vacated portions of EPA's 2008 ozone NAAQS SIP Requirements Rule, but upheld EPA's revocation of the 1997 ozone NAAQS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The court decision referred to the 1997 ozone NAAQS nonattainment or maintenance areas that were designated attainment for the 2008 ozone NAAQS as “orphan areas.” The decision stated that transportation conformity still applies for the revoked 1997 ozone NAAQS in these orphan areas. For areas that were nonattainment for the 1997 ozone NAAQS at the time it was revoked, the court stated that transportation conformity applies as an anti-backsliding measure. 
                    <E T="03">See South Coast II,</E>
                     882 F.3d at 1149. For areas that were maintenance for the 1997 ozone NAAQS at the time it was revoked, the court stated that transportation conformity applies based on the court's interpretation of CAA section 176(c)(5)(B). 
                    <E T="03">See South Coast II.</E>
                     at 1155.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Based on the Agency's review of the court decision, EPA has concluded that the decision does not affect transportation conformity requirements for areas originally designated nonattainment for the more stringent 2008 ozone NAAQS (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     77 FR 30160 (May 21, 2012)), or areas designated nonattainment for the more stringent 2015 ozone NAAQS (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     83 FR 25776 (June 4, 2018)). However, as a result of this court decision, the previous 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS nonattainment areas are required to implement transportation conformity. In Alabama, this includes the Birmingham 1997 8-hour ozone area (Birmingham Ozone Area) comprised of Jefferson and Shelby Counties.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. EPA's Analysis of Alabama's Submittal</HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 176(c)(4)(E) and 40 CFR 51.390(b) require states to develop conformity SIPs that address three specific provisions of federal regulations. First, EPA's transportation conformity rule requires states to develop their own processes and procedures which meet the criteria in 40 CFR 93.105 for interagency consultation and resolution of conflicts among the federal, state, and local agencies. The SIP revision must include processes and procedures to be followed by the MPO, state DOT, and the USDOT in consultation with the state and local air quality agencies and EPA before making conformity determinations. The conformity SIP revision must also include processes and procedures for the state and local air quality agencies and EPA to coordinate the development 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40493"/>
                    of applicable SIPs with MPOs, state DOTs, and the USDOT. Second, 40 CFR 93.122(a)(4)(ii) states that conformity SIPs must require written commitments to control measures to be obtained prior to a conformity determination if those measures are not included in an MPO's transportation plan and TIP. This rule also requires that such commitments be fulfilled. Finally, 40 CFR 93.125(c) states that conformity SIPs must require that written commitments to mitigation measures are obtained prior to a project-level conformity determination, and that the project sponsors comply with these commitments.
                </P>
                <P>The April 7, 2026 SIP revision seeks to replace the existing MOA with a revised MOA signed by the federal and state transportation and air quality partners and the Birmingham Metropolitan Planning Organization (Birmingham MPO), which is subject to the transportation conformity requirements. The MOA establishes procedures for interagency consultation, dispute resolution, public participation, and enforceability of certain transportation-related control measures and mitigation measures. ADEM worked with the Alabama DOT, the Regional Planning Commission of Greater Birmingham, the Birmingham MPO, the FHWA, Alabama Division, the FTA, EPA Region 4, Jefferson County Department of Health, and the Birmingham-Jefferson County Transit Authority to develop and execute the MOA.</P>
                <P>
                    There are two applicable areas for this MOA: the Birmingham Ozone Area and the Birmingham 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     area (Birmingham PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     Area). The Birmingham Ozone Area was redesignated to attainment on May 12, 2006.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     71 FR 27631. The Birmingham PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     Area is comprised of Jefferson County, Shelby County, and a portion of Walker County and was redesignated to attainment on January 25, 2013. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     78 FR 5306. The Birmingham MPO is the MPO for both areas.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         In this area, transportation conformity for the 1997 ozone NAAQS ceases to apply as of June 12, 2026, based on the transportation conformity regulation at 40 CFR 93.102(b)(4) and the effective date of the area's redesignation published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (May 12, 2006, 71 FR 27631). Additional information is found in EPA's Transportation Conformity Guidance for Areas Reaching the End of the Maintenance Period (October 1, 2014, EPA-420-B-14-093).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Alabama's April 7, 2026, MOA supersedes the MOA incorporated into the SIP on March 26, 2009. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     74 FR 13118. The signatories of the updated MOA are: ADEM, the Alabama DOT, The Regional Planning Commission of Greater Birmingham, the Birmingham MPO, the FHWA—Alabama Division, the FTA, EPA Region 4, Jefferson County Department of Health, and the Birmingham-Jefferson County Transit Authority.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Alabama's revised MOA includes all the criteria and procedures for interagency consultation and transportation conformity required by 40 CFR 93.105, 93.122(a)(4)(ii), and 93.125(c). Among other things, the new MOA updates the MPO's responsibilities by further explaining Transportation Control Measures requirements, adding the requirement that the Alabama DOT supply the MPO with the latest Vehicles Miles Traveled and Average Annual Daily Traffic data, corrects formatting errors, and, in Exhibit 3, removes Jackson County, Alabama, from the list of parties to this MOA. A portion of Jackson County was originally designated nonattainment for the 1997 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     70 FR 944. On December 22, 2014, EPA redesignated that portion of Jackson County to attainment for the 1997 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     79 FR 76235. EPA subsequently revoked the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     standard in areas that were always designated as attainment and in areas that were redesignated from nonattainment to attainment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 58010, 58125 (August 24, 2016). As a result, transportation conformity requirements no longer apply to 1997 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     maintenance areas. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 58125-26. Additionally, an insignificance determination as described in 40 CFR 93.109(f) was made for direct PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and nitrogen oxides (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ) for the Jackson County portion of the Chattanooga TN-GA Area. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     79 FR 76235. Therefore, Jackson County is not part of the revised MOA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Alabama's April 7, 2026, SIP revision also contains a minor stylistic change to Rules 335-3-17-.01, 
                    <E T="03">Transportation Conformity,</E>
                     and 335-3-17-.02, 
                    <E T="03">General</E>
                     Conformity, which removes “(1) General” from the beginning of their respective paragraphs.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The State made this stylistic change to be more consistent with Alabama's Legislative Agency Service Requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The changes to Rules 335-3-17-.01 and 335-3-17-.02 were initially submitted to EPA on December 20, 2023, as part of a package that contained revisions to several other SIP-approved rules. The changes to Rules 335-3-17-.01 and 335-3-17-.02 were resubmitted to EPA along with the updated MOA and together they comprise the April 7, 2026, conformity submission. The only revisions addressed in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) are the updated MOA and the changes to Rules 335-3-17-.01 and 335-3-17-.02. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         clarification email from Lisa Edwards, ADEM, to Denisse Diaz, EPA Region 4, on May 18, 2026, available in the docket for this NPRM.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>EPA has reviewed the April 7, 2026, submittal, and has preliminarily determined that it is consistent with the CAA and the applicable requirements of the Conformity Rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, and as discussed in Sections I and II of this preamble, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference Rules 335-3-17-.01, 
                    <E T="03">Transportation Conformity,</E>
                     and 335-3-17-.02, 
                    <E T="03">General Conformity,</E>
                     state effective February 12, 2024, which removes “(1) General” from the beginning of their respective paragraphs. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 4 office (please contact the person identified in the For 
                    <E T="02">Further Information Contact</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is proposing to approve Alabama's April 7, 2026, SIP revision. Specifically, EPA is proposing to approve the replacement of the Alabama Interagency Transportation Conformity MOA and approve the updates to Rules 335-3-17-.01 and 335-3-17-.02 in the Alabama SIP. EPA is proposing to find that the SIP revision is consistent with sections 110 and 176 of the CAA and the Conformity Rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this proposed action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>
                    • Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866;
                    <PRTPAGE P="40494"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kevin McOmber,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 4.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13403 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 62</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028; FRL-12944-02-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2060-AW94</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Federal Plan Requirements for Other Solid Waste Incineration Units That Commenced Construction on or Before August 31, 2020, and Have Not Been Modified or Reconstructed After August 29, 2025</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing a Federal plan to implement the revised emission guidelines for existing other solid waste incineration (OSWI) units. The EPA promulgated emission guidelines for existing OSWI units in 2005 and revised the emission guidelines on June 30, 2025. If a State or Tribe with existing OSWI units subject to the 2025 revised OSWI emission guidelines does not submit an approvable plan by June 30, 2027, the EPA will develop, implement, and enforce a Federal plan for existing OSWI units located in that State or area of Indian Country. This action proposes a Federal plan to implement the 2025 revised OSWI units emission guidelines for existing OSWI units located in States and on Tribal lands without effective State or Tribal plans by the effective date of this Federal plan.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 17, 2026. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on the information collection provisions are best assured of consideration if the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) receives a copy of your comments on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public hearing:</E>
                         If anyone contacts us requesting a public hearing on or before July 7, 2026, we will hold a virtual public hearing. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for information on requesting and registering for a public hearing.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (our preferred method). Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">a-and-r-docket@epa.gov.</E>
                         Include Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Docket Center, Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028, Mail Code 28221T, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460. 
                        <E T="03">Hand/Courier Delivery:</E>
                         EPA Docket Center, WJC West Building, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20004. The Docket Center's hours of operation are 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the Docket ID No. for this rulemaking. Comments received may be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. For detailed instructions on sending comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For questions about this proposed rulemaking, contact Felica Davis, Ph.D., Natural Resources Division (E143-03), Office of Clean Air Programs, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 109 T.W. Alexander Drive, P.O. Box 12055, RTP, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-4857; and email address: 
                        <E T="03">davis.felica@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in virtual public hearing.</E>
                     To request a virtual public hearing, contact the public hearing team at (888) 627-7764 or by email at 
                    <E T="03">NRDpublichearing@epa.gov.</E>
                     If requested, the hearing will be held via virtual platform on July 16, 2026. The EPA will announce further details at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA will begin pre-registering speakers for the hearing no later than one business day after a request has been received. To register to speak at the virtual hearing, please use the online registration form available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance</E>
                     or contact the public hearing team at (888) 627-7764 or by email at 
                    <E T="03">NRDpublichearing@epa.gov.</E>
                     The last day to pre-register to speak at the hearing will be July 14, 2026. Prior to the hearing, the EPA will post a general agenda that will list pre-registered speakers at 
                    <E T="03">
                        https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-
                        <PRTPAGE P="40495"/>
                        incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.
                    </E>
                </P>
                <P>The EPA will make every effort to follow the schedule as closely as possible on the day of the hearing; however, please plan for the hearing to run either ahead of schedule or behind schedule. The EPA may close a session 15 minutes after the last pre-registered speaker has testified if there are no additional speakers.</P>
                <P>Each commenter will have 4 minutes to provide oral testimony. The EPA encourages commenters to submit the text of your oral testimony as written comments to the rulemaking docket.</P>
                <P>The EPA may ask clarifying questions during the oral presentations but will not respond to the presentations at that time. Written statements and supporting information submitted during the comment period will be considered with the same weight as oral testimony and supporting information presented at the public hearing.</P>
                <P>
                    Please note that any updates made to any aspect of the hearing will be posted online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                     While the EPA expects the hearing to be conducted as set forth earlier, please monitor our website or contact the public hearing team at 888-627-7764 or by email at 
                    <E T="03">NRDpublichearing@epa.gov</E>
                     to determine if there are any updates. The EPA does not intend to publish a document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     announcing updates.
                </P>
                <P>If you require special accommodation such as audio description, please pre-register for the hearing with the public hearing team and describe your needs by July 9, 2026. The EPA may not be able to arrange accommodations without advanced notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket.</E>
                     The EPA has established a docket for this rulemaking under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028. All documents in the docket are listed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Although listed, some information is not publicly available, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. The EPA does not place certain other material, such as copyrighted material, on the internet; this material is publicly available only as Portable Document Format (PDF) versions and accessible only on EPA computers in the docket office reading room. The public cannot download certain databases and physical items from the docket but may request these items by contacting the docket office by telephone at (202) 566-1744. The docket office has 10 business days to respond to such requests. Except for these items, publicly available docket materials are available electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions.</E>
                     Direct your comments to Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028. The EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change and may be made available online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/,</E>
                     including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes information claimed to be CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Do not submit electronically to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                     any information that you consider to be CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. This type of information should be submitted as discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Submitting CBI</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                     website allows you to submit your comment anonymously, which means the EPA will not know your identity or contact information unless you provide it in the body of your comment. If you send an email comment directly to the EPA without going through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/,</E>
                     your email address will be automatically captured and included as part of the comment that is placed in the public docket and made available on the internet. If you submit an electronic comment, the EPA recommends that you include your name and other contact information in the body of your comment and with any digital storage media you submit. If the EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, the EPA may not be able to consider your comment. Electronic files should not include special characters or any form of encryption and should be free of any defects or viruses. For additional information about the EPA's public docket, visit the EPA Docket Center homepage at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Throughout this proposal, the EPA is soliciting comment on numerous aspects of this proposed rulemaking. The EPA has indexed each comment solicitation with an identifier (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Question 1, Question 2) to provide a consistent framework for effective and efficient provision of comments. Accordingly, we ask that commenters include the corresponding identifier when providing comments relevant to that comment solicitation. We ask that commenters include the identifier in either a heading, or within the text of each comment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     In response to Question 1, . . .) to make clear which comment solicitation is being addressed. We emphasize that we are not limiting comments to these identified areas and encourage provision of any other comments relevant to this proposal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Submitting CBI.</E>
                     Do not submit information containing CBI to the EPA through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                     Clearly mark the part or all the information that you claim to be CBI. For CBI information on any digital storage media that you mail to the EPA, note the docket ID, mark the outside of the digital storage media as CBI, and identify electronically within the digital storage media the specific information that is claimed as CBI. In addition to one complete version of the comments that includes information claimed as CBI, you must submit a copy of the comments that does not contain the information claimed as CBI directly to the public docket through the procedures outlined in 
                    <E T="03">Instructions</E>
                     above. If you submit any digital storage media that does not contain CBI, mark the outside of the digital storage media clearly that it does not contain CBI and note the docket ID. Information not marked as CBI will be included in the public docket and the EPA's electronic public docket without prior notice. Information marked as CBI will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 2.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Our preferred method to receive CBI is for it to be transmitted electronically using email attachments, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), or other online file sharing services (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Dropbox, OneDrive, Google Drive). Electronic submissions must be transmitted directly to the Office of Air Programs (OCAP) at the email address 
                    <E T="03">ocapcbi@epa.gov,</E>
                     and as described above, should include clear CBI markings and note the docket ID. If assistance is needed with submitting large electronic files that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40496"/>
                    exceed the file size limit for email attachments, and if you do not have your own file sharing service, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section to receive instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Preamble acronyms and abbreviations.</E>
                     Throughout this document the use of “we,” “us,” or “our” is intended to refer to the EPA. We use multiple acronyms and terms in this preamble. While this list may not be exhaustive, to ease the reading of this preamble and for reference purposes, the EPA defines the following terms and acronyms here:
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AG Attorney General</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAA Clean Air Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CBI Confidential Business Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Cd cadmium</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CISWI Commercial and industrial solid waste incineration units</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMS continuous monitoring system</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CO carbon monoxide</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EG Emission Guidelines</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EPA Environmental Protection Agency</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ERU energy recovery unit</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FF fabric filter</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HAP hazardous air pollutants</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HCl hydrogen chloride</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hg mercury</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IBR incorporation by reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ICR information collection request</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">mg/dscm milligrams per dry standard cubic meter</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NAICS North American Industrial Classification System</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NESHAP national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ng/dscm nanograms per dry standard cubic meter</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         nitrogen oxides
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NSPS new source performance standards</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NTTAA National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OCAP Office of Clean Air Programs</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OSWI other solid waste incineration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pb lead</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PCB hydrocarbons and polychlorinated biphenyls</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PCDD polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PCDF polychlorinated dibenzofurans</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PM particulate matter (filterable, unless otherwise specified)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         particulate matter (diameter less than or equal to 2.5 micrometers)
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PM CPMS particulate matter Continuous Parameter Monitoring System</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ppmv parts per million by volume</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIN Regulatory Information Number</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SMCD substitute means of compliance demonstration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SRI small, remote incinerators</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         sulfur dioxide
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TPD tons per day</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UMRA Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VCS voluntary consensus standards</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. General Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Does the proposed action apply to me?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Where can I get a copy of this document and other related information?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. What is the regulatory development background for this proposed rule?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. What is the purpose of this action?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. What is the status of State plan submittals?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Affected Facilities</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. What is an OSWI unit?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Does the Federal plan apply to me?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. How do I determine if my OSWI unit is covered by an approved and effective State plan?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Elements of the OSWI Federal Plan</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Legal Authority and Enforcement Mechanism</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Inventory of Affected OSWI Units</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Inventory of Emissions</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Compliance Schedules</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Waste Management Plan Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Operator Training and Qualification Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Emissions Limits and Operating Limits</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Testing, Monitoring, Recordkeeping, and Reporting Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Record of Public Hearings</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Progress Reports</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Summary of Proposed OSWI Federal Plan Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Proposed Applicability Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Proposed Compliance Schedules</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Proposed Emissions and Operating Limits</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Proposed Performance Testing and Monitoring Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Proposed Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Other Proposed Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. OSWI Units That Have or Will Shut Down</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Units That Plan To Close Rather Than Comply</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Inoperable Units</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. OSWI Units That Have Shut Down</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Implementation of the Federal Plan and Delegation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Background of Authority</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Delegation of the Federal Plan and Retained Authorities</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Implementing Authority</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Mechanisms for Transferring Authority</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Title V Operating Permits</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Title V and Delegation of a Federal Plan</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Request for Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Executive Order 14192: Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Executive Order 13211: Actions That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR Part 51</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 30, 2025, the EPA promulgated revised new source performance standards (NSPS) and emission guidelines (EG) for other solid waste incineration (OSWI) units.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In this proposed rulemaking, the EPA is proposing to adopt as the OSWI Federal plan, the model rule standards and associated requirements that were presented in the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The NSPS are directly enforceable Federal regulations, and, under CAA section 129(f)(1), become effective six months after promulgation. Unlike the NSPS, the EG are not themselves directly enforceable. For the EG to be enforceable, it must be implemented through either an EPA approved State or Tribal plan or through an EPA promulgated Federal plan. In this proposed rulemaking, the EPA proposes to implement the 2025 revised OSWI EG for States that do not have an approved revised or new State or Tribal plan in place to implement and enforce the 2025 revised OSWI EG by the effective date of the final Federal plan.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Existing OSWI units under the revised EG and this proposed Federal plan are those that commenced construction on or before August 31, 2020 and have not been modified or reconstructed after August 29, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         90 FR 27910, (June 30, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Federal plan will become effective 30 days after final promulgation.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan would also apply to facilities located in States that have opted to implement the Federal plan rather than developing a State plan. The proposed Federal plan, which adopts the model rule standards and associated requirements in the revised EGs, would not result in any additional control requirements or impose any additional costs above those previously considered in the 2025 revised OSWI EG.</P>
                <P>
                    We estimated the total cost impacts of the testing, add-on controls, monitoring, and recordkeeping and reporting requirements in the 2025 revised OSWI EG. Consistent with the model rule, we are proposing the substitute means of compliance demonstration (SMCD) for OSWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 tons per day (TPD). We have considered the cost of testing, and we recognize that testing and monitoring requirements can impose substantial financial burdens and technical challenges on owners and operators of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40497"/>
                    these sources. The SMCD provides an alternative to the general testing and monitoring requirements for OSWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD. OSWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD are expected to be able to comply with the 2025 revised OSWI EG emission limits without the use of an add-on control device beyond what they currently have. The 2025 revised OSWI EG does not require these units to use continuous emissions monitoring systems (CEMS) and only requires recordkeeping and reporting to demonstrate compliance. The 2025 revised OSWI EG does not substantively change the compliance requirements for OSWI units with capacity greater than 10 TPD. We anticipate that the Federal plan will ultimately result in a de minimis increase in burden for all affected sources.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Compliance with performance standards and other requirements promulgated pursuant to CAA section 129 and applicable to existing units, cannot be later than five years after the relevant EG are promulgated (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     July 1, 2030) or within three years from State plan approval (or promulgation of a Federal plan), whichever is earlier. This rulemaking is not proposing any changes to this compliance schedule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Does the proposed action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Regulated entities.</E>
                     The proposed Federal plan will apply to the owner or operator of an existing OSWI unit that was constructed on or before August 31, 2020, have not been modified or reconstructed after August 29, 2025, and that is not subject to an approved and effective State plan as of the effective date of the final Federal plan notification.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Federal plan would apply to the OSWI unit until the EPA approves a State or Tribal plan that regulates the OSWI unit and that plan becomes effective.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Federal plan will become effective 30 days after final promulgation.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A State plan is effective on the date specified in the document published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         announcing the EPA's approval of the plan.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Table 1 of this preamble presents categories and entities that are the subject of this proposal. Table 1 is not intended to be exhaustive but rather provides a guide for readers regarding the entities that this proposed rulemaking is likely to affect. To determine if this action affects your facility, you should examine the applicability criteria in 40 CFR 62.15460 through 62.15480 of 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK being proposed here.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If you have any questions regarding the applicability of any aspect of this proposed action, please contact the appropriate person listed in the preceding 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See the memorandum, 
                        <E T="03">Proposed Regulatory Text for Subpart KKK—Federal Plan Requirements for Other Solid Waste Incineration Units Constructed on or Before August 31, 2020 and Have Not Been Modified or Reconstructed After August 29, 2025,</E>
                         which is available in the docket (see Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028) for this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Examples of Potentially Regulated Entities</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Source category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">NAICS code</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Examples of potentially regulated entities</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any State, local, or Tribal government using a very small municipal waste combustion (VSMWC) unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>562213, 92411</ENT>
                        <ENT>Solid waste combustion units burning municipal solid waste (MSW).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any correctional institutions using an institutional waste incineration (IWI) unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>922, 7213</ENT>
                        <ENT>Correctional institutions.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any nursing or residential care facilities using an OSWI unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>623</ENT>
                        <ENT>Any nursing care, residential intellectual and developmental disability, residential mental health and substance abuse, or assisted living facilities.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any Federal Government agency using an OSWI unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>928, 7121</ENT>
                        <ENT>Department of Defense (labs, military bases, munition facilities) and National Parks.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any educational institution using an OSWI unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>6111, 6112, 6113</ENT>
                        <ENT>Primary and secondary schools, universities, colleges, and community colleges.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any church or convent using an OSWI unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>8131</ENT>
                        <ENT>Churches and convents.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any civic or religious organization using an OSWI unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>8134</ENT>
                        <ENT>Civic associations and fraternal associations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Any industrial or commercial facility using a VSMWC unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>114, 211, 212, 221, 486</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oil and gas exploration operations; mining; pipeline operators; utility providers; fishing operations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Where can I get a copy of this document and other related information?</HD>
                <P>
                    In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this rulemaking is available on the EPA website. Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA will post a copy of this proposed rulemaking at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                     Following publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the EPA will post the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     version of the proposal and key technical documents on the same web page.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A memorandum showing the rulemaking edits that would be necessary to incorporate the changes to 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK proposed in this action is available in the docket (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028). Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA also will post a copy of this document to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is the regulatory development background for this proposed rule?</HD>
                <P>
                    The CAA requires the EPA to promulgate NSPS and EG for solid waste incineration units pursuant to CAA sections 129 and 111.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                     
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EPA promulgated NSPS and EG for OSWI units on December 16, 2005 (2005 OSWI rule).
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Following that final rule, the Administrator received a petition for reconsideration of the 2005 OSWI rule, and on June 28, 2006, the EPA announced reconsideration of the final OSWI rule.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     After consideration of comments and information received through the reconsideration process, we 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40498"/>
                    concluded that no additional changes were necessary to the final OSWI rule.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(a) (citing 42 U.S.C. 7411).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(b) (citing 42 U.S.C. 7411).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         70 FR 74870, (December 16, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         71 FR 36726, (June 28, 2006).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         72 FR 2620, (January 22, 2007).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to the administrative reconsideration petition, some entities petitioned for judicial review of the 2005 OSWI rule. The judicial review proceedings were initially stayed and, ultimately, the EPA requested a voluntary remand of the OSWI NSPS and EG. By an order dated April 21, 2016, the D.C. Circuit granted the EPA's request for a remand.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The remand was requested to allow the EPA to consider potential revisions, if any, to the OSWI NSPS and EG that might be appropriate in light of certain legal developments, including 2007 and 2008 decisions from the D.C. Circuit.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Order, 
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         No. 06-1066 (D.C. Cir. April 21, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         479 F.3d 875 (D.C. Cir. 2007) (vacating EPA regulations setting national emission standards for brick and clay ceramics kilns under section 112 on the basis that CAA section 112(d)(3) “requires floors based on the emission level actually achieved by the best performers (those with the lowest emission levels).”); 
                        <E T="03">NRDC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         489 F.3d 1250 (D.C. Cir. 2007)) (vacating a CAA section 129 rule defining the term “commercial and industrial solid waste incineration unit” and related CAA section 112 standards for boilers); 
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         551 F.3d 1019 (D.C. Cir. 2008) (vacating provisions exempting major sources from compliance with CAA section 112 standards during startup, shutdown, and malfunction).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The CAA section 129(a)(5) requires the EPA to review and, if appropriate, revise the requirements for solid waste incineration units no later than five years following the initial promulgation of any performance standards and at periodic five year intervals after that. In 2018, the Sierra Club filed suit against the EPA, alleging the agency, among other things, failed to perform its nondiscretionary duty under CAA section 129(a)(5) to review the 2005 OSWI NSPS and EG. In response to that suit, the EPA was ordered to complete such review by June 30, 2025.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EPA fullfilled this obligation and promgulated the 2025 revised OSWI NSPS and EG.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Order, 
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Wheeler,</E>
                         no. 16-2461 (D.D.C. filed November 7, 2023) (extending the EPA's deadline to promulgate a final rule to June 30, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The CAA section 129(b)(3) requires the EPA to develop, implement, and enforce a Federal plan for existing solid waste incineration units in any State or area of Indian country without an EPA-approved plan.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2023, the Sierra Club filed suit against the EPA alleginig the agency failed to issue a Federal plan following the promgulation of the 2005 EG.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The dispute culminated in a consent decree entered by the court in 2024, which requires the EPA to propose by June 30, 2026 and finalize by June 30, 2027 a Federal plan implementing EG for existing OSWI facilities located in any State without an approved State plan.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, in this proposed rulemaking, the EPA is proposing the Federal plan to implement the 2025 revised OSWI EG.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(B)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Regan,</E>
                         No. 23-cv-00424 (D.D.C. 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Dkt. No. 23.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In this proposal, the EPA is soliciting comment only on the proposed Federal plan implementing the 2025 revised OSWI EG (Question 1). The EPA is not reopening the underlying EG for public comment and does not intend to address any comments on the underlying OSWI EG.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the purpose of this action?</HD>
                <P>
                    The CAA section 129 relies upon States as the preferred implementers of the EG for existing OSWI units. States with existing OSWI units subject to the 2025 revised OSWI EG are to submit State plans that are at least as protective as the revised EG to the EPA within one year following promulgation of the revised EG. States without any existing OSWI units are directed to submit to the Administrator a letter of negative declaration certifying that there are no OSWI units in the State.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     No plan is required for States that do not have any OSWI units.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         40 CFR 60.2982.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This proposed OSWI Federal plan will implement the 2025 revised OSWI EG in those States that do not have an approved State plan in place by the effective date of this Federal plan. If a State or Tribal plan is approved in part, the Federal plan will apply to the affected OSWI units in lieu of the disapproved portions of the State or Tribal plan until the State or Tribe addresses the deficiencies in the State or Tribal plan and the revised State or Tribal plan is approved by the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What is the status of State plan submittals?</HD>
                <P>
                    The CAA sections 111(d) and 129(b)(3), 42 U.S.C. 7411(d) and 7429(b)(3), authorize and require the EPA to develop and implement a Federal plan for OSWI units located in States with no approved and effective State plan implementing the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The EPA will include in the preamble of the final Federal plan a list of the States that have an EPA-approved plan in effect on the date the final Federal plan is signed by the EPA Administrator. The EPA will continue to review and approve or disapprove State plans after the promulgation of the OSWI Federal plan. The regulation at 40 CFR part 62 identifies the approval and promulgation of CAA sections 111(d) and 129(b) State plans for designated facilities in each State. Whenever an EPA Regional office approves a State plan, it would also, in the same action, amend the appropriate subpart of 40 CFR part 62 to codify its approval. These lists will help OSWI unit owners and operators determine whether their OSWI units are affected by a State plan or the Federal plan. Owners and operators of OSWI units can also contact the EPA Regional office for the State in which their units are located to determine whether there is an approved and effective State plan in place. The names, email addresses, and telephone numbers of the EPA Regional office contacts and the States and territories that they cover will be posted online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Affected Facilities</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is an OSWI unit?</HD>
                <P>The OSWI units are either a VSMWC units that has the capacity to combust less than 35 TPD of municipal solid waste or refuse-derived fuel, or an IWI units that combusts institutional waste and is a distinct operating unit of the institutional facility that generated the waste. The 2025 OSWI rule further subcategoried VSMWC and IWI units based on size—including units that have capacities greater than 10 TPD and units that have capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD. The affected facility under OSWI unit is each individual OSWI unit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Does the Federal plan apply to me?</HD>
                <PRTPAGE P="40499"/>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan will apply to the owner or operator of an existing OSWI unit that was constructed on or before August 31, 2020, have not been modified or reconstructed after August 29, 2025, and that is not subject to an approved and effective State plan as of the effective date of the final Federal plan notice.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Federal plan would apply to the OSWI unit until the EPA approves a State or Tribal plan that regulates the OSWI unit and that plan becomes effective.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While the Federal plan applies to OSWI units owned or operated by Indian Tribes that are not regulated by State or Tribal plans, the EPA is currently unaware of any OSWI units owned or operated by Indian Tribes and so does not anticipate any direct effects of the Federal plan on Indian Tribes. The EPA is proposing to codify the specific applicability of the proposed Federal plan at 40 CFR 62.15460 through 62.15480 of the proposed 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The Federal plan will become effective 30 days after final promulgation.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         A State plan is effective on the date specified in the document published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         announcing the EPA's approval of the plan.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This action will not preclude States from submitting a State plan at a later date. If a State or Tribal agency submits a plan after the promulgation of the OSWI Federal plan, the EPA will review and approve or disapprove the State or Tribal plan.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If the EPA approves a plan, the OSWI Federal plan will no longer apply to OSWI units covered by the State or Tribal plan after the effective date of the plan. If a State or Tribe overlooked an OSWI unit and submitted a negative declaration letter, the OSWI unit would then be subject to this Federal plan.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         An approved State plan is a plan developed by a State that the EPA has reviewed and approved based on the requirements in 40 CFR part 60, subpart B, to implement 40 CFR part 60, subpart FFFF.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How do I determine if my OSWI unit is covered by an approved and effective State plan?</HD>
                <P>
                    In the regulations at 40 CFR part 62 identifies the approval and promulgation of sections 111(d) and 129(b) State plans for designated facilities in each State. However, the print version of 40 CFR part 62 is updated only once per year. Thus, if 40 CFR part 62 does not indicate that a State has an approved and effective plan, please contact your State environmental agency's air director or the EPA's Regional Office (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     section II.C of this preamble) to determine if approval occurred since publication of the most recent version of 40 CFR part 62. Also note that the Electronic Code of Federal Regulations (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/</E>
                    ) is updated periodically and may be a better source to obtain an update on State plan status.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Elements of the OSWI Federal Plan</HD>
                <P>The basic elements of the proposed Federal Plan include: (1) identification of legal authority and enforcement mechanism; (2) inventory of affected OSWI units; (3) emissions inventory; (4) compliance schedules; (5) emissions limits and operating limits; (6) operator training and qualification; (7) testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting; (8) public hearing; and (9) progress reporting. This section of the preamble decribe each plan element as it relates to the proposed OSWI Federal plan.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Legal Authority and Enforcement Mechanism</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. EPA's Legal Authority in States</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 301(a) of the CAA provides the EPA with broad authority to write regulations that carry out the functions of the CAA. The CAA sections 111(d) and 129(b)(3) direct the EPA to develop a Federal plan for States that do not submit approvable State plans. Pursuant to CAA section 129(b)(3), the Federal plan must assure that each unit subject to the Plan is in compliance with all provisions of the EG not later than five years after the relevant EG are promulgated (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     by July 1, 2030).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. EPA's Legal Authority in Indian Country</HD>
                <P>The CAA sections 301(a) and (d) provide the EPA with the authority to administer Federal programs in Indian country. The CAA section 301(d)(4) authorizes the Administrator to directly administer provisions of the CAA where Tribal implementation of those provisions is not appropriate or administratively not feasible. The EPA is proposing this Federal regulation under the legal authority of the CAA to implement the EG in those States and Tribal areas not covered by an approved plan. As discussed in section VII of this preamble, implementation and enforcement of the Federal plan may be delegated to eligible Tribal, State, or local agencies when requested and when the EPA determines that such delegation is appropriate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Inventory of Affected OSWI Units</HD>
                <P>
                    The docket for the proposed Federal plan includes an inventory of the OSWI units that may potentially be covered by this Federal plan in the absence of approved State plans. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028). This inventory contains 60 OSWI units in 12 States. It is based on information collected from EPA Regions, States, OSWI facilities, and review of existing OSWI inventories, title V permits, emissions test reports, and facility websites. The EPA recognizes that this list may not be complete. Therefore, sources potentially subject to this proposed Federal plan may include, but are not limited to, the OSWI units listed in Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028. Any unit that meets the applicability criteria in the final Federal plan rule will be subject to the Federal plan, regardless of whether it is listed in the inventory. The EPA requests that States, Tribes, or individuals identify additional sources for inclusion on the list during the comment period for this proposal (Question 2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Inventory of Emissions</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed Federal plan includes an emissions estimate for existing OSWI units. For this proposal, the EPA has estimated the emissions from each known OSWI units that may be covered by the proposed Federal plan for the nine pollutants regulated by the EG and covered by the proposed Federal plan. The pollutants inventoried are cadmium (Cd), carbon monoxide (CO), polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins/polychlorinated dibenzofurans (PCDD/PCDF), hydrogen chloride (HCl), lead (Pb), mercury (Hg), particulate matter (PM), nitrogen oxides (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ) and sulfur dioxide (SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>The emissions inventory is based on available information about the OSWI units and typical emissions rates developed for calculating nationwide air impacts of the 2025 revised OSWI EG. Refer to the inventory memorandum in Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028 for the complete updated emissions inventory. We are soliciting comments on additional data regarding the emission inventory for existing OSWI units (Question 3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Compliance Schedules</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 129(f)(2) of the CAA requires standards and requirements for existing sources be effective as soon as practicable but not later than three years after approval of a State plan or promgulation of a Federal Plan, or five years after the effective date of the 2025 revised OSWI EG (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     July 1, 2030), whichever is earlier. The EPA aims to take final action on this proposal in 2027 and, thus, proposes to allow the maximum time statutorily permitted for compliance with the Federal plan, that is until July 1, 2030. The proposed Federal plan requires owners and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40500"/>
                    operators of OSWI units to come into compliance by July 1, 2030.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Waste Management Plan Requirements</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan requires the owner and operator of an OSWI unit to submit a written plan that identifies both the feasibility and the methods used to reduce or separate certain components of solid waste from the waste stream to reduce or eliminate toxic emissions from incinerated waste. A waste management plan must include consideration of the reduction or separation of waste-stream elements such as paper, cardboard, plastics, glass, batteries, or metals; or the use of recyclable materials. The plan must also identify any additional waste management measures and implement those measures the source considers practical and feasible, considering the effectiveness of waste management measures already in place, the costs of additional measures, the emissions reductions expected to be achieved, and any other environmental or energy impacts they might have. The waste management plan must be submitted no later than the date 60 days after the initial performance test. The EPA proposes to codify these requirements at 40 CFR 62.15505 through 62.15515. The memorandum showing the rulemaking edits that would be necessary to incorporate the changes to 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK proposed in this action is available in the docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Operator Training and Qualification Requirements</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan requires that owner or operator must qualify operators or their supervisors (at least one per facility) by ensuring that they complete an operator training course and annual review or refresher course. This proposed Federal plan also contains operator training and qualification requirements that correspond to the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The EPA proposes to codify these requirements at 40 CFR 62.15520 through 62.15550. The memorandum showing the rulemaking edits that would be necessary to incorporate the changes to 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK proposed in this action is available in the docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Emissions Limits and Operating Limits</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan contains emissions limits that correspond to the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The EPA proposes to codify these requirements at 40 CFR 62.15555 through 62.15565. The memorandum showing the rulemaking edits that would be necessary to incorporate the changes to 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK proposed in this action is available in the docket. The emissions limits in this proposed Federal plan are the same as those contained in the 2025 revised OSWI EG. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed tables 5 and 6 of this preamble.). Section V.C of this preamble discusses the 2025 revised OSWI EG emissions limits.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Testing, Monitoring, Recordkeeping, and Reporting Requirements</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan includes testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements. These proposed requirements correspond with the 2025 revised OSWI EG. Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting requirements will assure initial and ongoing compliance. The EPA proposes to codify these requirements at 40 CFR 62.15570 through 62.15705. The memorandum showing the rulemaking edits that would be necessary to incorporate the changes to 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK proposed in this action is available in the docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Record of Public Hearings</HD>
                <P>This proposed Federal plan provides an opportunity for public participation in adopting the plan. If requested to do so, the EPA will hold a public hearing via virtual platform. A record of the public hearing, if any, will appear in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028. If a public hearing is requested and held, the EPA may ask clarifying questions during the oral presentation, but will not respond to the presentations or comments at that time. Written statements and supporting information submitted during the public comment period will be considered with equivalent weight as any oral statement and supporting information subsequently presented at a public hearing, if held.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Progress Reports</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan requests that the EPA Regional Offices prepare annual progress reports to show the progress of OSWI units toward implementation of the EG. States that have been delegated the authority to implement and enforce this Federal plan will be required to submit annual progress reports to the appropriate EPA Regional Office as part of their delegation (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section VII.B of this preamble).
                </P>
                <P>Each progress report must include the following items: (1) status of enforcement actions; (2) identification of sources that have shut down or started operation; (3) emissions inventory data for sources that were not in operation at the time of plan development, but that began operation during the reporting period; (4) additional data as necessary to update previously submitted source and emissions information; and (5) copies of technical reports on any performance testing and monitoring.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Summary of Proposed OSWI Federal Plan Requirements</HD>
                <P>The proposed OSWI Federal plan requirements are described in table 3. Table 3 lists each element of the proposed OSWI Federal Plan and identifies where the EPA proposes these elements to be located or codified within the new proposed 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Elements of the Proposed OSWI Federal Plan</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Element of the OSWI federal plan</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Proposed location</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Legal authority and enforcement mechanism</ENT>
                        <ENT>CAA sections 129(b)(3), 111(d), 301(a), and 301(d)(4).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inventory of affected OSWI units</ENT>
                        <ENT>Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inventory of emissions</ENT>
                        <ENT>Docket ID No. EPA-EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Compliance schedules</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 CFR 62.15485 to 62.15500.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Waste management plan requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 CFR 62.15505 to 62.15515.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Operator training and qualification requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 CFR 62.15520 to 62.15550.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Emissions limits and operating limits</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 CFR 62.15555 to 62.15565.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 CFR 62.15570 to 62.15705.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Record of public hearings</ENT>
                        <ENT>Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2025-3028.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Progress reports</ENT>
                        <ENT>Section IV.J. of this preamble.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="40501"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposed Applicability Requirements</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan applicability reflects the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The EPA proposes to include applicability requirements in the Federal plan at of 40 CFR 62.15460. The Federal plan would apply to existing OSWI units meeting the proposed applicability of 40 CFR 62.15460 that are located in any State that does not currently have an approved State plan in place. Existing units are all OSWI units for which construction commenced on or before August 31, 2020 and have not been modified or reconstructed after August 29, 2025. All OSWI units for which construction commenced after August 31, 2020, or for which modification or reconstruction commenced after December 29, 2025, are new sources subject to NSPS emissions limits (40 CFR part 60, subpart EEEE).</P>
                <P>The Federal plan requirements apply to owners and/or operators of OSWI units. The EPA proposes to define OSWI units at 40 CFR 62.15735. The proposed Federal plan, which adopts the model rule standards and associated requirements, subcategorize IWI and VSMWC units based on size: VSMWC units with a capacity to combust less than or equal to 10 TPD of MSW or refuse-derived fuel; VSMWC units with a capacity to combust greater than 10 TPD but less than 35 TPD of MSW or refuse-derived fuel; IWI units with a capacity to combust less than or equal to 10 TPD of institutional waste; and IWI units with a capacity to combust greater than 10 TPD of institutional waste. The subcategories for VSMWC and IWI units are summarized in table 4 of this preamble.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r100,r75">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—OSWI Categories and New Subcategories</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Subcategory</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Capacity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Additional subcategory</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Capacity</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2025 Revised OSWI Rule</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">VSMWC</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;35 TPD</ENT>
                        <ENT>VSMWC with capacity ≤10 TPD</ENT>
                        <ENT>≤10 TPD.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>VSMWC with capacity &gt;10 TPD</ENT>
                        <ENT>&gt;10 but &lt;35 TPD.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWI</ENT>
                        <ENT>No capacity threshold</ENT>
                        <ENT>IWI with capacity ≤10 TPD</ENT>
                        <ENT>≤10 TPD.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>IWI with capacity &gt;10 TPD</ENT>
                        <ENT>&gt;10 TPD.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Compliance Schedules</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan requires owners and operators of OSWI units to come into compliance by July 1, 2030. The 2025 revised OSWI EG included increments of progress in the compliance schedule. However, we are not including increments of progress as a compliance pathway for the proposed Federal plan. Increments of progress were included in the EG to establish obligations that would apply to sources planning to take more than one year from approval of the State plan to comply. The increments would help ensure that sources planning to take more than one year to comply would make some incremental progress toward compliance after the first year. The increments of progress contained in the 2025 revised OSWI EG do not require any additional action within one year of promulgation of a Federal plan. Thus, including the increments of progress in this Federal plan would serve no meaningful purpose and may create confusion. For this reason, the EPA is not proposing to include increments of progress in the Federal plan.</P>
                <P>If an OSWI unit does not achieve final compliance by July 1, 2030, the proposed Federal plan requires the OSWI unit to shut down by July 1, 2030, complete the retrofit while not operating, and be in compliance upon restarting. An OSWI unit that operates out of compliance after the final compliance date would be in violation of the Federal plan and subject to enforcement action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Proposed Emissions and Operating Limits</HD>
                <P>This action proposes to incorporate the emission from the 2025 revised OSWI EG into the OSWI Federal plan. The EPA proposes to codify these emission limits in tables 1 and 2 of 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK. Tables 5 and 6 of this preamble summarizes the emissions limits included in 40 CFR part 60, subpart FFFF tables 2 and 2a being incorporated in the Federal Plan. Existing sources may comply with either the PCDD/PCDF toxicity equivalence or total mass balance emission limits. These standards apply at all times.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s12,r20,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Summary of Emissions Limits That Apply to OSWI Units With Capacities Less Than or Equal to 10 Tons per Day</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pollutant (units) 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Concentration
                            <LI>units</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            VSMWC
                            <LI>and IWI</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cd</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>220</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            DF (TMB) 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ng/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,700</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            DF (TEQ) 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ng/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HCl</ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pb</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>32,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hg</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>69</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>210</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PM</ENT>
                        <ENT>mg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>280</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            SO
                            <E T="0732">2</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>130</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         All emission limits are expressed as concentrations corrected to 7 percent O
                        <E T="0732">2</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For dioxins/furans, you must meet either the total mass basis limit or the toxic equivalency basis limit.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s12,r20,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Emission Limitations for That Apply to OSWI Units With Capacities Greater Than 10 Tons per Day</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pollutant
                            <LI>
                                (units) 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Concentration
                            <LI>units</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            VSMWC
                            <LI>and IWI</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cd</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            DF (TMB) 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ng/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HCl</ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pb</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>226</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hg</ENT>
                        <ENT>µg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>74</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>103</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PM</ENT>
                        <ENT>mg/dscm</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            SO
                            <E T="0732">2</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ppmvd</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         All emission limits are expressed as concentrations corrected to 7 percent O
                        <E T="0732">2</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For dioxins/furans, you must meet either the total mass basis limit or the toxic equivalency basis limit.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The EPA is also proposing to incorporate operating limits from the 2025 revised OSWI EG into the OSWI Federal plan. The EPA proposes to codify these operating limits in table 4 of 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK. Facilities will be required to establish site-specific operating limits derived from the results of performance testing. The site-specific operating limits are established as the minimum (or maximum, as appropriate) operating parameter value measured during the performance test. These operating limits will result in achievable operating ranges that will ensure that the control devices used for compliance will be operated to achieve continuous compliance with the emissions limits. Further discussion on performance 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40502"/>
                    testing can be found in section V.D of this preamble.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Proposed Performance Testing and Monitoring Requirements</HD>
                <P>In this preamble section we describe the performance testing and monitoring requirements finalized in the 2025 revised OSWI EG that are being proposed in the OSWI Federal plan.</P>
                <P>The EPA proposes in the Federal plan to require all existing OSWI units to demonstrate initial and continuous compliance with the 2025 revised OSWI EG emission limits and operating limits as being incorporated in the Federal plan. The proposal also requires initial and annual performance tests and initial and annual inspections of scrubbers, fabric filters (FF), and other air pollution control devices that are used to meet the emission limits. All existing OSWI units are required to demonstrate initial and annual compliance with the emission limits using EPA-approved emission test methods. Owners and operators may conduct performance tests less often than annually for a given pollutant if they are able to demonstrate compliance with the emissions limitations for three consecutive annual tests. Owners and operators of an OSWI unit with a capacity greater than 10 TPD must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate CEMS for carbon monoxide and oxygen. The oxygen concentration must be monitored at each location where carbon monoxide is monitored. The EPA is proposing to incorporate the requirements for CEMS from the 2025 revised OSWI EG into the OSWI Federal plan. The EPA proposes to codify these requirements in table 6 of 40 CFR part 62, subpart KKK.</P>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan incorporates by reference four alternatives to the EPA reference test methods, ASTM D6522-11 and ASTM D6522-20, “Standard Test Method for the Determination of Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, and Oxygen Concentrations in Emissions from Natural Gas-Fired Reciprocating Engines, Combustion Turbines, Boilers and Process Heaters Using Portable Analyzers” and ASTM D7520-2016 and ASTM D7520-16 (2023), “Standard Test Method for Determining the Opacity of a Plume in the Outdoor Ambient Atmosphere”. These tests are discussed further in section X.J of this preamble. titled, “National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR Part 51.”</P>
                <P>Consistent with the 2025 revised OSWI EG, the Federal plan is proposing the SMCD for VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD. The SMCD provides an alternative to the general testing and monitoring requirements for VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD. Owners and operators of OSWI units with capacity less than or equal to 10 TPD who have not previously submitted testing meeting the requirements of the final standards would have the option to submit detailed information about their units including: (1) the make, model and manufacturer of the unit; (2) the type and capacity of the unit; (3) the unit's air pollution control devices (if any), (4) the type and quantity of waste incinerated; and (5) the charge rate. They would then identify a representative performance test in the EPA's WebFIRE database.</P>
                <P>A representative performance test must be conducted on an OSWI unit that has similar throughput, method of processing and burning waste, operating temperatures, types of wastes or supplemental fuels burned, and waste profiles. A representative performance test must be conducted consistent with the requirements in the OSWI rule; demonstrate compliance with the OSWI standards; and include the following information in the report: unit design (including air pollution control devices), charge rate during the test, type of operation, combustion temperature during the test, types of waste burned during the test and the relative amount of each waste to the total waste burned (waste profile), type and amount of supplemental fuels used during the test, and, if the tested unit has an air pollution control device, the operating parameter data for the control device during the test. If there is no representative performance test available in the WebFIRE database, the OSWI unit with capacity less than or equal to 10 TPD cannot use the SMCD and must instead conduct its own initial performance test.</P>
                <P>
                    To use this substitute option for demonstrating initial compliance, owner and operator must submit the following information: a notice of intent to use the SMCD; waste profile information; and a representative performance test.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Each of these elements is discussed below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         This information must be submitted through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) using the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Notice of Intent</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan provisions offer two options for initial performance tests for VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD: conducting an individual initial performance test or using the SMCD described below. Owners and operators of existing VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD are not required to submit a notice of intent to the EPA. However, they are required to either identify the results of an existing performance test in the EPA's WebFIRE database that is representative of their type of OSWI unit, if they intend to use the SMCD, or conduct an initial performance test; this must happen no later than 3 years after a State plan is approved or no later than July 1, 2030, whichever date is earlier.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Waste Profile Information</HD>
                <P>The SMCD relies on the availability of the results of performance tests conducted on potentially representative sources in the EPA's WebFIRE database. We anticipate that owners and operators using the SMCD will need time to meet its conditions and therefore encourage them to submit their notices of intent to use the substitute means of compliance and collect data for waste characterization as soon as possible. The waste profile information will record the unit's differing waste streams and waste variability in order to develop a representative waste profile. The unit's profile can then be used to identify a representative performance test for the unit's SMCD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Representative Testing</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan provide provisions that will allow owners and operators of VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD to identify a representative performance test in the WebFIRE database and submit information about the representative performance test and documentation of how the performance test is representative for their unit (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     based on the unit type and design, charge rate, operating temperatures, types of waste burned, and any air pollution control devices) to the Administrator through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) using the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI). Owners and operators must maintain a record of the representative performance test report (acquired from the EPA's WebFIRE database) and the submitted documentation of how the test is representative. The EPA encourages owners and operators to find similar sources by reviewing the notices of intent to use the SMCD and/or performance tests, available in the EPA's WebFIRE database. The EPA still anticipates that similar sources will coordinate to develop test protocols and find cost sharing opportunities by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40503"/>
                    having representative sources conduct a performance test that can be used by all sources in that group.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If owners and operators of existing VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD choose to use the SMCD, we are requiring them to submit SMCD information identifying the representative performance test through CDX using CEDRI beginning no later than March 30, 2027 or 60 days after the OSWI unit reaches the maximum charge rate at which it will operate, but no later than 180 days after initial startup, whichever date is later. This period will allow the owner or operator time for reviewing notices available on the EPA's WebFIRE database, finding and coordinating with similar sources, developing a testing protocol that will work for all sources within a group, conducting the performance tests, and electronically submitting the results of the test through CEDRI (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section V.E of this preamble for a discussion of electronic reporting). The period will also allow time for the EPA to transfer these results to the EPA's WebFIRE database and for owners and operators to find a representative performance test and submit information on how it is representative to the Administrator.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Given the time needed to identify and coordinate similar source groups or develop test protocols, and because the compliance date for new sources is earlier than the compliance date for existing sources and it is uncertain how many tests will be conducted, owners and operators of existing sources are encouraged to start collecting information that would be useful for identifying similar sources and submit this information as soon as possible. This will greatly increase the likelihood that a representative test will be available in the WebFIRE database prior the compliance deadline.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Owners and operators who do not provide their initial waste characterization data in a timely manner could miss the opportunity to avail themselves of this option due to the amount of planning, time, and resources required for similar sources to coordinate and perform performance tests. Owners and operators who cannot find a representative test conducted for a unit that is similar to their unit must conduct their own initial performance tests.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         The distinction between a new and existing unit does not in itself preclude the use of a performance test. If a new unit is similar in design and operation to an existing unit, the new unit may use a performance test conducted by an existing unit and vice versa. However, if a performance test is conducted on an existing unit, it must, among other things, demonstrate initial compliance with the emissions limits for new units for a new unit to use it as a representative performance test.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Continuous Compliance Demonstration</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan provides an alternative waste characterization (AWC) option for demonstrating continuous compliance available to all VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD. In lieu of conducting annual performance tests, this alternative demonstration of continuous compliance will require recordkeeping. The recordkeeping requirements include recording the source-specific waste profiles and incinerator unit operating parameters, including the daily average charge rate and the 3-hour average combustion chamber temperature of the unit. The facility is required to use its records at the end of each calendar quarter to demonstrate that the waste combusted is consistent, within +/− 15 percent by weight, with the percentage established for the components of the waste stream according to the waste profiles established during the facility's initial performance test or established in the representative initial performance test for units using the SMCD.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The facility must report any deviations from the quarterly average waste profile requirements in its deviation report. Additionally, the records must demonstrate that the unit is operated within the charge rate and temperature ranges established during the initial performance test or the representative performance test.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         If, for example, the paper component of the waste stream during initial testing was 20 percent, then burning waste streams with a paper component between 5 and 35 percent of the total waste stream would be acceptable quarterly operation and, assuming all other requirements are met, additional testing would not be required for the source.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If the facility anticipates combusting a waste stream with a different profile, the owner/operator must conduct a performance test of the unit with a waste stream representative of the new waste profile, or alternatively, must identify a representative performance test report in the WebFIRE database and submit the information required by the SMCD, before combusting the modified waste stream.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, if the facility anticipates exceeding or operating outside of the established operating parameter ranges, the owner/operator must conduct a performance test of the unit while it is operating at the new parameter limits, or find a representative performance test with those operating parameter limits in the WebFIRE database and submit the information required by the SMCD, to confirm that the unit continues to meet the OSWI emission standards under the new operating parameter limits. Failure to comply with the retesting requirement is a deviation from the OSWI standards.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         To use a representative test, the owner or operator of a unit must show that the representative test is of a unit having a similar throughput, method of processing and burning waste, charge rate, operating temperatures, waste management plan, estimated waste variability, and waste profile as its unit.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan includes operating limits and operating parameter monitoring requirements for additional controls that may be employed for OSWI units, including dry scrubbers, electrostatic precipitators, and fabric filters. OSWI units that use an alternate method for air pollution control beyond a wet scrubber, dry scrubber, electrostatic precipitator, or fabric filter, including other methods such as material balance, may petition the EPA for specific operating parameter limits in these cases. The proposed Federal plan adds flexibility for facilities by expanding the control options available.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the proposed Federal plan revises the requirements for owners and operators of OSWI units using control options to require that the minimum operating parameters (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     combustion operating chamber temperature, pressure drop, liquid flow rate) established for initial compliance are calculated based on the lowest 1-hour average as measured during the most recent performance test (or representative performance test) demonstrating compliance. Similarly, the proposed Federal plan revises the continuous compliance requirements to specify the averaging times for continuous compliances for operating parameters for the extended control options (generally, 3-hour rolling averages).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the proposed Federal plan removes the requirement for CO and O
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     CEMS for VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD that use the AWC option in lieu of complying with the annual performance testing requirements. Owners and operators may use CO CEMS data in lieu of initial and annual testing for CO, provided the CEMS has been previously certified and is meeting the ongoing quality assurance/quality control requirements. Facilities that opt to use CO CEMS data to demonstrate continuous compliance must use a 12-hour rolling average of the 1-hour arithmetic average CEMS data to determine compliance with the CO emission limitations. However, the initial performance evaluation (CEMS 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40504"/>
                    certification) must be completed prior to collecting CEMS data for the initial compliance demonstration. Under the 2025 revised OSWI EG, such units could also use CO CEMS data in lieu of conducting an annual performance test for CO. This change provides flexibility for sources and reduces the cost burden associated with testing, while assuring compliance based on continuously measured emissions data.
                </P>
                <P>For OSWI units that choose to conduct annual testing, the proposed Federal plan revises the compliance timeline for the annual performance test. The proposed Federal plan requires annual performance tests to be conducted within 14 months following the initial performance test and, subsequently, within 14 months from the prior years' tests.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Proposed recordkeeping and reporting requirements?</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is proposing recordkeeping and reporting requirements that reflect those finalized in the 2025 revised OSWI EG. The Federal plan requires that records of all initial and all subsequent stack, performance specification (PS) tests or SMCD, deviation reports, operating parameter data, continuous monitoring data, maintenance and inspections of air pollution control devices, monitoring plan, and operator training and qualification must be maintained for five years. The results of the stack tests and PS test and values for operating parameters are required to be included in initial and subsequent compliance reports. Any incident of deviation, resumed operation following shutdown, force majeure, intent to stop or start use of continuous monitoring systems (CMS), and intent of conducting or rescheduling a performance test are required to be reported to the Administrator. Furthermore, final compliance reports are required following the completion of each requirement and identifying any missed requirement. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section V.B of this preamble for a more detailed discussion of the compliance schedules.
                </P>
                <P>For units using the SMCD to demonstrate initial compliance, owners and operators must maintain the following records: the notice of intent to use the SMCD, along with documentation of the unit's design, operation, and capacity; initial waste characterization and operating data; and documentation of how the selected substitute test is representative of the unit.</P>
                <P>
                    Owners and operators using the AWC option for demonstrating continuous compliance must maintain records on: start and end times of the unit's operation; the amount or weight of each waste type (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     pounds of solid waste, food waste, wood, or yard waste); the percentage of each type of waste burned; the 3-hour average temperature and charge rate; and operating records for units using air pollution controls such as a wet scrubber, dry scrubber, electrostatic precipitator, or fabric filters. Unit owners and operators must also keep records of periods when the waste profile does not meet the requirements as tested. These recordkeeping requirements will help ensure that VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD choosing the AWC option can demonstrate compliance with the emission and operating limits of the OSWI standards. The recordkeeping will also help to demonstrate that the percentage of waste components burned by VSMWC and IWI units with capacities less than or equal to 10 TPD is within ± 15 percent of the percentages established for each waste category incinerated at a unit according to the profiles established during the initial performance test or representative performance test. Owners and operators must include in annual reports a statement that there were no deviations from the waste characterization requirements and that the unit has been operated within the operating parameter limits. These recordkeeping and reporting requirements are intended to help ensure that there is adequate information available with which to determine compliance with the standards; to ascertain the severity of any failure to meet a standard; and to further assure compliance with the standards at all times.
                </P>
                <P>Owners and operators who choose the SMCD must submit annual compliance reports. Annual compliance reports must be submitted no later than 12 months after you submit the representative initial performance test and description of how the test is representative for the OSWI unit. If you have a deviation from the operating limits or the emission limitations, you must also submit deviation reports as specified in 40 CFR 62.15680 through 62.15690.</P>
                <P>
                    In this proposal, the EPA is describing a process to increase the ease and efficiency of performance test data submittal while improving data accessibility. Specifically, the EPA is proposing that owners and operators of OSWI units submit electronic copies of certain required performance test reports, performance evaluation reports, deviation reports, and annual compliance reports through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) using the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI). The proposed OSWI Federal plan requires that performance test results be submitted in the format generated through the use of the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) or an electronic file consistent with the extensible markup language (XML) schema on the ERT website.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, performance evaluation results of CEMS that include a relative accuracy test audit must be submitted in the format generated through the use of the ERT or an electronic file consistent with the XML schema on the ERT website.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/electronic-reporting-air-emissions/electronic-reporting-tool-ert.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For deviation reports and annual compliance reports, the proposed OSWI Federal plan requires owners and operators to use the appropriate spreadsheet template to submit information to CEDRI. The final version of the template for these reports will be located on the CEDRI website.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If the reporting template specific to this subpart is not available in CEDRI at the time that the report is due, facilities must submit the report to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in 40 CFR 60.4. Once the form has been available in CEDRI for at least one year, facilities must submit all subsequent reports via CEDRI. Furthermore, the proposed Federal plan allow facility operators to seek extensions for submitting electronic reports for circumstances beyond the control of the facility, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     for a possible outage in the CDX or CEDRI (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     40 CFR 62.15700(d)) or, for a force majeure event, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     40 CFR 62.15700(e) in the time just prior to a report's due date, as well as provisions outlining the process to assert such a claim.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/electronic-reporting-air-emissions/cedri.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Other Proposed Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The OSWI Federal plan proposes other requirements that reflect those finalized in the 2025 revised OSWI EG. First, owners and operators of existing OSWI units are required to meet operator training and qualification requirements, which include: Ensuring that at least one operator or supervisor per facility complete the operator training course, that qualified operator(s) or supervisor(s) complete an annual review or refresher course specified in the regulation, and that they maintain plant-specific information, updated annually, regarding training. Another such requirement is that owners and operators of existing OSWI 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40505"/>
                    units are required to submit a monitoring plan for any CMS or bag leak detection system used to comply with the rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. OSWI Units That Have or Will Shut Down</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Units That Plan To Close Rather Than Comply</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan establishes that if owners and operators plan to permanently close currently operating OSWI units, they must do so and submit a closure notification to the Administrator by the date the final control plan is due. The proposed requirements for closing an OSWI unit will be set forth at 40 CFR 62.15495, subpart KKK. Until such time as a unit is permanently closed, it must comply with any applicable requirements of the Federal plan. In addition, while still in operation, the OSWI unit is subject to the same requirements for title V operating permits that apply to units that will continue to operate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Inoperable Units</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed Federal plan provides that in cases where an OSWI unit has already shut down permanently and has been rendered inoperable (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     waste charge door is welded shut, stack is removed, combustion air blowers removed, burners or fuel supply equipment are removed), the OSWI unit may be left off the source inventory in a State plan or this proposed Federal plan. An OSWI unit that has been rendered inoperable would not be covered by the Federal plan.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. OSWI Units That Have Shut Down</HD>
                <P>The proposed Federal plan includes any OSWI unit that are known to have already shut down (but are not known to be inoperable) in the source inventory.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Restarting Before the Final Compliance Date</HD>
                <P>If the owner or operator of an inactive OSWI unit plans to restart before the final compliance date, the owner or operator must achieve final compliance by July 1, 2030.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Restarting After the Final Compliance Date</HD>
                <P>Under the proposed Federal plan, if the owner and operator of an OSWI unit closes the OSWI unit but restarts the unit after the final compliance date, the owner or operator must complete emission control retrofits and meet the emissions limits on the date the OSWI unit restarts operation. Initial performance test must be conducted within 30 days of restarting the OSWI unit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Implementation of the Federal Plan and Delegation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background of Authority</HD>
                <P>Under CAA sections 111(d) and 129(b), the EPA is required to promgulate EG for existing solid waste incineration units. These EG are implemented when the EPA approves a State plan or adopts a Federal plan that implements and enforces the EG. As discussed above, if finalized, the proposed Federal plan would regulate OSWI units in States that do not have approved plans to implement the 2025 revised OSWI EG.</P>
                <P>
                    Congress has determined that the primary responsibility for air pollution prevention and control rests with State and local agencies.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Although CAA section 129(b)(3) directs the EPA to develop, implement and enforce a Federal plan for States that fail to submit approvable State plans,
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     States may submit plans after promulgation of the OSWI Federal plan.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     States may also request delegation of the Federal plan.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7401(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(b)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         40 CFR 60.2985(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         See 40 CFR 60.3078 (“[f]or Federal CAA section 111(d)/129 plans, the Administrator of the EPA, an employee of the EPA, the Director of the State air pollution control agency, or employee of the State air pollution control agency to whom the authority has been delegated by the Administrator of the EPA to perform the specified task”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Delegation of the Federal Plan and Retained Authorities</HD>
                <P>
                    If a State, Tribe, or local agency intends to take delegation of the Federal plan, the State, Tribe, or local agency should submit to the appropriate EPA regional office a written request for delegation of authority. The State, Tribe, local agency should explain how it meets the criteria for delegation. For more information, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     generally “Good Practices Manual for Delegation of NSPS and NESHAP”.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The letter requesting delegation of authority to implement the Federal plan should: (1) demonstrate that the State, Tribe, or local agency has adequate resources, as well as the legal authority to administer and enforce the program, (2) include an inventory of affected OSWI units, which includes those that have ceased operation, but have not been dismantled or rendered inoperable, and an inventory of the affected units' air emissions and a provision for State progress reports to the EPA, (3) certify that a public hearing is held on the State, Tribe, or local agency delegation request, and (4) include a memorandum of agreement between the State, Tribe, or local agency and the EPA that sets forth the terms and conditions of the delegation, the effective date of the agreement and the mechanism to transfer authority. Upon signature of the agreement, the appropriate EPA Regional office would publish an approval notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , thereby incorporating the delegation of authority into the appropriate subpart of 40 CFR part 62.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         U.S. EPA. (1983). 
                        <E T="03">Good Practices Manual for Delegation of NSPS and NESHAP.</E>
                         Available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/sites/default/files/2015-05/documents/epa_good_pract_man_ch1-5.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If a State, Tribe, or local agency does not have an EPA approved plan to implement the OSWI EG or delegated authority to implement the Federal plan, the EPA will implement the Federal plan for that State, Tribe, or locality. Also, if a State, Tribe, or local agency fails to properly implement a delegated portion of the Federal plan, the EPA will assume direct implementation and enforcement of that portion. The EPA will continue to hold enforcement authority along with the State, Tribe, or local agency even when the agency has received delegation of the Federal plan. In all cases where the Federal plan is delegated, the EPA will not transfer to a State, Tribe, or local agency authorities the EPA has retained in 40 CFR 60.2990 of the EG, which are specified in 40 CFR 62.15720 of subpart KKK being proposed in this action. OSWI owners and operators who wish to petition the Agency for any alternative requirement should submit a request to the Regional Administrator with a copy sent to the appropriate State.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Implementing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA Regional Administrators have been delegated the authority for implementing the OSWI Federal plan. All reports required by the Federal plan should be submitted to the appropriate Regional Administrator. The names, email addresses, and telephone numbers of the EPA Regional office contacts and the States and territories that they cover will be posted online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/stationary-sources-air-pollution/other-solid-waste-incinerators-oswi-new-source-performance.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Mechanisms for Transferring Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    There are two mechanisms for transferring implementation authority to State, Tribal, and local agencies: (1) the EPA approval of a State plan after the Federal plan is in effect; and (2) if a State does not submit or obtain approval of its own plan, the EPA delegation to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40506"/>
                    a State, Tribe, or local agency with the authority to implement certain portions of this Federal plan to the extent appropriate and if allowed by State law. Both of these options are described in more detail below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Federal Plan Becomes Effective Prior To Approval of a State Plan</HD>
                <P>Where a State or Tribal agency does not have an approved plan in place and existing OSWI units within that State or Tribe become subject to the Federal plan, the State or Tribal agency may still adopt and submit State or Tribal plans to the EPA for approval. If the EPA determines that the State or Tribal plan is as protective as the 2025 revised OSWI EG, the EPA will approve the State or Tribal plan. If the EPA determines that the plan is not as protective as the 2025 revised OSWI EG, the EPA may approve the portions of the plan that are consistent with the 2025 revised OSWI EG. If a State or Tribal plan is approved in part, the Federal plan will apply to the affected OSWI units in lieu of the disapproved portions of the State plan unless and until the State or Tribe addresses the deficiencies in its plan and the revised plan is approved by the EPA. Upon the effective date of a State or Tribal plan, the Federal plan would no longer apply to OSWI units covered by such a plan and the State, Tribe, or local agency would implement and enforce the State plan in lieu of the Federal plan. Whenever an EPA regional office approves a State or Tribal plan, it will amend the appropriate subpart of 40 CFR part 62 to indicate such approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. State, Tribe, Territory, or Local Agency Taking Delegation of the Federal Plan</HD>
                <P>The EPA, in its discretion, may delegate to States, Tribes, or local agencies the authority to implement this Federal plan. The EPA believes that States, Tribes, and local agencies have the practical knowledge and enforcement experience with respect to OSWI units within their jurisdiction and are therefore well suited to undertake administrative and substantive roles in implementing the Federal plan. These functions include administration and oversight of compliance, reporting and recordkeeping requirements, OSWI unit inspections and preparation of draft notices of violation but will not include any authorities retained by the EPA. Where agencies have taken delegation, the EPA retains its authority for bringing enforcement actions against sources violating Federal plan provisions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Title V Operating Permits</HD>
                <P>
                    All existing OSWI units regulated under State, Tribal, or Federal plans implementing the 2025 revised OSWI EG must operate in a manner consistent with a title V operating permit that assures compliance with all federally applicable requirements for any regulated OSWI units, including all applicable CAA section 129 requirements.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(e) and 40 CFR 70.2, 70.6(a)(1), 71.2, and 71.6(a)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The permit application deadline for a CAA section 129 source applying for a title V operating permit depends on when the source first becomes subject to the relevant title V permit program. Because existing major sources are subject to title V,
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     major source facilities that contain existing OSWI units should already have a title V permit. In such cases, the source must comply with the title V permit revision provisions of the relevant State title V program instead of applying for a title V permit. In contrast, the application deadline would be important to OSWI units at facilities that are not subject to the title V permit program for other reasons. Such sources with an existing OSWI unit subject to this proposed Federal plan must submit a complete title V permit application by the earliest of the following dates:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7661b(c) and 40 CFR 70.3(a) and (b), 70.5(a)(1)(i), 71.3(a) and (b), and 71.5(a)(1)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Twelve (12) months after the effective date of any applicable EPA-approved CAA sections 111(d)/129 plan (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approved State or Tribal plan that implements the 2025 revised OSWI EG) 
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ; or
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7661b(c) and 40 CFR 70.5(a)(1)(i) and 71.5(a)(1)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Twelve (12) months after the effective date of any applicable Federal plan 
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ; or
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Thirty-six (36) months after the June 30, 2025, revisions to 40 CFR part 60, subpart FFFF 
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     July 1, 2028).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 7429(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For any existing OSWI unit not subject to an earlier permit application deadline, the application deadline of July 1, 2028, applies regardless of whether or when any applicable Federal plan is effective, or whether or when any applicable CAA sections 111(d)/129 plan is approved by the EPA and becomes effective. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     CAA sections 129(e), 503(c), 503(d), 502(a), and 40 CFR 70.5(a)(1)(i) and 71.5(a)(1)(i).)
                </P>
                <P>
                    If the OSWI unit is subject to title V as a result of some triggering requirement(s) other than those mentioned above (for example, an OSWI unit may be a major source or part of a major source), then the owner/operator of the source may be required to apply for a title V permit prior to the deadlines specified above. If more than one requirement triggers a source's obligation to apply for a title V permit, the 12-month time frame for filing a title V permit application is triggered by the requirement which first causes the source to be subject to title V.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         CAA section 503(c) and 40 CFR 70.3(a) and (b), 40 CFR 70.5(a)(1)(i), 71.3(a) and (b) and 71.5(a)(1)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Title V and Delegation of a Federal Plan</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted previously, issuance of a title V permit is not equivalent to the approval of a State or Tribal plan or delegation of a Federal plan.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Legally, delegation of a standard or requirement results in a delegated State, local, or Tribal agency standing in for the EPA as a matter of Federal law. This means that obligations a source may have to the EPA under a federally promulgated standard become obligations to a State, Tribal, or local agency (except for functions that the EPA retains for itself) upon delegation.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Although a State, local, or Tribal agency may have the authority under State, local, or Tribal law to incorporate CAA section 111/129 requirements into its title V permits, and implement and enforce these requirements in these permits without first taking delegation of the CAA section 111/129 Federal plan, the State, local, or Tribal agency is not standing in for the EPA as a matter of Federal law in this situation. Where a State, Tribe, territory, or local agency does not take delegation of a CAA section 111/129 Federal plan, obligations that a source has to the EPA under the Federal plan continue after a title V permit is issued to the source. As a result, the EPA maintains that an approved 40 CFR part 70 operating permits program cannot be used as a mechanism to transfer the authority to implement and enforce the Federal plan from the EPA to a State, local, or Tribal agency.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         the “Title V and Delegation of a Federal Plan” section in the final Federal plan for CISWI, December 11, 2024, (89 FR 100092, 100102).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         If the Administrator chooses to retain certain authorities under a standard, those authorities cannot be delegated, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         alternative methods of demonstrating compliance.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    We solicit comment on all aspects of this proposed action. In this proposal, the EPA is soliciting public comment only on the implementation of the OSWI EG through the proposed Federal plan.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40507"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Question #1:</E>
                     Are there any general comments on the proposed Federal plan implementing the 2025 revised OSWI EG?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Question #2:</E>
                     Are there additional sources that should be added to the inventory of affected OSWI units?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Question #3:</E>
                     Is there additional data that could be used regarding the emission inventory for existing OSWI units?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/laws-and-executive-orders.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>This action is not a significant regulatory action and was, therefore, not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 14192: Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</HD>
                <P>This action is not expected to be an Executive Order 14192 regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>This action does not impose any new information collection burden under the PRA. OMB has previously approved the information collection activities contained in the existing regulations and has assigned OMB control number 2060-0562. This action results in no changes to the information collection requirements of the 2025 OSWI rule. OMB control number 2060-0562 encompasses all information collection described in this proposed action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                <P>I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the EPA concludes that the impact of concern for this rule is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities and that the agency is certifying that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because the rule has no net burden on the small entities subject to the rule. EG for owners of existing OSWI units were established by the June 30, 2025, final rule (90 FR 27910), and that rule was certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action establishes a Federal plan to implement and enforce those requirements in those States that do not have their own EPA-approved State plan for implementing and enforcing the requirements. We have, therefore, concluded that this action will have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                <P>This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more (in 1995 dollars) as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The costs involved in this action are estimated not to exceed $187 million in 2024 dollars ($100 million in 1995 dollars adjusted for inflation using the GDP implicit price deflator) or more in any one year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>This action does not have Federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>This action does not have Tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will neither impose direct compliance costs on federally recognized Tribal governments nor preempt Tribal law. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action. The EPA is not aware of any OSWI owned or operated by Indian Tribal governments at the time of the publication of this document. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13045 directs Federal agencies to include an evaluation of the health and safety effects of the planned regulation on children in Federal health and safety standards and explain why the regulation is preferable to potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866, and because the EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. Therefore, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it implements a previously promulgated emission guidelines. Furthermore, the EPA's Policy on Children's Health does not apply to this action because it implements a technology-based standard and does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Executive Order 13211: Actions That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</HD>
                <P>This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Orders 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>This action involves technical standards. Two voluntary consensus standards (VCS) were identified as an acceptable alternative to the EPA test methods for the purposes of this rule.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA proposes to use ASTM D6522-11 and ASTM D6522-20, “Standard Test Method for the Determination of Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, and Oxygen Concentrations in Emissions from Natural Gas-Fired Reciprocating Engines, Combustion Turbines, Boilers and Process Heaters Using Portable Analyzers” for determining nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and oxygen concentrations in emissions as acceptable alternatives to EPA Methods 3A and 10. The EPA determined that these standards are reasonably available because it is available for purchase. This method is available for purchase from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box CB700, West Conshohocken, Pennsylvania 19428-2959, (877) 909-2786, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.astm.org/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The VCS, ASTM D7520-2016 and ASTM D7520-16 (2023), “Standard Test Method for Determining the Opacity of a Plume in the Outdoor Ambient Atmosphere” were identified as acceptable alternatives to EPA Method 9, but only if these conditions are followed: (1) during the digital camera opacity technique (DCOT) certification procedure outlined in section 9.2 of ASTM D7520-2013 and ASTM D7520-16 (2023), you or the DCOT vendor must present the plumes in front of various backgrounds of color and contrast representing conditions anticipated during field use such as blue sky, trees, and mixed backgrounds (clouds and/or a sparse tree stand); (2) you must also have standard operating procedures in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40508"/>
                    place including daily or other frequency quality checks to ensure the equipment is within manufacturing specifications as outlined in section 8.1 of ASTM D7520-2013 and ASTM D7520-16 (2023); (3) you must follow the recordkeeping procedures outlined in 40 CFR 63.10(b)(1), subpart A, for the DCOT certification, compliance report, data sheets, and all raw unaltered JPEGs used for opacity and certification determination; and (4) you or the DCOT vendor must have a minimum of four independent technology users successfully apply the software to determine the visible opacity of the 300 certification plumes. For each set of 25 plumes, the user may not exceed 15 percent opacity of anyone reading and the average error must not exceed 7.5-percent opacity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA proposes to use the VCS, ASTM D7520-2016 and ASTM D7520-16 (2023), “Standard Test Method for Determining the Opacity of a Plume in the Outdoor Ambient Atmosphere” as acceptable alternatives to EPA Method 9. These methods describe procedures to determine the opacity of a plume, using digital imagery and associated hardware and software, where opacity is caused by PM emitted from a stationary point source in the outdoor ambient environment. The opacity of emissions is determined by the application of a DCOT that consists of a digital still camera, analysis software, and the output function's content to obtain and interpret digital images to determine and report plume opacity. With the conditions identified above, we found that the technical sampling and analytical procedures are an equivalent method to EPA Method 9. This method is available for purchase from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box CB700, West Conshohocken, Pennsylvania 19428-2959, (877) 909-2786, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.astm.org/.</E>
                     The EPA's approval of these methods as alternatives to EPA Method 9 does not provide or imply a certification or validation of any vendor's hardware or software. The onus to maintain and verify the certification and/or training of the DCOT camera, software, and operator in accordance with ASTM D7520-16 is on the facility, DCOT operator, and DCOT vendor.
                </P>
                <P>
                    While the EPA also identified 22 VCS that were potentially applicable for this rule in lieu of the EPA methods, the Agency is not proposing to use these standards. After reviewing the available standards, the EPA determined that the 22 candidate methods would not be practical due to lack of equivalency, documentation, validation data, and other important technical and considerations. For additional information, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the memorandum, Voluntary Consensus Standard Results for Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources and Emission Guidelines for Existing Sources: Other Solid Waste Incineration Units; Proposed Rule, which is available in the docket for this action.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lee Zeldin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13485 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Parts 212, 225, and 252</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2026-0298]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0750-AL62</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Modifications to Printed Circuit Board Acquisition Restrictions (DFARS Case 2022-D011)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is seeking information that will assist in the development of a revision to the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement sections of the National Defense Authorization Acts for Fiscal Years 2021 and 2022 that address the prohibition on the acquisition of covered printed circuit boards from a covered nation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the advance notice of proposed rulemaking should be submitted in writing to the address shown below on or before August 31, 2026, to be considered in the formation of any proposed rule.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit written comments identified by DFARS Case 2022-D011, using either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for DFARS Case 2022-D011. Select “Comment” and follow the instructions to submit a comment. Please include “DFARS Case 2022-D011” on any attached documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: osd.dfars@mail.mil.</E>
                         Include DFARS Case 2022-D011 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two to three days after submission to verify posting.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kelsey Bramschreiber, telephone 948-245-1544.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>DoD is seeking information from experts and interested parties in Government and the private sector that will assist in the development of a revision to the DFARS to implement section 841 of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2021 (Pub. L. 116-283) and section 851 of the NDAA for FY 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81). Section 841 adds 10 U.S.C. 2533d, which prohibits the acquisition of covered printed circuit boards from a covered nation. Section 851 amends 10 U.S.C. 2533d, subsequently renumbered as 10 U.S.C. 4873.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 841 of the NDAA for FY 2021 and section 851 of the NDAA for FY 2022 (10 U.S.C. 4873) require the Department of Defense to mitigate supply chain risks by prohibiting the procurement of covered printed circuit boards from entities located in or controlled by a covered nation (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the People's Republic of China, the Russian Federation, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Democratic People's Republic of North Korea). DoD intends to implement this prohibition by focusing on the geographic point of fabrication for bare boards or partially manufactured boards and by utilizing a tiered trust architecture.
                </P>
                <P>Furthermore, any rulemaking that may follow this advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR) would put into operation the mandate in section 224 of the NDAA for FY 2020, which requires DoD to establish trusted supply chain and operational security standards for the procurement of microelectronics and their associated printed circuit boards. By coupling the geographic prohibitions of 10 U.S.C. 4873 with rigorous technical standards, developed through strong Government/industry partnerships, DoD establishes a comprehensive hardware assurance posture that satisfies both statutory directives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion and Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The following is a summary of DoD's proposed approach and the feedback DoD is seeking from industry and the public.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40509"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Defining the Scope: Statutory Thresholds</HD>
                <P>DoD seeks public comment on a proposed regulatory framework, the Independent Hardware Assurance Framework, that utilizes industry standards ISO/IEC 20243, IPC-1782, and IPC-1791 as the foundational requirements for granting statutory exceptions and waivers. Crucially, this framework uses the statutory definitions of the following terms: “covered printed circuit boards,” “specified type,” and “defense security systems.” This approach ensures the protection of national security while minimizing impact on the commercial marketplace.</P>
                <P>To ensure any regulation that may follow this ANPR does not impose unreasonable restrictions on the procurement of commercial products, including commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items, DoD adopts the strict statutory definitions provided in 10 U.S.C. 4873(c). DoD emphasizes that this proposed framework is not a blanket prohibition on specific commercial products, including COTS items, or commercial services. These stringent Independent Hardware Assurance Framework requirements are only placed on covered printed circuit boards being integrated into systems in which a compromise could directly threaten military mission, warfighter safety, or national security. For procurements that fall within this critical scope, DoD has established a rigorous, evidence-based waiver process (see section II.B. of this ANPR) to address circumstances of market unavailability and urgent operational need.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Framework for Exceptions and Waivers</HD>
                <P>For covered printed circuit boards requiring a waiver to source from a covered nation under 10 U.S.C. 4873, DoD proposes establishing an Independent Hardware Assurance Framework to satisfy the statutory requirement of 10 U.S.C. 4873(b)(1). This statutory requirement demands a written determination that there are no significant national security concerns regarding counterfeiting, quality, or unauthorized access. Recognizing that facilities within covered nations cannot legally or practically guarantee the protection of controlled unclassified information (CUI), this waiver process will not rely on attestations from suppliers.</P>
                <P>While contractors may propose alternative mitigation strategies, DoD assesses that compliance with a four-pillar framework, which ensures supply chain security, data traceability, facility trust and secure handling, and cybersecurity, provides the standardized evidentiary baseline necessary to satisfy these statutory waiver criteria. Furthermore, this framework meets or exceeds the trusted supply chain and operational security requirements mandated by section 224 of the NDAA for FY 2020. Therefore, DoD proposes that demonstrating compliance with the following four pillars will serve as the primary mechanism for contractors seeking a waiver:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Enterprise-Level Supply Chain Integrity (ISO/IEC 20243).</E>
                     The Open Trusted Technology Provider Standard (O-TTPS) is an international standard that establishes best practices for secure product development, secure engineering, supply chain security, and lifecycle management to prevent maliciously tainted and counterfeit products. For any printed circuit board requiring a waiver, the contractor must hold a current ISO/IEC 20243 (O-TTPS) certification. This ensures the contractor utilizes secure engineering practices and aggressive downstream supplier vetting to mitigate the risk of maliciously tainted raw materials and COTS subcomponents entering the bare board fabrication process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Granular Provenance and Traceability (IPC-1782).</E>
                     IPC-1782 is a comprehensive traceability standard that strengthens electronics supply chain integrity, supports counterfeit prevention, and provides a flexible framework for capturing and analyzing critical manufacturing and component data. For any covered printed circuit board requiring a waiver, the contractor must deliver standardized, machine-level manufacturing traceability data in accordance with IPC-1782 (Level 3 or 4). This evidentiary audit trail must document the origin of the board's base materials (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     laminate, copper foil) and the specific machinery used during fabrication. This data will be heavily scrutinized by DoD to verify the exact geographic points of manufacturing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Facility Trust and Secure Handling (IPC-1791).</E>
                     DoD's strong preference is that facilities involved in the design, fabrication, and assembly of covered printed circuit boards be certified to IPC-1791 (Trusted Electronic Designer, Fabricator and Assembler Requirements). IPC-1791 provides minimum requirements, policies, and procedures for facilities to become trusted sources for markets requiring high levels of confidence in the integrity of delivered products. These trusted sources must ensure quality, supply chain risk management, security (information and physical), and chain of custody.
                </P>
                <P>
                    IPC-1791 certification is only available to non-U.S. facilities via sponsorship. A facility in a covered nation likely cannot achieve IPC-1791 certification. Therefore, any bare board granted an exception and imported from a covered nation must be routed through a domestic (or approved allied) facility certified as an IPC-1791 Trusted Assembler, or a DoD Hardware Assurance Laboratory, prior to system integration. This Trusted Facility will utilize the IPC-1782 data to conduct independent, blind hardware assurance testing (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     automated optical inspection, x-ray) to verify the manufactured printed circuit board exactly matches the trusted digital design files and that no unauthorized modifications were introduced during fabrication in a covered nation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Protection of Digital Design Data (Cybersecurity).</E>
                     The contractor must identify and protect all unclassified digital design data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Gerber files, netlists, schematics) associated with the covered printed circuit board as CUI. To qualify for a waiver, the contractor and all applicable lower-tier subcontractor facilities handling this unclassified digital data must comply with the applicable contract cybersecurity requirements. (Note: The manufacture of classified printed circuit boards remains subject to the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) and is ineligible for foreign sourcing waivers under this framework).
                </P>
                <P>DoD recognizes that standards evolve. However, for the purposes of qualifying for a waiver under 10 U.S.C. 4873, the contractor (including facilities) must actively hold the formal, third-party certifications (ISO/IEC 20243 and IPC-1791) and generate the standardized data schemas (IPC-1782). The contractor's attestation or claims of internal corporate equivalency will not satisfy the requirements of the Independent Hardware Assurance Framework.</P>
                <P>
                    To support the Secretary of Defense's waiver determination under 10 U.S.C. 4873(b), DoD anticipates that contractors seeking a waiver will be required to submit a comprehensive waiver request package to the contracting officer. In addition to providing valid, third-party certifications demonstrating full compliance with the Independent Hardware Assurance Framework (ISO/IEC 20243 and IPC-1791), as well as complete traceability data pursuant to IPC-1782, a waiver request must include the following: a Trusted Assembler verification report, market 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40510"/>
                    availability justification, component identification (IPC-1782 Traceability), system application and impact, transition strategy, and waiver scope.
                </P>
                <P>For any bare printed circuit board manufactured or partially manufactured in a covered nation, the waiver request must include a certified verification report from a domestic or allied IPC-1791 Trusted Assembler. This report must demonstrate that the board underwent blind testing and validation prior to population or final assembly to ensure no unauthorized logic, malicious alterations, or counterfeits are present.</P>
                <P>The DoD component head (or their designated official) will have the discretion to determine whether this Trusted Assembler verification report is sufficient, or if the report (including IPC-1782 traceability data), verification imagery, digital design files, and/or associated hardware must be submitted to a DoD Hardware Assurance Lab for supplementary validation prior to signing and submitting the waiver to the Secretary of Defense.</P>
                <P>If the Trusted Assembler is a subsidiary, an affiliate, or otherwise under the corporate control or influence of the contractor, then the verification report, all verification imagery, digital design files, and/or associated physical hardware must be submitted to a DoD Hardware Assurance Lab for independent validation prior to the DoD component head signing and submitting the waiver request. This validation may be conducted by a designated DoD Hardware Assurance activity, the National Security Agency (NSA), Department of Energy National Laboratories, Federally Funded Research and Development Centers (FFRDCs), or University Affiliated Research Centers (UARCs), at the Government's discretion (DoD component head or Hardware Assurance Lab).</P>
                <P>If the Trusted Assembler is a wholly independent third party with no financial or corporate affiliation with the contractor, the DoD component head retains the discretion to accept the report or require a DoD Hardware Assurance Lab review. This discretionary validation will be conducted by a designated DoD Hardware Assurance activity, which may leverage the NSA, National Laboratories, FFRDCs, or UARCs to execute the review.</P>
                <P>The market availability justification must include documented evidence that printed circuit boards of satisfactory quality and sufficient quantity cannot be procured from non-covered nations at a reasonable cost or within the required timeframe. The component identification (IPC-1782 Traceability) must include specific part numbers, quantities, and the exact facility and covered nation of origin for the requested printed circuit boards. With regard to system application and impact, the end-item defense security system must be identified. There must also be a detailed assessment of the schedule and cost impacts to the program if the waiver is denied. The transition strategy must include a time-phased plan detailing the contractor's strategy to qualify alternative domestic or allied sources and eliminate reliance on covered nations for future production. The scope of the waiver must identify the requested duration of the waiver or specific production lot to which the waiver will apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Data Delivery, Retention, and Inspection Rights</HD>
                <P>
                    To ensure the Government maintains visibility, auditability, and the ability to verify compliance with the Independent Hardware Assurance Framework, DoD proposes the following data requirements. Upon request by the contracting officer, the DoD Program or DoD Hardware Assurance Laboratories, or as specified in the Contract Data Requirements List (CDRL), the contractor must deliver IPC-1782 manufacturing traceability logs and IPC-1791 independent hardware assurance test reports in a standardized, machine-readable format within a specified timeframe (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     five business days).
                </P>
                <P>The contractor must grant the Government the right to access, duplicate, analyze, and utilize the generated provenance, traceability, and verification data strictly for the purposes of inspection, audit, and verifying compliance with 10 U.S.C. 4873 and section 224 of the NDAA for FY 2020. DoD will treat this data as proprietary and will not use it for competitive reprocurement. Contractor assertions of proprietary information or trade secrets will not restrict or delay the Government's verification efforts. At the discretion of the DoD component head or the designated DoD Hardware Assurance activity, this data and the associated Trusted Assembler reports may be shared with the NSA, FFRDCs, UARCs, and Department of Energy National Laboratories supporting DoD hardware assurance, provided such entities are bound by appropriate nondisclosure obligations.</P>
                <P>
                    The contractor and the independent verification facility must retain all verification imagery (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     automated optical inspection, x-ray) and traceability logs for a period of not less than 10 years following final delivery of the covered printed circuit board, or for the operational lifespan of the defense security system, whichever is longer. In addition, the contractor must provide the Government direct access to audit these records upon request.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Mandatory Flow-Down Requirement</HD>
                <P>To ensure the prohibitions of 10 U.S.C. 4873 are enforced throughout the entire supply chain, any resulting DFARS contract clause will include a strict, mandatory flow-down requirement. The contractor will be required to insert the substance of the contract clause into all subcontracts and other contractual instruments at every tier, including subcontracts for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services.</P>
                <P>The contractor will not merely flow down this requirement, but will retain affirmative, ultimate responsibility for collecting, verifying, and maintaining valid, third-party certifications (ISO/IEC 20243 and IPC-1791) and complete IPC-1782 traceability data from all lower-tier suppliers and/or facilities prior to integrating covered printed circuit boards into end-item deliverables. This requirement legally obligates all commercial lower-tier entities—including bare board fabricators, contract manufacturers, and independent testing facilities—to comply with the geographic restrictions and technical standards, ensuring a secure, unbroken, and verifiable supply chain from initial materials to final system integration.</P>
                <P>The requirement to flow down commercial certifications (ISO/IEC 20243, IPC-1791, IPC-1782) will not apply to subcontracts, interagency agreements, or direct utilization of designated DoD Hardware Assurance Laboratories, FFRDCs, or UARCs performing independent verification testing under this framework. These entities operate under superseding Federal security and assurance directives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Specific Questions for Public Comment</HD>
                <P>DoD invites input on the following specific questions, particularly from the defense industrial base, commercial printed circuit board manufacturers, and standards bodies:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Definitional Clarity:</E>
                     Do the intersecting definitions of “covered printed circuit board,” “specified type” (focusing on data routing/networking), and “defense security system” provide an unambiguous boundary that protects standard commercial/COTS supply 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40511"/>
                    chains from unreasonable regulatory burden?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Certification Burden:</E>
                     What is the estimated financial and operational burden for a facility to maintain the proposed four-pillar framework (ISO/IEC 20243, IPC-1782, and IPC-1791) specifically for covered printed circuit board production lines?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Certification Timelines:</E>
                     DoD estimates that achieving IPC-1791 certification requires 8 to 16 months, while IPC-1782 and ISO/IEC 20243 require 3 to 11 months. Are these estimates accurate? What phase-in period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     12, 18, or 24 months) should DoD consider before making these standards a mandatory condition for an exception?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">COTS Item Applicability:</E>
                     ISO/IEC 20243 is widely adopted in the commercial sector. However, to what extent can COTS bare board manufacturers support the data logging requirements of IPC-1782 Level 3 or 4 without causing severe economic disruption?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Facility vs. Enterprise:</E>
                     DoD proposes that IPC-1791 would apply to the specific physical verification facility, while ISO/IEC 20243 would apply to the contractor's enterprise. Does this bifurcation create conflicting obligations for multinational original equipment manufacturers (OEMs)?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Data Sovereignty:</E>
                     How will contractors ensure the protection of CUI (bare board design data) in accordance with NIST SP 800-171 when transmitting manufacturing requirements to a facility located in a covered nation under an approved waiver?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Data Rights and Inspection:</E>
                     DoD proposes limiting its data rights for IPC-1782 traceability logs and IPC-1791 hardware assurance reports strictly to inspection and compliance verification, rather than seeking Government purpose rights (see the clause at DFARS 252.227-7013, -7014, or -7018 for the definition of Government purpose rights). This is applicable to printed circuit boards manufactured or partially manufactured in a covered nation, without IPC-1791 certification. Does this limitation sufficiently protect proprietary manufacturing processes while allowing the Government to audit supply chain provenance?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Waiver Mitigation and Section 224 Compliance:</E>
                     Does the requirement for independent verification at an IPC-1791 facility, combined with IPC-1782 traceability, constitute a feasible and sufficient strategy to meet the operational security requirements of section 224 of the NDAA for FY 2020 when sourcing from a high-risk geographic location?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Market Segmentation:</E>
                     DoD requests that commercial information technology vendors provide the percentage of their current DoD sales that would likely fall under the statutory definition of a “defense security system,” versus the percentage used for routine business applications that would be exempt from the definition of this term.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 212, 225, and 252</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kimberly R. Ziegler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13375 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40512"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Doc. No. AMS-CP-26-0958]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), this notice announces the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), Agricultural Marketing Service's (AMS) intention to seek approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for an information collection renewal to administer the Local Food Purchase Assistance Cooperative Agreement Program (LFPA). AMS is implementing this cooperative agreement program under the American Rescue Plan Act, which directs the Secretary of Agriculture to enter into cooperative agreements with State, local, and Tribal governments to purchase food from local and regional farmers/producers (within the state or within 400 miles).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments concerning this notice by using the electronic process available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Written comments may also be submitted to the Commodity Procurement Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 2517-South Building, Stop 0239, Washington, DC 20250-0239. All comments should reference the docket number AMS-CP-26-0958, the date of publication, and the page number of this issue of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . All comments received will be posted without change, including any personal information provided, at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and will be included in the record and made available to the public.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Chad Burke, Assistant to the Deputy Administrator, Commodity Procurement Program; (202) 823-2817 or email 
                        <E T="03">Chad.Burke@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Local Food Purchase Assistance Cooperative Agreement Program (LFPA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0581-0330.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     August 31, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946, as amended (7 U.S.C. 1621 
                    <E T="03">et. seq.</E>
                    ), directs and authorizes USDA to administer Federal cooperative agreements programs. AMS cooperative agreement programs are administered according to OMB Guidance for Cooperative Agreements, which is based on OMB's regulations under the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR part 200) (85 FR 49506; December 13, 2020). Information collection requirements in this renewal request are needed for AMS to administer LFPA, in accordance with section 1001(b)(4) of the American Rescue Plan Act (Pub. L. 117-2) (Act). USDA will continue to collect information for this program to monitor existing cooperative agreements and provide other assistance to maintain and improve food and agriculture supply chain resiliency.
                </P>
                <P>Since the LFPA is a voluntary program, respondents requested or applied for this specific competitive cooperative agreement, and in doing so, they provided information. The information collected is used only by authorized representatives of USDA, AMS, Commodity Procurement Program to certify that cooperative agreement participants are complying with applicable program regulations, and the data collected is the minimum information necessary to effectively carry out program requirements.</P>
                <P>Information collection requirements in this request are essential to carry out the intent of the Act, to provide respondents the type of service they request and to administer the closeout of the program in 2027.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimate of Burden:</E>
                     Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 4 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Cooperative Agreement applicants; or Cooperative Agreement recipients.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     75.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses including Recordkeeping:</E>
                     975. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     5.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents and Recordkeepers:</E>
                     4,731.25 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of agency functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>Obtaining OMB's approval of this new information collection enables AMS to publish a Request for Applications (RFA) to establish application requirements, the review and approval process, and cooperative agreement administration procedures. This will enable eligible entities to develop appropriate cooperative agreement applications for the program so that AMS can adequately evaluate these new proposals and obligate the funds as required by the American Act.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erin Morris,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13404 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40513"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Doc. No. AMS-DA-26-0859]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Request for Extension and Revision of a Currently Approved Information Collection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Agricultural Marketing Service's (AMS) intention to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget for an extension of and revision to the currently approved information collection used in support of the Requirements Under Regulations Governing Inspection and Grading Services of Manufactured or Processed Dairy Products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by August 31, 2026, to be considered.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments concerning this notice by using the electronic process available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         All comments should reference the docket number (AMS-DA-26-0859), the date, and page number of this issue of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . All comments received will be posted without change, including any personal information provided, at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and will be included in the record and made available to the public.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dawn Bianco, USDA AMS Dairy Program, 650 East Diehl Rd., Suite 100, Naperville, IL 60563; telephone: (630) 437-5045; or by email: 
                        <E T="03">Dawn.Bianco2@usda.gov</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">DairyQualityTeam@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Requirements Under Regulations Governing Inspection and Grading Services of Manufactured or Processed Dairy Products.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0581-0126.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date of Approval:</E>
                     August 31, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension and revision of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Agricultural Marketing Act (AMA) of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1621 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) directs the United Stated Department of Agriculture (USDA) to develop programs that provide for and facilitate the marketing of agricultural products. One of these programs is the voluntary AMS Dairy Grading and Inspection Program (7 CFR part 58). Under the program, a plant can submit to grading and inspection of its products by a USDA grader following the U.S. Grade Standards to ensure each product meets the U.S. grade requirements. This program provides uniform quality dairy products in the marketplace. The information collection requirements in this request are essential to carry out the intent of the AMA—to ensure that dairy products are produced under sanitary conditions and buyers are purchasing a quality product. The regulations governing the certification of sanitary design and fabrication of equipment used in the slaughter, processing, and packaging of livestock and poultry products are contained in 7 CFR part 54.
                </P>
                <P>The information collected is used to identify products submitted for grading; for a manufacturer to submit a request for dairy, meat, or poultry industry equipment sanitary design and construction evaluation; to identify and contact the party responsible for inspection payment, or grading or equipment evaluation fee and expense; and to identify applicants who wish to be authorized to display official identification on product packaging, materials, equipment, utensils, or on descriptive promotional materials.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Dairy product manufacturers, consultants, installers, dairy equipment fabricators, and meat and poultry processing equipment fabricators.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     198.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     721.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     8,633.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     923 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <P>AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.</P>
                <P>A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to the notice.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erin Morris,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13393 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Farm Service Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FSA-2026-0364]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Request; Certified Mediation Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Farm Service Agency, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Farm Service Agency (FSA) is requesting comments from all interested individuals and organizations on a revision of a currently approved information collection that supports the Certified Mediation Program. The information collection is necessary to ensure that the grant program is administered properly. The collection of information is used to determine whether participants meet the eligibility requirements to be a recipient of grant funds. Lack of adequate information to make the determination could result in the improper administration of Federal grant funds.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We will consider comments we receive by August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments by the following method: Federal eRulemaking Portal; Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID FSA-2026-0364. You may also send comments to the Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of the Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503. Comments will be available for public inspection online at 
                        <E T="03">http://regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tracy Jones, by telephone: (202) 720-6771; or by email 
                        <E T="03">tracy.jones@usda.gov.</E>
                         Individuals who require alternative means of communication for program and should contact USDA TARGET 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40514"/>
                        Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and text telephone (TTY) or dial 711 for Telecommunications Relay Service (both voice and text telephone users can initiate this call from any telephone).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Certified Mediation Program (7 CFR 785).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0560-0165.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date of Approval:</E>
                     January 31, 2027.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     FSA administers the Certified Mediation Program (Program) according to Subtitles A and B of the Title V of the Agricultural Credit Act of 1987 (7 U.S.C. 5106). To effectively administer the Program, FSA requires an application for recertification, which includes submission of a letter from the State, a letter from the grantee, SF-424, SF-424A, SF-424B, and SF-425. Approved grantees provide a mid-year report as well as an annual report that includes information on mediation services provided during the preceding Federal fiscal year, assessment of the performance and effectiveness of the State's Program, and any other matters related to the Program as the State elects to include. In addition, approved grantees complete SF-270 to request either advance funding or reimbursement of expenses already paid. The information requested is necessary for FSA to determine the grantee's eligibility and administer the Program effectively.
                </P>
                <P>The burden hours increased due to the number of States participating went from 42 to 44 participating States. The additional burden hours also include States taking more time to complete forms with more efficiency.</P>
                <P>For the following estimated total annual burden on respondents, the formula used to calculate the total burden hours is the estimated average time per response multiplied by the estimated total annual responses:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimate of Average Time to Respond:</E>
                     Public reporting burden for collecting information under this notice is estimated to average 2.42 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collections of information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Respondents:</E>
                     State and county governments, non-profits, private institutions of Higher Education, and Public/State Institutions of Higher Education.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     44.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     12.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     528.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     1,276 hours.
                </P>
                <P>The purpose of this notice is to request comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning the information collection request. The comments will help us:</P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden of the collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Evaluate the quality, utility and clarity of the information technology; and</P>
                <P>(4) Minimize the burden of information collection on those who respond through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>All comments received in response to this notice, including names and addresses where provided, will be made as a matter of public record. Comments will be summarized and included in the submission for Office of Management and Budget approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">USDA Non-Discrimination Policy</HD>
                <P>In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, USDA, it Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family or parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident. Individuals who require alternative means of communication for program information (for example, braille, large print, audiotape, American Sign Language, etc.) should contact the responsible Agency or USDA TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and text telephone (TTY) or dial 711 for Telecommunications Relay Service (both vice and text telephone users can initiate this call from any telephone). Additionally, program information may be made available in languages other than English.</P>
                <P>
                    To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/oascr.how-to-file-a-program-discrimination-complaint</E>
                     and at any USDA office or write a letter addressed to USDA and provide in the letter all the information requested in the form. To request a copy of the complaint form, call (866) 6232-9992. Submit your completed form or letter to USDA by mail to: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410 or email: 
                    <E T="03">OAC@usda.gov.</E>
                     USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jared Hagert,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Farm Service Agency.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13421 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3411-E2-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Rural Housing Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RHS-26-CF-0232]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Recission of Funding Opportunity for the Rural Community Development Initiative (RCDI) for Fiscal Year 2025</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Rural Housing Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Rural Housing Service (RHS or the Agency), a Rural Development (RD) agency of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), issued a Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO) published at 90 FR 30037 (July 8, 2025) to announce acceptance of applications under the Rural Community Development Initiative (RCDI) program for fiscal year (FY) 2025. This notice is being rescinded because Rural Development is currently updating the program's NOFO to ensure it reflects existing guidance as well as new policy and program priorities that have emerged since the original publication. Due to these revisions, applications submitted under this NOFO will not advance further in the review process. Applicants will be required to submit a new application once a future RCDI NOFO is issued.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The rescission of the NOFO published on July 8, 2025, 90 FR 30037 is effective immediately.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40515"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Janelle Gustafson, Rural Development, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, Phone: (406) 585-2508, Email: 
                        <E T="03">janelle.gustafson@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>George Kelly,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Administrator, Rural Housing Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13397 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-XV-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of Business Meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a business meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a series of public business meetings via Zoom. The purpose of these meetings are to discuss and vote on the Project Proposal, and to plan briefings on the topic of Religious Freedom in Correctional Facilities within Oregon.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, July 7, 2026, from 1:00p.m.-2:30p.m. Pacific Time.</P>
                    <P>Tuesday, July 28, 2026, from 1:00p.m.-2:30p.m. Pacific Time.</P>
                    <P>Wednesday, August 12, from 11:30 a.m.-1:00p.m. Pacific Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meetings will be held via Zoom.</P>
                    <P>
                        July 7th—Registration Link (Audio/Visual): 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1654913325.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833 435 1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 165 491 3325.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        July 28th—Registration Link (Audio/Visual): 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1659620460.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833 435 1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 165 962 0460.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        August 12th—Registration Link (Audio/Visual): 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1658492157.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833 435 1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 165 849 2157.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kayla Fajota, Designated Federal Officer at 
                        <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov,</E>
                         or (434) 515-2395.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://usccr.box.com/s/2x0rmdx2coz4x2g83zq9j9obgwbcl9oc (Note: a final meeting agenda will be available prior to the meeting date).</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This virtual committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may join at the link to listen to this meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning is available by selecting “CC” in the Zoom meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email Angelica Trevino, Support Services Specialist at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Kayla Fajota, Designated Federal Officer at 
                    <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (434) 515-2395.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via the file sharing website: 
                    <E T="03">https://usccr.app.box.com/folder/271061562007?s=r6h92j9j27b78vvft9voq7b6kzdphlbl</E>
                     as well as at: 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, selecting the Advisory Committee of interest. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13470 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Initiation of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is automatically initiating the five-year reviews (Sunset Reviews) of the antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders and suspended investigations listed below. The U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) is publishing concurrently with this notice its notice of 
                        <E T="03">Institution of Five-Year Reviews</E>
                         which covers the same orders and suspended investigations.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 2, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commerce official identified in the 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Review</E>
                         section below at AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230. For information from the ITC, contact Mary Messer, Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission at (202) 205-3193.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce's procedures for the conduct of Sunset Reviews are set forth in its 
                    <E T="03">Procedures for Conducting Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders,</E>
                     63 FR 13516 (March 20, 1998) and 70 FR 62061 (October 28, 2005). Guidance on methodological or analytical issues relevant to Commerce's conduct of Sunset Reviews is set forth in 
                    <E T="03">Antidumping Proceedings: Calculation of the Weighted-Average Dumping Margin and Assessment Rate in Certain Antidumping Duty Proceedings; Final Modification,</E>
                     77 FR 8101 (February 14, 2012).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initiation of Review</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c), we are initiating the Sunset Reviews of the following AD and CVD orders and suspended investigations:
                    <PRTPAGE P="40516"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs54,xs60,xs60,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Commerce case No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">ITC case No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Country</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Commerce contact</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Antidumping Duty Proceedings</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">A-570-888</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1047</ENT>
                        <ENT>China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ironing Tables (4th Review) </ENT>
                        <ENT>Emily Kutsko (202) 482-6276.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-570-954</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1166</ENT>
                        <ENT>China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Magnesia Carbon Bricks (3rd Review) </ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-570-133</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1533</ENT>
                        <ENT>China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metal Lockers (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mary Kolberg (202) 482-1785.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-533-897</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1543</ENT>
                        <ENT>India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utility Scale Wind Towers (1st Review) </ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-557-821</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1544</ENT>
                        <ENT>Malaysia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utility Scale Wind Towers (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-201-837</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1167</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mexico</ENT>
                        <ENT>Magnesia Carbon Bricks (3rd Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A-469-823</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1545</ENT>
                        <ENT>Spain</ENT>
                        <ENT> Utility Scale Wind Towers (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">A-552-831</ENT>
                        <ENT>731-TA-1528</ENT>
                        <ENT>Vietnam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Countervailing Duty Proceedings</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">C-570-955</ENT>
                        <ENT>701-TA-468</ENT>
                        <ENT>China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Magnesia Carbon Bricks (3rd Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mary Kolberg (202) 482-1785.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">C-570-134</ENT>
                        <ENT>701-TA-656</ENT>
                        <ENT>China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metal Lockers (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mary Kolberg (202) 482-1785.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">C-533-898</ENT>
                        <ENT>701-TA-660</ENT>
                        <ENT>India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utility Scale (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mary Kolberg (202) 482-1785.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">C-557-822 </ENT>
                        <ENT>701-TA-661</ENT>
                        <ENT>Malaysia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utility Scale Wind Towers (1st Review)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas Martin (202) 482-3938.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Suspended Investigations</HD>
                <P>No Sunset Reviews of suspended investigations are scheduled for initiation in July 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filing Information</HD>
                <P>All submissions in these Sunset Reviews must be filed in accordance with Commerce's regulations regarding format, translation, and service of documents. These rules, including electronic filing requirements via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS), can be found at 19 CFR 351.303.</P>
                <P>In accordance with section 782(b) of the Act, any party submitting factual information in an AD/CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information. Parties must use the certification formats provided in 19 CFR 351.303(g). Commerce intends to reject factual submissions if the submitting party does not comply with applicable revised certification requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Letters of Appearance and Administrative Protective Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.103(d), Commerce will maintain and make available a public service list for these proceedings. Parties wishing to participate in any of these five-year reviews must file letters of appearance as discussed at 19 CFR 351.103(d). To facilitate the timely preparation of the public service list, it is requested that those seeking recognition as interested parties to a proceeding submit an entry of appearance within 10 days of the publication of the Notice of Initiation. Because deadlines in Sunset Reviews can be very short, we urge interested parties who want access to proprietary information under administrative protective order (APO) to file an APO application immediately following publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of this notice of initiation. Commerce's regulations on submission of proprietary information and eligibility to receive access to business proprietary information under APO can be found at 19 CFR 351.304-306. Note that Commerce has temporarily modified certain of its requirements for serving documents containing business proprietary information, until further notice.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Temporary Rule Modifying AD/CVD Service Requirements Due to</E>
                         COVID-19, 85 FR 41363 (July 10, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Required From Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>
                    Domestic interested parties, as defined in sections 771(9)(C), (D), (E), (F), and (G) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.102(b), wishing to participate in a Sunset Review must respond not later than 15 days after the date of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of this notice of initiation by filing a notice of intent to participate. The required contents of the notice of intent to participate are set forth at 19 CFR 351.218(d)(1)(ii). In accordance with Commerce's regulations, if we do not receive a notice of intent to participate from at least one domestic interested party by the 15-day deadline, Commerce will automatically revoke the order without further review.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.218(d)(1)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If we receive an order-specific notice of intent to participate from a domestic interested party, Commerce's regulations provide that 
                    <E T="03">all parties</E>
                     wishing to participate in a Sunset Review must file complete substantive responses not later than 30 days after the date of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of this notice of initiation. The required contents of a substantive response, on an order-specific basis, are set forth at 19 CFR 351.218(d)(3). Note that certain information requirements differ for respondent and domestic parties. Also, note that Commerce's information requirements are distinct from the ITC 's information requirements. Consult Commerce's regulations for information regarding Commerce's conduct of Sunset Reviews. Consult Commerce's regulations at 19 CFR part 351 for definitions of terms and for other general information concerning antidumping and countervailing duty proceedings at Commerce. Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on the day on which it is due.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Administrative Protective Order, Service, and Other Procedures in Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings; Final Rule,</E>
                         88 FR 67069 (September 29, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their comments, including footnotes. In these sunset reviews, we request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their comments, an executive summary for each issue raised in their comments. Further, we request that interested parties limit their public executive summary of each issue to no more than 450 words, not including citations. We intend to use the public executive summaries as the basis of the comment summaries included in the decision memorandum that will accompany the notice to be published in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40517"/>
                    the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Finally, we request that interested parties include footnotes for relevant citations in the public executive summary of each issue.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This notice of initiation is being published in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13376 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF610]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Research, Monitoring, and Management Activities on the South Farallon Islands, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge, California</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of incidental harassment authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) as amended, notification is hereby given that NMFS has issued an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge (USFWS Refuge) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to research, monitoring, and management activities on the South Farallon Islands, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge, California (CA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This authorization is effective from September 10, 2026, through September 9, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-research-monitoring-and-management-activities-south-farallon.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Krista Graham, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">MMPA Background and Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Among the exceptions is section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), which directs the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking by harassment of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made. The public has an opportunity to comment on the proposed IHA.
                </P>
                <P>Specifically, NMFS will issue an IHA if it finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence use (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other “means of effecting the least [practicable] adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence use (referred to here as “mitigation”). NMFS must also prescribe requirements for the monitoring and reporting of such takings. The definitions of key terms, such as “take,” “harassment,” and “negligible impact,” are found in the MMPA and NMFS' implementing regulations (see 16 U.S.C. 1362; 50 CFR 216.103).</P>
                <P>
                    On May 14, 2026, a notice of NMFS' proposal to issue an IHA to the USFWS Refuge for take of marine mammals incidental to research, monitoring, and management activities on the South Farallon Islands, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge, CA, was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (91 FR 27283). In that notice, NMFS provided estimates of the numbers, types, and methods of incidental take proposed for each species or stock, as well as the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures that would be required should the IHA be issued. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice also included an analysis to support NMFS' preliminary conclusions and determinations that the IHA, if issued, would satisfy the requirements of section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice included links to a draft IHA for review, along with other supporting documents.
                </P>
                <P>No comments were received during the public comment period. There are no changes to the specified activity, the species taken, the proposed numbers, types, or methods of take, or the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures in the proposed IHA notice. No new information that would change any of the preliminary analyses, conclusions, or determinations in the proposed IHA notice has become available since that notice was published, and, therefore, the preliminary analyses, conclusions, and determinations included in the proposed IHA are considered final.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the issuance of an IHA) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (IHAs with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS has determined that the issuance of the IHA qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) requires that each Federal agency ensure that any action it authorizes, funds, or carries out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. To ensure ESA compliance in issuing IHAs, NMFS consults internally whenever we propose to authorize take of endangered or threatened species.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No incidental take of ESA-listed species has been authorized or is expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40518"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, consistent with the requirements of section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS has issued an IHA to the USFWS Refuge for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to research, monitoring, and management activities on the South Farallon Islands, Farallon Islands National Wildlife Refuge, CA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kimberly Damon-Randall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13469 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Proposed Additions and Deletions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed additions to and deletions from the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Committee is proposing to add service(s) to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and delete product(s) and service(s) previously furnished by such agencies.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before: August 01, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 250 E Street SW, Suite 3100, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additions</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.3(b), the Committee intends to add the services requirements to the Procurement List as a mandatory purchase only for the contracting activities at the locations listed with the proposed qualified nonprofit agencies as the authorized source of supply. Prior to adding the service to the Procurement List, the Committee will consider other pertinent information, including information from Government personnel and relevant comments from interested parties regarding the Committee's intent to geographically limit this services requirement.</P>
                <P>The following service(s) are proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agencies listed:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</E>
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Courier Services
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, El Paso Field Office, 11541 Montana Avenue, El Paso, TX
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Tresco, Inc.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Fleet Management
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         U.S. Air Force, Robins Air Force Base, Robins AFB, GA, 375 Perry St., Building 255, Robins Air Force Base, GA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Skookum Education Services
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE, FA8501 AFSC PZIO
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Convenience Store
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, NGA Campus West, Convenience Store, 2301 Cass Avenue, St. Louis, MO
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         ServiceSource, Inc.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>The following product(s) and service(s) are proposed for deletion to the Procurement List:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Deletions</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Product(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">NSN(s)—Product Name(s):</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-00-149-1621—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 2 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 29
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        ″, Parchment
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7110-00-601-9821—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 3 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 48″, Black</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7110-00-601-9822—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 3 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 48″, Parchment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-00-601-9823—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 2 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 29
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        ″, Black
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7110-01-135-1997—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 3 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 48″, Gray</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-01-135-1998—Contemporary Bookcase, Steel, 2 shelf, 30″ x 13″ x 29
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        ″, Gray
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7110-00-128-0096—Credenza, Steel, 30″ x 18″ x 29″, Black</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7110-00-128-0546—Credenza, Steel, 30″ x 18″ x 29″, Parchment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-00-601-9835—Office Machine Stand, Steel, 23″ x 17
                        <FR>3/4</FR>
                        ″ x 26″, Black
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-00-601-9849—Office Machine Stand, Steel, 23″ x 17
                        <FR>3/4</FR>
                        ″ x 26″, Parchment
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7110-01-136-1563—Office Machine Stand, Steel, 23” x 17
                        <FR>3/4</FR>
                        ″ x 26″, Gray
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Sunshine Services, Knoxville, TN
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION, GSA/FAS FURNITURE SYSTEMS MGT DIV
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">NSN(s)—Product Name(s):</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-618-8121—Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal Armored, HEMTT, A4 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-619-4852—Front Panel Assembly, Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal, Armored, HEMTT, A4 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-619-4853—Side Assembly, Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal, Armored, HEMTT, A4 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-618-8124—Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal, Armored, FMTV, A1P2 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-619-3419—Front Panel Assembly, Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal, Armored, FMTV, A1P2 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-619-4855—Side Assembly, Combat Panel Identification Kit, Thermal, Armored, FMTV, A1P2 Platform</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-483-8699—Combat Identification Assembly, Multiple Platform Use, Side &amp; Rear, Tan</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-483-9056—Combat Identification Kit, FMTV Family of Platforms, Brown</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-398-7188—Combat Identification Kit, HMMWV 4 Liter AMB Platform, Brown</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-398-7197—Combat Identification Kit, HMMWV Armored Avenger, Brown</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-399-2936—Combat Identification Assembly, M9 Ace Platform, Side, Brown</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-538-4018—Side Assembly, Combat Identification Panel Kit, Thermal, Non-Armored, FMTV and HEMTT Vehicles</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2590-01-472-5884—Combat Identification Kit, HMMWV ECV Platform, Brown</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Crossroads Rehabilitation Center, Inc., Indianapolis, IN
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE ARMY, W6QK ACC-APG
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Publications Distribution
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         USDA Forest Service, Edith Green-Wendell Wyatt Federal Building, Upper Basement Level, Portland, OR, 1220 SW Third Avenue, Portland, OR
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Relay Resources, Portland, OR
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE, USDA FOREST SERVICE
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Janitorial Service
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         U.S, Army, Area Maintenance Support Activity (AMSA) #110, 2313 West State Street, New Castle, PA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Lark 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40519"/>
                        Enterprises, Inc., New Castle, PA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE ARMY, W6QK ACC-PICA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Administrative Services
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Social Security Administration, Sam Nunn Federal Building, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Suite 22T50, Atlanta, GA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Nobis Enterprises, Inc., Marietta, GA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION, SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Janitorial/Custodial
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         U.S. Army, Pueblo Army Depot Activity, Pueblo, CO, 45825 Hwy. 96 E, Pueblo, CO
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Pueblo Diversified Industries, Inc., Pueblo, CO
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE ARMY, W6QM MICC-FT CARSON
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Administrative Support Services
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Caribbean National Forest, Rio Grande, PR
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Fora Pathways, Inc., Garden City, NY
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13391 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Deletions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Deletions from the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action deletes product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date deleted from the Procurement List:</E>
                         August 02, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 250 E Street SW, Suite 3100, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On May 28, 2026 (91 FR 31706), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List. This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3.</P>
                <P>After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the service(s) listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.</P>
                <P>I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification</HD>
                <P>1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.</P>
                <P>2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the service(s) to the Government.</P>
                <P>3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service(s) deleted from the Procurement List.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">End of Certification</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the following product(s) and service(s) are deleted from the Procurement List:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Product(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7920-01-620-2689—Scrubber, Grout, Non-Scratch, Light Blue</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Industries for the Blind and Visually Impaired, Inc., West Allis, WI
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION, GSA/FSS GREATER SOUTHWEST ACQUISITI
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Administrative Support Services
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         US Army, Communications Security Logistics Activity, Fort Huachuca, AZ, 2133 Cushing Street, Fort Huachuca, AZ
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         DePaul Industries, Portland, OR
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE ARMY, W6QK ACC-APG CONT CT SW SECTOR
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13390 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: DOD-2026-OS-1486]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (OUSD(P&amp;R)), Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day information collection notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the 
                        <E T="03">Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,</E>
                         the OUSD(P&amp;R), announces a proposed public information collection and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof. Comments are invited on: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Consideration will be given to all comments received by August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Department of Defense, Office of the Director of Administration and Management, Oversight and Compliance Directorate, Regulatory Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Mailbox #24, Suite 05F16, Alexandria, VA 22350-1700.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name, docket number and title for this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to Military Community Advocacy, 4800 Mark Center Drive, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40520"/>
                        Suite 06G18, Alexandria, VA 22350, Dr. Lolita Allen, (571) 256-4371.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number:</E>
                     Pilot of the Coordinated Community Response (CCR) to Child and Domestic Abuse in Military (Phase 2); OMB Control Number 0704-PCCR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This information collection is necessary because it will inform the development and validation of the Coordinated Community Response (CCR) program which seeks to standardize coordinated community response to child and domestic abuse across all military branches in accordance with nationally recognized standards for victim advocacy and statutory requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and households.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IDC Survey</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,758.5 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     19,034.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     19,034.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">CCR Member and Manager Survey</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     67 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     2.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Total</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Number of Respondents:</E>
                     19,134.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     19,234.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Respondent Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,825.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On Occasion.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Stephanie J. Bost,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer, Department of Defense.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13366 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: DOD-2026-HA-1453]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Health Agency (DHA), Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, the DoD is modifying and reissuing a current system of records notice (SORN) titled, “Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) System, EDHA 20 DoD.” This system of records was originally established to collect and maintain records on Reportable Events involving Active Duty and Reserve personnel to support ongoing population-based health surveillance and activities within DoD, analyze and evaluate Reportable Events to identify risk factors and trends; prevent suicide behaviors, and implement Reportable Events within the DoD. This notice updates the system identifier, system's location, expands reporting to the Space Force and Coast Guard, clarifies its purpose, and revises the routine uses. The DoD is also modifying various other sections within the SORN to improve clarity or update information that has changed.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This system of records is effective upon publication; however, comments on the Routine Uses will be accepted on or before August 3, 2026. The Routine Uses are effective at the close of the comment period, unless comments have been received from interested members of the public that require modification and republication of the notice.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Department of Defense, Office of the Director of Administration and Management, Oversight and Compliance Directorate, Regulatory Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Attn: Mailbox #24, Suite 05F16, Alexandria, VA 22350-1700.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Charles Shedrick, Compliance Supervisor, Privacy and Civil Liberties Office, Defense Health Agency, 7700 Arlington Boulevard, Falls Church, VA 22042-5101; (703) 275-6363; 
                        <E T="03">dha.ncr.pcl.mbx.privacy-compliance@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The DoDSER is the official reporting system for deaths by suicide and suicide attempts among Service members in the U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine Corps, Navy, Space Force, and the Coast Guard. The system collects and integrates data on Reportable Events to enhance public health surveillance and support prevention efforts across the DoD. Through systematic data collection, analysis, and reporting, the system informs best practices, education, training, and policy development to reduce suicidal behaviors and Reportable Events among military personnel. Subject to public comment, the DoD proposes to update this SORN to add the standard DoD routine uses (routine uses A through J), and to change an existing routine use (Routine use K) disclosure outside DoD related to the purpose of this system of records. The following sections of this SORN are also being modified: (1) the Authority for Maintenance of the System section to update citation(s) and add additional authorities; (2) the Categories of Individuals Covered by the System section to expand the individuals covered and Categories of Records to clarify how the records relate to the revised Category of Individuals; (3) the Administrative, Technical, and Physical Safeguards to update the individual safeguards protecting the personal information; (4) the Retention and Disposal section to reflect the approved disposition; (5) the Record Access Procedures section to reflect the need for individuals to identify the DoD office or component to which their request should be directed; (6) the Contesting Records Procedures section to update the appropriate citation for contesting records; and (7) the System Manager and System Location sections to update the addresses and office names.</P>
                <P>
                    DoD SORNs have been published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and are available from the address in 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     or at the Oversight and Compliance Directorate, Privacy and Civil Liberties Division website at 
                    <E T="03">https://pclt.defense.gov/DIRECTORATES/Privacy-and-Civil-Liberties-Directorate/Privacy/SORNS/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Privacy Act, a “system of records” is a group of records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. In the Privacy Act, an individual is defined 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40521"/>
                    as a U.S. citizen or lawful permanent resident.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with 5 United States Code (U.S.C.) 552a(r) and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-108, DoD has provided a report of this system of records to the OMB and to Congress.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Stephanie J. Bost,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer, Department of Defense.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) System, EDHA 20 DoD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Tinker Air Force Base, 8705 Industrial Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73145-3064.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER:</HD>
                    <P>The system manager is Director, Psychological Health Center of Excellence, 7700 Arlington Blvd., Suite 5101, Box #22, Falls Church, VA 22041.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>10 U.S.C. Chapter 55, Medical and Dental Care; 10 U.S.C. 136, Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness; 10 U.S.C. 7013, Secretary of the Army; 10 U.S.C. 8013, Secretary of the Navy; 10 U.S.C. 9013, Secretary of the Air Force; DoD Manual (DoDM) 6025.18, Implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule in DOD Health Care Programs; DoD Instruction (DoDI) 6490.04, Mental Health Evaluations of Members of the Military Services; DoDI 6490.08, Command Notification Requirements to Dispel Stigma in Providing Mental Health Care to Service Members; DoDI 6490.16, Defense Suicide Prevention Program; DoD Directive (DoDD) 5136.01, Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)); DoDD 6490.02E, Comprehensive Health Surveillance; and E.O. 9397 (SSN), as amended.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>A. To establish, collect, and maintain integrated DoD enterprise and survey data to be used for direct reporting of Reportable Events involving individuals on Active Duty or serving in the Reserves, supporting ongoing population-based health surveillance activities and public health within DoD, and for analysis. Surveillance activities include the systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and reporting of outcome-specific data for use in planning and development of best practices, education, public health within DoD, and training on protocols for identifying, responding to, and managing individuals at increased risk of suicide; and implementation, evaluation, and prevention of suicide behaviors and Reportable Events within the DoD.</P>
                    <P>B. Records in this system may be made available to the Military Services to provide Service-level integrated enterprise and analysis data for Service-level direct reporting requirements; to provide the Services with data for planning, implementation, evaluation, and prevention of suicide behaviors; to support Service-level population-based health surveillance activities; to facilitate Service-level behavioral health and medical care and treatment programs; and, to the extent the information provided does not include personally identifiable information, to provide or permit compilation of command level reports and/or trend reporting at a military installation level.</P>
                    <P>C. Records in this system may be made available to DoD components that are designated as public health authorities within DoD to support DoD suicide prevention and resilience programs, provide DoD-wide comprehensive strategic approaches for suicide prevention, postvention, and surveillance; assist the Military Services to reduce the impact of suicidal self-directed violence on the readiness of the Military Services; fuse, analyze, and assess DoD-wide surveillance and research activities related to suicidal self-direct violence and other high risk activities to identify risk factors and key outcomes to inform suicide prevention policies and programs; and otherwise fulfill such DoD public health authority's responsibilities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Military Service members (active duty, Guard/Reserve and the Coast Guard personnel when operating as a military service with the Navy) with reportable suicide or self-directed violence (to include self-harm behaviors, suicide attempts, and suicidal ideation) while on active duty or serving as a member of the Reserves (Reportable Event).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>A. Personal information such as, name, Social Security Number (SSN), DoD Identification (DoD ID) number, date of birth, sex, race/ethnic group, marital status, rank/pay grade, religious preference, military service, military status, job title, service duty specialty code, duty environment/status, unit identification code, permanent duty station, temporary duty station (if applicable), home address, home phone number, and deployment history.</P>
                    <P>B. Medical Information: medical records, psychological records, social history, medical history including prior suicidal behaviors, event details, including prior suicidal behaviors; behavioral and developmental history, and behavioral records.</P>
                    <P>C. Reportable Event records: reportable event type or description; individual's residence at time of event; circumstances of event; potential precipitating factors and psychological stressors at the time of the event; post-intervention activities, and, if applicable, medical facility, unit or military treatment facility where the reportable event occurred.</P>
                    <P>D. Other records: individual's use of military and community helping services, past military experience, and legal records, event details, economic, education/training history; form completer information (name, rank/grade, and contact information); and data sources used to compile records.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>Records and information stored in this system of records are obtained from:</P>
                    <P>A. Individual, medical and behavioral health records; military personnel records; investigative agency records, pre and post deployment screening records, family advocacy records; court martial records; records related to manner of death such as casualty reports, toxicology/lab reports, and pathology/autopsy reports; suicide notes; interviews with individuals who knew the individual; and interviews with the individual for non-fatal self-directed violence.</P>
                    <P>
                        B. The Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS), information systems (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA), Composite Health Care System (CHCS)) maintained by a Defense Health Agency and the Services, and DoD enterprise data systems.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, all or a portion of the records or information contained herein may specifically be disclosed outside the DoD as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
                        <PRTPAGE P="40522"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>A. To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, students, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for the Federal government when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records.</P>
                    <P>B. To the appropriate Federal, State, local, territorial, tribal, foreign, or international law enforcement authority or other appropriate entity where a record, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether criminal, civil, or regulatory in nature.</P>
                    <P>C. To any component of the Department of Justice for the purpose of representing the DoD, or its components, officers, employees, or members in pending or potential litigation to which the record is relevant and necessary.</P>
                    <P>D. In an appropriate proceeding before a court, grand jury, or administrative or adjudicative body or official, when the DoD or other Agency representing the DoD determines that the records are relevant and necessary to the proceeding; or in an appropriate proceeding before an administrative or adjudicative body when the adjudicator determines the records to be relevant to the proceeding.</P>
                    <P>E. To the National Archives and Records Administration for the purpose of records management inspections conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.</P>
                    <P>F. To a Member of Congress or staff acting upon the Member's behalf when the Member or staff requests the information on behalf of, and at the request of, the individual who is the subject of the record.</P>
                    <P>G. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the DoD suspects or confirms a breach of the system of records; (2) the DoD determines as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, the DoD (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the DoD's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.</P>
                    <P>H. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the DoD determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <P>I. To another Federal, State or local agency, in coordination with an Office of Inspector General, for the purpose of conducting an audit, investigation, inspection, evaluation, or some other review as authorized by the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended.</P>
                    <P>J. To such recipients and under such circumstances and procedures as are mandated by Federal statute or treaty.</P>
                    <P>K. To the Department of Health and Human Services, Department of Homeland Security, to include the Coast Guard, and the Department of Veterans Affairs on matters relating to notifications, eligibility, and coordination of benefits.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note 1:</E>
                         This system of records contains protected health information (PHI). The DoD's implementation of HIPAA Rule compliance is prescribed in DoD Manual 6025.18, “Implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule in DoD Health Care Programs.” Additional requirements on the use and disclosure of PHI are detailed in the Manual.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note 2:</E>
                         Records of identity, diagnosis, prognosis or treatment information of any patient maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to substance abuse education, prevention, training, treatment, rehabilitation, or research which is conducted, regulated, or directly or indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States, will be treated as confidential and disclosed only for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized in 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2, Confidentiality of Records.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records may be stored electronically or on paper in secure facilities in a locked drawer behind a locked door. Electronic records may be stored locally on digital media; in agency-owned cloud environments; or in vendor Cloud Service Offerings certified under the Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records may be retrieved by individual's name, SSN, and/or DoD ID number.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A. 
                        <E T="03">DoDSER System Master File:</E>
                         Transfer to inactive storage when 25 years old. Destroy when 75 years old.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        B. 
                        <E T="03">DoDSER System Annual Reports:</E>
                         Cutoff annually after report is published. Transfer to National Archives and Records Administration 3 years after cutoff.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>The Department implements a variety of safeguards to protect its records. Administratively, the DoD safeguards records in this system of records according to applicable rules, policies, and procedures, including all applicable DoD automated systems security and access policies. Furthermore, all personnel with authorized access to the system must have appropriate and applicable Cyber Awareness, Privacy Act, and HIPAA training. Physical access to the system is restricted by the use of locks, access controls, and is accessible only to authorized personnel. Each system end user device is protected within a locked storage container room or building outside of normal business hours. All visitors or other persons without authorized access to server and/or network facilities are escorted by appropriately always screened/cleared personnel. Technically, the system is restricted by two-factor authentication including a Common Access Card (CAC) and personal identification number. To ensure accountability, all access to records is tracked by electronic audit logs; these audit logs are always on and are archived for historical review and tracking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking access to records about themselves contained in this system of records should address inquiries in writing to the DHA Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Service Center using the below procedures:</P>
                    <P>
                        DHA's preferred method of receiving FOIA requests is through the National FOIA portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.foia.gov,</E>
                         which provides customized forms for each agency. The site will also provide insight into the FOIA process including what to do before submitting a FOIA request, how to submit a request, and what happens after submitting a request.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">All proper requests must:</E>
                         (1) be submitted in writing, (2) include a full name and contact method (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         email address, phone number, and/or mailing address), (3) reasonably describe the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40523"/>
                        records sought, and 4) state a willingness to pay fees.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FOIA requests may alternatively be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">DHA.FOIA@mail.mil,</E>
                         via fax to 703-275-6386, or via mail to the DHA FOIA Service Center, 7700 Arlington Boulevard, Suite 5101, Falls Church, Virginia 22042-5101. In addition, the requester must provide either a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the appropriate format:
                    </P>
                    <P>If executed outside the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).”</P>
                    <P>If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>The DoD rules for accessing records, contesting contents, and appealing initial Component determinations are contained in 32 CFR part 310, or may be obtained from the system manager.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking to determine whether information about themselves is contained in this system of records should follow the instructions for Record Access Procedures above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>April 15, 2016, 81 FR 22240; May 6, 2010, 75 FR 24928.</P>
                </PRIACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13367 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Solicitation of Applications for Stakeholder Representative Members of the Missouri River Recovery Implementation Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Department of the Army, DoD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of solicitation of applications for stakeholder representative members of the Missouri River Recovery Implementation Committee.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commander of the Northwestern Division of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps) is soliciting applications to fill vacant stakeholder representative member positions on the Missouri River Recovery Implementation Committee (MRRIC). Members are sought to fill vacancies on a committee to represent various categories of interests within the Missouri River basin. The MRRIC was formed to advise the Corps on a study of the Missouri River and its tributaries and to provide guidance to the Corps with respect to the Missouri River recovery and mitigation activities currently underway. The Corps established the MRRIC as required by the U.S. Congress through the Water Resources Development Act of 2007 (WRDA), Section 5018.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The agency must receive completed applications and endorsement letters no later than July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mail completed applications and endorsement letters to U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District (Attn: CENWO-PMC/MRRIC), 1616 Capitol Avenue, Omaha, NE 68102-4901, or email completed applications to 
                        <E T="03">mrric@usace.army.mil.</E>
                         Please put “MRRIC” in the subject line.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Michelle McPherron, 402-803-0073.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The operation of the MRRIC is in the public interest and provides support to the Corps in performing its duties and responsibilities under Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     Authority: Sec. 601(a), Public Law 99-662, 100 Stat. 4082; Sec. 334(a), Public Law 106-53, 113 Stat. 269; and Sec. 5018, Public Law 110-114, 121 Stat. 1041. Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. 2, does not apply to the MRRIC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A Charter for the MRRIC has been developed and should be reviewed prior to applying for a stakeholder representative membership position on the Committee. The Charter, operating procedures, and stakeholder application forms are available electronically at 
                    <E T="03">www.nwo.usace.army.mil/mrrp/mrric/</E>
                     or by emailing 
                    <E T="03">mrric@usace.army.mil.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose and Scope of the Committee</HD>
                <P>
                    1. The primary purpose of the MRRIC is to provide guidance to the Corps with respect to the Missouri River recovery and mitigation plan currently in existence, including recommendations relating to changes to the implementation strategy from the use of adaptive management; coordination of the development of consistent policies, strategies, plans, programs, projects, activities, and priorities for the Missouri River recovery and mitigation plan. Information about the Missouri River Recovery Program is available at 
                    <E T="03">www.nwo.usace.army.mil/mrrp/mrric/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>2. Other duties of MRRIC include exchange of information regarding programs, projects, and activities of the agencies and entities represented on the Committee to promote the goals of the Missouri River recovery and mitigation plan; establishment of such working groups as the Committee determines to be necessary to assist in carrying out the duties of the Committee, including duties relating to public policy and scientific issues; and facilitating the resolution of interagency and intergovernmental conflicts between entities represented on the Committee associated with the Missouri River recovery and mitigation plan.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Administrative Support.</E>
                     To the extent authorized by law and subject to the availability of appropriations, the Corps provides funding and administrative support for the Committee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Committee Membership.</E>
                     Federal agencies with programs affecting the Missouri River may be members of the MRRIC through a separate process with the Corps. States and Federally recognized Native American Indian tribes, as described in the Charter, are eligible for Committee membership through an appointment process. Interested State and Tribal government representatives should contact the Corps for information about the appointment process.
                </P>
                <P>This Notice is for individuals interested in serving as a stakeholder member on the Committee. Members and their alternates must be able to demonstrate that they meet the definition of “stakeholder” found in the Charter of the MRRIC. Applications are currently being accepted for representation in the stakeholder interest categories listed below:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">a. Agriculture</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">b. At Large</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">c. Conservation Districts</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">d. Flood Control</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">e. Irrigation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">f. Local Government</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">g. Navigation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">h. Recreation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">i. Water Supply</FP>
                <P>
                    Terms of stakeholder representative members of the MRRIC are three years. There is no limit to the number of terms a member may serve. Incumbent Committee members seeking reappointment do not need to re-submit an application. However, renewal requests are not guaranteed re-selection and they must submit a renewal request letter and related materials as outlined in the “Streamlined Process for Existing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40524"/>
                    Members” portion of the document 
                    <E T="03">Process for Filling MRRIC Stakeholder Vacancies</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">www.nwo.usace.army.mil/mrrp/mrric/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>Members and alternates of the Committee will not receive any compensation from the federal government for carrying out the duties of the MRRIC. Travel expenses incurred by members of the Committee are currently reimbursed by the federal government.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Application for Stakeholder Membership.</E>
                     Persons who believe that they have a direct interest in the Missouri River recovery and mitigation activities may apply for stakeholder membership on the MRRIC. Committee members are obligated to avoid and disclose any individual ethical, legal, financial, or other conflicts of interest they may have involving MRRIC. Applicants must disclose on their application if they are directly employed by a government agency or program (the term “government” encompasses state, tribal, and federal agencies and/or programs).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Applications for stakeholder membership may be obtained by emailing 
                    <E T="03">mrric@usace.army.mil.</E>
                     Applications may be emailed or mailed to the location listed (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ). In order to be considered, each application must include:
                </P>
                <P>1. The name of the applicant and the primary stakeholder interest category that person is qualified to represent;</P>
                <P>2. A written statement describing the applicant's area of expertise and why the applicant believes he or she should be appointed to represent that area of expertise on the MRRIC;</P>
                <P>3. A written statement describing how the applicant's participation as a Stakeholder Representative will fulfill the roles and responsibilities of MRRIC;</P>
                <P>4. A written description of the applicant's past experience(s) working collaboratively with a group of individuals representing varied interests towards achieving a mutual goal, and the outcome of the effort(s);</P>
                <P>5. A written description of the communication network that the applicant plans to use to inform his or her constituents and to gather their feedback, and</P>
                <P>6. A written endorsement letter from an organization, local government body, or formal constituency, which demonstrates that the applicant represents an interest group(s) in the Missouri River basin.</P>
                <P>
                    To be considered, the application must be completed and received by the close of business on July 31, 2026, at the location indicated (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ). Applications must include an endorsement letter to be considered complete. Full consideration will be given to all complete applications received by the specified due date.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Application Review Process.</E>
                     Committee stakeholder applications will be forwarded to the current members of the MRRIC. The MRRIC will provide membership recommendations to the Corps as described in Attachment A of the 
                    <E T="03">Process for Filling MRRIC Stakeholder Vacancies</E>
                     document (
                    <E T="03">www.nwo.usace.army.mil/mrrp/mrric/</E>
                    ). The Corps is responsible for appointing stakeholder members. The Corps will consider applications using the following criteria:
                </P>
                <P>• Ability to commit the time required.</P>
                <P>• Commitment to make a good faith (as defined in the Charter) effort to seek balanced solutions that address multiple interests and concerns.</P>
                <P>• Agreement to support and adhere to the approved MRRIC Charter and Operating Procedures.</P>
                <P>• Demonstration of a formal designation or endorsement by an organization, local government, or constituency as its preferred representative.</P>
                <P>• Demonstration of an established communication network to keep constituents informed and efficiently seek their input when needed.</P>
                <P>• Agreement to participate in collaboration training as a condition of membership.</P>
                <P>All applicants will be notified in writing as to the final decision about their application.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                     I hereby certify that the establishment of the MRRIC is necessary and in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed on the Corps by the Endangered Species Act and other statutes.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William C. Hannan, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Brigadier General, U.S. Army, Commanding.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13394 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3720-58-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2572-141]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Great Lakes Hydro America, LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Preliminary Terms and Conditions, and Preliminary Fishway Prescriptions</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     New Major License.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     2572-141.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date Filed:</E>
                     September 30, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Great Lakes Hydro America, LLC (GLHA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Ripogenus Hydroelectric Project (Ripogenus Project).
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     On the West Branch of the Penobscot River (West Branch) in Piscataquis and Penobscot Counties, Maine.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 791 (a)—825(r).
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Michael Scarzello, Licensing Manager, Brookfield Renewable N.A., 399 Big Bay Road, Queensbury, NY 12804; (315) 566-0197; 
                    <E T="03">Michael.scarzello@brookfieldrenewable.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Allan Creamer at (202) 502-8365; 
                    <E T="03">allan.creamer@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary fishway prescriptions:</E>
                     August 28, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time; reply comments are due October 12, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary fishway prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx</E>
                    . Commenters can submit brief comments up to 10,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/QuickComment.aspx</E>
                    . For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852. The first page of any filing should include docket number P-2572-141.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40525"/>
                    files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
                </P>
                <P>k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">Project Description:</E>
                     The Ripogenus Project is located about 21 river miles upstream of the Penobscot Mills Project No. 2458, and consists of: (1) the project impoundment, which (a) is about 20.8 miles long, (b) has a surface area of about 29,270 acres at a normal full pond elevation of 941.59 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum of 1929 (NGVD 29), and (c) has a usable storage of about 688,705 acre-feet, with a maximum drawdown of 44 feet (to elevation 897.59 feet NGVD 29); and (2) Umbazooksus Lake, which has a surface area of 1,600 acres. Ripogenus dam is 795 feet long and includes two concrete spillway sections, an intake section, a gated sluice section, and an earthen section.
                </P>
                <P>Water flows from the project impoundment through a single intake structure, which directs water through a tunnel and penstocks to the powerhouse (McKay Station). The powerhouse contains three turbine-generating units, with a total rated capacity of 37.5 megawatts. Power generated at the project is transmitted to the electric grid via three transformers and a 29.4-mile-long transmission line. An additional 0.75-mile-long transmission line extends from the McKay Substation to Ripogenus dam. The project also contains one battery energy storage site that is used to enhance system reliability. The Ripogenus Project is operated as a store-and-release development, with an annual seasonal drawdown that allows for management of water levels and flows downstream of the project. GLHA releases a seasonal minimum flow of 100 cubic feet per second (cfs) into the dewatered section of the West Branch downstream of Ripogenus dam from July 1 through September 30, and 12 cfs leakage the remainder of the year, as well as seasonally, variable flows through the McKay Station generating units to the West Branch to protect aquatic habitat and to provide whitewater boating opportunities. GLHA also releases 400 cfs from McKay Station to the West Branch during outages of the generating units, and diverts 35 to 65 cfs (depending on flow conditions in the West Branch) flow to the Holbrook side channel, seasonally, to enhance aquatic habitat. The project provides storage capacity to reduce downstream flooding and provide releases during droughts. Additional details regarding the Ripogenus Project facilities and operation can be found in Exhibit A (Ripogenus Project) and Exhibit B of the license application, which can be accessed by following the instructions in item m.</P>
                <P>GLHA proposes to continue operating the Ripogenus Project as a store-and-release facility. GLHA would continue to: (1) release flows ranging from 12 to 100 cfs from Ripogenus dam to the bypassed reach; (2) provide a station outage flow of 400 cfs downstream of McKay Station; (3) continue to operate and maintain the Holbrook side channel as habitat for Atlantic salmon and brook trout; (4) maintain the 200-foot conservation buffer and 100-foot vegetation buffer around the Ripogenus impoundment; and (5) maintain Umbazooksus Lake as wetland and wildlife habitat. GLHA also proposes to: (1) provide a year-round minimum flow of 1,700 cfs downstream of McKay Station for aquatic habitat; (2) provide seasonally-adjusted flows for whitewater boating; (3) fund the installation, operation, and maintenance of a U.S. Geological Survey flow gage downstream of McKay Station (near Big Eddy); (4) post impoundment level and flow information on Brookfield Renewable, N.A.'s SafeWaters website; and (5) develop a recreation plan, shoreline management plan, common loon management plan, and historic properties management plan.</P>
                <P>
                    m. A copy of the application can be viewed on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov,</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number, excluding the last three digits in the docket number field, to access the document (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     P-2572). For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support. A copy is also available for inspection and reproduction at the address in item h above.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Register online at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on, or before, the specified comment date for the particular application.</P>
                <P>All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST,” “MOTION TO INTERVENE,” “COMMENTS,” “REPLY COMMENTS,” “RECOMMENDATIONS,” “PRELIMINARY TERMS AND CONDITIONS,” or ” PRELIMINARY FISHWAY PRESCRIPTIONS;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed on the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.</P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595, or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>o. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time July 29, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    p. 
                    <E T="03">Procedural schedule:</E>
                     The application will be processed according to the following preliminary schedule. Revisions to the schedule will be made as appropriate.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r75">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Milestone</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Target date</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Filing of Motions to Intervene, Protests, Comments, Recommendations, Preliminary Terms and Conditions, and Preliminary Fishway Prescriptions</ENT>
                        <ENT>August 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40526"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Filing of Reply Comments</ENT>
                        <ENT>October 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>q. The applicant must file the following on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time August 28, 2026: (1) a copy of the water quality certification; (2) a copy of the request for certification, including proof of the date on which the certifying agency received the request; or (3) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13459 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2458-273]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Great Lakes Hydro America, LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Preliminary Terms and Conditions, and Preliminary Fishway Prescriptions</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     New Major License.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     2458-273.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date Filed:</E>
                     September 30, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Great Lakes Hydro America, LLC (GLHA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Penobscot Mills Hydroelectric Project (Penobscot Mills Project).
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     On the West Branch of the Penobscot River (West Branch) and Millinocket Stream in Piscataquis and Penobscot Counties, Maine.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 791 (a)-825(r).
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Michael Scarzello, Licensing Manager, Brookfield Renewable N.A., 399 Big Bay Road, Queensbury, NY 12804; (315) 566-0197; 
                    <E T="03">Michael.scarzello@brookfieldrenewable.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Allan Creamer at (202) 502-8365; 
                    <E T="03">allan.creamer@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary fishway prescriptions:</E>
                     August 28, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time; reply comments are due October 12, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary fishway prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx.</E>
                     Commenters can submit brief comments up to 10,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/QuickComment.aspx.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852. The first page of any filing should include docket number P-2458-273.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.</P>
                <P>k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">Project Description:</E>
                     The Penobscot Mills Project consists of: (1) four hydropower developments (North Twin, Millinocket, Dolby, and East Millinocket; located between river mile 15 and river mile 2 on the West Branch that includes (a) water retaining features (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     dam/spillway, flashboards/rubber dam, and dikes), (b) water conduits/canals and penstocks, (c) intake structures equipped with trash racks, (d) four powerhouses, and (e) transmission equipment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     transmission lines); (2) a pool-and-weir fish passage facility at North Twin; and (3) one storage development (Millinocket Lake Storage Development; located on Millinocket Stream). The total rated capacity of the project is 67.9 megawatts. The North Twin impoundment is at the upstream end of the Penobscot Mills Project and receives flow from the Ripogenus Project No. 2572. Releases from the North Twin Development pass through three other developments (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Millinocket, Dolby, and East Millinocket). The Millinocket Lake Storage Development includes a pumping station through which water can be pumped to Ambajejus Lake (within the North Twin impoundment). Water not pumped to Ambajejus Lake is discharged to Millinocket Stream, which enters the West Branch at Shad Pond, downstream of the Millinocket Development, then passes through the Dolby and East Millinocket Developments. The project also includes two battery energy sites that operate as a single battery energy storage system to enhance system reliability.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The five developments of the Penobscot Mills Project are operated as an integrated system, along with upstream storage projects, including the Ripogenus Project, to manage water levels and flows downstream from the project. GLHA operates the North Twin Development as a store-and-release facility, and uses storage in the Millinocket Lake Storage impoundment, as necessary, to maintain North Twin Lake levels. The two storage developments (North Twin and Millinocket Lake Storage) are located upstream of the run-of-release developments (Millinocket, Dolby, and East Millinocket). GLHA releases a minimum flow of 60 cubic feet per second (cfs) from the Millinocket Storage Lake impoundment into Millinocket Stream, as well as a continuous minimum flow in the West Branch downstream of the North Twin Development (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     3,000 cfs from August 22 through October 15, provided impoundment elevation exceeds 488.42 feet; otherwise sufficient flow is released to meet a 2,000-cfs minimum flow requirement downstream of Shad Pond). Additional details regarding the Penobscot Mills Project facilities and operation can be found in Exhibit A (Penobscot Mills Project) and Exhibit B of the license application, which can be accessed by following the instructions in item m.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40527"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">GLHA proposes to continue to operate:</E>
                     (1) the North Twin Development for generation and seasonal storage, with target impoundment elevations of 490.42 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum of 1929 (NGVD 29) from May 1 through August 21 and 488.42 feet NGVD 29 from August 22 through October 15, and provide flows necessary to meet the 3,000/2,000-cfs flow requirement in the West Branch downstream of Shad Pond; (2) the Millinocket Lake Storage Development to (a) maintain impoundment elevations between 470 feet and 480 feet NGVD 29, and (b) provide a minimum flow of 60 cfs, or inflow (seasonally), to Millinocket Stream; and (3) the Millinocket, Dolby, and East Millinocket Developments as run-of-release facilities. GLHA also proposes to: (1) continue to operate and maintain the upstream pool-and-weir fish passage structure at North Twin dam; (2) post lake level (for North Twin and Millinocket Lake Storage) and streamflow information on Brookfield Renewable, N.A.'s SafeWaters website; (3) maintain the 200-foot conservation buffer and 100-foot vegetation buffer around the Millinocket Lake Storage, North Twin, Millinocket, and Dolby impoundments; and (4) maintain Umbazooksus Lake as wetland and wildlife habitat. Lastly, GLHA also proposes to: (1) release a year-round 200-cfs minimum flow from Stone dam; (2) provide American eel passage, conduct eel studies, and develop a fishway operations and maintenance plan; (3) provide seasonal whitewater boating flows of 600 cfs in Millinocket Stream; and (4) develop an updated wildlife management area plan, a recreation plan, a shoreline management plan, and a historic properties management plan.
                </P>
                <P>
                    m. A copy of the application can be viewed on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov,</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number, excluding the last three digits in the docket number field, to access the document (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     P-2458). For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support. A copy is also available for inspection and reproduction at the address in item h above.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Register online at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on, or before, the specified comment date for the particular application.</P>
                <P>All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST,” “MOTION TO INTERVENE,” “COMMENTS,” “REPLY COMMENTS,” “RECOMMENDATIONS,” “PRELIMINARY TERMS AND CONDITIONS,” or “PRELIMINARY FISHWAY PRESCRIPTIONS;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed on the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.</P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595, or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>o. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time July 29, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    p. 
                    <E T="03">Procedural schedule:</E>
                     The application will be processed according to the following preliminary schedule. Revisions to the schedule will be made as appropriate.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s150,r60">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Milestone</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Target date</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Filing of Motions to Intervene, Protests, Comments, Recommendations, Preliminary Terms and Conditions, and Preliminary Fishway Prescriptions</ENT>
                        <ENT>August 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Filing of Reply Comments</ENT>
                        <ENT>October 2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    q. 
                    <E T="03">The applicant must file the following on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time August 28, 2026:</E>
                     (1) a copy of the water quality certification; (2) a copy of the request for certification, including proof of the date on which the certifying agency received the request; or (3) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13461 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2146-285]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Alabama Power Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     Non-Project Use of Project Lands and Waters.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     2146-285.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date Filed:</E>
                     February 17, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Alabama Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Coosa River Hydroelectric Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Weiss Lake Development of the Coosa River Hydroelectric Project in Cherokee County, Alabama.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 791 (a)-825(r).
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Nicole Cotton, Alabama Power Company, (205) 353-8146, 
                    <E T="03">nmcotton@southernco.com</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Shana High, (202) 502-8674, 
                    <E T="03">shana.high@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Cooperating agencies:</E>
                     With this notice, the Commission is inviting federal, state, local, and Tribal agencies 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40528"/>
                    with jurisdiction and/or special expertise with respect to environmental issues affected by the proposal, that wish to cooperate in the preparation of any environmental document, if applicable, to follow the instructions for filing such requests described in item k. below. Cooperating agencies should note the Commission's policy that agencies that cooperate in the preparation of any environmental document cannot also intervene. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     94 FERC ¶ 61,076 (2001).
                </P>
                <P>
                    k. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests:</E>
                     July 29, 2026, 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling.asp.</E>
                     Commenters can submit brief comments up to 6,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/ecomment.asp.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The first page of any filing should include the docket number P-2146-285. Comments emailed to Commission staff are not part of the Commission record.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">Description of Request:</E>
                     Alabama Power Company is requesting Commission authorization to permit The Retreat at Spring Creek to construct eight camper pads with metal covers, utility pads, and concrete patio pads, as well as two pole barns, and associated access roads and fencing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    m. 
                    <E T="03">Locations of the application:</E>
                     This filing may be viewed on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document. You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, call 1-866-208-3676 or email 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     for TTY, call (202) 502-8659. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant.
                </P>
                <P>n. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    o. 
                    <E T="03">Comments, Protests, or Motions to Intervene:</E>
                     Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, .214, respectively. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    p. 
                    <E T="03">Filing and Service of Documents:</E>
                     Any filing must: (1) bear in all capital letters the title “COMMENTS”, “PROTEST”, or “MOTION TO INTERVENE” as applicable; (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person commenting, protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, motions to intervene, or protests must set forth their evidentiary basis. Any filing made by an intervenor must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    q. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202)502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13462 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following Accounting Request filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     AC26-92-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC submits journal entries to clear the sale of certain assets located in Michigan from Account 102.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5230.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/17/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     AC26-93-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC submits journal entries to record the original cost and the depreciation and amortization applicable to the original cost of electric plant acquired from Consumers Energy Company, etc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5249.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/17/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-115-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ArcLight Capital Partners, LLC, DigitalBridge Group, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Joint Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of ArcLight Capital Partners, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260622-5398.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/21/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-115-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ArcLight Capital Partners, LLC, DigitalBridge Group, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     ArcLight Capital Partners, LLC, et al. submit errata to the 06/22/2026 Joint Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260625-5239.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-117-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Mountain Peak Power, LLC, Canyon Peak Power LLC.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40529"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Joint Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of Mountain Peak Power, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260625-5260.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/16/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-267-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Zydeco Solar LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Zydeco Solar LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/17/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER10-3079-026; ER10-3078-008; ER19-2564-006.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Hickory Run Energy, LLC, Commonwealth Chesapeake Company LLC, Tyr Energy LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Updated Market Power Analysis for Northeast Region of Tyr Energy, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260625-5253.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER17-433-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eagle Point Power Generation LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5178.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER18-534-009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Montpelier Generating Station, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5183.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER18-535-009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Yankee Street, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5193.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER18-536-009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     O.H. Hutchings CT, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5189.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER18-537-009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Monument Generating Station, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5186.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER18-538-010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Sidney, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5191.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1948-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Order Nos. 845 and 845-A Transmission Interconnection Studies Report of PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     8/14/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250814-5231.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER21-573-007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Chalk Point Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5175.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER21-574-007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Dickerson Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing for the Northeast Region to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5177.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER21-575-007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Lanyard Power Marketing, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Market: Triennial Market-Based Rate Update Filing to be effective 6/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5179.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-2869-002; ER24-2715-003; ER25-127-002; ER26-2449-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Rocky Forge Wind, LLC, Wheatsborough Solar, LLC, Timbermill Wind, LLC, Downeast Wind, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Triennial Market Power Analysis for Northeast Region of Downeast Wind, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5255.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2221-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Formal Challenge of Joint Customers of Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260625-5263.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/16/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-3417-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     WS-Sarish LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Triennial Market Power Analysis for Northeast Region of WS-Sarish, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5254.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-454-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Response to Deficiency Letters to be effective 12/31/9998.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5167.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-1957-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Response to Commission's 5/29/26 Deficiency Letter in ER26-1957-000 to be effective 5/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5124.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2000-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., Entergy Services, LLC, Entergy Arkansas, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Entergy Arkansas, LLC submits tariff filing per 35.17(b): 2026-06-29_Deficiency Response Entergy OpCo Company Specific Attachment GG to be effective 6/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5152.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2017-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Avangrid Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Compliance Filing Concerning MBR Tariff to Reflect Participation in CAISO's EDAM to be effective 4/28/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5122.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2018-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Solar Star Oregon II, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Compliance Filing Concerning MBR Tariff to Reflect Participation in CAISO's EDAM to be effective 4/28/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5121.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2147-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     45MG 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Response to Deficiency Notice to be effective 4/14/2026.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40530"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5125.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2979-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Proposal to Clarify Penalties Assessed for Incorrect Cost-Based Offers to be effective 8/26/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5184.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/17/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2980-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-06-29_SA 4792 NSP-Harmony Solar ND GIA (S1079) to be effective 6/23/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5066.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2981-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., American Transmission Company LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: American Transmission Company LLC submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: 2026-06-29_SA 4795 ATC-NextEra Energy E&amp;P (J2520) to be effective 8/29/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5067.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2982-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Surplus SLIGA -Rocket Storage SI-31 (S.A. No. 1215) to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5073.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2983-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Blossom Solar, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Initial Rate Filing: Blossom Solar MBR Application to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5082.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2984-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Honeysuckle Solar, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Honeysuckle Solar—Revisions to MBR Tariff to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5105.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2985-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Juliet Energy Project, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Juliet Energy Project—Revisions to MBR Tariff to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5108.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2986-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     California Independent System Operator Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-06-29 EDAM/DAME Reconciliation Filing with updated baseline language to be effective 5/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5123.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2987-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     New York Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: NYISO Compliance: Order No. 1920—Regional Transmission Planning Process to be effective 8/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5142.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2988-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Louisville Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: EKPC Cooper CIAC RS No. 536 to be effective 8/28/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5145.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2989-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Carolina Power Partners, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Normal filing 2026 change in status to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5154.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2990-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of Colorado.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-06-29 PLGIA—939—0.0.0 to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5155.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2991-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Louisville Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: PJM AFS Agreement FERC Rate Schedule No. 537 to be effective 6/30/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5157.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2992-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Kentucky Utilities Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: KU Concurrence EKPC Cooper CIAC FERC No. 536 to be effective 8/28/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5168.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/20/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ES26-55-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     NextEra Energy Transmission Southwest, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application Under Section 204 of the Federal Power Act for Authorization to Issue Securities of NextEra Energy Transmission Southwest, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/25/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260625-5262.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/16/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13426 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FA21-5-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Commonwealth Edison Company; Updated Notice of Designation of Commission Staff as Non-Decisional</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    With respect to an order issued by the Commission on December 8, 2023, in the above-captioned docket, with the exceptions noted below, the staff of the Office of Enforcement and Regulatory Accounting are designated as non-
                    <PRTPAGE P="40531"/>
                    decisional in deliberations by the Commission in this docket.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, pursuant to 18 CFR 385.2202 (2025), they will not serve as advisors to the Commission or take part in the Commission's review of any offer of settlement. Likewise, as non-decisional staff, pursuant to 18 CFR 385.2201, they are prohibited from communicating with advisory staff concerning any deliberations in this docket.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Commonwealth Edison Co.,</E>
                         185 FERC ¶ 61,179 (2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Exceptions to this designation as non-decisional are:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jennifer Gordon</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laura Vallance</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Olga Anguelova</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kim Horner</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Todd Kuzniewski</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nkosi Brooks</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jamie Marcos</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13463 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PF26-6-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>ANR Pipeline Company; Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues for the Planned Northwoods Project, and Notice of Public Scoping Sessions</SUBJECT>
                <P>The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental document that will discuss the environmental effects of the Northwoods Project involving construction and operation of facilities by ANR Pipeline Company (ANR) in Florence, Marinette, Forest, Oconto, Calumet, Shawano, Fond du Lac, Outagamie, Waupaca, Brown, Portage, and Winnebago Counties, Wisconsin; and Iron County, Michigan. The Commission will use this environmental document in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies regarding the project. As part of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) review process, the Commission takes into account concerns the public may have about proposals and the environmental effects that could result from its action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. This gathering of public input is referred to as “scoping.” The main goal of the scoping process is to focus the analysis in the environmental document on the important environmental issues. Additional information about the Commission's NEPA process is described below in the 
                    <E T="03">NEPA Process and Environmental Document</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    By this notice, the Commission requests public comments on the scope of issues to address in the environmental document. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 29, 2026. Comments may be submitted in written or oral form. Further details on how to submit comments are provided in the 
                    <E T="03">Public Participation</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental effects. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the environmental document. Commission staff will consider all written and oral comments during the preparation of the environmental document.</P>
                <P>If you submitted comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on March 12, 2026, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. PF26-6-000 to ensure they are considered.</P>
                <P>This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.</P>
                <P>If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the planned facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable easement agreement. You are not required to enter into an agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, the Natural Gas Act conveys the right of eminent domain to the company. Therefore, if you and the company do not reach an easement agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings in court. In such instances, compensation would be determined by a judge in accordance with state law. The Commission does not subsequently grant, exercise, or oversee the exercise of that eminent domain authority. The courts have exclusive authority to handle eminent domain cases; the Commission has no jurisdiction over these matters.</P>
                <P>
                    A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” addresses typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. This fact sheet along with other landowner topics of interest are available for viewing on the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the Natural Gas, Landowner Topics link.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    There are four methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. Please carefully follow these instructions so that your comments are properly recorded. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has staff available to assist you at (866) 208-3676 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to FERC Online. Using eComment is an easy method for submitting brief, text-only comments on a project;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) You can file your comments electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is also on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to FERC Online. With eFiling, you can provide comments in a variety of formats by attaching them as a file with your submission. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; a comment on a particular project is considered a “Comment on a Filing”;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the Commission. Be sure to reference the project docket number (PF26-6-000) on your letter. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40532"/>
                    Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852; or
                </P>
                <P>(4) In lieu of sending written comments, the Commission invites you to attend one of the public scoping sessions its staff will conduct in the project area, scheduled as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Date and time</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tuesday, July 14, 2026, 4:30-6:30 pm Central Daylight Time (CDT)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Waubee Lake Lodge, 18398 Waubee Park Lane, Lakewood, WI 54138, (715) 276-6091.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wednesday, July 15, 2026, 4:30-6:30 pm CDT</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mastodon Township Hall, 1371 US-2 E, Crystal Falls, MI 49920, (906) 875-6232.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Thursday, July 16, 2026, 4:30-6:30 pm CDT</ENT>
                        <ENT>Shawano Civic Center, 225 S. Main Street, Shawano, WI 54166, (715) 526-9311.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The primary goal of these scoping sessions is to have you identify the specific environmental issues and concerns that should be considered in the environmental document. Individual oral comments will be taken on a one-on-one basis with a court reporter. This format is designed to receive the maximum amount of oral comments in a convenient way during the timeframe allotted.</P>
                <P>
                    Each scoping session is scheduled from 4:30 p.m. to 6:30 p.m. Central Daylight Time. You may arrive at any time after the scheduled start time. There will not be a formal presentation by Commission staff when the session opens. If you wish to speak, the Commission staff will hand out numbers in the order of your arrival. Comments will be taken until 6:30 p.m. However, if no additional numbers have been handed out and all individuals who wish to provide comments have had an opportunity to do so, staff may conclude the session at 6:00 p.m. Please see appendix 1 for additional information on the session format and conduct.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The appendices referenced in this notice will not appear in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Copies of the appendices were sent to all those receiving this notice in the mail and are available at 
                        <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                         using the link called “eLibrary.” For instructions on connecting to eLibrary, refer to the last page of this notice. For assistance, contact FERC at 
                        <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov</E>
                         or call toll free, (886) 208-3676 or TTY (202) 502-8659.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Your scoping comments will be recorded by a court reporter (with FERC staff or representative present) and become part of the public record for this proceeding. Transcripts will be publicly available on FERC's eLibrary system (see the last page of this notice for instructions on using eLibrary). If a significant number of people are interested in providing oral comments in the one-on-one settings, a time limit of 5 minutes may be implemented for each commentor.</P>
                <P>It is important to note that the Commission provides equal consideration to all comments received, whether filed in written form or provided orally at a scoping session. Although there will not be a formal presentation, Commission staff will be available throughout the scoping session to answer your questions about the environmental review process. Representatives from ANR will also be present to answer project-specific questions.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription, which makes it easy to stay informed of all issuances and submittals regarding the dockets/projects to which you subscribe. These instant email notifications are the fastest way to receive notification and provide a link to the document files which can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202)502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of the Planned Project</HD>
                <P>According to ANR, its project would expand ANR's system to provide up to 390,000 dekatherms per day of incremental firm transportation capacity to support the Midwest's increasing demand for natural gas fired power generation driven by electrical load growth for homes and businesses in Wisconsin. The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 2.</P>
                <P>The planned Northwoods Project would consist of the following facilities:</P>
                <P>
                    • 92 miles of 36-inch-diameter pipeline loop,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and appurtenant facilities in Iron County, Michigan and Florence, Marinette, Oconto, and Shawano Counties, Wisconsin;
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         A pipeline loop is a segment of pipe constructed parallel to an existing pipeline to increase capacity.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• one new 4,700-horsepower greenfield compressor station in Shawano County, Wisconsin (Shawano Compressor Station);</P>
                <P>• one new greenfield meter station in Calumet County, Wisconsin (Forest Junction Meter Station);</P>
                <P>
                    • associated valves, pig launchers, and receivers; 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         A “pig” is a tool that the pipeline company pushes through the pipeline for cleaning the pipeline, conducting of internal inspections, or other purposes. A launcher/receiver is an aboveground facility where pigs are inserted or retrieved from the pipeline.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• modification of 14 existing meter stations and associated ancillary equipment in Shawano, Forest, Outagamie, Waupaca, Brown, Winnebago, Oconto, Portage, Fond du Lac, and Marinette Counties, Wisconsin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Land Requirements for Construction</HD>
                <P>Construction of the planned facilities would disturb about 1,526 acres of land for the pipeline and aboveground facilities. Following construction, ANR would maintain about 633 acres for permanent operation of the project facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. About 99 percent of the planned pipeline route parallels existing pipeline infrastructure.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NEPA Process and the Environmental Document</HD>
                <P>Any environmental document issued by Commission staff will discuss effects that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under the relevant general resource areas:</P>
                <P>• geology and soils;</P>
                <P>• water resources and wetlands;</P>
                <P>• vegetation and wildlife;</P>
                <P>• threatened and endangered species;</P>
                <P>• cultural resources;</P>
                <P>• land use, recreation, and visual resources;</P>
                <P>• socioeconomics;</P>
                <P>• air quality and noise; and</P>
                <P>• reliability and safety.</P>
                <P>Commission staff have already identified areas that deserve attention based on a preliminary review of the planned facilities and the environmental information provided by ANR. This preliminary list may change based on your comments and our analysis:</P>
                <P>• crossing lands owned or maintained by federal and state agencies;</P>
                <P>• horizontal directional drilling of environmental resources; and</P>
                <P>• crossing waterbodies and wetlands where threatened, endangered and/or sensitive species have potential to occur.</P>
                <P>
                    Commission staff will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the planned project or portions of the project and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid effects on the various resource areas. Your comments will help Commission staff identify and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40533"/>
                    focus on the issues that might affect the human environment and potentially eliminate others from further study and discussion in the environmental document.
                </P>
                <P>Although no formal application has been filed, Commission staff have already initiated a NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the Commission receives an application. As part of the pre-filing review, Commission staff will contact federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the environmental document.</P>
                <P>
                    If a formal application is filed, Commission staff will then determine whether to prepare an Environmental Assessment (EA) or an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). The EA or the EIS will present Commission staff's independent analysis of the environmental issues. If Commission staff prepares an EA, a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment</E>
                     will be issued. The EA may be issued for an allotted public comment period. The Commission would consider timely comments on the EA before making its determination on the proposed project. If Commission staff prepares an EIS, a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Intent to Prepare an EIS/Notice of Schedule</E>
                     will be issued once an application is filed, which will open an additional public comment period. Staff will then prepare a draft EIS that will be issued for public comment. Commission staff will consider all timely comments received during the comment period on the draft EIS, and revise the document, as necessary, before issuing a final EIS. Any EA or draft and final EIS will be available in electronic format in the public record through eLibrary 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Commission's natural gas environmental documents web page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/industries-data/natural-gas/environment/environmental-documents</E>
                    ). If eSubscribed, you will receive instant email notification when the environmental document is issued.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For instructions on connecting to eLibrary, refer to the last page of this notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With this notice, the Commission is asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document. Agencies that would like to request cooperating agency status should follow the instructions for filing comments provided under the 
                    <E T="03">Public Participation</E>
                     section of this notice. Currently, the United States Forest Service, and Wisconsin Department of Agriculture, Trade &amp; Consumer Protection have expressed their intention to participate as a cooperating agency in the preparation of the environmental document to satisfy their NEPA responsibilities related to this project.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultation Under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, the Commission is using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The environmental document for this project will document our findings on the impacts on historic properties and summarize the status of consultations under section 106.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Advisory Council on Historic Preservation regulations are at Title 36, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 800. Those regulations define historic properties as any prehistoric or historic district, site, building, structure, or object included in or eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Mailing List</HD>
                <P>The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; Native American Tribes; environmental and public interest groups; other interested parties; and local libraries and media outlets. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project and includes a mailing address with their comments. Commission staff will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that Commission notices related to this environmental review are sent to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.</P>
                <P>If you need to make changes to your name/address, or if you would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please complete one of the following steps:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">GasProjectAddressChange@ferc.gov</E>
                     stating your request. You must include the docket number PF26-6-000 in your request. If you are requesting a change to your address, please be sure to include your name and the correct address. If you are requesting to delete your address from the mailing list, please include your name and address as it appeared on this notice. This email address is unable to accept comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OR</E>
                </P>
                <P>(2) Return the attached “Mailing List Update Form” (appendix 3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Becoming an Intervenor</HD>
                <P>
                    Once ANR files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to seek rehearing of the Commission's decision and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedures (18 CFR 385.214). Motions to intervene are more fully described at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/how-intervene.</E>
                     Please note that the Commission will not accept requests for intervenor status at this time. You must wait until the Commission receives a formal application for the project, after which the Commission will issue a public notice that establishes an intervention deadline.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the project is available on the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) using the eLibrary link. Click on the eLibrary link, click on “General Search” and enter the docket number in the “Docket Number” field. Be sure you have selected an appropriate date range. For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov</E>
                     or toll free at (866) 208-3676, or for TTY, contact (202) 502-8659. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/news-events/events</E>
                     along with other related information.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40534"/>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>[REMOVED ADVANCE FIELD]</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13460 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings,</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings Instituting Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-935-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement Update (Sempra August 2026) to be effective 8/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5103.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/8/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-936-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Big Sandy Pipeline, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Big Sandy EPC 2026 to be effective 8/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5131.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/8/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-937-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Express Pipeline LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: MEP June 2026 NRA Amendment Filing to be effective 6/27/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5202.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/8/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-938-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Kern River Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 2026 June Negotiated Rate TSA Filing to be effective 7/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/29/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260629-5084.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/13/26.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings in Existing Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP22-1001-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eastern Gas Transmission and Storage, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Report Filing: EGTS—Operational Gas Sales Report—2026 to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5086.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-740-003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">Baltimore Gas and Electric Company, et al.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC submits supplemental filing in compliance with the 06/05/2026 Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/26/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260626-5127.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/8/26.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to protest in any the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.</P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13430 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY </AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2026-3862; FRL-13375-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Innovation Challenge: Alternatives to Conventional Pesticides for Crop Desiccation; Notice of Availability</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing this request for information (RFI) seeking public input to inform development of an Innovation Challenge focused on practical, cost-effective alternatives to using conventional pesticide chemicals for crop desiccation. EPA aims to identify opportunities to reduce reliance on conventional pesticide chemical desiccants while supporting harvest readiness, crop quality, and operational efficiency. Input will help EPA shape the challenge's scope, eligibility, evaluation criteria, and potential pilot or demonstration components.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before September 30, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2026-3862, through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Elizabeth Vizard, Immediate Office (mail code 7501P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: 202-566-9878; email address: 
                        <E T="03">PestDesChallenge@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you grow, process, research, or otherwise work with crops that commonly use desiccants, or if you develop, supply, or investigate technologies related to harvest readiness or crop dry down. Potentially affected entities may include, the following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes affected by this action are those that align with these activities:</P>
                <P>• Agricultural organizations (except youth farming organizations, farm granges), Farmers' associations, Farmers' unions, and Growers' associations (NAICS 8133910),</P>
                <P>• Agricultural Implement Manufacturing (NAICS 33311),</P>
                <P>• Agricultural cooperative extension program administration (NAICS 926140),</P>
                <P>
                    • Agricultural pest and weed regulation, government; Pest control 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40535"/>
                    programs, agriculture, government; Regulation and inspection of agricultural products; Weed control, agriculture, government (NAICS 926140),
                </P>
                <P>• Colleges, Universities, and Professional Schools (NAICS 611310),</P>
                <P>• Farming of various types of crops (NAICS 111),</P>
                <P>• Food Manufacturing: includes an array of human and animal food production subsectors (NAICS 311), and</P>
                <P>
                    • Support Activities for Crop Production, covering firms engaged in: aerial crop dusting or spraying (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     using specialized or dedicated aircraft), Farm management services, Planting crops, Cultivating service (NAICS 11511).
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this proposed action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the Agency's authority for taking this action?</HD>
                <P>The Innovation Challenge is being conducted under the America Competes Act of 2010 (15 U.S.C. 3719) which authorizes U.S. federal agencies to conduct prize competitions to stimulate innovation, advance agency missions, and solve problems. It allows agencies to award prizes, engage the private sector, and use federal resources to foster technological breakthroughs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>This request for information (RFI) seeks input to support the development of an Innovation Challenge promoting alternatives to using conventional pesticides chemicals for crop desiccation. This RFI will supplement stakeholder consultations and help shape the challenge's scope, eligibility, and evaluation criteria.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. What should I consider as I prepare my comments for EPA?</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Submitting CBI.</E>
                     Do not submit CBI through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or email. If you wish to include CBI in your comment, follow the instructions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets#rules</E>
                     and clearly mark all information claimed as CBI. Information so marked will not be disclosed except in accordance with 40 CFR parts 2 and 703, as applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Tips for Preparing Your Comments.</E>
                     When preparing and submitting your comments, see the commenting tips at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>Desiccants are defined as pesticides used to artificially accelerate the drying of plant tissue (7 U.S.C. 136(g)). For purposes of this Innovation Challenge, EPA is focused on desiccants and desiccation methods used on growing crops near the end of the growing season to accelerate dry down, increase harvest uniformity, and improve harvest efficiency. They are commonly used in crops such as small grains, pulses, oilseeds, cotton, and potatoes.</P>
                <P>Stakeholders have expressed interest in reducing reliance on using conventional pesticides for crop desiccation due to perceived concerns related to pesticide residues, applicator exposure, regulatory variability, and market preferences. Conventional pesticides that act as desiccants are generally synthetic chemicals that accelerate the drying of plant tissue, as opposed to biological pesticides (that are derived from natural materials) and antimicrobial pesticides (intended to have pesticidal action against microbes).</P>
                <P>Potential alternatives envisioned as part of this Innovative Challenge include non-conventional pesticide desiccants, agronomic strategies, mechanical or physical methods, biological approaches such as plant breeding innovations, precision agriculture tools, and postharvest conditioning technologies.</P>
                <P>EPA invites responses from growers; producer organizations and cooperatives; equipment manufacturers; input suppliers; storers and processors; researchers; state, local, territorial, and tribal governments; non-governmental organizations; food and feed companies; and other interested parties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Request for Public Comment</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What feedback does EPA hope to gain from public comments?</HD>
                <P>EPA is seeking public input on specific aspects of the Innovation Challenge. The following information and topics may help inform stakeholder input on barriers and needs, program design and funding uses, phasing and award structure, and additional information for the Agency.</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Barriers and needs.</E>
                     EPA is requesting information on crop production.
                </P>
                <P>• What types of crop desiccants do growers currently use? Both quantitative and qualitative information is welcomed. Please also provide information on what crop is being produced.</P>
                <P>• What alternatives to conventional pesticide chemical desiccation are currently available to growers?</P>
                <P>• Do growers commonly use non-conventional pesticide chemical desiccation options? If not, what are the reasons growers do not commonly use them?</P>
                <P>• Does equipment currently exist or can equipment be modified to accelerate crop drying such that harvest is not slowed?</P>
                <P>• Do other supply chain participants (storers, shippers, processors, manufacturers, grocers, etc.) have any characteristics they are seeking in a desiccant or drying method? Or any characteristics that they prefer to avoid?</P>
                <P>• Are there barriers (technical, operational, regulatory, market) to adopting alternatives to conventional pesticide chemical desiccation in your crops/regions? Please specify.</P>
                <P>
                    • What standards (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     residue/quality metrics, moisture targets, lodging risk, storability) must be met to make a particular non-conventional pesticide chemical desiccant method practically and/or economically viable for growers? Are there other requirements a non-conventional pesticide chemical desiccation option must meet to make it viable for grower adoption?
                </P>
                <P>• Aside from potential human health and environmental risks, are there other current limitations growers experience when utilizing conventional pesticide chemical desiccants? Are these shortcomings or limitations something a non-conventional pesticide chemical desiccant could or should potentially alleviate for growers or their markets? If yes, please specify what those limitations are.</P>
                <P>• Are you aware of existing or ongoing research that pertains to non-conventional pesticide chemical desiccants or non-pesticidal drying methods, specifically those with a lower risk profile to human health or the environment than those that are currently available or commonly used by growers?</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Program design and funding uses.</E>
                     EPA is requesting information on program eligibility and outreach.
                </P>
                <P>• What eligibility requirements should be considered for potential award recipients?</P>
                <P>• Should EPA use this contest to promote research into new technologies? If so, should EPA require progress reports? Should EPA reward someone who has already developed a new technology?</P>
                <P>
                    • Should EPA use this contest to promote outreach (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     programs to encourage adoption of alternatives to desiccation by conventional pesticide chemicals)? Should EPA reward existing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40536"/>
                    successful programs, and/or possible startup programs?
                </P>
                <P>• Should EPA specifically focus the contest on a particular crop or region of the country where desiccation is particularly high? Or should EPA ask entrants to explain why their idea/submission will have a substantial effect on the amount of conventional pesticide chemical desiccants being used for plant desiccation?</P>
                <P>• If an applicant presents EPA with an existing or new technology as a proposed alternative to conventional pesticide chemical desiccation, what metrics should be used to evaluate it?</P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Phasing and award structure.</E>
                     EPA is requesting information on program implementation.
                </P>
                <P>• How should EPA distribute the $30 million total prize? For example, should EPA issue the prize to a single winner; should it be divided among multiple prizes?</P>
                <P>
                    • Should the challenge use a phased approach (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Phase 1 ideation; Phase 2 proof-of-concept; Phase 3 pilot/demonstration)? Recommend phase timing, deliverables, and funding levels.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Overall approach.</E>
                     EPA recognizes the importance of transparency and stakeholder input as we continue to develop this program. Other feedback is welcome in the form of questions, comments or additional information for consideration as we move forward.
                </P>
                <P>• Share any studies, case examples, or data sets that could inform challenge design, evaluation criteria, or regional pilot selection.</P>
                <P>• Identify any priority crops/regions for early demonstrations and any partnerships that may be ready to participate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the request for information?</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA encourages all potentially interested parties, including growers and producer organizations, agricultural equipment manufacturers, agricultural research and extension services, food and feed processors, State, Local, Territorial, and Tribal Governments, and NGO
                    <E T="03">s</E>
                     to comment on the Innovation Challenge. To the extent possible, the Agency asks commenters to please provide contact information, organization type, relevant experience, and any links to supporting materials 
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     please cite any public data related to or that supports responses, and to the extent permissible, describe any supporting data that is not publicly available.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     15 U.S.C. 3719.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Douglas M. Troutman</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13458 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FRL OPRM-FAD-229]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responsible Agency:</E>
                     Office of Federal Activities, General Information 202-993-3272 or 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/nepa.</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Weekly receipt of Environmental Impact Statements (EIS)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Filed June 22, 2026 10 a.m. EST Through June 26, 2026 10 a.m. EST </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pursuant to CEQ Guidance on 42 U.S.C. 4332.</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Notice:</E>
                     Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://cdxapps.epa.gov/cdx-enepa-II/public/action/eis/search.</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">EIS No. 20260076, Final Supplement, USACE, TX,</E>
                     Matagorda Ship Channel Improvement Project, Port Lavaca, Texas, Review Period Ends: 08/03/2026, Contact: Heather Briscoe 409-766-3139.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">EIS No. 20260077, Draft, USFS, OR,</E>
                     Blue Mountains Forest Plan Revision,  Comment Period Ends: 09/30/2026, Contact: Michael Neuenschwander 541-278-3716.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">EIS No. 20260078, Final, FERC, MS,</E>
                     Mississippi Crossing Project and South System Expansion 4 Project, Contact: Office of External Affairs 866-208-3372.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">EIS No. 20260079, Final, USACE, NC,</E>
                     Wilmington Harbor Navigation Project, Contact: Andrea Stolba 910-882-4936.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nancy Abrams,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Federal Activities Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13422 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FRL-13493-01-OA]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Public Meeting of the Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Science Advisory Board (SAB) Branch is announcing a public meeting of the Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC). The purpose of the meeting is to receive a briefing from EPA on the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) review process and upcoming review documents for ongoing NAAQS reviews.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The CASAC will meet on July 22, 2026, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be conducted virtually. Registration will be required to participate in the meeting. To register, please visit the CASAC website: 
                        <E T="03">https://casac.epa.gov</E>
                         and click on the July 22, 2026, meeting or visit: 
                        <E T="03">https://usepa.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_JiUoRamoQ9yiBoyyx24X4w.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information concerning this Notice, please contact Aaron Yeow, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), via telephone at (202) 564-2050, or email at 
                        <E T="03">yeow.aaron@epa.gov.</E>
                         General information about the CASAC, as well as any updates concerning the meeting announced in this document, can be found on the CASAC website at 
                        <E T="03">https://casac.epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     The CASAC was established pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA) Amendments of 1977, codified at 42 U.S.C. 7409(d)(2), to review air quality criteria and NAAQS and recommend to the EPA Administrator any new NAAQS and revisions of existing criteria and NAAQS as may be appropriate. The CASAC shall also: advise the EPA Administrator of areas in which additional knowledge is required to appraise the adequacy and basis of existing, new, or revised NAAQS; describe the research efforts necessary to provide the required information; advise the EPA Administrator on the relative contribution to air pollution concentrations of natural as well as anthropogenic activity; and advise the EPA Administrator of any adverse public health, welfare, social, economic, or energy effects which may result from various strategies for attainment and maintenance of such NAAQS. As amended, 5 U.S.C., App. Section 109(d)(1) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) requires that EPA carry out a periodic review and revision, as appropriate, of the air quality criteria and the NAAQS for the six “criteria” air pollutants.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40537"/>
                </P>
                <P>The CASAC is a Federal Advisory Committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C., App. 2, and conducts business in accordance with FACA and related regulations. The CASAC will comply with the provisions of FACA and all appropriate SAB Branch procedural policies. Pursuant to FACA and EPA policy, notice is hereby given that the CASAC will hold a public meeting to receive a briefing from EPA on the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) process and upcoming review documents for ongoing NAAQS reviews.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Availability of meeting materials:</E>
                     All meeting materials, including the agenda, will be available on the CASAC web page at 
                    <E T="03">https://casac.epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Procedures for providing public input:</E>
                     Public comment for consideration by EPA's federal advisory committees and panels has a different purpose from public comment provided to EPA program offices. Therefore, the process for submitting comments to a federal advisory committee is different from the process used to submit comments to an EPA program office. Federal advisory committees and panels, including scientific advisory committees, provide independent advice to the EPA. Members of the public can submit relevant comments pertaining to the committee's charge or meeting materials. Input from the public to the CASAC will have the most impact if it provides specific scientific or technical information or analysis for the CASAC to consider or if it relates to the clarity or accuracy of the technical information. Members of the public wishing to provide comments should follow the instructions below to submit comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Oral statements:</E>
                     In general, individuals or groups requesting an oral presentation virtually will be limited to three minutes. Each person making an oral statement should consider providing written comments as well as their oral statement so that the points presented orally can be expanded upon in writing. Persons interested in providing oral statements should contact the DFO listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section; preferably via email, by July 15, 2026, to be placed on the list of registered speakers.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written statements:</E>
                     Written statements will be accepted throughout the advisory process; however, for timely consideration by CASAC members, statements should be submitted to the DFO by July 15, 2026. Written statements should be supplied by email to the DFO listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section. Submitters are requested to provide an unsigned version of each document because the SAB Branch does not publish documents with signatures on its websites. Members of the public should be aware that their personal contact information, if included in any written comments, may be posted to the CASAC website. Copyrighted material will not be posted without the explicit permission of the copyright holder.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessibility:</E>
                     For information on access or services for individuals with disabilities, please contact the DFO listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section; at least ten business days before the meetings, to give the EPA as much time as possible to process your request.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>V. Khanna Johnston,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Science Advisory Board Branch.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13400 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB No. 3064-0176;-0140]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewal; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FDIC, as part of its obligations under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of the existing information collections described below (OMB Control No. 3064-0176 and -0140).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Agency website: https://www.fdic.gov/resources/regulations/federal-register-publications/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: comments@fdic.gov.</E>
                         Include the name and number of the collection in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Robert Meiers, Regulatory Counsel, MB-3013, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Comments may be hand-delivered to the guard station at the rear of the 17th Street NW building (located on F Street NW), on business days between 7 a.m. and 5 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Meiers, Regulatory Attorney, 
                        <E T="03">Romeiers@fdic.gov,</E>
                         MB-3013, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposal To Renew the Following Currently Approved Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Reverse Mortgage Products.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3064-0176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Insured state nonmember banks and state savings associations making reverse mortgage.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Estimate:</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Summary of Estimated Annual Burden</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[OMB No. 3064-0176]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Information collection (IC)
                            <LI>(obligation to respond)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Type of burden
                            <LI>(frequency of response)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average time per response
                            <LI>(HH:MM)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1. Reverse Mortgage Products—Implementation, 12 CFR 365 (Mandatory)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recordkeeping (Annual)</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40:00</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">2. Reverse Mortgage Products—Ongoing, 12 CFR 365 (Mandatory)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recordkeeping (Annual)</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>08:00</ENT>
                        <ENT>144</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40538"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Annual Burden (Hours)</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>344</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Source: FDIC.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">General Description of Collection:</E>
                     Respondents must prepare and provide certain disclosures to consumers (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     that insurance products and annuities are not FDIC-insured) and obtain consumer acknowledgments, at two different times: (1) Before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer; and (2) at the time of application for the extension of credit (if insurance products or annuities are sold, solicited, advertised, or offered in connection with an extension of credit). There is no change in the substance or methodology of this information collection. The estimated annual burden has increased by 64 hours, from 280 hours in 2024 to 344 hours currently, due to an increase in the number of respondents to IC 1 only partially offset by a decrease in the estimated number of respondents to IC 2.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Insurance Sales Consumer Protections.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3064-0140.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Insured State nonmember banks and savings associations that sell insurance products; persons who sell insurance in or on behalf of insured State nonmember banks and savings associations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Estimate:</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Summary of Estimated Annual Burden</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[OMB No. 3064-0140]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Information collection (IC)
                            <LI>(obligation to respond)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Type of burden
                            <LI>(frequency of response)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average time per response
                            <LI>(HH:MM)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">1. Insurance Sales Consumer Protections, 12 CFR 343 (Mandatory)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Third-Party Disclosure (On Occasion)</ENT>
                        <ENT>934</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5:00</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,670</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Annual Burden (Hours)</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>4,670</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Source: FDIC.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">General Description of Collection:</E>
                     Respondents must provide disclosures to consumers that insurance products and annuities are not FDIC insured and obtain consumer acknowledgments, as required by 12 CFR part 343. The disclosures must be provided before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity and, when applicable, at the time of application for an extension of credit if insurance products or annuities are sold, solicited, advertised, or offered in connection with the extension of credit. There is no change in the substance or methodology of this information collection. The estimated annual burden had decreased by 835 hours, from 5,505 hours in 2023 to 4,670 hours currently. As the estimated time per response remains unchanged, the decrease is due to a reduction in the estimated number of respondents.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (a) whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collections, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collections of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
                    <DATED>Dated at Washington, DC, on June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer M. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13444 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6714-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifiers: CMS-10950, CMS-R-26 and CMS-R-185]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, and to allow a second opportunity for public comment on the notice. Interested persons are invited to send comments 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40539"/>
                        regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, the accuracy of the estimated burden, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, please access the CMS PRA website by copying and pasting the following web address into your web browser: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/PaperworkReductionActof1995/PRA-Listing</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>William Parham at (410) 786-4669.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     New collection (Request for a OMB control number); 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Submissions of Acute Hospital Care at Home (AHCAH) Waiver Submission and Data Collection; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     This information collection request was approved under OMB control number of 0938-1384. The AHCAH information collection request is being separated from the 1135 waiver information collection request. The Acute Hospital Care at Home initiative has been codified in legislation, Consolidate Appropriations Act, 2025, and is no longer under the 1135 waiver authority. Any changes to this document would be based on the legislative authority and not based on an 1135 waiver.
                </P>
                <P>Acute Hospital Care at Home is a waiver initiative established by CMS on November 23, 2020 in response to the unprecedented strain on hospital capacity due to the severe national increase in coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) witnessed. This waiver, which is granted at the individual hospital/CMS Certification Number (CCN) level, waives § 482.23(b) and (b)(1) of the Hospital Conditions of Participation (CoPs) which require nursing services to be provided on premises 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and the immediate availability of a registered nurse for care of any patient. In exchange for this flexibility, hospitals will utilize models of at-home hospital care that have seen prior success in several leading hospital institutions and networks. This care and its results have been reported in leading academic journals, including a major study funded by a Healthcare Innovation Award from the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation (CMMI). This extensive research has shown that quality and safety are at least as high as that received by similar patients admitted to traditional brick and mortar hospitals.</P>
                <P>This program clearly differentiates the delivery of acute hospital care at home from traditional home health services. Home health care provides important skilled nursing and other services, Acute Hospital Care at Home is for beneficiaries who require acute inpatient admission to a hospital and who require at least daily rounding by a physician and medical team monitoring their care needs on an ongoing basis. A minimum of two in-person visits will occur daily by either registered nurses or mobile integrated health paramedics, based on the patient's nursing plan and hospital policies. Hospitals may only treat patients with this waiver if they are admitted from their Emergency Department or if they are transferred from inpatient hospital beds. There is no payment change, and hospitals are not permitted to bill Medicare or its beneficiaries for any costs outside of a typical inpatient admission.</P>
                <P>
                    CMS is seeking to obtain continued OMB approval for information. All approved hospitals have submitted this information via an online portal at 
                    <E T="03">CMS QualityNet</E>
                     the previously mentioned website. To date, 433 hospitals individual hospitals/CCNs have submitted waiver requests and 396 of these hospitals have been approved. At this time, 65 hospitals have completed the online expedited waiver request, and 331 hospitals have completed the online detailed waiver request. When a hospital submits a waiver request, it completes one of two online forms found on the waiver landing page, depending on its level of experience with this type of care. Experienced hospitals, defined as treating at least 25 patients with acute hospital care at home previously, have an expedited submission that is based on a series of attestations. Additionally, all hospitals with an approved waiver are asked to submit data for patient admissions and discharges, escalations of care back to the brick-and-mortar hospital, and unexpected patient mortalities to CMS on a monthly (Tier 1) or weekly (Tier 2). This data is submitted voluntarily through the same online portal as the waiver submission and is not a requirement of ongoing participation in the Waiver. Of note, without further Congressional action, this waiver submission process will end September 30, 2030. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10950 (OMB control number: 0938-NEW); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Occasionally; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector: Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions and State, Local or Tribal Governments; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,947; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,947; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     1,947. (For policy questions regarding this collection, contact Cheryl Lehane at 617-461-4888.).
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) Regulations; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     This is an extension package. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) section 353 of the Public Health Service Act requires the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to establish certification requirements for any entity, with certain exceptions contained in the regulation, that performs testing on human beings to meet performance requirements based on test complexity and risk factors 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40540"/>
                    related to erroneous test results in order to be certified by HHS.
                </P>
                <P>This information collection reflects a series of records required to be maintained by laboratories participating in the CLIA program and are based upon the publication of a final quality assessment rule on January 24, 2003, and the publication of the final fee, histocompatibility, personnel, and alternative sanction rule on December 28, 2023 (88 FR 89976). Included in the revisions were amendments to the histocompatibility and personnel regulations under CLIA to address obsolete regulations and update the regulations to incorporate technological changes, and that are reflected in this extension package.</P>
                <P>The previous iteration was a revision of the information collection. Based on notice of final rulemaking, CMS-3326-F (88 FR 89976) published on December 28, 2023, we revised the ICR by adding additional sections.</P>
                <P>
                    The final rule addressed recommendations provided by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)'s Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC). CMS and CDC incorporated changes in the rulemaking to remove specific regulations already covered in the general requirements and laboratory director responsibilities. The additional requirements included sections 493.1278, 493.1359, 493.1405-1411; 493.1423, 493.1443-1445, 493.1461-1463; 493.1483; 493.1489-1491. These sections included histocompatibility (493.1278) and personnel (493.1359, 493.1405-1411; 493.1423, 493.1443-1445, 493.1461-1463; 493.1483; 493.1489-1491) which required laboratories to revise and update policies and procedures applicable to new or amended requirements. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-R-26 (OMB Control Number: 0938-0612); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Monthly, occasionally; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions, State, Local or Tribal Governments, and the Federal government; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     49,626; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     88,259,802; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     14,514,802. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Penny Keller at 410-786-2035).
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Extension of currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Granting and Withdrawal of Deeming Authority to Private Nonprofit Accreditation Organizations and CLIA Exemption Under State Laboratory Programs; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     This is an extension package. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) established a new section 353 of the Public Health Service Act (PHSA) which requires the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to establish certification requirements, with certain exceptions, for any laboratory that performs testing on human specimens. Laboratories must meet performance requirements based on test complexity in order to be certified by HHS. CLIA also provides for the recognition of private accreditation organizations and State licensure programs whose standards are determined to be equal to or more stringent than the HHS requirements.
                </P>
                <P>Final regulations were published on February 28, 1992, at 42 CFR part 493 which implemented the certificate, laboratory standards and inspection requirement sections of CLIA. There have been several subsequent rules that have modified these regulations.</P>
                <P>On July 31, 1992, final regulations implementing the provisions of 353 PHSA concerning the recognition of private accreditation organizations and State licensure programs for CLIA purposes were published as Subpart E of part 493. These regulations establish that we may approve a private, nonprofit organization as an accreditation organization for clinical laboratories under the CLIA program if the organization's requirements for its accredited laboratories are equal to or more stringent than the applicable CLIA program requirements of part 493. These regulations also provide for the CLIA exemption of laboratories in a State that applies licensure requirements that are equal to or more stringent than those of CLIA.</P>
                <P>On May 14, 1998, revisions to Subpart E were published as part of other CLIA final rulemaking. The revisions to Subpart E eliminated duplicative information by restructuring and consolidating requirements for accreditation organizations and State licensure programs seeking approval under CLIA. The revised Subpart better reflects the information required and process involved in obtaining approval. This restructuring did not change the requirements, but only redesignated them into a more customer-oriented document, making them easier for users to understand. In this process we used new section numbers, but retained all the requirements for Subpart E.</P>
                <P>
                    The last iteration required accreditation organizations and State licensure programs to revise and update policies and procedures applicable to new or amended requirements in the final rule, CMS-3326-F, to remain complaint with the regulations at 493.553-557. The accreditation organizations or State licensure programs are required to meet or exceed the CLIA regulations. The final rule, CMS-3326-F, was published on December 28, 2023 (88 FR 89976). 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-R-185 (OMB control number: 0938-0686); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Occasionally; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector—Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     9; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     9; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     5,359. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Penny Keller at 410-786-2035.).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William N. Parham, III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Division of Information Collections and Regulatory Impacts, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13465 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4169-69-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifiers: CMS-10185]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, and to allow a second opportunity for public comment on the notice. Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, the accuracy of the estimated burden, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40541"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, please access the CMS PRA website by copying and pasting the following web address into your web browser: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/PaperworkReductionActof1995/PRA-Listing.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>William Parham at (410) 786-4669.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Medicare Part C and D Reporting Requirements; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     Section 1857(e)(1) and Section 1860D-12(b)(3)(D) of the Social Security Act (the Act) provides broad authority for the Secretary to add terms to the contracts with Medicare Advantage Organizations (MAOs) and Part D sponsors, including terms that require the sponsor to provide the Secretary with information as the Secretary may find necessary and appropriate. Pursuant to our statutory authority, the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) codified these information collection requirements for MAOs in regulation at 42 CFR 422.516 and for Part D sponsors in regulation at 42 CFR 423.514.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The data collected through the reporting requirements for MAOs and Part D sponsors are used by CMS and other stakeholders for oversight, monitoring, compliance, and performance evaluation. CMS staff use the data to monitor and hold organizations accountable, while academic researchers and governmental entities such as the Government Accountability Office (GAO) and the Office of Inspector General (OIG) have inquired about this information collection. Reported data may be used for CMS performance metrics such as the Medicare Part C and D Star Ratings and Display Measures, and analyzed for program oversight to ensure the availability, accessibility, and acceptability of sponsors' services. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10185 (OMB control number: 0938-0992); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Yearly; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     758; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     35,196; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     96,938. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Bindu Aryal at 410-786-6987 or 
                    <E T="03">bindu.aryal@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William N. Parham, III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Division of Information Collections and Regulatory Impacts, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13464 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0033]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Office of Refugee Resettlement Annual Survey of Refugees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Refugee Resettlement, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services seeks an extension to the existing data collection for the Annual Survey of Refugees (ASR) (Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0033; Expiration Date: October 30, 2026) through 2027. The ASR is a yearly sample survey of refugee households entering the U.S. in the previous 5 fiscal years (FYs). There are no changes currently requested to the form, but ACF intends to submit a revision request in 2027 for future annual requests.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due</E>
                         August 3, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202606-0970-026.</E>
                         You can also obtain copies of the proposed collection of information by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all emailed requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Data from the ASR are used to meet the Office of Refugee Resettlement's (ORR) Congressional reporting requirements, as set forth in the Refugee Act of 1980, section 413(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act. ORR makes survey findings available to the public and uses findings for the purposes of program planning, policymaking, and budgeting. There are no changes to the survey. Information collection materials will be translated into 20 languages. ACF acknowledges that English is the official language and authoritative version of all federal information and will note this on the translated material.
                </P>
                <P>This request is for an extension to allow ORR to complete the 2025 ASR and to field the 2026 ASR. Changes to the 2025 ASR, which is currently in process, at this time would be problematic for data quality and cost efficiencies. Maintaining the current survey safeguards compliance with congressional requirements, preserves the validity of the data, and avoids operational disruptions that could undermine the completion and credibility of the 2025 ASR. There are ongoing efforts to test the feasibility of an online survey and based on the findings of these tests, revisions will be proposed to the ASR that are expected to reduce burden. While those efforts are completed and integrated for future years, ORR proposes to use the current version of the ASR for 2025 and 2026. A revision request will be submitted in 2027 to implement changes.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     The ASR secures a nationally representative sample of refugee households arriving in the United States in the previous 5 FYs.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40542"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,15,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total number
                            <LI>of responses</LI>
                            <LI>per respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Introduction Letter and Postcard</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual Survey of Refugees</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>.83</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,245</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,320</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: Section 413 [8 U.S.C. 1523].)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13369 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-46-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0618]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Chafee Strengthening Outcomes for Transition to Adulthood Project Overarching Generic (Extension)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families' (ACF) Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation (OPRE) requests Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of a revision of a previously approved overarching generic clearance to collect data on programs serving youth transitioning out of foster care as part of the Chafee Strengthening Outcomes for Transition to Adulthood Project. The generic mechanism will allow ACF to conduct rapid-cycle evaluations that would not otherwise be feasible under the timelines associated with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The purpose of these data collections submitted under the generic will be to inform ACF programming by building evidence about what works to improve outcomes for the target population and to identify innovative learning methods that address common evaluation challenges. Revisions are proposed to focus this generic on a subset of types of requests that had been originally proposed.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due</E>
                         August 3, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202606-0970-023.</E>
                         You can also obtain copies of the proposed collection of information by emailing 
                        <E T="03">opreinfocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all emailed requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     To continue activities begun under the previously approved umbrella generic (
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewDocument?ref_nbr=202502-0970-044</E>
                    ), OPRE intends to conduct evaluations of the effectiveness of program services and components in improving outcomes for youth and young adults transitioning out of foster care. To address challenges identified in previous studies, the ongoing evaluations use innovative methods tailored to each participating program, including rapid cycle learning techniques that require an iterative approach. Due to the rapid and iterative nature of this work, OPRE requested and received approval in 2023 for a generic clearance to conduct this research. Intended use of the resulting data is to identify practices and program components that have the potential to improve the delivery and/or quality of services administered by human service programs and agencies in the areas of child welfare and independent living services for youth and young adults with foster care experience. Potential data collection efforts include conducting interviews, focus groups, and surveys with current, past, or potential participants in programs serving youth with foster care experience (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     including potential participants who are included in comparison groups).
                </P>
                <P>Under this generic clearance, information is meant to inform ACF activities and may be incorporated into documents or presentations that are made public such as through conference presentations, websites, or social media. The following are some examples of ways in which we may share information resulting from these data collections: Technical assistance (TA) plans, webinars, presentations, infographics, issue briefs/reports, project specific reports, or other documents relevant to the field, such as federal leadership and staff, grantees, local implementing agencies, researchers, and/or training/TA providers. We may also request information for the sole purpose of publication in cases where we are working to create a single source for users (clients, programs, researchers) to find information about resources such as services in their area, TA materials, different types of programs or systems available, or research using ACF data. In sharing findings, we will describe the study methods and limitations regarding generalizability and as a basis for policy.</P>
                <P>Following standard OMB requirements, OPRE will submit an individual request for each specific data collection activity under this generic clearance. Each request will include the individual instrument(s), a justification specific to the individual information collection, and any supplementary documents.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Current, former, or potential participants in programs serving youth; and young adults with foster care experience.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Annual Burden Estimates</HD>
                <P>
                    This request will reduce the scope of the previously approved generic to only focus on two types of information collections. This request is for 3 years of approval and burden estimates are calculated to show the total burden over the 3-year period and an average annual burden estimate based on that calculation.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40543"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Youth Discussions and Focus Groups</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>600</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Youth Surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>1200</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1800</ENT>
                        <ENT>600</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>800</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Title IV-E of the Social Security Act, IV-E § 477(g)(1-2), as amended by the Foster Care Independence Act of 1999.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13395 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifier: OS-0990-0473]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Request. 60-Day Public Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP), Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health (OASH), Office of the Secretary, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, is publishing the following summary of a proposed Information Collection Request (ICR) for public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the ICR must be received on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments to 
                        <E T="03">Natalie.Klein@hhs.gov</E>
                         or by calling (240) 453-6900.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier “0990-0473-60D” and project title, “Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Registration of an Institutional Review Board Form” for reference, to Natalie Klein, Acting Director, Office for Human Research Protections, email: 
                        <E T="03">Natalie.Klein@hhs.gov</E>
                         or call (202) 697-2724.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of the Collection:</E>
                     Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Subpart C Certification Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Collection:</E>
                     Renewal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB No.:</E>
                     0990-0473.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP) is requesting a three-year extension of OMB No. 0990-0473, the HHS Subpart C Certification Form. The purpose of this form is to provide a simplified, standardized procedure for institutions to submit subpart C research certifications to OHRP in order to obtain authorization to include prisoners in HHS-conducted or supported human subjects research. The form also simplifies the internal process used by OHRP to review and record such certifications, resulting in faster processing while reducing unnecessary and burdensome staff time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Institutions or Organizations operating Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) that have enrolled or are planning to enroll prisoners in human subjects research conducted or supported by HHS.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj" CDEF="s50,r50,12,13,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Annualized Burden Hour Table</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Subpart C Certification Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>Institutions or Organizations operating Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.13</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.13</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The estimate of the number of respondents is based upon the current number of institutions certifying HHS-conducted or -supported subpart C human subjects research to OHRP. In 2025, OHRP received fifty-one certifications from thirty-eight institutions or organizations and one hundred percent of the respondents submitted their certification information electronically. We project that, annually, forty institutions will submit certifications. Most respondents will submit the form twice annually; however, some respondents may submit the form 3 times annually. Consistent with 5 CFR 1320.5(a)(1)(iv)(5), therefore, we believe this estimate represents the total annual reporting and recordkeeping burden that will result from the collection of information.</P>
                <P>The burden is estimated to average one hour per Subpart C Certification Form and the total annual burden hours are projected to be eighty-five.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Catherine Howard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Reports Clearance Officer, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13377 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-36-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40544"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. HHS-ASPR-2026-0200]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Termination of Three Declarations Authorizing Emergency Use of Medical Devices During the COVID-19 Pandemic</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) is issuing this notice pursuant to section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C) Act. On February 4, 2020, as amended on March 15, 2023, HHS determined that there is a public health emergency, or significant potential for a public health emergency, that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad, and that involves the virus (later referred to as SARS-CoV-2) that causes COVID-19. On the basis of this determination, the HHS Secretary declared that circumstances exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of (1) in vitro diagnostics for detection and/or diagnosis of SARS-CoV-2 (February 4, 2020); (2) personal respiratory protective devices during the COVID-19 outbreak (March 2, 2020); and (3) medical devices, including alternative products used as medical devices (March 24, 2020). On June 29, 2026, the HHS Secretary determined that circumstances no longer exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of these medical devices. On the basis of this determination, the HHS Secretary is terminating these declarations (“EUA declarations”), effective on December 26, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Termination of the EUA declarations for: (1) in vitro diagnostics for detection and/or diagnosis of the SARS-CoV-2 virus; (2) personal respiratory protective devices; and (3) medical devices, including alternative products used as medical devices is effective December 26, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        L. Paige Ezernack, telephone at (202) 260-0365 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">aspr.dpa@hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. EUA Background</HD>
                <P>Under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act, the Commissioner of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency), acting under delegated authority from the Secretary of HHS, may issue an EUA authorizing (1) the emergency use of an unapproved drug, an unapproved or uncleared device, or an unlicensed biological product; or (2) an unapproved use of an approved drug, approved or cleared device, or licensed biological product.</P>
                <P>
                    Before an EUA may be issued, the Secretary of HHS must declare that circumstances exist justifying the authorization based on one of four determinations: (1) a determination by the Secretary of Homeland Security that there is a domestic emergency, or a significant potential for a domestic emergency, involving a heightened risk of attack with a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear (“CBRN”) agent or agents; (2) the identification of a material threat by the Secretary of Homeland Security pursuant to section 319F-2 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     sufficient to affect national security or the health and security of United States citizens living abroad; (3) a determination by the Secretary of Defense that there is a military emergency, or a significant potential for a military emergency, involving a heightened risk to United States military forces, including personnel operating under the authority of title 10 or title 50, of attack with (i) a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent or agents; or (ii) an agent or agents that may cause, or are otherwise associated with, an imminently life-threatening and specific risk to United States military forces; or (4) a determination by the Secretary that there is a public health emergency, or a significant potential for a public health emergency, that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of United States citizens living abroad, and that involves a CBRN agent or agents, or a disease or condition that may be attributable to such agent or agents. Based on any of these four determinations, the Secretary of HHS may then declare that circumstances exist that justify emergency use authorization of medical product(s), at which point FDA may issue an EUA if the criteria for issuance of an authorization under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act are met.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 247d-6b, which states: “[t]he Homeland Security Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary and the heads of other agencies as appropriate, shall on an ongoing basis—(i) assess current and emerging threats of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear agents; and (ii) determine which of such agents present a material threat against the United States population sufficient to affect national security.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>A declaration justifying an authorization under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act terminates upon the earlier of: (1) a determination by the Secretary of HHS, in consultation as appropriate with the Secretary of Homeland Security or the Secretary of Defense, that the circumstances justifying emergency authorization based on the determination have ceased to exist; or (2) a change in the approval status of the product under emergency authorization such that the product is no longer unapproved, unlicensed, or uncleared, or is no longer intended for an unapproved use.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Determination and Declarations That Emergency Use Is Justified by the Secretary of Health and Human Services</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 4, 2020, the HHS Secretary determined that there is a public health emergency that has significant potential to affect national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad, and that involves the SARS-CoV-2 virus that causes COVID-19. On the basis of such determination, the HHS Secretary declared on that same day, that circumstances exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of in vitro diagnostics for detection and/or diagnosis of the SARS-CoV-2 virus that causes COVID-19. Based on the February 4, 2020 determination, the HHS Secretary issued two more declarations justifying emergency uses related to devices: on March 2, 2020, for personal respiratory protective devices during the COVID-19 outbreak, and on March 24, 2020, for medical devices, including alternative products used as medical devices. On March 15, 2023, the HHS Secretary amended the February 4, 2020 determination to recognize the fact that there is “a public health emergency, or 
                    <E T="03">a significant potential for a public health emergency,</E>
                     that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of [U.S.] citizens living abroad . . .” and that involves the SARS-CoV-2 virus that causes COVID-19 (emphasis added). The February 4, 2020 determination, as amended on March 15, 2023, continued to support previously-issued EUA declarations, including the three declarations justifying emergency use of COVID-19 medical devices.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Termination of the Three Declarations That Circumstances Exist Justifying the Emergency Use of Medical Devices During the COVID-19 Pandemic</HD>
                <P>
                    The Secretary of HHS has determined circumstances no longer exist to justify emergency use of medical devices as set forth in the EUA declarations. There has been significantly less demand for in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40545"/>
                    vitro diagnostics for detection and/or diagnosis of SARS-CoV-2, respiratory protective devices, and other medical devices, including those that have been issued EUAs, as the COVID-19 emergency progressed over time. There are now over fifty COVID-19 tests that have been granted traditional marketing authorization and demand for COVID-19 tests has significantly reduced. Adequate numbers of personal respiratory protective devices and other medical devices of the types that were authorized under the EUA declaration for “medical devices, including alternative products used as medical devices” (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     blood purification devices, continuous renal replacement and hemodialysis devices, remote or wearable patient monitoring devices, respiratory assist devices, ventilators and ventilator accessories, screening tools) have been authorized through traditional marketing pathways. FDA continues to encourage manufacturers of in vitro diagnostics for detection and/or diagnosis of SARS-CoV-2, certain personal respiratory protective devices, and other medical devices to obtain authorization through traditional premarket pathways as appropriate. As such, the Secretary of HHS is terminating the three EUA declarations for medical devices on December 26, 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Advance Notice of Termination for Appropriate Disposition</HD>
                <P>The Secretary must provide advance notice of any termination of a declaration under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act. The period of advance notice must be a period reasonably determined to provide: in the case of an unapproved product, a sufficient period for disposition of the product, including the return of such product (except such quantities of product as are necessary to provide for continued use consistent with section 564(f)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act) to the manufacturer (in the case of a manufacturer that chooses to have such product returned); and, in the case of an unapproved use of an approved product, a sufficient period for the disposition of any labeling, or any information under section 564(e)(2)(B)(ii) of the FD&amp;C Act, as the case may be, that was provided with respect to the emergency use involved. If an EUA for an unapproved product issued by FDA ceases to be effective due to the termination of the Secretary of HHS's declaration justifying emergency use, the Secretary of HHS shall consult with the manufacturer of such product with respect to the appropriate disposition of the product.</P>
                <P>
                    FDA issued a final guidance document, 
                    <E T="03">Transition Plan for Medical Devices Issued Emergency Use Authorizations (EUAs) Related to Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19)</E>
                     in March 2023, to describe its general recommendations for this transition process with respect to devices issued EUAs related to COVID-19, recognizing that it would take time for device manufacturers, device distributors, healthcare facilities, healthcare providers, patients, consumers, and FDA to adjust from policies adopted and operations implemented during the COVID-19 pandemic to “normal operations.” A notice of availability for the guidance appeared in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of March 27, 2023 (88 FR 18144). In December 2021, FDA issued a draft guidance with the title 
                    <E T="03">Transition Plan for Medical Devices Issued Emergency Use Authorizations (EUAs) During the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) Public Health Emergency.</E>
                     The draft contemplated a 180-day period for advance notice of termination of each EUA declaration pertaining to devices. A notice of availability for the draft guidance appeared in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of December 23, 2021 (86 FR 72978). In the draft guidance's notice of availability, FDA solicited comments on whether the contemplated 180-day period for advance notice of termination of each EUA declaration pertaining to devices would sufficiently allow for an appropriate transition period that avoids exacerbating product shortages and supply chain disruptions. After considering the comments received and revising the guidance as appropriate in response to the comments, FDA issued the final guidance in March 2023.
                </P>
                <P>In the March 2023 guidance, FDA stated that HHS intends to publish the advance notice of termination of each EUA declaration pertaining to devices 180 days before the day on which the EUA declaration is terminated and recommended that manufacturers of devices authorized under EUAs begin planning their post-EUA regulatory and disposition strategies. FDA also stated its belief that issuance of the guidance in draft (in December 2021) with a contemplated transition policy and request for public comment (including from manufacturers of EUA-authorized devices) satisfied the requirement to consult with manufacturers. To address any unique considerations or other issues related to disposition of product that were not otherwise discussed in the guidance, FDA also recommended engagement with the Agency as soon as possible. Consistent with the guidance, which FDA issued over three years ago, HHS has determined that 180 days is a sufficient period for disposition of the products authorized under these declarations.</P>
                <P>
                    This 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice serves as advance notice that the medical device-related declarations will terminate, effective December 26, 2026, as required under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act. Notice of termination of EUAs issued by FDA pursuant to each one of the three declarations will be provided by FDA in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , as required under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert F. Kennedy, Jr.</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13373 Filed 6-30-26; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-37-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifier: OS-0990-0490]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Request. 60-Day Public Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP), Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health (OASH), Office of the Secretary, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, is publishing the following summary of a proposed Information Collection Request (ICR) for public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the ICR must be received on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments to 
                        <E T="03">Natalie.Klein@hhs.gov</E>
                         or by calling (240) 453-6900.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier “0990-0490-60D” and project title, “Office for Human Research Protections Research Complaint Form” for reference, to Natalie Klein, Acting Director, Office for Human Research Protections, email: 
                        <E T="03">Natalie.Klein@hhs.gov,</E>
                         or call (240) 453-6900.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40546"/>
                    the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of the Collection:</E>
                     Research Complaint Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Collection:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB No.:</E>
                     0990-0490.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP), is requesting a revision of the currently approved collection for the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) No. of 0990-0490, OHRP Research Complaint Form. This form provides a simplified standardized format for submitting to OHRP allegations of noncompliance involving human subject research conducted or supported by HHS. The information collected will help OHRP ensure the rights of human subjects involved in such research and that OHRP-assured institutions are complying with the HHS Protection of Human Subjects regulations.
                </P>
                <P>The revision request involves (1) updates to the form's frontmatter to conform to recent changes to the Federalwide Assurance (FWA) form (OMB No. 0990-0278); (2) addition of two new data collection elements to obtain information on the complainants' prior attempts to resolve the issue and past related submissions to OHRP; (3) clearer wording of instructions; and (4) additional details on the form about how OHRP communicates with complainants and shares information with other regulatory agencies.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Annualized Burden Hour Table</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Research Complaint Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>Members of the general public</ENT>
                        <ENT>600</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Catherine Howard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Reports Clearance Officer, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13467 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-36-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. HHS-ASPR-2026-0199]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Termination of Declaration Authorizing Emergency Use of Drug and Biological Products During the COVID-19 Pandemic</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Secretary of Health and Human Services is issuing this notice pursuant to section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C) Act. On February 4, 2020, as amended on March 15, 2023, the HHS Secretary determined that there is a public health emergency, or significant potential for a public health emergency, that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of United States (U.S.) citizens living abroad, and that involves the virus (later referred to as SARS-CoV-2) that causes COVID-19. Based on this determination, on March 27, 2020, the HHS Secretary declared that circumstances exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic. On June 29, 2026, the HHS Secretary determined that circumstances no longer exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic. Based on this determination, the HHS Secretary is terminating this declaration, effective on June 29, 2027.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Termination of the declaration for drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic is effective June 29, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        L. Paige Ezernack, telephone at (202) 260-0365 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">paige.ezernack@hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. EUA Background</HD>
                <P>Under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act, the Commissioner of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency), acting under delegated authority from the Secretary of HHS, may issue an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) authorizing (1) the emergency use of an unapproved drug, an unapproved or uncleared device, or an unlicensed biological product; or (2) an unapproved use of an approved drug, approved or cleared device, or licensed biological product.</P>
                <P>Before an EUA may be issued, the Secretary of HHS must declare that circumstances exist justifying the authorization based on one of four determinations: (1) a determination by the Secretary of Homeland Security that there is a domestic emergency, or a significant potential for a domestic emergency, involving a heightened risk of attack with a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear (“CBRN”) agent or agents; (2) the identification of a material threat by the Secretary of Homeland Security pursuant to section 319F-2 of the Public Health Service</P>
                <P>
                    (PHS) Act 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     sufficient to affect national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad; (3) a determination by the Secretary of Defense that there is a military emergency, or a significant potential for a military emergency, involving a heightened risk to U.S. military forces, including personnel operating under the authority of title 10 or title 50, of attack with (i) a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent or agents; or (ii) an agent or agents that may cause, or are otherwise associated with, an imminently life-threatening and specific risk to U.S. military forces; or (4) a determination by the Secretary that there is a public health emergency, or a significant potential for a public health emergency, that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad, and that involves a CBRN agent or agents, or a disease or condition that may be attributable to such agent or agents. Based on any of these four determinations, the Secretary of HHS may then declare that circumstances exist that justify emergency use authorization of medical product(s), at which point the FDA may issue an EUA if the criteria for issuance of an 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40547"/>
                    authorization under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act are met.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 247d-6b, which states: “[t]he Homeland Security Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary and the heads of other agencies as appropriate, shall on an ongoing basis—(i) assess current and emerging threats of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear agents; and (ii) determine which of such agents present a material threat against the United States population sufficient to affect national security.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>A declaration justifying an authorization under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act terminates upon the earlier of: (1) a determination by the Secretary of HHS, in consultation as appropriate with the Secretary of Homeland Security or the Secretary of Defense, that the circumstances justifying emergency authorization based on the determination have ceased to exist; or (2) a change in the approval status of the product under emergency authorization such that the product is no longer unapproved, unlicensed, or uncleared, or is no longer intended for an unapproved use.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Determination and Declarations That Emergency Use Is Justified by the Secretary of HHS</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 4, 2020, the HHS Secretary determined that there is a public health emergency that has significant potential to affect national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad, and that involves the SARS-CoV-2 virus that causes COVID-19. Based on such determination, on March 27, 2020, the HHS Secretary issued a declaration justifying emergency use of drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic. On March 15, 2023, the HHS Secretary amended the February 4, 2020 determination to recognize the fact that there is “a public health emergency, or 
                    <E T="03">a significant potential for a public health emergency,</E>
                     that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of [U.S.] citizens living abroad . . .” and that involves the SARS-CoV-2 virus that causes COVID-19 (emphasis added). The February 4, 2020 determination, as amended on March 15, 2023, continued to support previously issued EUA declarations, including the March 27, 2020 declaration justifying emergency use of COVID-19 drugs and biological products.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Determination of the Secretary of HHS and Termination of the Declaration That Circumstances Exist Justifying the Emergency Use of Drugs and Biological Products During the COVID-19 Pandemic</HD>
                <P>
                    The Secretary of HHS has determined circumstances no longer exist to justify emergency use of drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic. There has been decreasing reliance on the use of authorized drugs and biological products as the COVID-19 emergency progressed over time. The EUAs for COVID-19 vaccines and convalescent plasma have been revoked and there are COVID-19 vaccines and convalescent plasma products that are licensed through traditional pathways (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approval of a Biologics License Application (BLA)). There are now FDA-approved therapeutic options for all ages and across all spectrum of disease (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     mild to requiring hospitalization). The FDA continues to encourage sponsors of EUA authorized products to obtain approval as appropriate through traditional pathways (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approval of a New Drug Application (NDA) or BLA). If there is a gap between termination of an EUA authorization for a product and FDA approval, sponsors can work with the FDA to facilitate access to these investigational drugs through clinical trials and expanded access protocols, as appropriate. As such, the Secretary of HHS is terminating the declaration for drugs and biological products during the COVID-19 pandemic, effective on June 29, 2027.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Advance Notice of Termination</HD>
                <P>The Secretary must provide advance notice of any termination of a declaration under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act. The period of advance notice must be a period reasonably determined to provide: in the case of an unapproved product, a sufficient period for disposition of the product, including the return of such product (except such quantities of product as are necessary to provide for continued use consistent with section 564(f)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act) to the manufacturer (in the case of a manufacturer that chooses to have such product returned); and, in the case of an unapproved use of an approved product, a sufficient period for the disposition of any labeling, or any information under section 564(e)(2)(B)(ii) of the FD&amp;C Act, as the case may be, that was provided with respect to the emergency use involved. If an EUA for an unapproved product issued by the FDA ceases to be effective due to the termination of the Secretary of HHS's declaration justifying emergency use, the Secretary of HHS shall consult with the manufacturer of such product with respect to the appropriate disposition of the product. The FDA has determined that 12 months is a sufficient period for disposition of the products authorized under these declarations.</P>
                <P>
                    We also note that FDA has worked with the manufacturer of each currently EUA-authorized drug product about seeking marketing approval or licensure, as appropriate. Considering the currently approved and available drug products, we believe that 12 months is also a reasonable period for sponsors to complete generation of data that can support the potential submission of an NDA or BLA for review. During this 12-month transition period, FDA intends to decline to review and process any new EUA requests for COVID-19 drugs or biological products. For EUA products currently authorized under the COVID-19 declaration for drugs and biological products, FDA intends to review amendments to EUAs that are necessary or appropriate for the protection of public health (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     amendments that are necessary to facilitate appropriate use of the product as authorized, such as labeling changes to account for drug interactions or updating variant susceptibility data); the Agency does not intend to review any other requested EUA amendments, such as amendments to change an authorized product's formulation that are not necessary to facilitate appropriate use of the product as authorized.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The issuance of an EUA is discretionary. It is an authorization that the government “may” issue when necessary to protect the public health in an emergency. FDA is not required to review and process EUA requests or to issue EUAs and must in each case determine whether utilizing limited resources to review EUA requests is appropriate, balanced against other public health needs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice serves as advance notice that the drugs and biological products declaration will terminate, effective June 29, 2027, as required under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act. Notice of termination of EUAs issued by the FDA will be provided by the FDA in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , as required under section 564 of the FD&amp;C Act.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert F. Kennedy, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13374 Filed 6-30-26; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-37-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Government Owned Invention Available for License: Chimeric VLP Vaccines To Prevent HTLV-1 Infection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Cancer Institute (NCI) seeks research co-development partners and/or licensees for Chimeric VLP Vaccines to Prevent HTLV-1 Infection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40548"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Inquiries related to this license opportunity should be directed to: Diptadip Dattaroy, Ph.D., Technology Transfer Manager, NCI, Technology Transfer Center, Email: 
                        <E T="03">diptadip.dattaroy@nih.gov</E>
                         or Phone: 240-276-7092.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>There is currently no approved vaccine to prevent human T-cell leukemia virus type I (HTLV-1) infection, a highly oncogenic virus linked to serious diseases like adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) and Tropical Spastic paraparesis/HTLV-1-Associated Myelopathy (HAM/TSP). Existing interventions are limited to behavioral prevention, leaving millions at risk, especially in underserved global regions. A safe and effective vaccine is urgently needed to fill this critical public health gap.</P>
                <P>This invention is a nucleic acid-based vaccine that generates virus-like particles (VLPs) in the body using HTLV-1 Env and gag proteins to trigger a protective immune response against HTLV-1 infection. With no approved vaccines available and millions at risk, particularly in underserved regions, this first-of-its-kind solution addresses a critical public health need. It offers broad protection across HTLV-1 subtypes and is currently being tested in non-human primates, with strong potential for future clinical development and commercial interest.</P>
                <P>“This Notice is in accordance with 37 CFR 404.4 Authority to grant licenses.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">NIH Reference Number:</E>
                     E-126-2022.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Related Technologies:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Product Type:</E>
                     Therapeutic.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Therapeutic Area(s):</E>
                     Oncology | Infectious Disease | Immunology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Development Stage:</E>
                     Preclinical (
                    <E T="03">in vivo</E>
                     validation).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Publications</HD>
                <P>
                    • Franchini G, et al. 
                    <E T="03">HTLV-1 and HTLV-2: Pathogenesis and role of viral proteins. Viruses.</E>
                     2022;14(10):2084. 
                    <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.3390/v14102084.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Patents:</E>
                     National Stage Filings.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Commercial Applications</HD>
                <P>• HTLV-1 Infection.</P>
                <P>• ATLL.</P>
                <P>• Tropical Spastic paraparesis/HTLV-1-Associated HAM/TSP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Competitive Advantages</HD>
                <P>• No approved HTLV-1 vaccines.</P>
                <P>• Preventative vaccine to reduce healthcare costs and economic burden of treating people developing related diseases.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Collaboration Opportunity:</E>
                     The NCI seeks research co-development partners and/or licensees for development of a nucleic acid-based vaccine for use as a preventative to human T-lymphotrophic virus-1 (HTLV-1) infection.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Richard U. Rodriguez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director, Technology Transfer Center, National Cancer Institute.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13479 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Government Owned Invention Available for License: A Conserved Viral Peptide for Use in Cancer Immunotherapy</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Cancer Institute (NCI) seeks research co-development partners and/or licensees for viral peptide (CE1)-based therapeutics for HCC prevention and treatment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Inquiries related to this license opportunity should be directed to: Kevin Chang, Ph.D., Technology Transfer Manager, NCI, Technology Transfer Center, Email: 
                        <E T="03">changke@mail.nih.gov</E>
                         or Phone: 240-276-6910.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a common and aggressive primary liver cancer. It develops mainly from at-risk individuals with underlying chronic liver diseases, such as hepatitis and cirrhosis. HCC is a leading cause of cancer-related death worldwide, and its global incidence and mortality rate continues to rise. The current methods for early detection, surveillance and treatment are suboptimal due to complex etiologies and intricate tumor biology.</P>
                <P>Through serological profiling across three independent cohorts, researchers at the NCI have identified a common epitope (CE1) shared among protective viral antigens enriched in healthy individuals compared to HCC patients. A synthetic CE1 peptide was demonstrated to have utility in eliciting a T cell response to HCC cells and can be developed as an immunotherapy for HCC, such as a CE1-based HCC vaccine. Currently, as there are limited therapeutic options for HCC patients, novel treatments would offer tremendous commercial and public health benefits.</P>
                <P>“This Notice is in accordance with 37 CFR 404.4 Authority to grant licenses.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">NIH Reference Number:</E>
                     E-023-2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Related Technologies:</E>
                     E-171-2022, E-174-2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Product Type:</E>
                     Therapeutic.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Therapeutic Area(s):</E>
                     Oncology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Development Stage:</E>
                     Discovery.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Publications</HD>
                <P>• Ma L, et al. Beneficial infections of the enterovirus genus in patients with liver cancer. (PMID: 40345802).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Patents:</E>
                     PCT/US2025/059785, filed December 16, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Commercial Applications</HD>
                <P>• HCC prevention and treatment.</P>
                <P>• Predictive biomarker for HCC risk.</P>
                <P>○ Serological response test.</P>
                <P>○ Patient stratification for CE1-based therapy.</P>
                <P>• Monitoring the efficacy of the CE1-based vaccine.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Competitive Advantages</HD>
                <P>• VirScan data support that this peptide correlates with better outcomes in HCC and breast cancer.</P>
                <P>• CE1 peptide shows an immunomodulatory effect; immunomodulators are a promising approach to cancer treatment.</P>
                <P>• CE1 peptide is biologically active in inducing T cell cytolytic activity.</P>
                <P>• HCC cell killing in an HLA-specific manner.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Collaboration Opportunity:</E>
                     Researchers at the NCI seek licensing and/or co-development research collaborations for viral peptide CE1-based therapeutics for HCC prevention and treatment.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Richard U. Rodriguez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director, Technology Transfer Center, National Cancer Institute.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13480 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Current List of HHS-Certified Laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities Which Meet Minimum Standards To Engage in Urine and Oral Fluid Drug Testing for Federal Agencies</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) provides notice 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40549"/>
                        of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITFs) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines) using Urine and the laboratories currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anastasia Flanagan, Division of Workplace Programs, SAMHSA/CSAP, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 16N06B, Rockville, Maryland 20857; 240-276-2600 (voice); 
                        <E T="03">Anastasia.Flanagan@samhsa.hhs.gov</E>
                         (email).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) publishes a notice listing all HHS-certified laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITFs) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     monthly, in accordance with Section 9.19 of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines) using Urine and Section 9.17 of the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid. If any laboratory or IITF certification is suspended or revoked, the laboratory or IITF will be omitted from subsequent lists until such time as it is restored to full certification under the Mandatory Guidelines.
                </P>
                <P>If any laboratory or IITF has withdrawn from the HHS National Laboratory Certification Program (NLCP) during the past month, it will be listed at the end and will be omitted from the monthly listing thereafter.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice is also available on the internet at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.samhsa.gov/workplace/drug-testing-resources/certified-lab-list.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Mandatory Guidelines using Urine were first published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 11, 1988 (53 FR 11970), and subsequently revised in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on June 9, 1994 (59 FR 29908); September 30, 1997 (62 FR 51118); April 13, 2004 (69 FR 19644); November 25, 2008 (73 FR 71858); December 10, 2008 (73 FR 75122); April 30, 2010 (75 FR 22809); January 23, 2017 (82 FR 7920); and on October 12, 2023 (88 FR 70768).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid were first published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 25, 2019 (84 FR 57554) with an effective date of January 1, 2020, and subsequently revised in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 12, 2023 (88 FR 70814).
                </P>
                <P>The Mandatory Guidelines were initially developed in accordance with Executive Order 12564 and section 503 of Public Law 100-71 and allowed urine drug testing only. The Mandatory Guidelines using Urine have since been revised, and new Mandatory Guidelines allowing for oral fluid drug testing have been published. The Mandatory Guidelines require strict standards that laboratories and IITFs must meet in order to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on specimens for Federal agencies. HHS does not allow IITFs to conduct oral fluid testing.</P>
                <P>To become certified, an applicant laboratory or IITF must undergo three rounds of performance testing plus an on-site inspection. To maintain that certification, a laboratory or IITF must participate in a quarterly performance testing program plus undergo periodic, on-site inspections.</P>
                <P>Laboratories and IITFs in the applicant stage of certification are not to be considered as meeting the minimum requirements described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines using Urine and/or Oral Fluid. An HHS-certified laboratory or IITF must have its letter of certification from HHS/SAMHSA (formerly: HHS/NIDA), which attests that the test facility has met minimum standards.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">HHS-Certified Laboratories Approved To Conduct Oral Fluid Drug Testing</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid effective October 10, 2023 (88 FR 70814), the following HHS-certified laboratories meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on oral fluid specimens:</P>
                <P>At this time, there are no laboratories certified to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on oral fluid specimens.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">HHS-Certified Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities Approved To Conduct Urine Drug Testing</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Urine effective February 1, 2024 (88 FR 70768), the following HHS-certified IITFs meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dynacare, 6628 50th Street NW, Edmonton, AB Canada T6B 2N7, 780-784-1190, (Formerly: Gamma-Dynacare Medical Laboratories)</FP>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>DOT does not allow IITFs to test DOT-regulated specimens.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">HHS-Certified Laboratories Approved To Conduct Urine Drug Testing</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Urine effective February 1, 2024 (88 FR 70768), the following HHS-certified laboratories meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Alere Toxicology Services, 1111 Newton St., Gretna, LA 70053, 504-361-8989/800-433-3823, (Formerly: Kroll Laboratory Specialists, Inc., Laboratory Specialists, Inc.)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Clinical Reference Laboratory, Inc., 8433 Quivira Road, Lenexa, KS 66215-2802, 800-445-6917</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Desert Tox, LLC, 5425 E Bell Rd, Suite 125, Scottsdale, AZ, 85254, 602-457-5411/623-748-5045</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DrugScan, Inc., 200 Precision Road, Suite 200, Horsham, PA 19044, 800-235-4890</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dynacare, 245 Pall Mall Street, London, ONT, Canada N6A 1P4, 519-679-1630, (Formerly: Gamma-Dynacare Medical Laboratories)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ElSohly Laboratories, Inc., 5 Industrial Park Drive, Oxford, MS 38655, 662-236-2609</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LabOne, Inc. d/b/a Quest Diagnostics, 10101 Renner Blvd., Lenexa, KS 66219, 913-888-3927/800-873-8845, (Formerly: Quest Diagnostics Incorporated; LabOne, Inc.; Center for Laboratory Services, a Division of LabOne, Inc.)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laboratory Corporation of America Holdings, 7207 N Gessner Road, Houston, TX 77040, 713-856-8288/800-800-2387</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laboratory Corporation of America Holdings, 1904 TW Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, 919-572-6900/800-833-3984, (Formerly: LabCorp Occupational Testing Services, Inc., CompuChem Laboratories, Inc.; CompuChem Laboratories, Inc., A Subsidiary of Roche Biomedical Laboratory; Roche CompuChem Laboratories, Inc., A Member of the Roche Group)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MedTox Laboratories, Inc., 402 W County Road D, St. Paul, MN 55112, 651-636-7466/800-832-3244</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Minneapolis Veterans Affairs Medical Center, Forensic Toxicology Laboratory, 1 Veterans Drive, Minneapolis, MN 55417, 612-725-2088, Testing for Veterans Affairs (VA) Employees Only</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pacific Toxicology Laboratories, 9348 DeSoto Ave., Chatsworth, CA 91311, 800-328-6942, (Formerly: Centinela Hospital Airport Toxicology Laboratory)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Phamatech, Inc., 15175 Innovation Drive, San Diego, CA 92128, 888-635-5840</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">US Army Forensic Toxicology Drug Testing Laboratory, 2490 Wilson St., Fort George G. Meade, MD 20755-5235, 301-677-7085, Testing for Department of Defense (DoD) Employees Only</FP>
                <PRTPAGE P="40550"/>
                <P>The following laboratories are voluntarily withdrawing from the National Laboratory Certification Program effective June 30, 2026.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laboratory Corporation of America Holdings, 69 First Ave., Raritan, NJ 08869, 908-526-2400/800-437-4986, (Formerly: Roche Biomedical Laboratories, Inc.)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laboratory Corporation of America Holdings, 1120 Main Street, Southaven, MS 38671, 866-827-8042/800-233-6339, (Formerly: LabCorp Occupational Testing Services, Inc.; MedExpress/National Laboratory Center)</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Carlos Castillo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Public Health Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13402 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-20-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Determination Pursuant to Section 102 of the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, as Amended</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of determination.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Secretary of Homeland Security has determined, pursuant to law, that it is necessary to waive certain laws, regulations, and other legal requirements in order to ensure the expeditious construction of barriers and roads in the vicinity of the international land border in the state of Texas. The notice of determination was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on February 17, 2026. This document amends the February 17, 2026, notice of determination by including additional legal requirements that are being waived.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This determination takes effect on July 2, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Important mission requirements of the Department of Homeland Security (“DHS”) include border security and the detection and prevention of illegal entry into the United States. Border security is critical to the nation's national security. Recognizing the critical importance of border security, Congress has mandated DHS to achieve and maintain operational control of the international land border. Secure Fence Act of 2006, Public Law 109-367, section 2, 120 Stat. 2638 (Oct. 26, 2006) (8 U.S.C. 1701 note). Congress defined “operational control” as the prevention of all unlawful entries into the United States, including entries by terrorists, other unlawful aliens, instruments of terrorism, narcotics, and other contraband. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Consistent with that mandate, the President's Executive Order on Securing Our Borders directs that I take all appropriate action to deploy and construct physical barriers to ensure complete operational control of the southern border of the United States. Executive Order 14165, section 3 (Jan. 20, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>Congress has provided the Secretary of Homeland Security a number of authorities necessary to carry out DHS's border security mission. One of those authorities is found at section 102 of the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, as amended (“IIRIRA”). Public Law 104-208, Div. C, 110 Stat. 3009-546, 3009-554 (Sept. 30, 1996) (8 U.S.C 1103 note), as amended by the REAL ID Act of 2005, Public Law 109-13, Div. B, 119 Stat. 231, 302, 306 (May 11, 2005) (8 U.S.C. 1103 note), as amended by the Secure Fence Act of 2006, Public Law 109-367, section 3, 120 Stat. 2638 (Oct. 26, 2006) (8 U.S.C. 1103 note), as amended by the Department of Homeland Security Appropriations Act, 2008, Public Law 110-161, Div. E, Title V, section 564, 121 Stat. 2090 (Dec. 26, 2007). In section 102(a) of IIRIRA, Congress provided that the Secretary of Homeland Security shall take such actions as may be necessary to install additional physical barriers and roads (including the removal of obstacles to detection of illegal entrants) in the vicinity of the United States border to deter illegal crossings in areas of high illegal entry into the United States. In section 102(b) of IIRIRA, Congress mandated that in carrying out the authority of section 102(a), I provide for the installation of additional fencing, barriers, roads, lighting, cameras, and sensors to achieve and maintain operational control of the border. Finally, in section 102(c) of IIRIRA, Congress granted to the Secretary of Homeland Security the authority to waive all legal requirements that I, in my sole discretion, determine necessary to ensure the expeditious construction of barriers and roads authorized by section 102 of IIRIRA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination and Waiver</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 1</HD>
                <P>The United States Border Patrol Big Bend Sector is an area of high illegal entry. Between fiscal year 2021 and fiscal year 2025, Border Patrol apprehended over 89,000 illegal aliens attempting to enter the United States between border crossings in the Big Bend Sector. In that same time period Border Patrol seized over 87,574 pounds of marijuana, over 867 pounds of cocaine, over 1,156 pounds of methamphetamine, over 12 pounds of heroin, and over 94 pounds of fentanyl.</P>
                <P>Since the President took office, DHS has delivered the most secure border in history. More can and must be done, however. As the statistics cited above demonstrate, the Big Bend Sector is an area of high illegal entry where illegal aliens regularly attempt to enter the United States and smuggle illicit drugs, and given my mandate to achieve and maintain operational control of the border, I must use my authority under section 102 of IIRIRA to install additional barriers and roads in the Big Bend Sector. Therefore, DHS will take immediate action to construct additional barriers and roads in a segment of the border in the Big Bend Sector. The segment where such construction will occur is referred to herein as the “project area,” which is more specifically described in Section 2 below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 2</HD>
                <P>I determine that the following area in the vicinity of the United States border, located in the state of Texas within the U. S. Border Patrol Big Bend Sector, is an area of high illegal entry (the “project area”): Starting at approximately GPS point 31.037623, −105.579877 and extending south and east to approximately GPS point 29.325866, −104.046466.</P>
                <P>There is presently an acute and immediate need to construct additional physical barriers and roads in the vicinity of the border of the United States in order to prevent unlawful entries into the United States in the project area pursuant to section 102(a) and 102(b) of IIRIRA. In order to ensure the expeditious construction of additional physical barriers and roads in the project area, I have determined that it is necessary that I exercise the authority that is vested in me by section 102(c) of IIRIRA.</P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, pursuant to section 102(c) of IIRIRA, I hereby waive in their entirety, with respect to the construction of physical barriers and roads (including, but not limited to, accessing the project areas, creating and using staging areas, the conduct of earthwork, excavation, fill, and site preparation, and installation and upkeep of physical barriers, roads, supporting elements, drainage, erosion controls, safety features, lighting, cameras, and sensors) in the project 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40551"/>
                    area, all of the following statutes, including all federal, state, or other laws, regulations, and legal requirements of, deriving from, or related to the subject of, the following statutes, as amended: The National Environmental Policy Act (Pub. L. 91-190, 83 Stat. 852 (Jan. 1, 1970) (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Endangered Species Act (Pub. L. 93-205, 87 Stat. 884 (Dec. 28, 1973) (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (commonly referred to as the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the National Historic Preservation Act (Pub. L. 89-665, 80 Stat. 915 (Oct. 15, 1966), as amended, repealed, or replaced by Public Law 113-287 (Dec. 19, 2014) (formerly codified at 16 U.S.C. 470 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     now codified at 54 U.S.C. 100101 note and 54 U.S.C. 300101 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 U.S.C. 703 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Migratory Bird Conservation Act (16 U.S.C. 715 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Archeological Resources Protection Act (Pub. L. 96-95 (16 U.S.C. 470aa 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Paleontological Resources Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470aaa 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Federal Cave Resources Protection Act of 1988 (16 U.S.C. 4301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the National Trails System Act (16 U.S.C. 1241 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Safe Drinking Water Act (42 U.S.C. 300f 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Noise Control Act (42 U.S.C. 4901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Archaeological and Historic Preservation Act (Pub. L. 86-523, as amended, repealed, or replaced by Pub. L. 113-287 (Dec. 19, 2014) (formerly codified at 16 U.S.C. 469 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     now codified at 54 U.S.C. 312502 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Antiquities Act (formerly codified at 16 U.S.C. 431 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     and 16 U.S.C. 431a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     now codified 54 U.S.C. 320301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Historic Sites, Buildings, and Antiquities Act (formerly codified at 16 U.S.C. 461 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     now codified at 54 U.S.C. 320301-320303 &amp; 320101-320106); the Eagle Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 668 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (25 U.S.C. 3001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); Section 438 of the Energy Independence and Security Act (42 U.S.C. 17094); the National Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 (Pub. L. 84-1024 (16 U.S.C. 742a, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act (Pub. L. 73-121 (16 U.S.C. 661 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); the Farmland Protection Policy Act (7 U.S.C. 4201 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Wild Horse and Burro Act (16 U.S.C. 1331 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); 43 U.S.C. 387; the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (Pub. L. 90-542 (16 U.S.C. 1281 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (Pub L. 94-579 (43 U.S.C. 1701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )); 33 U.S.C. 408; and the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899 (33 U.S.C. 403 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>This waiver does not revoke or supersede any other waiver determination made pursuant to section 102(c) of IIRIRA. Such waivers shall remain in full force and effect in accordance with their terms. I reserve the authority to execute further waivers from time to time as I may determine to be necessary under section 102 of IIRIRA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Markwayne Mullin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13419 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number: FR-7106-N-32]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; Matching Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Single Family Program Development, Department of Housing and Urban Development.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a new matching program.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) and the Small Business Administration (SBA) are providing notice of a new computer matching program. Under this program, SBA will provide HUD with delinquent debtor data for inclusion in HUD's Credit Alert Verification Reporting System (CAIVRS). CAIVRS is a shared, government-wide database that contains information on individuals who are delinquent or in default on Federal debts. Participating Federal agencies, their authorized contractors, and approved financial institutions use CAIVRS to prescreen applicants for Federal direct loans or federally guaranteed loans to determine whether the applicant is delinquent in repaying a debt owed to, or guaranteed by, the Federal Government. This matching program supports Federal credit eligibility determinations and promotes the integrity of Federal lending programs.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments due date: August 3, 2026. The matching program will commence no sooner than 30 days after publication of this notice, provided no comments are received that warrant a change to this notice. The matching program will be conducted for an initial term of 18 months, beginning approximately July 2, 2026, and may be renewed for one additional year within three months of expiration if the parties make no changes to the matching program and certify that it has been conducted in compliance with the computer matching agreement.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested parties may submit comments as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">Electronically.</E>
                         Interested persons are invited to submit comments electronically to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Commenters should follow the instructions provided on the website to submit comments regarding this matching program. To locate the appropriate notice, commenters may search 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         using the title of this Matching Notice, the participating agency names, or by viewing recently posted HUD dockets and documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">By Regular Mail.</E>
                         You may mail written comments to the following address: U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, Office of Single Family Program Development, Home Mortgage Insurance Division, 451 Seventh Street SW, Washington, DC 20410.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For general inquiries regarding HUD's participation in this matching program, contact LeJorian Stewart, Management Analyst, Single Family Program Development, Home Mortgage Insurance Division, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, at (202) 402-2334 or 
                        <E T="03">LeJorian.J.Stewart@hud.gov.</E>
                         If contacting either agency by email, please state “Public inquiry: SBA CMA” in the email subject line.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For inquiries regarding the Small Business Administration's participation in this matching program, contact Jihoon Kim, Director, Financial Program Operations, Office of Capital Access, Small Business Administration, at (202) 420-0304 or 
                        <E T="03">Jihoon.Kim@sba.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For SBA privacy or security-related inquiries, contact Michael Post, Chief Information Security Officer (Acting) and Chief Privacy Officer (Acting), Office of the Chief Information Officer, Small Business Administration, at (202) 205-3645 or 
                        <E T="03">Michael.Post@sba.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">PrivacyOfficer@sba.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a), establishes requirements governing the use of computer matching by Federal agencies when records in a system of records are compared with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40552"/>
                    records maintained by other Federal or non-Federal agencies. The Act provides certain protections for individuals whose records are used in such matching programs. Under the Privacy Act, agencies participating in a computer matching program must:
                </P>
                <P>1. Enter into a written agreement, which must be prepared in accordance with the Privacy Act, approved by the Data Integrity Board (DIB) of each source and recipient Federal agency, provided to Congress and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and made available to the public, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(o), (u)(3)(A), and (u)(4).</P>
                <P>2. Notify the individuals whose information will be used in the matching program that the information they provide is subject to verification through matching, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(o)(1)(D).</P>
                <P>3. Verify match findings before suspending, terminating, reducing, or making a final denial of an individual's benefits or payments or taking other adverse action against the individual, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(p).</P>
                <P>4. Report the matching program to Congress and the OMB, in advance and annually, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(o)(2)(A)(i), (r), and (u)(3)(D).</P>
                <P>
                    5. Publish advance notice of the matching program in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(12).
                </P>
                <P>This computer matching program meets these requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Participating Agencies</HD>
                <P>HUD is the recipient agency, and SBA is the source agency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for Conducting the Matching Program</HD>
                <P>• The Debt Collection Act of 1982, Public Law 97-365 (5 U.S.C. 5514), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134 (31 U.S.C. 3701 et. seq.);</P>
                <P>• The Deficit Reduction Act of 1984, Section 2653 of Public Law 98-369 (26 U.S.C. 6402; 31 U.S.C. 3720a; and § 3721);</P>
                <P>
                    • The Federal Credit Reform Act of 1990 (2 U.S.C. 661 
                    <E T="03">et. seq.</E>
                    ), as amended;
                </P>
                <P>
                    • The Federal Debt Collection Procedures Act of 1990, Public Law 101-647 (28 U.S.C. 3001 
                    <E T="03">et. seq.</E>
                    ), as amended;
                </P>
                <P>• The Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990 (CMIA), Public Law 101-453, as amended by the Cash Management Improvement Act of 1992, Public Law 102-589;</P>
                <P>• Pre-existing common law authority to charge interest on debts and to offset payments to collect debts administratively (31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711-3720E, 3721); and 24 CFR 17.61 through 17.113.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose(s):</HD>
                <P>The computer matching agreement sets forth the respective responsibilities of HUD and SBA in providing SBA debtor data to CAIVRS. The CAIVRS debtor file contains Social Security numbers (SSNs) and other identifying information for delinquent or defaulted Federal debts reported by participating agencies.</P>
                <P>The system enables Federal agencies, authorized contractors, and financial institutions to prescreen applicants for Federal loans to determine whether an applicant is delinquent on a Federal obligation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Individuals</HD>
                <P>Individuals associated with delinquent SBA direct or federally guaranteed loans, including borrowers, co-borrowers, guarantors, and other obligors associated with SBA disaster assistance and business loan programs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Records</HD>
                <P>The categories of records used in this matching program consist of delinquent debtor information maintained by SBA, including:</P>
                <P>• Borrower identification number (SSN, Employer Identification Number (EIN), or Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);</P>
                <P>• Borrower identification type;</P>
                <P>• Agency code;</P>
                <P>• Case number assigned by the reporting agency; and</P>
                <P>
                    • Type code identifying the status of the delinquent Federal debt (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     claim, default, foreclosure, or judgment).
                </P>
                <P>These data elements are transmitted by SBA to HUD for inclusion in CAIVRS and are used solely for prescreening applicants for Federal direct or federally guaranteed loans. HUD sends SSNs to CAIVRS for matching purposes to identify individuals with delinquent Federal debt.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">System(s) of Records</HD>
                <P>Credit Alert Verification Reporting System (CAIVRS), HUD/HOU-04, 90 FR 57481 (December 11, 2025).</P>
                <P>Financial Data Mart (FDM), HUD/OCFO-04, 91 FR 22846 (April 28, 2026). An update is pending publication.</P>
                <P>SBA Disaster Loan Case File (SBA 20) (74 FR 14890, April 1, 2009).</P>
                <P>SBA Loan Systems (SBA 21) (as amended by 77 FR 61467, October 9, 2012, and 86 FR 23026, June 14, 2021.)</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kimberly Morton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief Privacy Officer, Office of Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13378 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USGS-2025-0336; OMB Control Number 1028-0092; GX26EF00COM0000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Topographic and Hydrography Data Grants</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">Internet: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for and submit comments on Docket No. USGS-2025-0336.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">U.S. Mail:</E>
                         USGS, Information Collections Clearance Officer, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 159, Reston, VA 20192.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this information collection request (ICR), contact Diana Thunen by email at 
                        <E T="03">dthunen@usgs.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at 303-202-4279. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or Tele Braille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40553"/>
                    and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on April 24, 2026 (91 FR 22164). No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other Federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comments addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The 3D National Topography Model (3DNTM) is a USGS-led effort to modernize and integrate the nation's elevation and hydrography data through the 3D Elevation Program (3DEP) and the 3D Hydrography Program (3DHP). This effort supports the most advanced scientific and operational needs by delivering high-quality, accessible topographic data. The 3DNTM is built on core components that align with federal mandates, including the National Landslide Preparedness Act, which authorized 3DEP, and the Geospatial Data Act of 2018, which directs federal agencies to (1) collect, maintain, disseminate, and preserve geospatial data such that the resulting data, information, or products can be readily shared with other Federal agencies and non-Federal users; and (2) coordinate and work in partnership with other Federal agencies, agencies of States, Tribal, and local governments, institutions of higher education, and the private sector to efficiently and cost-effectively collect, integrate, maintain, disseminate, and preserve geospatial data, building upon existing non-Federal geospatial data to the extent possible. The success of 3DNTM depends on shared investment from a wide range of stakeholders who benefit from high-resolution three-dimensional topographic data. To support this collaboration, the annual 3DNTM Data Collaboration Announcement provides a formal opportunity for partners to work with USGS and other federal agencies to acquire 3DEP lidar or 3DHP hydrography data. Eligible applicants include federal agencies, state and local governments, tribal nations, academic institutions, and private sector organizations. USGS collects information from applicants about their proposed topographic data collection and cost sharing to determine project acceptance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Topographic and Hydrography Data Grants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-0092.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State and local governments, tribes, academic institutions, and the private sector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     80.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     80.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     41 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,280.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Non-hour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct, or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Rebecca Anderson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, National Geospatial Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13361 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4338-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USGS-2026-0331; GR26ZS00MD86700; OMB Control Number 1028-0140]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Terrestrial Analogs Survey</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is proposing to renew an information collection with revisions.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested people are invited to submit comments on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">Internet: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for and submit comments on Docket No. USGS-2026-0331.
                    </P>
                    <P> By mail to Amber Gullikson, 2255 North Gemini Drive, Flagstaff, Arizona 86001.</P>
                    <P>
                         By email to 
                        <E T="03">agullikson@usgs.gov</E>
                         (Please reference OMB Control Number 1028-0140 in the subject line of your comments).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this information collection request (ICR), contact Amber Gullikson by email at 
                        <E T="03">agullikson@usgs.gov</E>
                         or by phone at 928-556-7009. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), all information collections require approval under the PRA. We may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40554"/>
                    unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are especially interested in public comments addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The USGS developed and released a survey to assess the terrestrial analog needs of the planetary science community. The goal was to assess the current state of terrestrial analog studies and determine community needs related to the use of field sites for training and research, data dissemination and archiving, and sample collections. The survey was designed to gather feedback from community members who have a self-described interest in the use of terrestrial analogs. The web-based questionnaire contained a total of 33 questions and was designed to take &lt;10 minutes to complete. The questionnaire was divided into four sections: (1) “Respondent Details,” (2) “Field Analog Use,” (3) “Data Portal Use,” and (4) “Geologic Materials Collection Use.” Comment boxes were provided for 12 of the 33 questions, which allowed respondents to provide more detailed comments to individual questions. The questionnaire received a total of 248 responses. We identified 21 notable findings which are matched with one or more recommendations to be addressed by the planetary science community.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Assessing Community Needs for Terrestrial Analog Studies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-0140.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection. The purpose of the revision is to assess the current terrestrial analog needs of the planetary science community and evaluate how well the community perceives the previous survey's findings, recommendations, and the changes implemented in response to those needs, to determine whether those changes have been effective or if additional measures are necessary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     The planetary science community, which includes scientists from universities, institutions, government agencies, and students (both undergraduate and graduate). The questionnaire received a total of 248 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     248.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     223.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     2.6 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     Average of 12.5 minutes to complete entire survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     First ten questions were on demographic and background information, which were all mandatory. The remaining sections, that is, Field Analog Use, Data Portal Use, and Terrestrial Analog Sample Collection Use were all voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Chris Okubo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>USGS Astrogeology Science Center Director, Southwest Region.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13401 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4338-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USGS-E&amp;M-2026-0001; OMB Control Number 1028-0133; GX26GB00H7G3D00]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Earth Mapping Resources Initiative (Earth MRI) Competitive Cooperative Agreement Program With State Geological Surveys</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS), is proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">Internet: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for and submit comments on Docket No. USGS-E&amp;M-2026-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">U.S. Mail:</E>
                         USGS, Information Collections Clearance Officer, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 159, Reston, VA 20192.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this information collection request (ICR), contact Tina Hamalak by email at 
                        <E T="03">earthmri@usgs.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at 303-236-5766. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or Tele Braille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the PRA of 1995 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40555"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on March 18, 2026 (91 FR 13051). No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Public Law 117-58, Section 40201, “Earth Mapping Resources Initiative” contained in the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (IIJA) authorizes and accelerates the mapping efforts of the Earth Mapping Resources Initiative (Earth MRI).
                </P>
                <P>Earth MRI is a component of the USGS Mineral Resources Program and is a national effort to carry out the fundamental resources and mapping mission of the USGS. The goal of Earth MRI is to modernize the surface and subsurface geologic mapping of the United States, with a focus on identifying areas that may have the potential to contain mineral resources.</P>
                <P>The IIJA directed the USGS to accelerate efforts to carry out fundamental integrated topographic, geologic, geochemical, and geophysical mapping and provide interpretation of subsurface and above-ground (mine waste) critical-mineral resources data at a funding level of $320,000,000 annually for five years (FY2022-FY2026). Additionally, Executive Order 14154, “Unleashing American Energy” (January 20, 2025), directed the Department in section 9(d) to “accelerate the ongoing, detailed geological mapping of the United States, with a focus on locating previously unknown deposits of critical minerals.”</P>
                <P>IIJA Section 40201 stipulates that the USGS may enter into cooperative agreements with State geological surveys to carry out the efforts of Earth MRI. The USGS developed a new competitive cooperative agreement program with the State geological surveys to support mine-waste activities authorized by the IIJA. State geological surveys apply for funds through an annual competitive agreement process. Individual State projects last for up to two years.</P>
                <P>The IIJA requires the USGS to collect information necessary to ensure that cooperative agreement funds authorized by this legislation are used in accordance with the IIJA and federal assistance requirements under 2 CFR 200. Information collected by Earth MRI as part of the consolidated workplan is described below. The USGS seeks Office of Management and Budget approval to continue to collect this information to manage and monitor cooperative agreement awards and comply with the IIJA and federal assistance requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Earth Mapping Resources Initiative (Earth MRI) Competitive Cooperative Agreement Program with State Geological Surveys.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-0133.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State Geological Surveys.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     125.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applications:</E>
                     25 × 60 hrs. = 1,500 hrs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Progress Reports:</E>
                     25 recipients × (3 reports × 8 hrs.) = 600 hrs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Final Reports:</E>
                     25 × 20 hrs. = 500 hrs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,500 + 600 + 500 = 2,600 hrs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain a benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct, or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sarah Ryker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director for Geology, Energy, and Minerals Mission Area, U.S. Geological Survey.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13405 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4388-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Indian Affairs</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[267A2100DD/AAKP300000/A0A501010.000000; OMB Control Number 1076-0172]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Class III Tribal-State Gaming Compact Process</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs (AS-IA) is proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To submit comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/BIA-2022-0005/document</E>
                         or use the search field on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         to find the “BIA-2022-0005” docket. Please follow the instructions on 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         for submitting a comment; and reference the “OMB Control Number 1076-0172” within your comment submission. You may also mail comments to Indian Affairs, RACA, 1001 Indian School Road NW, Suite 229, Albuquerque, NM 87104.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Steven Mullen, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Regulatory Affairs and Collaborative Action—Indian Affairs, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1001 Indian School Road NW, Suite 229, Albuquerque, New Mexico 87104; 
                        <E T="03">comments@bia.gov;</E>
                         (202) 208-5403. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://
                            <PRTPAGE P="40556"/>
                            www.reginfo.gov/public/Forward?SearchTarget=PRA&amp;textfield=1076-0172.
                        </E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public, and other Federal agencies, with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The information collected includes Tribal-state compacts or compact amendments entered into by Indian Tribes and State governments. The Secretary of the Interior reviews this information under 25 CFR 293, Class III Tribal-State Gaming Compact Process and the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA), 25 U.S.C. 2710(d)(8)(A), (B) and (C), which authorizes the Secretary to approve, disapprove, or “consider approved” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     deemed approved) a Tribal-state gaming compact or compact amendment and publish notice of that approval or considered approval in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Class III Tribal-State Gaming Compact Process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1076-0172.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Indian Tribes and State governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     40 per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     40 per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     200 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     8,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain a benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Mullen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Regulatory Affairs and Collaborative Action—Indian Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13437 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4337-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7259; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043097; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual was removed from the Northwest corner of Montana along the Canadian border and adjacent to Glacier National Park by Leonard D. Frescoln, MD, in 1915. Correspondence from Frescoln indicates that the individual was removed from an old burial place of the Blackfeet Reservation near Browning, Montana and that the associated Tribe spoke the Piegan language. The remains consist of an adult male skull and were donated to the Army Medical Museum in March of 1916.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40557"/>
                    and the Blackfeet Tribe of the Blackfeet Indian Reservation of Montana.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after July 31, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13322 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7255; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043091; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Beloit College, Logan Museum of Anthropology, Beloit, WI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Beloit College, Logan Museum of Anthropology (LMA) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Nicolette B. Meister, Beloit College, Logan Museum of Anthropology, 700 College Street, Beloit, WI 53511, email 
                        <E T="03">meistern@beloit.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the LMA, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 45 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 45 nā mea kapu (sacred objects) are a makau (7499 fishhook) gifted by Herbert Zim; two pōhaku (1840.1-.2 stones), two ko'i (1840.3-.4 adze), and a mea ku'i (1840.5 stone pestle) removed from a cave on Mauna Kea, ca. 1958 and gifted by an alumna ca. 1962; 14 pieces of kapa and one piece of wauke (3749.1-.15 tapa and raw tapa) purchased from Reverend Glen Ridnour in 1960 and obtained by him the same year from the Wisconsin Historical Society which obtained the items from Minnie M. Oakley in 1897; nine pieces of kapa and one piece of wauke (3750.1-.10 tapa and raw tapa) purchased from Reverend Glen Ridnour in 1960 and obtained by him the same year from the Wisconsin Historical Society which obtained the items from Chief Justice Lyon in 1897; two pieces of kapa (3753.1-.2 tapa) purchased from Reverend Glen Ridnour in 1960 and obtained by him the same year from the Wisconsin Historical Society which obtained the items from Mrs. Chas. A. Paeschke in 1908; three pieces of kapa, a hohoa, two i'e kuku, and two pōhaku ku'i'ai (3756 and 3762.1-.2 tapa, 3726-3728 tapa beaters, and 3743-3744 poi ponders) purchased from Reverend Glen Ridnour in 1960 and obtained by him the same year from the Wisconsin Historical Society which obtained the items from Brother Joseph Dutton in 1928; a pe'ahi (3262 fan) obtained from Reverend Alfred Christopher Walkup at an unknown date; a 'umeke lā'au (3894 wooden bowl) gifted by the Wisconsin Historical Society; a piece of kapa (3758 tapa) purchased from Reverend Glen Ridnour in 1960 and obtained by him the same year from the Wisconsin Historical Society which obtained the items from Mrs. J. Hall in 1902; and a ihe (3088 spear or lance) purchased from Louis Didon, a French collector and amateur archaeologist, in 1926. The LMA is unaware of any treatment of these items with hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The LMA has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 45 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Hui Iwi Kuamo'o.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the LMA must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The LMA is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13317 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40558"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7263; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043101; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The remains consist of the nearly complete skeleton of a child approximately 1.5-2 years old. The individual was removed from Dakota Territory by U.S. Army Assistant Surgeon Charles C. Gray and sent to the Smithsonian Institution in May 1868. Correspondence from Charles C. Gray identifies the cultural affiliation as Yanktonai Sioux. The remains were transferred to the Army Medical Museum in February 1869. The cranium was anatomically prepared to demonstrate dental development. The remains were subsequently re-cataloged in April 1869, resulting in a numbering discrepancy that has cast doubt on the exact cultural affiliation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Assiniboine and Sioux Tribes of the Fort Peck Indian Reservation, Montana; Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe of the Cheyenne River Reservation, South Dakota; Crow Creek Sioux Tribe of the Crow Creek Reservation, South Dakota; Flandreau Santee Sioux Tribe of South Dakota; Sisseton-Wahpeton Oyate of the Lake Traverse Reservation, South Dakota; Spirit Lake Tribe, North Dakota; Standing Rock Sioux Tribe of North &amp; South Dakota; and the Yankton Sioux Tribe of South Dakota.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after July 31, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13326 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7271; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043115; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, Chapel Hill, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Claire Auerbach, The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, 207 East Cameron Avenue Suite 108, Chapel Hill, NC 27514, email 
                        <E T="03">cauerb@unc.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. In 1964, human remains were surface collected from P3PO503/3CS61Turnbow Mounds/Place in Poinsett County, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40559"/>
                    Arkansas. The site name and number were not known until after consultation was concluded and the Arkansas Archaeological Survey was able to assist in identification of the site. These remains were accessioned into the collection at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill in 1996.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The determination of cultural affiliation was based on multiple lines of evidence, including consultation with the Quapaw Nation, geographic association of the site within the Nation's ancestral territory, and the regional archaeological and historical record. Information considered included the Quapaw Nation's long-standing presence in the region, previous cultural affiliation determinations for nearby archaeological sites, and the presence of Mississippian-period ceramics at the site. Together, these lines of evidence support a relationship of shared group identity between the human remains and the Quapaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Quapaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13333 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7260; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043098; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual was purchased by the Army Medical Museum from an unknown seller in March of 1874. The human remains consist of the complete skeleton and scalp with hair of an adult female with achondroplasia. After the initial accession, a note was added at an unknown date to the AMM logbook entry for this individual which reads, “Chippewa. Mew-a-sin-a-oqua.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Bad River Band of the Lake Superior Tribe of Chippewa Indians of the Bad River Reservation, Wisconsin; Bay Mills Indian Community, Michigan; Chippewa Cree Indians of the Rocky Boy's Reservation, Montana; Grand Traverse Band of Ottawa and Chippewa Indians, Michigan; Keweenaw Bay Indian Community, Michigan; Lac Courte Oreilles Band of Lake Superior Chippewa Indians of Wisconsin; Lac du Flambeau Band of Lake Superior Chippewa Indians of the Lac du Flambeau Reservation of Wisconsin; Lac Vieux Desert Band of Lake Superior Chippewa Indians of Michigan; Minnesota Chippewa Tribe, Minnesota (Six component reservations: Bois Forte Band (Nett Lake); Fond du Lac Band; Grand Portage Band; Leech Lake Band; Mille Lacs Band; White Earth Band); Red Cliff Band of Lake Superior Chippewa Indians of Wisconsin; Red Lake Band of Chippewa Indians, Minnesota; Saginaw Chippewa Indian Tribe of Michigan; Sault Ste. Marie Tribe of Chippewa Indians, Michigan; Sokaogon Chippewa Community, Wisconsin; St. Croix Chippewa Indians of Wisconsin; and the Turtle Mountain Band of Chippewa Indians of North Dakota.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40560"/>
                    authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after July 31, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13323 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7251; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043087; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Gilcrease Museum, Tulsa, OK</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Gilcrease Museum intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Laura Bryant, Gilcrease Museum, 1400 N. Gilcrease Museum Road, Tulsa, OK 74127, email 
                        <E T="03">laura-bryant@utulsa.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Gilcrease Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of two cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The two unassociated funerary objects are a stone scraper and a turtle effigy pipe bowl. These were removed from an unknown site in Union County, Mississippi. The pipe bowl was found in 1870 and was purchased from Harry Lemley by Thomas Gilcrease in 1955 and then transferred to the City of Tulsa. The scraper was acquired by Gilcrease Museum in the 1950s or early 1960s.</P>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The one unassociated funerary object is a chunkey stone. The item was removed from an unknown site at an unknown time near Tupelo in Lee County, Mississippi. Gilcrease Museum acquired the item in the 1950s.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Gilcrease Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The three unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and The Chickasaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Gilcrease Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Gilcrease Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13313 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7268; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043108; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, Philadelphia, PA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology (Penn Museum) has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40561"/>
                        this notice to Dr. Christopher Woods, Williams Director, University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology, 3260 South Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104-6324, email 
                        <E T="03">director@pennmuseum.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Penn Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, three individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. At an unknown date between 1836 and 1838, human remains were recovered from a Mohawk cemetery near Manheim in Herkimer County, New York by Lardner Vanuxem (b. 1792-d. 1848), a New York State Geological Survey mineralogist, and John J. Beardslee (b. 1812-d. 1846), a local resident who owned property in the county. The human remains consist of the partial remains of one adult male individual and two adult female individuals.</P>
                <P>By 1840, Mr. Vanuxem and Mr. Beardslee transferred the human remains to Dr. Samuel G. Morton (b. 1799-d. 1851). Beginning in 1830, the Academy of Natural Sciences of Philadelphia (now the Academy of Natural Sciences of Drexel University) provided storage space for much of Dr. Morton's collection, including these human remains, until his death in 1851. In 1853, Dr. Morton's collection was purchased from Dr. Samuel G. Morton's Estate and donated to the Academy of Natural Sciences of Philadelphia.</P>
                <P>In 1966, Dr. Morton's collection, including these human remains, was loaned to the University Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology (PM# 97-606-895, 97-606-896, 97-606-897). In 1997, collections from the Academy of Natural Sciences, including Dr. Morton's collection, were gifted to the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology. There is no known presence of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Published sources and museum records identify the human remains as Mohawk. The burial context is clearly identified in museum and published records as a Mohawk cemetery near Manheim, New York. The town of Manheim and property owned by John J. Beardslee are located in Herkimer County in the Mohawk River Valley, an area where the presence of the Mohawk is well established during the Historic Period. Mohawk villages along the Mohawk River (close to the Beardslee property) have been dated to approximately 100 CE. Today, the Mohawk are represented by the Saint Regis Mohawk Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Penn Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and the Saint Regis Mohawk Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Penn Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Penn Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13330 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7254; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043090; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Houston Museum of Natural Science, Houston, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Houston Museum of Natural Science (HMNS) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribe in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Dirk Van Tuerenhout, Houston Museum of Natural Science, 5555 Hermann Park Drive, Houston, TX 77030, email 
                        <E T="03">NAGPRA@hmns.org</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Dirkv@hmns.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the HMNS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of five cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The five sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony are one pair of beaded leggings, two peyote rattles, one peyote fan, and one beaded medicine bottle. The beaded leggings were collected from the Great Plains region of the United States by Arthur T. McDannald and were accessioned in 1973. The additional cultural items were collected from the Great Plains region of the United States in the 1920s or 1930s by Gordon W. Smith, were affiliated by the collector as Comanche in origin, and were accessioned in 2011, 2013, 2014, and 2015, respectively. The HMNS has no records indicating that these cultural items were exposed to any hazardous substances while in the stewardship of the museum.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40562"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Houston Museum of Natural Science has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The five sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice are, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, and have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision).</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Comanche Nation, Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the HMNS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The HMNS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13315 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7262; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043100; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual was removed from the Pinal Mountains of Arizona. The remains consist of the partial cranium of a child under the age of 12 years old. A gunshot entrance wound is present. The remains were contributed to the Army Medical Museum by Acting Assistant Surgeon W.B. Dods in April 1872 via U.S. Army Surgeon C. McCormick. The original logbook entry describes the remains as the cranium of a “Pinal Apache Indian boy, killed July 1870 by one of Lt. H. B. Cushing's Scouts (F Troop 3rd Cavalry).”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the San Carlos Apache Tribe of the San Carlos Reservation, Arizona.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13325 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40563"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7256; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043092; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Joslyn Art Museum, Omaha, NE</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Joslyn Art Museum (JAM) intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meets the definition of an object of cultural patrimony and that has a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to Annika K. Johnson, Joslyn Art Museum, 2200 Dodge Street, Omaha, NE 68102, email 
                        <E T="03">ajohnson@joslyn.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Joslyn Art Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The one object of cultural patrimony is a cooking pot. Eugene Kingman (1909-1975) acquired the vessel at an unknown date before 1947 and donated it to JAM in 1964. JAM records do not indicate the vessel's prior history. The Santa Ana Pueblo attribution was presumably supplied by the donor. The vessel is black and does not have glazing or decorations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Joslyn Art Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one object of cultural patrimony described in this notice has ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Joslyn Art Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Joslyn Art Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13318 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7269; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043111; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Haffenreffer Museum of Anthropology, Brown University, Bristol, RI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Haffenreffer Museum of Anthropology, Brown University (HMA) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Kellie Bowers, Brown University, Haffenreffer Museum of Anthropology, 1 Davol Square, Providence, RI 02903, email 
                        <E T="03">kellie_bowers@brown.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the HMA, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 80 individuals have been identified. The nine associated funerary objects are one lot of cylindrical copper beads associated with individual HUM-22; one lot of wood fragments associated with individual HUM-27; one lot of shell, one lot of faunal remains, one lot of wood, one lot of lithics, and one lot of copper are associated with individual HUM-38; one lot of faunal remains are associated with individual HUM-43A; and one projectile point is associated with individual HUM-98. No known location is recorded in museum records for any of the individuals. However, institutional memory suggests that many were donations of local collectors and farmers who likely removed these individuals from their property or other regional locations in or near Rhode Island and Massachusetts.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The HMA has determined that:</P>
                <P>
                    • The human remains described in this notice represent the physical 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40564"/>
                    remains of 80 individuals of Native American ancestry.
                </P>
                <P>• The nine objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Mashpee Wampanoag Tribe; Narragansett Indian Tribe; and the Wampanoag Tribe of Gay Head (Aquinnah).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the HMA must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The HMA is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13331 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7267; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043105; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Disposition: U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park, Twentynine Palms, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park (JOTR) intends to carry out the disposition of human remains and associated funerary objects removed from Federal lands to Indian Tribes with priority for disposition in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If no claim for disposition is received by July 2, 2027, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jane Rodgers, Superintendent, Joshua Tree National Park, 74485 National Park Drive, Twentynine Palms, CA 92277, email 
                        <E T="03">jane_rodgers@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the JOTR, and additional information on the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the related records.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available, human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been reasonably identified. The 104 associated funerary objects are pottery sherds, manos, a metate fragment, non-human bone fragments, lithics, and a projectile point. In 2024, a review of JOTR collections from archeological sites CA-RIV-4841 and CA-RIV-3888 located in Riverside County, CA resulted in identification of the previously undocumented human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice. The collections were recovered during archeological work at the two sites in 1991-1992 by the University of Nevada, Las Vegas. No known hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The JOTR has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 104 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• The Agua Caliente Band of Cahuilla Indians of the Agua Caliente Indian Reservation, California; Cahuilla Band of Indians; and the Morongo Band of Mission Indians, California have priority for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the appropriate official identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . If no claim for disposition is received by July 2, 2027, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects. Claims for disposition may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any Indian Tribe identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows that they have priority for disposition.</P>
                <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing claims for disposition are received, the JOTR must determine the most appropriate claimant prior to disposition. Claims for joint disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single claim and not competing claims. The JOTR is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3002, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13329 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40565"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7272; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043118; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, Chapel Hill, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Claire Auerbach, The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, 207 East Cameron Avenue, Suite 108, Chapel Hill, NC 27514, email 
                        <E T="03">cauerb@unc.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 136 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 136 unassociated funerary objects are one hammerstone, one worked chip, one grinding stone, 104 potsherds, one historic whiteware fragment, seven chipped stones, two bivalve shells, 18 faunal bones, and one bag of charcoal. In 1964, human remains were surface collected from 3PO503/3CS61 Turnbow Mounds/Place in Poinsett County, Arkansas by a graduate student at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill. The site name and precise location are not known. The determination of cultural affiliation was based on multiple lines of evidence, including consultation with the Quapaw Nation, geographic association of the site within the Nation's ancestral territory, and the regional archaeological and historical record. Information considered included the Quapaw Nation's long-standing presence in the region, previous cultural affiliation determinations for nearby archaeological sites, and the presence of Mississippian-period ceramics at the site. Together, these lines of evidence support a relationship of shared group identity between the unassociated funerary objects and the Quapaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 36 unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Quapaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13334 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7252; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043088; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Los Rios Community College District, Sacramento, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Los Rios Community College District (LRCCD) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Jamey Nye, Los Rios Community College District, 1919 Spanos Ct, Arden-Arcade, CA 95825, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@losrios.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of LRCCD, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of 15 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 15 sacred objects are two Ko`i (Adze), one Pōhaku Lūhe`e (Octopus Lure Sinker), one `Umeke Poi (Poi Bowl), four Ulumaika (Disc Bowling stone), five Kapa (Bark Cloth), and two `Ie Kūkū (Kapa Beater). The sacred objects were acquired by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40566"/>
                    William K. Purves and Andrew W. Hopfield who purchased most of the ethnographic items in Hawai`i between 1932-1936 and donated the items to a museum that was formerly located at Sacramento City College, one of four college campuses within the Los Rios Community College District (LRCCD). Three of the Kapa (Bark Cloth) items may have been donated to American River College (LRCCD) by an unknown person around 1978. LRCCD has no knowledge or record of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat the sacred objects.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>LRCCD has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 15 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Hui Iwi Kuamo'o.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, LRCCD must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. LRCCD is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13314 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7270; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043113; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects or objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, email 
                        <E T="03">jpickering@fas.harvard.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of six cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The three sacred objects are one lot of mortars and pestles, one lot of war clubs, and one lot of stone pipes. The three objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of a birch bark canoe and two lots of mats. All six items were removed from Minong (Isle Royale) on Lake Superior, in Keweenaw County, MI, by Henry Gillman in 1876, who sold them to the PMAE that same year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The PMAE has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The three sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• The three objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Minnesota Chippewa Tribe, Minnesota (Grand Portage Band).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40567"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13332 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7274; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043120; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Eastern Washington University, Cheney, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Eastern Washington University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Kate Valdez, NAGPRA Coordinator, Eastern Washington University, 214 Showalter Hall, Cheney, WA 99004, email 
                        <E T="03">vvaldez6@ewu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Eastern Washington University and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. In 1950, human remains were recovered by a University of Washington Field Party possibly under the direction of Douglas Osborne, as a part of archeological investigations in Okanogan County in the Chief Joseph Reservoir, Okanogan County, WA. The site (45-OK-2) is located within the current boundaries of the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation. The recovered archaeological materials, including human remains and funerary objects, were sent to the Washington State Museum, Seattle, WA (now the Thomas Burke Washington State Memorial Museum), and accession in 1966 (Accn. 1966-92). No known individuals were identified. In 1974, the Burke Museum transferred portions of the human remains to Seattle University. Sometime in the early 1990s, these human remains were transferred to the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation, then subsequently transferred in 1992 to Eastern Washington University for identification.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Eastern Washington University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Eastern Washington University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Eastern Washington University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13335 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7257; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043095; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Mobile District, Mobile, AL, and the University of Alabama, Tuscaloosa, AL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Mobile District (Mobile District), has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice. The Mobile District completed this work in partnership with the University of Alabama, which has physical custody of the collections while the Mobile District retains legal control.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Ms. Emily Demontalvo, 109 St. Joseph Street, P.O. Box 2288, Mobile, AL 36628-0001, email 
                        <E T="03">Emily.J.Warner@usace.army.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Mobile District, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40568"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals, have been identified. No known individuals have been identified. The 7,942 associated funerary objects are: 3,496 ceramics, 257 chalk, three charcoal, 869 cobbles, 33 faunal remains, 543 fire cracked rock, 2,587 flakes, two flotation samples, 27 projectile points, 105 sandstone, and 20 shell.</P>
                <P>Smith's Ferry (1GR1x1) was recorded by John Walthall and the University of Alabama in 1970. The site is located on the bank of a creek and contains a thick, dark midden. This is a multicomponent site with Archaic, Gulf Formational, Woodland, and Mississippian components. Phases identified at Smith's Ferry include West Green, Broken Pumpkin Creek, Henson Springs, Miller II and III, and Moundville I. No toxic materials have been known to have been used on the collection.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at minimum, 74 individuals, have been identified. No known individuals have been identified. The 14,367 associated funerary objects are: one bear tooth pendant, 1,618 ceramics, 22 chalk, 31 charcoal, 302 cobbles, three drills, 1,884 faunal remains, 343 fire cracked rock, 735 flakes, one flotation sample, 10 limestone, one projectile point, 20 sandstone, 9,264 shell, and 132 unidentified items.</P>
                <P>Craigs Landing (1GR2) was originally recorded by John Walthall of the University of Alabama in 1970. Archaeological phases identified at 1GR2 include West Greene, Broken Pumpkin Creek, Henson Springs, Miller I and Miller II. No toxic materials have been known to have been used on the collection.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Mobile District has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 76 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 22,309 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Mobile District must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Mobile District is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13320 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7265; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043093; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Joslyn Art Museum, Omaha, NE</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Joslyn Art Museum (JAM) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Annika Johnson, Joslyn Art Museum, 2200 Dodge Street, Omaha, NE 68102, email 
                        <E T="03">ajohnson@joslyn.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Joslyn Art Museum and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of two cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The two sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony are an 'Uli'uli and Pōhaku ku'i'ai. Both items were collected by Dr. August Frederick Jonas (1854-1934) of Omaha, Nebraska, and inherited by his wife who donated them to the Joslyn Art Museum in 1951. Museum records do not contain information on the items' prior history.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Joslyn Art Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The two sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice are, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, and have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision).</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Native Hawaiian organization Protect Keopuka Ohana.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40569"/>
                    representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Joslyn Art Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Joslyn Art Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13319 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7266; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043104; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park, Twentynine Palms, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Joshua Tree National Park (JOTR) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jane Rodgers, Superintendent, Joshua Tree National Park, 74485 National Park Drive, Twentynine Palms, CA 92277, email 
                        <E T="03">jane_rodgers@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the JOTR and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The 173 associated funerary objects are pottery sherds, a pottery disc, manos, quartz crystal, lithics, non-human bone fragments, basketry fragments, and two arrow shaft fragments. In 2024, a review of JOTR collections from archeological sites CA-RIV-4841 and CA-RIV-3888 located in Riverside County, CA resulted in identification of the previously undocumented human remains and associated funerary objects listed in this notice. The collections were originally excavated in 1958-1959 by the University of Southern California. No known hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The JOTR has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 173 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Agua Caliente Band of Cahuilla Indians of the Agua Caliente Indian Reservation, California; Cahuilla Band of Indians; and the Morongo Band of Mission Indians, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the JOTR must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The JOTR is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13328 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7253; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043089; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: St. Joseph Museums, Inc., St. Joseph, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the St. Joseph Museums, Inc. has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40570"/>
                        in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Tori Zieger, St. Joseph Museums, Inc., 3406 Frederick Avenue, St Joseph, MO 64506, email 
                        <E T="03">tori@stjosephmuseum.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the St. Joseph Museums, Inc. and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. The 9,586 associated funerary objects include chert flakes, broken projectile points, pottery sherds, axe/celt fragments, pipestone fragments, faunal remains and worked bone, stone cores, stone tool fragments, metal artifacts, and worked shell/shell artifacts.</P>
                <P>These 9,586 objects are part of six collections: 9,306 objects were excavated/collected by Mike Fisher from the Leary Site (25RH1), located in Rulo, Nebraska (Collection of artifacts occurred several times throughout the 1970s, with one note written by Fisher indicating 1977 specifically); 27 items were excavated and collected by a team of archaeologists working through the St. Joseph Museums in 1967; 33 objects were excavated/collected by an unknown person(s) in 1956 from 25RH1; three items were collected by J. Mett Shippee in 1965 from site 25RH2, (also identified as Leary Site), and donated to the museum in 1999 by Shippee family members; 127 objects were collected by J. Mett Shippee from 25RH2 in an unknown year and donated to the museum in 1962 by R.B. Aker; and a team of archaeologists working through the St. Joseph Museums donated 90 objects to the museum in 1961 from site 25RH2.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The St. Joseph Museums, Inc. has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 9,586 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Iowa Tribe of Kansas and Nebraska.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the St. Joseph Museums, Inc. must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The St. Joseph Museums, Inc. is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13316 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7273; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043119; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: David A. Fredrickson Archaeological Collections Facility at Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 E Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email 
                        <E T="03">tworkk@sonoma.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of 74 lots of cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 74 lots are flaked stone tools, debitage, groundstone, projectile points, and historics. The lots of cultural items were removed from archaeological sites CA-ELD-846, CA-ELD-843 and isolate AF-9-81 in El Dorado County, CA. The items were removed during archaeological work carried out by Baker and Associates in 1992 related to a widening and upgrade to the existing roadway east of Georgetown along the California Forest Highway 137 project, and were curated at Sonoma State University after the completion of the project. The cultural items have remained in the possession of Sonoma State University since curation, under the Accession number 92-05.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40571"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Sonoma State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 74 lots of sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice are, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, and have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision).</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Washoe Tribe of Nevada &amp; California (Carson Colony, Dresslerville Colony, Woodfords Community, Stewart Community, &amp; Washoe Ranches).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13336 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7258; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043096; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individuals were removed from Indian Ruins No. 6 at the Upper San Francisco River, Catron County, New Mexico by naturalist Edward William Nelson and sent to the Smithsonian Institution in June 1885. The remains consist of one adult partial skeleton and one adult right femur. The remains were transferred to the Army Medical Museum in June 1886.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Pueblo of Acoma, New Mexico and the Zuni Tribe of the Zuni Reservation, New Mexico.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13321 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40572"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7261; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043099; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine, Silver Spring, MD</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Defense Health Agency, National Museum of Health and Medicine has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Mr. Brian F. Spatola, Curator of Anatomical Division, National Museum of Health and Medicine, U.S. Army Garrison Forest Glen, 2500 Linden Lane, Silver Spring, MD 20910, email 
                        <E T="03">brian.f.spatola.civ@health.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the National Museum of Health and Medicine, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual was removed from Point Hope, Alaska by Captain M.A. Healy and donated to the Smithsonian Institution in 1884. The individual was transferred to the Army Medical Museum in 1886. The remains consist of an adult male cranium with an antemortem fracture to the right frontal bone.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The National Museum of Health and Medicine has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Inupiat Community of the Arctic Slope and the Native Village of Point Hope.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after July 31, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the National Museum of Health and Medicine must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The National Museum of Health and Medicine is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13324 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7264; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043102; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Michigan has completed an inventory of human remains (hereinafter referred to as “Ancestral remains” or “Ancestors”) and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the Ancestral remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Ben Secunda, NAGPRA Office Managing Director, University of Michigan, Office of the Vice President for Research, Suite G269, Lane Hall, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-1274, email 
                        <E T="03">bsecunda@umich.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Michigan, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Ancestral remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present for this site. The Ancestor was removed from the Corpus Christi site, Nueces County Texas, on an unknown date prior to November 6, 1934. Site records indicate that the Ancestral remains were found on the surface of the Texas coast, on an island 75 feet from the mainland and about 12 miles west of Corpus Christi. Dating for the site is unknown. The Ancestral remains are of an adult.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40573"/>
                </P>
                <P>A total of one associated funerary object has been identified. The one associated funerary object is one lot of botanicals. Materials were collected in 1930 from the Callo del Oso site (41NU2) in Nueces County, Texas. The associated funerary object was acquired from the University of Texas in 1937 and sent to the University of Michigan Ethnobotanical Laboratory for analysis. Dating for the site is unknown.</P>
                <P>The University of Michigan has no record of, nor do its officials have any knowledge of, any treatment of the Ancestral remains or associated funerary object with pesticides, preservatives, or other substances that represent a potential hazard to the collections or to persons handling the collections.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary object described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Michigan has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The Ancestral remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The one object described in this notice is reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual Ancestral remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the Ancestral remains and associated funerary object described in this notice and the Alabama-Coushatta Tribe of Texas; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma; Comanche Nation, Oklahoma; Kickapoo Traditional Tribe of Texas; Kiowa Tribe (previously listed as Kiowa Indian Tribe of Oklahoma); Mescalero Apache Tribe of the Mescalero Reservation, New Mexico; Shawnee Tribe; The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma; Thlopthlocco Tribal Town; and the Wichita and Affiliated Tribes (Wichita, Keechi, Waco, &amp; Tawakonie), Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary object in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Michigan must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the Ancestral remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Michigan is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13327 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7250; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0043086; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Rhode Island, Kingston, RI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Rhode Island (URI) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Kristine M. Bovy, Dept. of Sociology &amp; Anthropology, University of Rhode Island, 507 Chafee Bldg., Kingston, RI 02881, email 
                        <E T="03">kbovy@uri.edu</E>
                         and The Office of the General Counsel, 35 Campus Avenue, Kingston, RI 02881, email 
                        <E T="03">URIGeneralCounsel@uri.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Rhode Island, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sherman-Congdon Collection</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 31 individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The Sherman-Congdon Collection comprises the merged holdings of two early twentieth-century collectors, whose materials became intermingled following their bequests to the University of Rhode Island in 1960 and 1967. There are no associated provenience records. Daniel P. Sherman collected widely in southern Rhode Island and traded with other collectors. His largely unlabeled collection of cultural belongings and human remains were transferred to URI in 1967. University assessments in the 1980s identified these Ancestors as Native American, and a 2022 collections review documented a minimum of 31 individuals. The Congdon materials, donated in 1960 by the heir of Arthur Barton Congdon, largely consist of lithic and soapstone artifacts collected in the vicinity of the Oaklawn soapstone quarries near Cranston, RI. Because the Sherman and Congdon holdings were mixed over time, their components cannot now be reliably separated. Cultural materials from these collections have been submitted to the National NAGPRA Program in a separate summary of unassociated items and are available for Tribal review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H-365-K</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. This individual originates from the Knowles Collection, a large assemblage of Narragansett cultural materials gathered by William Henry Knowles and his son Elmer on their farm in Point 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40574"/>
                    Judith, RI during the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. The collection was donated in full to the Peace Dale Museum of Art &amp; Culture in 1917. In 1989, the mandible was transferred from the Peace Dale Museum to the University of Rhode Island under accession H365 and later designated H-365-K.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Whitford Collection</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, four individuals have been identified. The 67 associated funerary objects are Colonial period objects, groundstone objects, pipes, gaming pieces, and wampum. In 1956, Native American burials were uncovered during gravel quarrying on the Whitford family property in North Kingstown, RI, and the materials, later known as the Whitford Collection, were eventually divided between the University of Rhode Island and the Tomaquag Museum. The human remains, originally representing a minimum of three individuals, underwent basic osteological assessment at URI in the 1980s, with a 2022 review revealing a minimum of four Ancestors. The Tomaquag Museum received 77 associated funerary objects, of which 67 have been located. URI retains legal control of the four Ancestors and 67 associated funerary objects, while the Museum continues to provide physical care of the cultural belongings under URI's authority.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Victory Highway</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. This individual was transferred by local law enforcement to the Rhode Island State Crime Laboratory at the University of Rhode Island sometime between 1958 and 1969 for evaluation. Once determined not to be a contemporary crime victim, they were transferred to the University's Department of Sociology &amp; Anthropology. The only known documentation are a handwritten note by Dr. Harold C. Harrison, Director of the Crime Lab, which reads: “Leg bone you have—can you tell approx. time since death—was in burial in dirt or highway sand (sand + silt)” and the label associated with the remains, which states, “4/23/59, Found on South Road of Victory Highway, Exeter [RI].” This individual did not undergo analysis in the 1980s and a lack of available osteological material to examine makes cultural determination difficult. Affiliation with the Narragansett Indian Tribe is based on geographic context alone.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Johnson's Motel</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. This individual was transferred to the Rhode Island State Crime Laboratory at the University of Rhode Island sometime between 1953 and 1969. Once determined not to be a contemporary crime victim, they were transferred to the University's Department of Sociology &amp; Anthropology. The only known documentation consists of a note by Dr. Harold C. Harrison, Director of the Crime Lab referring to the “Johnson Case” and an original box label stating the individual was recovered from a gravel bank near Johnson's Motel in Charlestown, RI on April 23, 1953. During analysis in the 1980s, URI faculty determined the Ancestor to be of Native American descent.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D-93-832</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. In 1960 a Providence police patrolman recovered a human skull from an I-95 construction area near Allens Avenue and Rhodes Street in Providence, RI. The remains were examined at the Rhode Island State Crime Laboratory and, upon determination that they were not a contemporary crime victim, transferred to the University's Department of Sociology &amp; Anthropology. No burial context or additional remains were found. Analysis conducted in the 1980s shows the individual to be of Native American descent.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Rhode Island has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 39 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 67 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Narragansett Indian Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after August 3, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Rhode Island must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Rhode Island is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13312 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Reclamation</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RR040U2100.XXXR4081G3 RX.05940913.FY19400]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Call for Nominations for the Glen Canyon Dam Adaptive Management Work Group</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of call for nominations.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Interior (Interior) proposes to appoint members to the Glen Canyon Dam Adaptive Management Work Group (AMWG). The Secretary of the Interior (Secretary), acting as administrative lead, is soliciting nominations for qualified persons to serve as members of the AMWG.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40575"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Nominations must be postmarked by August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nominations should be sent to Mr. Wayne Pullan, Designated Federal Officer, Bureau of Reclamation, 125 S. State Street, Room 8100, Salt Lake City, UT 84138, or at 
                        <E T="03">wpullan@usbr.gov</E>
                         and submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">bor-sha-ucr-gcdamp@usbr.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. William Stewart, Adaptive Management Group Chief, at (385) 622-2179, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">wstewart@usbr.gov</E>
                        . Individuals who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Advisory Committee Scope and Objectives</HD>
                <P>The Grand Canyon Protection Act (Act) of October 30, 1992, Pub. L. 102-575; and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. Ch. 10 authorized creation of the AMWG to provide recommendations to the Secretary in carrying out the responsibilities of the Act to protect, mitigate adverse impacts to, and improve the values for which Grand Canyon National Park and Glen Canyon National Recreation Area were established, including but not limited to, natural and cultural resources and visitor use.</P>
                <P>The duties or roles and functions of the AMWG are in an advisory capacity only. They are to: (1) establish AMWG operating procedures, (2) advise the Secretary in meeting environmental and cultural commitments including those contained in the Record of Decision for the Glen Canyon Dam Long-Term Experimental and Management Plan Final Environmental Impact Statement and subsequent related decisions, (3) recommend resource management objectives for development and implementation of a long-term monitoring plan, and any necessary research and studies required to determine the effect of the operation of Glen Canyon Dam on the values for which Grand Canyon National Park and Glen Canyon Dam National Recreation Area were established, including but not limited to, natural and cultural resources, and visitor use, (4) review and provide input on the report identified in the Act to the Secretary, the Congress, and the Governors of the Colorado River Basin States, (5) annually review long-term monitoring data to provide advice on the status of resources and whether the Adaptive Management Program (AMP) goals and objectives are being met, and (6) review and provide input on all AMP activities undertaken to comply with applicable laws, including permitting requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Membership Criteria</HD>
                <P>Prospective members of AMWG need to have a strong capacity for advising individuals in leadership positions, teamwork, project management, tracking relevant Federal government programs and policy making procedures, and networking with and representing their stakeholder group. Membership from a wide range of disciplines and professional sectors is encouraged.</P>
                <P>Members of the AMWG are appointed by the Secretary and are comprised of:</P>
                <P>a. The Secretary's Designee, who serves as Chairperson for the AMWG.</P>
                <P>b. One representative each from the following entities: The Secretary of Energy (Western Area Power Administration), Arizona Game and Fish Department, Hopi Tribe, Hualapai Tribe, Navajo Nation, San Juan Southern Paiute Tribe, Southern Paiute Consortium, and the Pueblo of Zuni.</P>
                <P>c. One representative each from the Governors from the seven basin States: Arizona, California, Colorado, Nevada, New Mexico, Utah, and Wyoming.</P>
                <P>d. Representatives from the general public as follows: two from environmental organizations, two from the recreation industry, and two from contractors who purchase Federal power from Glen Canyon Powerplant. </P>
                <P>e. One representative from each of the following Interior agencies as ex-officio non-voting members: Bureau of Reclamation, Bureau of Indian Affairs, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and National Park Service.</P>
                <P>At this time, we are particularly interested in applications from representatives of the following:</P>
                <P>a. one each from the Native American Tribes of Navajo Nation and Pueblo of Zuni, and;</P>
                <P>b. one from Environmental Organizations.</P>
                <P>After consultation, the Secretary will appoint members to the AMWG. Members will be selected based on their individual qualifications, as well as the overall need to achieve a balanced representation of viewpoints, subject matter expertise, regional knowledge, and representation of communities of interest. AMWG member terms are limited to 3 years from their date of appointment. Following completion of their first term, an AMWG member may request consideration for reappointment to an additional term. Reappointment is not guaranteed.</P>
                <P>Typically, AMWG will hold two in-person meetings and one webinar meeting per fiscal year. Between meetings, AMWG members are expected to participate in committee work via conference calls and email exchanges. Members of the AMWG and its subcommittees serve without pay. However, while away from their homes or regular places of business in the performance of services of the AMWG, members may be reimbursed for travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, in the same manner as persons employed intermittently in the government service, as authorized by 5 U.S.C. 5703.</P>
                <P>Nominations should include a resume that provides an adequate description of the nominee's qualifications, particularly information that will enable Interior to evaluate the nominee's potential to meet the membership requirements of the AMWG and permit Interior to contact a potential member. Please refer to the membership criteria stated in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    Any interested person or entity may nominate one or more qualified individuals for membership on the AMWG. Nominations from the seven basin states, as identified in this notice, need to be submitted by the respective Governors of those states, or by a state representative formally designated by the Governor. Persons or entities submitting nomination packages on the behalf of others must confirm that the individual(s) is/are aware of their nomination. Nominations must be postmarked no later than August 3, 2026 and sent to both Mr. Wayne Pullan, U.S. Bureau of Reclamation, 125 S. State Street, Room 8100, Salt Lake City, UT 84138, 
                    <E T="03">wpullan@usbr.gov,</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">bor-sha-ucr-gcdamp@usbr.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. Ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kathleen Callister,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Designated Federal Officer, Interior Region 7: Upper Colorado Basin, Bureau of Reclamation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13471 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4332-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 731-TA-1528 (Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Seamless Refined Copper Pipe and Tube From Vietnam; Institution of a Five-Year Review</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40576"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted a review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Vietnam would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Instituted July 1, 2026. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is July 31, 2026. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by September 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jordan Harriman (202-205-2610), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On August 13, 2021, the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) issued an antidumping duty order on imports of seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Vietnam (86 FR 44691). The Commission is conducting a review pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), to determine whether revocation of the order would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to the domestic industry within a reasonably foreseeable time. Provisions concerning the conduct of this proceeding may be found in the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure at 19 CFR part 201, subparts A and B, and 19 CFR part 207, subparts A and F. The Commission will assess the adequacy of interested party responses to this notice of institution to determine whether to conduct a full or expedited review. The Commission's determination in any expedited review will be based on the facts available, which may include information provided in response to this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                    —The following definitions apply to this review:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     is the class or kind of merchandise that is within the scope of the five-year review, as defined by Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) The 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     in this review is Vietnam.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     is the domestically produced product or products which are like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise.</E>
                     In its original determination, the Commission defined a single 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     consisting of all seamless refined copper pipe and tube, coextensive with the scope of the investigation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     is the U.S. producers as a whole of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     or those producers whose collective output of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     constitutes a major proportion of the total domestic production of the product. In its original determination, the Commission defined the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     as consisting of all domestic producers of seamless refined copper pipe and tube.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) The 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is the date that the antidumping duty order under review became effective. In this review, the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is August 13, 2021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) An 
                    <E T="03">Importer</E>
                     is any person or firm engaged, either directly or through a parent company or subsidiary, in importing the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     into the United States from a foreign manufacturer or through its selling agent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the proceeding and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons, including industrial users of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the proceeding as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11(b)(4) of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post-employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Charles Smith, Office of the General Counsel, at 202-205-3408.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and APO service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI submitted in this proceeding available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the proceeding, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the proceeding. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with this proceeding must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that information submitted in response to this request for information and throughout this proceeding or other proceeding may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40577"/>
                    sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules, each interested party response to this notice must provide the information specified below. The deadline for filing such responses is on or before 5:15 p.m. on July 31, 2026. Pursuant to § 207.62(b) of the Commission's rules, eligible parties (as specified in Commission rule 207.62(b)(1)) may also file comments concerning the adequacy of responses to the notice of institution and whether the Commission should conduct an expedited or full review. The deadline for filing such comments is on or before 5:15 p.m. on September 8, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings. Also, in accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the proceeding must be served on all other parties to the proceeding (as identified by either the public or APO service list as appropriate), and a certificate of service must accompany the document (if you are not a party to the proceeding you do not need to serve your response).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings at this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 26-5-701, expiration date June 30, 2026. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inability to provide requested information.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61(c) of the Commission's rules, any interested party that cannot furnish the information requested by this notice in the requested form and manner shall notify the Commission at the earliest possible time, provide a full explanation of why it cannot provide the requested information, and indicate alternative forms in which it can provide equivalent information. If an interested party does not provide this notification (or the Commission finds the explanation provided in the notification inadequate) and fails to provide a complete response to this notice, the Commission may take an adverse inference against the party pursuant to § 776(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677e(b)) in making its determination in the review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information to be provided in response to this notice of institution:</E>
                     As used below, the term “firm” includes any related firms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those responding to this notice of institution are encouraged, but not required, to visit the USITC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://usitc.gov/reports/response_noi_worksheet,</E>
                     where one can download and complete the “NOI worksheet” Excel form for the subject proceeding, to be included as attachment/exhibit 1 of your overall response.
                </P>
                <P>(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     a U.S. union or worker group, a U.S. importer of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a foreign producer or exporter of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a U.S. or foreign trade or business association (a majority of whose members are interested parties under the statute), or another interested party (including an explanation). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, identify the firms in which your workers are employed or which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping duty order on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     in general and/or your firm/entity specifically. In your response, please discuss the various factors specified in § 752(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675a(a)) including the likely volume of subject imports, likely price effects of subject imports, and likely impact of imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                     Identify any known related parties and the nature of the relationship as defined in § 771(4)(B) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677(4)(B)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     that currently export or have exported 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     to the United States or other countries since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     (including street address, World Wide Web address, and the name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of a responsible official at each firm).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     or the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the U.S. or other markets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) If you are a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's operations on that product during calendar year 2025, except as noted (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars, f.o.b. plant). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms in which your workers are employed/which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40578"/>
                    (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&amp;A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s) (include both U.S. and export commercial sales, internal consumption, and company transfers) for your most recently completed fiscal year (identify the date on which your fiscal year ends).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') imports;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars, landed and duty-paid at the U.S. port but not including antidumping duties). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') exports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     that have occurred in the United States or in the market for the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date,</E>
                     and significant changes, if any, that are likely to occur within a reasonably foreseeable time. Supply conditions to consider include technology; production methods; development efforts; ability to increase production (including the shift of production facilities used for other products and the use, cost, or availability of major inputs into production); and factors related to the ability to shift supply among different national markets (including barriers to importation in foreign markets or changes in market demand abroad). Demand conditions to consider include end uses and applications; the existence and availability of substitute products; and the level of competition among the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in the United States, 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     produced in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     and such merchandise from other countries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry;</E>
                     if you disagree with either or both of these definitions, please explain why and provide alternative definitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of Title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13415 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-660-661 and 731-TA-1543-1545 (Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Utility Scale Wind Towers from India, Malaysia, and Spain; Institution of Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to determine whether revocation of the countervailing duty orders on utility scale wind towers from India and Malaysia and the antidumping duty orders on utility scale wind towers from India, Malaysia, and Spain would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Instituted July 1, 2026. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is July 31, 2026. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by September 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Stamen Borisson (202-205-3125), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On August 4, 2021, the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) issued a countervailing duty order on imports of utility scale wind towers from Malaysia (86 FR 41950). On August 16, 2021, Commerce issued an antidumping duty order on imports of utility scale wind towers from Spain (86 FR 45707). On December 6, 2021, Commerce issued a countervailing duty order on imports from India (86 FR 69012) and antidumping duty orders on imports of utility scale wind towers 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40579"/>
                    from India and Malaysia (86 FR 69014). The Commission is conducting reviews pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), to determine whether revocation of the orders would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to the domestic industry within a reasonably foreseeable time. Provisions concerning the conduct of this proceeding may be found in the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure at 19 CFR part 201, subparts A and B, and 19 CFR part 207, subparts A and F. The Commission will assess the adequacy of interested party responses to this notice of institution to determine whether to conduct full or expedited reviews. The Commission's determinations in any expedited reviews will be based on the facts available, which may include information provided in response to this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                    —The following definitions apply to these reviews:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     is the class or kind of merchandise that is within the scope of the five-year reviews, as defined by Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) The 
                    <E T="03">Subject Countries</E>
                     in these reviews are India, Malaysia, and Spain.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     is the domestically produced product or products which are like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise.</E>
                     In its original determinations, the Commission defined a single 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     consisting of utility scale wind towers coextensive with the scope of the investigations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     is the U.S. producers as a whole of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     or those producers whose collective output of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     constitutes a major proportion of the total domestic production of the product. In its original determinations, the Commission defined the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     to include all U.S. producers of utility scale wind towers.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) The 
                    <E T="03">Order Dates</E>
                     are the dates that the antidumping and countervailing duty orders under review became effective. In the review of the countervailing duty order on imports of utility scale wind towers from Malaysia, the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is August 4, 2021. In the review of the antidumping duty order on imports of utility scale wind towers from Spain, the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is August 16, 2021. In the reviews of the countervailing duty order on imports of utility scale wind towers from India and the antidumping duty orders on imports of utility scale wind towers from India and Malaysia, the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is December 6, 2021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) An 
                    <E T="03">Importer</E>
                     is any person or firm engaged, either directly or through a parent company or subsidiary, in importing the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     into the United States from a foreign manufacturer or through its selling agent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the proceeding and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons, including industrial users of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the proceeding as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11(b)(4) of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post-employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Charles Smith, Office of the General Counsel, at 202-205-3408.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and APO service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI submitted in this proceeding available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the proceeding, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the proceeding. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with this proceeding must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that information submitted in response to this request for information and throughout this proceeding or other proceeding may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules, each interested party response to this notice must provide the information specified below. The deadline for filing such responses is on or before 5:15 p.m. on July 31, 2026. Pursuant to § 207.62(b) of the Commission's rules, eligible parties (as specified in Commission rule 207.62(b)(1)) may also file comments concerning the adequacy of responses to the notice of institution and whether the Commission should conduct expedited or full reviews. The deadline for filing such comments is on or before 5:15 p.m. on September 8, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings. Also, in accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the proceeding must be served on all other parties to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40580"/>
                    proceeding (as identified by either the public or APO service list as appropriate), and a certificate of service must accompany the document (if you are not a party to the proceeding you do not need to serve your response).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings at this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 26-5-700, expiration date June 30, 2026. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inability to provide requested information.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61(c) of the Commission's rules, any interested party that cannot furnish the information requested by this notice in the requested form and manner shall notify the Commission at the earliest possible time, provide a full explanation of why it cannot provide the requested information, and indicate alternative forms in which it can provide equivalent information. If an interested party does not provide this notification (or the Commission finds the explanation provided in the notification inadequate) and fails to provide a complete response to this notice, the Commission may take an adverse inference against the party pursuant to § 776(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677e(b)) in making its determinations in the reviews.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information to be provided in response to this notice of institution:</E>
                     If you are a domestic producer, union/worker group, or trade/business association; import/export 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from more than one 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     or produce 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in more than one 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     you may file a single response. If you do so, please ensure that your response to each question includes the information requested for each pertinent 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                     As used below, the term “firm” includes any related firms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those responding to this notice of institution are encouraged, but not required, to visit the USITC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://usitc.gov/reports/response_noi_worksheet,</E>
                     where one can download and complete the “NOI worksheet” Excel form for the subject proceeding, to be included as attachment/exhibit 1 of your overall response.
                </P>
                <P>(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     a U.S. union or worker group, a U.S. importer of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a foreign producer or exporter of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a U.S. or foreign trade or business association (a majority of whose members are interested parties under the statute), or another interested party (including an explanation). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, identify the firms in which your workers are employed or which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     in general and/or your firm/entity specifically. In your response, please discuss the various factors specified in § 752(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675a(a)) including the likely volume of subject imports, likely price effects of subject imports, and likely impact of imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                     Identify any known related parties and the nature of the relationship as defined in § 771(4)(B) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677(4)(B)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     that currently export or have exported 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     to the United States or other countries since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Dates.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     (including street address, world wide web address, and the name, telephone number, fax number, and email address of a responsible official at each firm).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     or the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the U.S. or other markets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) If you are a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's operations on that product during calendar year 2025, except as noted (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars, f.o.b. plant). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms in which your workers are employed/which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&amp;A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s) (include both U.S. and export commercial sales, internal consumption, and company transfers) for your most recently completed fiscal year (identify the date on which your fiscal year ends).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from any 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping or countervailing duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40581"/>
                    imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') imports;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in any 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars, landed and duty-paid at the U.S. port but not including antidumping or countervailing duties). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') exports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     that have occurred in the United States or in the market for the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Dates,</E>
                     and significant changes, if any, that are likely to occur within a reasonably foreseeable time. Supply conditions to consider include technology; production methods; development efforts; ability to increase production (including the shift of production facilities used for other products and the use, cost, or availability of major inputs into production); and factors related to the ability to shift supply among different national markets (including barriers to importation in foreign markets or changes in market demand abroad). Demand conditions to consider include end uses and applications; the existence and availability of substitute products; and the level of competition among the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in the United States, 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     produced in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     and such merchandise from other countries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry;</E>
                     if you disagree with either or both of these definitions, please explain why and provide alternative definitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of Title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13409 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-656 and 731-TA-1533 (Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Metal Lockers From China; Institution of Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to determine whether revocation of the countervailing and antidumping duty orders on metal lockers from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Instituted July 1, 2026. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is July 31, 2026. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by September 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Celia Feldpausch (202-205-2387), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On August 20, 2021, the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) issued antidumping and countervailing duty orders on imports of metal lockers from China (86 FR 46826). The Commission is conducting reviews pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), to determine whether revocation of the orders would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to the domestic industry within a reasonably foreseeable time. Provisions concerning the conduct of this proceeding may be found in the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure at 19 CFR part 201, subparts A and B, and 19 CFR part 207, subparts A and F. The Commission will assess the adequacy of interested party responses to this notice of institution to determine whether to conduct full or expedited reviews. The Commission's determinations in any expedited reviews will be based on the facts available, which may include information provided in response to this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                    —The following definitions apply to these reviews:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     is the class or kind of merchandise that is within the scope of the five-year reviews, as defined by Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) The 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     in this review is China.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     is the domestically produced product or products which are like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise.</E>
                     In its original determinations, the Commission defined a single 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     consisting of all metal lockers and parts thereof, coextensive with the scope of the investigations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40582"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     is the U.S. producers as a whole of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     or those producers whose collective output of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     constitutes a major proportion of the total domestic production of the product. In its original determinations, the Commission defined the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     to include all domestic producers of metal lockers and parts thereof.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) The 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is the date that the antidumping and countervailing duty orders under review became effective. In these reviews, the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date</E>
                     is August 20, 2021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) An 
                    <E T="03">Importer</E>
                     is any person or firm engaged, either directly or through a parent company or subsidiary, in importing the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     into the United States from a foreign manufacturer or through its selling agent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the proceeding and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons, including industrial users of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the proceeding as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11(b)(4) of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post-employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Charles Smith, Office of the General Counsel, at 202-205-3408.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and APO service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI submitted in this proceeding available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the proceeding, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the proceeding. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with this proceeding must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that information submitted in response to this request for information and throughout this proceeding or other proceeding may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules, each interested party response to this notice must provide the information specified below. The deadline for filing such responses is on or before 5:15 p.m. on July 31, 2026. Pursuant to § 207.62(b) of the Commission's rules, eligible parties (as specified in Commission rule 207.62(b)(1)) may also file comments concerning the adequacy of responses to the notice of institution and whether the Commission should conduct expedited or full reviews. The deadline for filing such comments is on or before 5:15 p.m. on September 8, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings. Also, in accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the proceeding must be served on all other parties to the proceeding (as identified by either the public or APO service list as appropriate), and a certificate of service must accompany the document (if you are not a party to the proceeding you do not need to serve your response).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings at this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 26-5-699, expiration date June 30, 2026. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inability to provide requested information.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61(c) of the Commission's rules, any interested party that cannot furnish the information requested by this notice in the requested form and manner shall notify the Commission at the earliest possible time, provide a full explanation of why it cannot provide the requested information, and indicate alternative forms in which it can provide equivalent information. If an interested party does not provide this notification (or the Commission finds the explanation provided in the notification inadequate) and fails to provide a complete response to this notice, the Commission may take an adverse inference against the party pursuant to § 776(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677e(b)) in making its determinations in the reviews.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information to be Provided in Response to this Notice of Institution:</E>
                     As used below, the term “firm” includes any related firms.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40583"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those responding to this notice of institution are encouraged, but not required, to visit the USITC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://usitc.gov/reports/response_noi_worksheet,</E>
                     where one can download and complete the “NOI worksheet” Excel form for the subject proceeding, to be included as attachment/exhibit 1 of your overall response.
                </P>
                <P>(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     a U.S. union or worker group, a U.S. importer of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandi</E>
                    se, a foreign producer or exporter of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a U.S. or foreign trade or business association (a majority of whose members are interested parties under the statute), or another interested party (including an explanation). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, identify the firms in which your workers are employed or which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     in general and/or your firm/entity specifically. In your response, please discuss the various factors specified in § 752(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675a(a)) including the likely volume of subject imports, likely price effects of subject imports, and likely impact of imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                     Identify any known related parties and the nature of the relationship as defined in § 771(4)(B) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677(4)(B)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     that currently export or have exported 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     to the United States or other countries since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     (including street address, World Wide Web address, and the name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of a responsible official at each firm).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     or the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the U.S. or other markets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) If you are a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's operations on that product during calendar year 2025, except as noted (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars, f.o.b. plant). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms in which your workers are employed/which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&amp;A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s) (include both U.S. and export commercial sales, internal consumption, and company transfers) for your most recently completed fiscal year (identify the date on which your fiscal year ends).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping or countervailing duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') imports;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in pounds and value data in U.S. dollars, landed and duty-paid at the U.S. port but not including antidumping or countervailing duties). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') exports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     that have occurred in the United States or in the market for the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     since the 
                    <E T="03">Order Date,</E>
                     and significant changes, if any, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40584"/>
                    that are likely to occur within a reasonably foreseeable time. Supply conditions to consider include technology; production methods; development efforts; ability to increase production (including the shift of production facilities used for other products and the use, cost, or availability of major inputs into production); and factors related to the ability to shift supply among different national markets (including barriers to importation in foreign markets or changes in market demand abroad). Demand conditions to consider include end uses and applications; the existence and availability of substitute products; and the level of competition among the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in the United States, 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     produced in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     and such merchandise from other countries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry;</E>
                     if you disagree with either or both of these definitions, please explain why and provide alternative definitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of Title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13411 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 332-611]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Andean Trade Preference Act: Impact on U.S. Industries and Consumers and on Drug Crop Eradication and Crop Substitution, 2025</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Institution of investigation and notice of opportunity to submit information relating to matters to be addressed in the Commission's 22nd report on the impact of the Andean Trade Preference Act (ATPA).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Section 206 of the ATPA requires the Commission to report biennially to Congress and the President by September 30 of each reporting year on the economic impact of the ATPA on U.S. industries and U.S. consumers, and on the effectiveness of the ATPA in promoting drug-related crop eradication and crop substitution efforts by beneficiary countries.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">July 17, 2026:</E>
                         Deadline for filing written submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">August 21, 2026:</E>
                         Transmittal of Commission report to Congress and the President.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All Commission offices, including the Commission's hearing rooms, are located in the U.S. International Trade Commission Building, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC. All written submissions should be addressed to the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Co-Project Leaders Eric Neuyou (202-205-2390 or 
                        <E T="03">Eric.NeuyouNana@usitc.gov</E>
                        ) or Matt Reesman (202-205-2519 or 
                        <E T="03">Ward.Reesman@usitc.gov</E>
                        ) for information specific to this investigation. For information on the legal aspects of this investigation, contact Brian Allen (202-205-3034 or 
                        <E T="03">Brian.Allen@usitc.gov</E>
                        ) of the Commission's Office of the General Counsel. The media should contact Claire Huber, Office of External Relations (202-205-1819 or 
                        <E T="03">Claire.Huber@usitc.gov).</E>
                         Hearing-impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. General information concerning the Commission may be obtained by accessing its internet address (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     Section 206 of the Andean Trade Preference Act (ATPA) (19 U.S.C. 3204) requires that the U.S. International Trade Commission submit biennial reports to Congress and the President regarding the economic impact of the ATPA on U.S. industries and consumers and, in conjunction with other agencies, the effectiveness of the ATPA in promoting drug-related crop eradication and crop substitution efforts of the beneficiary countries. Section 206(b) of the ATPA requires that each report include
                </P>
                <P>(1) the actual effect of the ATPA on the U.S. economy generally as well as on specific domestic industries which produce articles that are like, or directly competitive with, articles being imported under the ATPA from beneficiary countries;</P>
                <P>(2) the probable future effect that the ATPA will have on the U.S. economy generally and on such domestic industries before the provisions of the ATPA terminate; and</P>
                <P>(3) the estimated effect that the ATPA has had on drug-related crop eradication and crop substitution efforts of beneficiary countries.</P>
                <P>Under the statute, the Commission is required to prepare this report regardless of whether duty-free treatment or other preferential treatment was provided during the period covered by the report. During the period to be covered by this report, calendar years 2024 and 2025, no imports entering the United States received preferential treatment under the ATPA.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission does not intend to hold a public hearing in connection with the preparation of this report. The Commission intends to submit its report by August 21, 2026. The notice announcing institution of the investigation for the purpose of preparing the first report under the statute was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of March 10, 1994 (59 FR 11308).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions:</E>
                     Interested persons are invited to file written submissions and other information concerning the matters to be addressed in this investigation. All written submissions should be addressed to the Secretary, and should be received no later than 5:15 p.m., July 17, 2026. All written submissions must conform to the provisions of section 201.8 of the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Rules of Practice and Procedure</E>
                     (19 CFR 201.8). Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). Persons with questions regarding electronic filing should contact the Office of the Secretary, Docket Services Division (202-205-1802), email 
                    <E T="03">EDIS3help@usitc.gov,</E>
                     or consult the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the provisions of section 201.8 of the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Rules of Practice and Procedure</E>
                     (19 CFR 201.8), the document must identify on its cover (1) the investigation number and title and the type of document filed (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     written submission), (2) the name and signature of the person filing it, (3) the name of the organization that the submission is filed on behalf of, and (4) whether it contains confidential business information (CBI). If it contains CBI, it must comply with the marking and other requirements set out below in this notice relating to CBI. Submitters of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40585"/>
                    written documents are encouraged to include a short summary of their position or interest at the beginning of the document, and a table of contents when the document addresses multiple issues.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Confidential business information:</E>
                     Any submissions that contain CBI must also conform to the requirements of section 201.6 of the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Rules of Practice and Procedure</E>
                     (19 CFR 201.6). Among other things, section 201.6 of the rules requires that the cover of the document and the individual pages be clearly marked as to whether they are the “confidential” or “nonconfidential” version, and that the CBI is clearly identified by means of brackets. All written submissions, except for CBI, will be made available for inspection by interested persons.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission will not include any CBI in the report that it sends to Congress and the President. However, all information, including CBI, submitted in this investigation may be disclosed to and used by (1) the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission, including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (2) U.S. government employees and contract personnel for cybersecurity purposes. The Commission will not otherwise disclose any CBI in a way that would reveal the operations of the firm supplying the information.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summaries of views of interested persons:</E>
                     Interested persons wishing to have a summary of their views included in the report should include a summary with a written submission on or before July 17, 2026, and must use the Commission template, which can be downloaded from 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/docket_services/documents/firm_or_organization_summary_word_limit.pdf.</E>
                     The Commission template must be uploaded as a separate attachment with the written submission, which is filed on EDIS under the document type “Briefs and Written Submissions.” The summary may not exceed 500 words and should not include any CBI. The summary will be published as provided only if it utilizes the Commission-provided template, meets these requirements, and is germane to the subject matter of the investigation. The Commission will list the name of the organization furnishing the summary and will include a link where the written submission can be found.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13439 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 731-TA-1047 (Fourth Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Ironing Tables From China; Institution of a Five-Year Review</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted a review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on ironing tables from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Instituted July 1, 2026. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is July 31, 2026. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by September 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kristina Lara (202-205-3386), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On August 6, 2004, the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) issued an antidumping duty order on imports of ironing tables and certain parts thereof from China (69 FR 47868). Commerce issued a continuation of the antidumping duty order on imports of ironing tables and certain parts thereof from China following Commerce's and the Commission's first five-year reviews, effective June 28, 2010 (75 FR 36629), second five-year reviews, effective March 8, 2016 (81 FR 12070), and third five-year reviews, effective August 31, 2021 (86 FR 48665). The Commission is now conducting a fourth review pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), to determine whether revocation of the order would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to the domestic industry within a reasonably foreseeable time. Provisions concerning the conduct of this proceeding may be found in the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure at 19 CFR part 201, subparts A and B, and 19 CFR part 207, subparts A and F. The Commission will assess the adequacy of interested party responses to this notice of institution to determine whether to conduct a full or expedited review. The Commission's determination in any expedited review will be based on the facts available, which may include information provided in response to this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                    —The following definitions apply to this review:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     is the class or kind of merchandise that is within the scope of the five-year review, as defined by Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) The 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     in this review is China.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     is the domestically produced product or products which are like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise.</E>
                     In its original determination, its full first five-year review determination, its expedited second five-year review determination, and its expedited third five-year review determination, the Commission found one 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     consisting of ironing tables and certain parts thereof, coextensive with Commerce's scope.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     is the U.S. producers as a whole of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     or those producers whose collective output of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     constitutes a major proportion of the total domestic production of the product. In its original determination, its full first five-year review determination, its expedited second five-year review determination, and its expedited third five-year review determination, the Commission defined the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     as all U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) An 
                    <E T="03">Importer</E>
                     is any person or firm engaged, either directly or through a parent company or subsidiary, in importing the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     into the United States from a foreign 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40586"/>
                    manufacturer or through its selling agent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the proceeding and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons, including industrial users of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the proceeding as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11(b)(4) of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post-employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Charles Smith, Office of the General Counsel, at 202-205-3408.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and APO service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI submitted in this proceeding available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the proceeding, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the proceeding. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with this proceeding must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that information submitted in response to this request for information and throughout this proceeding or other proceeding may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules, each interested party response to this notice must provide the information specified below. The deadline for filing such responses is 5:15 p.m. on July 31, 2026. Pursuant to § 207.62(b) of the Commission's rules, eligible parties (as specified in Commission rule 207.62(b)(1)) may also file comments concerning the adequacy of responses to the notice of institution and whether the Commission should conduct an expedited or full review. The deadline for filing such comments is 5:15 p.m. on September 8, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings. Also, in accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the proceeding must be served on all other parties to the proceeding (as identified by either the public or APO service list as appropriate), and a certificate of service must accompany the document (if you are not a party to the proceeding you do not need to serve your response).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings at this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 26-5-697, expiration date June 30, 2026. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inability to provide requested information.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61(c) of the Commission's rules, any interested party that cannot furnish the information requested by this notice in the requested form and manner shall notify the Commission at the earliest possible time, provide a full explanation of why it cannot provide the requested information, and indicate alternative forms in which it can provide equivalent information. If an interested party does not provide this notification (or the Commission finds the explanation provided in the notification inadequate) and fails to provide a complete response to this notice, the Commission may take an adverse inference against the party pursuant to § 776(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677e(b)) in making its determination in the review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information to be Provided in Response to this Notice of Institution:</E>
                     As used below, the term “firm” includes any related firms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those responding to this notice of institution are encouraged, but not required, to visit the USITC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://usitc.gov/reports/response_noi_worksheet,</E>
                     where one can download and complete the “NOI worksheet” Excel form for the subject proceeding, to be included as attachment/exhibit 1 of your overall response.
                </P>
                <P>(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     a U.S. union or worker group, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40587"/>
                    a U.S. importer of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandi</E>
                    se, a foreign producer or exporter of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a U.S. or foreign trade or business association (a majority of whose members are interested parties under the statute), or another interested party (including an explanation). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, identify the firms in which your workers are employed or which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping duty order on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     in general and/or your firm/entity specifically. In your response, please discuss the various factors specified in section 752(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675a(a)) including the likely volume of subject imports, likely price effects of subject imports, and likely impact of imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                     Identify any known related parties and the nature of the relationship as defined in § 771(4)(B) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677(4)(B)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     that currently export or have exported 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     to the United States or other countries after 2020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     (including street address, World Wide Web address, and the name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of a responsible official at each firm).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     or the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the U.S. or other markets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) If you are a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's operations on that product during calendar year 2025, except as noted (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars, f.o.b. plant). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms in which your workers are employed/which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&amp;A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s) (include both U.S. and export commercial sales, internal consumption, and company transfers) for your most recently completed fiscal year (identify the date on which your fiscal year ends).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') imports;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in units and value data in U.S. dollars, landed and duty-paid at the U.S. port but not including antidumping duties). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') exports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     that have occurred in the United States or in the market for the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     after 2020, and significant changes, if any, that are likely to occur within a reasonably foreseeable time. Supply conditions to consider include technology; production methods; development efforts; ability to increase production (including the shift of production facilities used for other products and the use, cost, or availability of major inputs into production); and factors related to the ability to shift supply among different national markets (including barriers to importation in foreign markets or changes in market demand abroad). Demand conditions to consider include end uses and applications; the existence and availability of substitute products; and the level of competition among the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in the United States, 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     produced in the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     and such merchandise from other countries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40588"/>
                    definitions of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry;</E>
                     if you disagree with either or both of these definitions, please explain why and provide alternative definitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13417 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 337-TA-1449]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Certain Balloon Dilation Devices, Systems, and Components Thereof; Notice of Request for Submissions on the Public Interest</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that on June 26, 2026, the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) issued a Final Initial Determination on Violation (“FID”) of Section 337. The FID includes a Recommended Determination on remedy and bonding should a violation be found in the above-captioned investigation. The Commission is soliciting submissions on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief should the Commission find a violation. This notice is soliciting comments from the public and interested government agencies only.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Paul Lall, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2043. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         For help accessing EDIS, please email 
                        <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                         General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing-impaired persons are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 provides that, if the Commission finds a violation, it shall exclude the articles concerned from the United States unless, after considering the effect of such exclusion upon the public health and welfare, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, and United States consumers, it finds that such articles should not be excluded from entry. (19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1)). A similar provision applies to cease and desist orders. (19 U.S.C. 1337(f)(1)).</P>
                <P>The Commission is soliciting submissions on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief should the Commission find a violation, specifically: a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders directed to certain balloon dilation devices, systems, and components thereof imported, sold for importation, and/or sold after importation by or on behalf of respondents Fiagon GmbH; Fiagon NA, LLC; or Hemostasis, LLC or any of their affiliated companies, parents, subsidiaries, agents, or other related business entities, or its successors or assigns. Parties are to file public interest submissions pursuant to 19 CFR 210.50(a)(4).</P>
                <P>The Commission is interested in further development of the record on the public interest in this investigation. Accordingly, members of the public and interested government agencies are invited to file submissions of no more than five (5) pages, inclusive of attachments, concerning the public interest in light of the ALJ's Recommended Determination on Remedy and Bonding issued on June 26, 2026. Comments should address whether issuance of the recommended remedial orders in this investigation, should the Commission find a violation, would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.</P>
                <P>In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the recommended remedial orders are used in the United States;</P>
                <P>(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the recommended orders;</P>
                <P>(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;</P>
                <P>(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third-party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the recommended orders within a commercially reasonable time; and</P>
                <P>(v) explain how the recommended orders would impact consumers in the United States.</P>
                <P>Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business on July 30, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above pursuant to 19 CFR 210.4(f). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 337-TA-1449”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/secretary/fed_reg_notices/rules/handbook_on_electronic_filing.pdf</E>
                    ). Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary (202-205-2000).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment by marking each document with a header indicating that the document contains confidential information. This marking will be deemed to satisfy the request procedure set forth in Rules 201.6(b) and 210.5(e)(2) (19 CFR 201.6(b) &amp; 210.5(e)(2)). Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. Any non-party wishing to submit comments containing confidential information must serve those comments on the parties to the investigation pursuant to the applicable Administrative Protective Order. A redacted non-confidential version of the document must also be filed simultaneously with any confidential filing and must be served in accordance with Commission Rule 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A) (19 CFR 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A)). All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40589"/>
                    personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection on EDIS.
                </P>
                <P>This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13434 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 337-TA-1508]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Certain Systems, Devices, Software, Compositions, Chemicals, and Laboratory Supplies for Studying Proteins; Notice of Institution of Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on May 28, 2026, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, on behalf of Seer, Inc. of Redwood City, California and The Brigham and Women's Hospital, Inc. of Boston, Massachusetts. A supplement to the complaint was filed on June 12, 2026. The complaint, as supplemented, alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain systems, devices, software, compositions, chemicals, and laboratory supplies for studying proteins by reason of the infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 11,435,360 (“the '360 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 11,630,112 (“the '112 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 12,050,222 (“the '222 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 12,228,566 (“the '566 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. 12,590,948 (“the '948 patent”). The complaint, as supplemented, further alleges that an industry in the United States exists as required by the applicable Federal Statute. The complainants request that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and a cease and desist order.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         For help accessing EDIS, please email 
                        <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Pathenia M. Proctor, The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The authority for institution of this investigation is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, and in section 210.10 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10 (2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Scope of Investigation:</E>
                     Having considered the complaint, the U.S. International Trade Commission, on June 29, 2026, Ordered That—
                </P>
                <P>(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain products identified in paragraph (2) by reason of infringement of one or more of claims 2, 3, 5, 7-13, 15, 16, 23, 24, 26, and 27 of the '360 patent; claims 1-8, 12-19, and 21 of the '112 patent; claim 16 of the '222 patent; claims 1-10, 19, and 20 of the '566 patent; and claims 1 and 2 of the '948 patent, and whether an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337;</P>
                <P>(2) Pursuant to section 210.10(b)(1) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10(b)(1), the plain language description of the accused products or category of accused products, which defines the scope of the investigation, is “automated workstations for proteomics and associated software, assay kits for proteomics, and components thereof including nanoparticles, reagents, and laboratory consumables”;</P>
                <P>(3) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(l), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(1), the presiding administrative law judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties or other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(l), (f)(1), (g)(1);</P>
                <P>(4) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(a) The complainants are:</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Seer, Inc., 3800 Bridge Parkway, Suite 102, Redwood City, CA 94065</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">The Brigham and Women's Hospital, Inc., 75 Francis Street, Boston, MA 02115</FP>
                <P>(b) The respondent is the following entity alleged to be in violation of section 337, and is the party upon which the complaint is to be served:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nanomics Biotechnology Co., Ltd., 5th Floor, Building 6, 400 Fucheng Road, Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China 310018</FP>
                <P>(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and</P>
                <P>(5) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.</P>
                <P>Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondent in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.</P>
                <P>
                    Failure of the respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40590"/>
                    and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13435 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 731-TA-1014 and 1016 (Fourth Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Polyvinyl Alcohol From China and Japan; Scheduling of Expedited Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of expedited reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty orders on polyvinyl alcohol from China and Japan would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATE:</HD>
                    <P>June 5, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rachel Devenney (202-205-3172), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>Background.—On June 5, 2026, the Commission determined that the domestic interested party group response to its notice of institution (91 FR 10155, March 2, 2026) of the subject five-year reviews was adequate and that the respondent interested party group response was inadequate.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission did not find any other circumstances that would warrant conducting full reviews.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Commission determined that it would conduct expedited reviews pursuant to section 751(c)(3) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(3)).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         A record of the Commissioners' votes, the Commission's statement on adequacy, and any individual Commissioner's statements will be available from the Office of the Secretary and at the Commission's website.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).</P>
                <P>Staff report.—A staff report containing information concerning the subject matter of the reviews has been placed in the nonpublic record, and will be made available to persons on the Administrative Protective Order service list for these reviews on August 6, 2026. A public version will be issued thereafter, pursuant to § 207.62(d)(4) of the Commission's rules.</P>
                <P>
                    Written submissions.—As provided in § 207.62(d) of the Commission's rules, interested parties that are parties to the reviews and that have provided individually adequate responses to the notice of institution,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any party other than an interested party to the reviews may file written comments with the Secretary on what determination the Commission should reach in the reviews. Comments are due on or before 5:15 p.m. on August 13, 2026 and may not contain new factual information. Any person that is neither a party to the five-year reviews nor an interested party may submit a brief written statement (which shall not contain any new factual information) pertinent to the reviews by August 13, 2026. However, should the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) extend the time limit for its completion of the final results of its reviews, the deadline for comments (which may not contain new factual information) on Commerce's final results is three business days after the issuance of Commerce's results. If comments contain business proprietary information (BPI), they must conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission has found the responses submitted on behalf of Sekisui Specialty Chemicals America, LLC and Kuraray America, Inc., to be individually adequate. Comments from other interested parties will not be accepted (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         19 CFR 207.62(d)(2)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.</P>
                <P>Determination.—The Commission has determined these reviews are extraordinarily complicated and therefore has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(5)(B).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13436 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-468 and 731-TA-1166-1167 (Third Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Magnesia Carbon Bricks From China and Mexico; Institution of Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to determine whether revocation of the countervailing duty order on certain magnesia carbon bricks from China and the antidumping duty orders on certain magnesia carbon bricks from China and Mexico would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Instituted July 1, 2026. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is July 31, 2026. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by September 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40591"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rachel Devenney (202-205-3172), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On September 20, 2010, the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) issued antidumping duty orders on imports of certain magnesia carbon bricks from China and Mexico (75 FR 57257). On September 21, 2010, Commerce issued a countervailing duty order on imports of certain magnesia carbon bricks from China (75 FR 57442). Commerce issued a continuation of the countervailing duty order on imports of certain magnesia carbon bricks from China and the antidumping duty orders on imports of certain magnesia carbon bricks from China and Mexico following Commerce's and the Commission's first five-year reviews, effective February 12, 2016 (81 FR 7502) and second five-year reviews, effective August 19, 2021 (86 FR 46676). The Commission is now conducting third five-year reviews pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), to determine whether revocation of the orders would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to the domestic industry within a reasonably foreseeable time. Provisions concerning the conduct of this proceeding may be found in the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure at 19 CFR part 201, subparts A and B, and 19 CFR part 207, subparts A and F. The Commission will assess the adequacy of interested party responses to this notice of institution to determine whether to conduct full or expedited reviews. The Commission's determinations in any expedited reviews will be based on the facts available, which may include information provided in response to this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                    —The following definitions apply to these reviews:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     is the class or kind of merchandise that is within the scope of the five-year reviews, as defined by Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) The 
                    <E T="03">Subject Countries</E>
                     in these reviews are China and Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     is the domestically produced product or products which are like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise.</E>
                     In its original determinations, expedited first five-year review determinations, and expedited second five-year review determinations, the Commission defined a single 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     consisting of all magnesia carbon bricks, coextensive with the scope of the orders.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) The 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     is the U.S. producers as a whole of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     or those producers whose collective output of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     constitutes a major proportion of the total domestic production of the product. In its original determinations, expedited first five-year review determinations, and expedited second five-year review determinations, the Commission defined the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     as all producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     certain magnesia carbon bricks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) An 
                    <E T="03">Importer</E>
                     is any person or firm engaged, either directly or through a parent company or subsidiary, in importing the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     into the United States from a foreign manufacturer or through its selling agent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the proceeding and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons, including industrial users of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the proceeding as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11(b)(4) of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post-employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Charles Smith, Office of the General Counsel, at 202-205-3408.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and APO service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI submitted in this proceeding available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the proceeding, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the proceeding. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with this proceeding must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that information submitted in response to this request for information and throughout this proceeding or other proceeding may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules, each interested party response to this notice must provide the information specified 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40592"/>
                    below. The deadline for filing such responses is 5:15 p.m. on July 31, 2026. Pursuant to § 207.62(b) of the Commission's rules, eligible parties (as specified in Commission rule 207.62(b)(1)) may also file comments concerning the adequacy of responses to the notice of institution and whether the Commission should conduct expedited or full reviews. The deadline for filing such comments is 5:15 p.m. on September 8, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings. Also, in accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the proceeding must be served on all other parties to the proceeding (as identified by either the public or APO service list as appropriate), and a certificate of service must accompany the document (if you are not a party to the proceeding you do not need to serve your response).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings at this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 26-5-698, expiration date June 30, 2026. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inability to provide requested information.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.61(c) of the Commission's rules, any interested party that cannot furnish the information requested by this notice in the requested form and manner shall notify the Commission at the earliest possible time, provide a full explanation of why it cannot provide the requested information, and indicate alternative forms in which it can provide equivalent information. If an interested party does not provide this notification (or the Commission finds the explanation provided in the notification inadequate) and fails to provide a complete response to this notice, the Commission may take an adverse inference against the party pursuant to § 776(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677e(b)) in making its determinations in the reviews.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information to be Provided in Response to this Notice of Institution:</E>
                     If you are a domestic producer, union/worker group, or trade/business association; import/export 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from more than one 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     or produce 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in more than one 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     you may file a single response. If you do so, please ensure that your response to each question includes the information requested for each pertinent 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                     As used below, the term “firm” includes any related firms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those responding to this notice of institution are encouraged, but not required, to visit the USITC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://usitc.gov/reports/response_noi_worksheet,</E>
                     where one can download and complete the “NOI worksheet” Excel form for the subject proceeding, to be included as attachment/exhibit 1 of your overall response.
                </P>
                <P>(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     a U.S. union or worker group, a U.S. importer of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandi</E>
                    se, a foreign producer or exporter of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise,</E>
                     a U.S. or foreign trade or business association (a majority of whose members are interested parties under the statute), or another interested party (including an explanation). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, identify the firms in which your workers are employed or which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry</E>
                     in general and/or your firm/entity specifically. In your response, please discuss the various factors specified in section 752(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675a(a)) including the likely volume of subject imports, likely price effects of subject imports, and likely impact of imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     on the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product.</E>
                     Identify any known related parties and the nature of the relationship as defined in section 771(4)(B) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1677(4)(B)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and producers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     that currently export or have exported 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     to the United States or other countries after 2020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     (including street address, World Wide Web address, and the name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of a responsible official at each firm).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     or the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in the U.S. or other markets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) If you are a U.S. producer of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's operations on that product during calendar year 2025, except as noted (report quantity data in short tons and value data in U.S. dollars, f.o.b. plant). If you are a union/worker group or trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms in which your workers are employed/which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40593"/>
                    transfers of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&amp;A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in your U.S. plant(s) (include both U.S. and export commercial sales, internal consumption, and company transfers) for your most recently completed fiscal year (identify the date on which your fiscal year ends).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from any 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in short tons and value data in U.S. dollars). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping or countervailing duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') imports;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country;</E>
                     and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     imported from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in any 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     provide the following information on your firm's(s') operations on that product during calendar year 2025 (report quantity data in short tons and value data in U.S. dollars, landed and duty-paid at the U.S. port but not including antidumping or countervailing duties). If you are a trade/business association, provide the information, on an aggregate basis, for the firms which are members of your association.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') production;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     (that is, the level of production that your establishment(s) could reasonably have expected to attain during the year, assuming normal operating conditions (using equipment and machinery in place and ready to operate), normal operating levels (hours per week/weeks per year), time for downtime, maintenance, repair, and cleanup, and a typical or representative product mix); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total exports to the United States of 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     from each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     accounted for by your firm's(s') exports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     that have occurred in the United States or in the market for the 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country</E>
                     after 2020, and significant changes, if any, that are likely to occur within a reasonably foreseeable time. Supply conditions to consider include technology; production methods; development efforts; ability to increase production (including the shift of production facilities used for other products and the use, cost, or availability of major inputs into production); and factors related to the ability to shift supply among different national markets (including barriers to importation in foreign markets or changes in market demand abroad). Demand conditions to consider include end uses and applications; the existence and availability of substitute products; and the level of competition among the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     produced in the United States, 
                    <E T="03">Subject Merchandise</E>
                     produced in each 
                    <E T="03">Subject Country,</E>
                     and such merchandise from other countries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Like Product</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Industry;</E>
                     if you disagree with either or both of these definitions, please explain why and provide alternative definitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13416 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1110-0076]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Previously Approved Collection; Title—FBI Collecting Evaluation Data: End-of Session Questionnaires</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Training Division, Federal Bureau of investigation, Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Denielle Johnson, 703-632-1938, 
                        <E T="03">HQ-DIV02-ACCU-SURVEY@FBI.GOV.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Data used to assess effectiveness of National Academy and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40594"/>
                    Law Enforcement Basic Instructor Course curriculums and associated instructional staff.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Renewal of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     FBI Collecting Evaluation Data: End-of Session Questionnaires (NA Level 1 and Post-Graduate Surveys, LEBIC Pre-Course Survey, LEBIC Level 1 Survey).
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     Affected Public State, local and tribal law enforcement. The obligation to respond is voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     The total or estimated number of respondents for the NA surveys per year is approximately 1000 and the time per response is 15 minutes to complete the surveys. The total or estimated number of respondents for the LEBIC surveys per year is approximately 500 and the time per response is 10 minutes to complete the surveys.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The total annual burden hours for this collection is 250 hours for NA surveys and 83 hours for LEBIC surveys.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     Median wage per year is $101,750 for an hourly salary of $48.92. Annual burden of $16,290.36.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,r50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency
                            <LI>(annually)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NA Surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>250</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">LEBIC Surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>83</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>333</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Enterprise Portfolio Management, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13449 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1123-0015]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revisions of Previously Approved Collection Title—Petition for Commutation of Sentence</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Pardon Attorney, Department of Justice</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of the Pardon Attorney, Department of Justice, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until 60 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Kira Gillespie, Deputy Pardon Attorney, Office of the Pardon Attorney, 950 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Main Justice—RFK Building, Washington, DC 20530; 
                        <E T="03">USPardon.Attorney@usdoj.gov;</E>
                         (202) 616-6073.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Office of the Pardon Attorney, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so, how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of the Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of previous approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Petition for Commutation of Sentence.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     There is no agency form number for this collection. The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Office of the Pardon Attorney.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     Applicants seeking commutation of sentence by the President will be asked to respond to this collection. The principal purpose for collecting this information is to enable the Office of the Pardon Attorney to process applicants' requests for commutation. The information is necessary to verify applicants' identities, conduct investigation of the applicants' backgrounds and criminal records, and ensure proper notification to the Bureau of Prisons, Federal Bureau of Investigation, U.S. Attorneys' Offices, U.S. Probation Offices, and federal courts in the event of grants of executive clemency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     Available information suggests 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40595"/>
                    that between 5,000 to 6,000 applicants will complete petitions annually.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                     We estimate an average of two hours for each applicant to respond to the collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     Considering the above projected figures, we estimate 10,000 to 12,000 hours of annual burden to the public.
                </P>
                <P>If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, Enterprise Portfolio Management, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.206, Washington, DC 20530.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13448 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-29-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Derricks Standard</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Occupational Safety &amp; Health Administration (OSHA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nicole Bouchet by telephone at 202-693-0213, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">DOL_PRA_PUBLIC@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The paperwork provisions of the Standard specify requirements for marking the rated load on derricks, preparing certification records to verify the inspection of derrick ropes, and posting warning signs while the derrick is undergoing adjustments and repairs. Certification records must be maintained and disclosed upon request. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 18, 2025 (90 FR 45057).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.
                </P>
                <P>DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     DOL-OSHA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Derricks Standard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0222.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector—Businesses or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     7,750.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     1,336 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicole Bouchet,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Paperwork Reduction Act Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13360 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">MILLENNIUM CHALLENGE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[MCC FR 26-05]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Renewal of the MCC Advisory Council and Call for Nominations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Millennium Challenge Corporation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C.—App., MCC has renewed the charter for the MCC Advisory Council (“Advisory Council”) and is hereby soliciting representative nominations for the 2026-2028 term. The Advisory Council seeks members representing a diverse group of private sector organizations with expertise in infrastructure, business and finance and technology, particularly in the countries and regions where MCC operates. The Advisory Council provides a platform for systematic engagement with the private sector and contributes to MCC's mission—to reduce poverty through sustainable economic growth. MCC uses this advice, information, and recommendations to inform compact development and implementation, and broaden public and private sector partnerships for more impact and leverage. The Advisory Council members serve MCC in an advisory capacity only and provide insight regarding innovations in relevant sectors including technology, agriculture, land management, infrastructure, environment, climate, blended finance, public finance, health, water and sanitation, energy, social analysis; perceived risks and opportunities in MCC partner countries; and evolving approaches to working in developing country contexts. The MCC Vice President of the Department of Compact Operations affirms that the Advisory Council is necessary and in the public interest. Additional information about MCC and its portfolio can be found at 
                        <E T="03">www.mcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Nominations for Advisory Council members must be received on or before 5:00 p.m. EDT on August 7, 2026. Further information about the nomination process is included below. MCC plans to host the next MCC Advisory Council meeting in the Fall of 2026. The Advisory Council meets up to four times a year in Washington, DC or via hybrid video/teleconferencing and in person.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All nomination materials or requests for additional information should be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40596"/>
                        emailed to MCC's Advisory Designated Federal Officer, Sheena Cooper at 
                        <E T="03">MCCAdvisoryCouncil@mcc.gov</E>
                         or mailed to Millennium Challenge Corporation, Attn: Sheena Cooper, 1099 14th St. NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20005.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 25 individuals who are recognized as thought leaders, business leaders, and experts representing US companies, the business community, advocacy organizations, NGOs, non-profits organizations, foundations, and industry sectors including infrastructure, ICT, industry/manufacturing and finance, as well as sustainable development. Qualified individuals may self-nominate or be nominated by any individual or organization. To be considered for the Advisory Council, nominators should submit the following information:</P>
                <P>• Name, title, organization and relevant contact information (including phone and email address) of the individual under consideration;</P>
                <P>• A letter, on organization letterhead, containing a brief description of why the nominee should be considered for membership;</P>
                <P>• A short biography of nominee including professional and academic credentials;</P>
                <P>Please do not send company, trade association, or organization brochures or any other information. Materials submitted should total two pages or less. Should more information be needed, MCC staff will contact the nominee, obtain information from the nominee's past affiliations, or obtain information from publicly available sources.</P>
                <P>All members of the Advisory Council will be independent of the agency, representing the views and interests of their respective industry or area of expertise, and not as Special Government Employees. All Members shall serve without compensation.</P>
                <P>Nominees selected for appointment to the Advisory Council will be notified by return email and receive a letter of appointment. A selection team comprising of representatives from several MCC departments will review the nomination packages. The selection team will make recommendations regarding membership to the Vice President for Compact Operations based on criteria including:</P>
                <P>(1) Professional or academic expertise, experience, and knowledge; (2) stakeholder representation; (3) availability and willingness to serve; and (4) skills working collaboratively on committees and advisory panels. Based upon the selection team's recommendations, the Vice President for Compact Operations will select representatives. In the selection of members for the Advisory Council, MCC will seek to ensure a balanced representation and consider a cross-section of those directly affected, interested, and qualified, as appropriate to the nature and functions of the Advisory Council.</P>
                <P>Nominations are open to all individuals without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, mental or physical disability, marital status, or sexual orientation.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Finkelstein,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Vice President, General Counsel, and Corporate Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13466 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9211-03-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.52-00006; NRC-2026-2443]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Westinghouse Electric Company LLC; AP1000 Design Certification Renewal; Exemption</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued an exemption in response to an April 7, 2026, request from Westinghouse Electric Company LLC (Westinghouse) from requirements to apply for renewal of the AP1000 design certification more than 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption was issued on June 24, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket IDNRC-2026-2443 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this  document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2026-2443. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Bridget Curran; telephone: 301-415-1003; email: 
                        <E T="03">Bridget.Curran@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin ADAMS Public Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         Westinghouse's request for exemption from paragraph 52.57(a) of title 10 of the 
                        <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                         (10 CFR), and the NRC response, can be found under ADAMS Accession Nos. ML26097A439 and ML26117A115, respectively.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                         The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                         or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jason Carneal, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: (301) 415-1451; email: 
                        <E T="03">Jason.Carneal@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The text of the exemption is attached.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 2011 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Michele Sampson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Division Director, Division of Advanced Reactor Licensing, Office of Advanced Reactors.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Attachment—Exemption</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">[Docket No. 52-00006]; Westinghouse Electric Company LLC; AP1000 Standard Design Certification Renewal; Exemption</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Westinghouse Electric Company LLC (Westinghouse), the sponsor of the AP1000 standard design certification (DC), has requested an exemption from scheduling requirements for the renewal of the AP1000 DC. Relatedly, Westinghouse submitted its AP1000 DC renewal request and an associated amendment (Revision 20) on March 27, 2026 (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Accession No. ML26086A408 (package)). The DC renewal request and associated amendment would update 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40597"/>
                    the AP1000 design control document (DCD) to reflect construction and operating experience from AP1000 nuclear power plants operating in the United States, which would allow for consistency and standardization in future AP1000 applications. As further discussed below, this action is related to Westinghouse's exemption request; the NRC staff will review the DC renewal request and associated amendment separately.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR) 52.55, “Duration of certification,” a combined license application (COLA) may reference the current AP1000 DC until February 27, 2046. Pursuant to paragraph (a) of 10 CFR 52.57, “Application for renewal,” any person may apply for renewal of a DC not less than 12 nor more than 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period. Therefore, in order to apply for renewal of the AP1000 DC earlier than February 27, 2043, Westinghouse submitted a request for exemption from the scheduling requirements of 10 CFR 52.57(a) on April 7, 2026 (ML26097A439). On April 27, 2026, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or the Commission) staff determined the exemption request contained sufficient information for the NRC staff to initiate a detailed technical review and accepted the exemption request for docketing (ML26117A115).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Request/Action</HD>
                <P>In its April 7, 2026, exemption request, Westinghouse stated that the associated AP1000 DC amendment request, if approved, would bring the DCD up to date by including construction and operating experience from the operating AP1000 nuclear power plants, allowing for consistency and standardization in future AP1000 plant applications. The NRC staff notes that this exemption request is being considered separately from the AP1000 DC renewal request and associated amendment. Upon approval of the exemption request, the NRC staff would undertake a detailed review of the AP1000 DC renewal application, including the amendment request, to determine whether the renewal application meets the applicable regulatory requirements such that the AP1000 DC can be renewed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion</HD>
                <P>The NRC staff's evaluation of the requested exemption is governed by 10 CFR 52.7 and 10 CFR 50.12. Pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12(a), the Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions when: (1) the exemptions are authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security; and (2) special circumstances are present. The NRC staff's evaluation of Westinghouse's exemption request with respect to each of these requirements is described below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The Exemption Is Authorized by Law</HD>
                <P>The requested exemption from the scheduling requirements in 10 CFR 52.57(a) would allow for renewal of the AP1000 DC more than 36 months before its expiration on February 27, 2046. Neither the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (AEA), as amended, nor the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requires a specific time period within which an application for a DC renewal must be filed; the time period specified in 10 CFR 52.57(a) is specific to NRC regulations. Because the regulation at 10 CFR 52.7 allows the NRC to grant exemptions from its regulations in 10 CFR part 52 and because the AEA and APA do not require a specific time period for timely renewal of a DC, the NRC staff has determined that granting this exemption will not result in a violation of the AEA or the APA. Therefore, the exemption is authorized by law.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Exemption Presents No Undue Risk to Public Health and Safety</HD>
                <P>The requested exemption from 10 CFR 52.57(a) involves scheduling requirements for renewal of a DC. Specifically, it would enable the submission of Westinghouse's AP1000 DC renewal application and an associated amendment before the time specified in the regulation. This update would allow future AP1000 applications to be consistent with current industry construction and operating experience, thereby ensuring public health and safety. Therefore, the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. The Exemption Is Consistent With the Common Defense and Security</HD>
                <P>The requested exemption from 10 CFR 52.57(a) involves scheduling requirements for renewal of a DC and has no relation to security issues. If approved, the AP1000 DCD would be updated to reflect operating experience and the as-built design. Therefore, the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Special Circumstances</HD>
                <P>Special circumstances, in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2), must be present for the Commission to consider granting an exemption. Under 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii) and (vi), respectively, special circumstances are present when application of the regulation in the particular circumstances is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule or when there is present any other material circumstance not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. The NRC staff has determined that special circumstances are present in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii) and (vi), as further discussed below.</P>
                <P>In its exemption request, Westinghouse indicated the 36-month renewal timeframe requirement set forth in 10 CFR 52.57(a) is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule, which is to allow time for the accumulation of operating experience, in the case of the requirement to submit a renewal application not more than 36 months before expiration of a DC. This scheduling requirement ensures that any renewal application reflects up-to-date information and data that would be incorporated into a DC, if renewed. As the exemption request noted, relevant construction and operation lessons learned from the current operating AP1000 nuclear power plants have been included in the proposed DC amendment. Thus, delaying submission of the AP1000 DC renewal application until 2043, or 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period, is not necessary to meet the underlying purpose of the rule because a significant volume of information and data is now available to bring the AP1000 DC up to date. The NRC staff therefore has determined, in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii), that special circumstances are present because application of the regulation in the particular circumstances is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, delaying submission of the AP1000 DC renewal application until 2043 could lead to inefficiencies for both the NRC staff and applicants in connection with future COLA submittals that reference the AP1000 DC. Allowing renewal of the AP1000 DC before the timeframe specified in 10 CFR 52.57(a) would, if the renewal request and associated amendment are approved, enable lessons learned to be incorporated into the DC, thereby allowing applications referencing the AP1000 DC that are submitted before 2043 to incorporate the updated information and data and realize licensing efficiencies. In addition, as the exemption request noted, the AP1000 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40598"/>
                    design is the only certified design that has been built to completion in the United States. The AP1000 DC thus is in a unique position in which updated information and data from recent construction and operation are already available to be incorporated into the DC. Lastly, as the exemption request stated, the requested exemption is aligned with the Nuclear Energy Innovation and Modernization Act of 2019 (NEIMA), the Accelerating Deployment of Versatile, Advanced Nuclear for Clean Energy Act of 2024 (ADVANCE Act), and recent executive orders, by increasing licensing efficiencies for potential future advanced reactor applicants, thereby enabling the safe and secure use and deployment of civilian nuclear energy technologies. For these reasons, there are material circumstances present that were not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it is in the public interest to grant the exemption. Therefore, the NRC staff has determined that special circumstances are present in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(vi).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environmental Considerations</HD>
                <P>On March 30, 2026 (91 FR 15519), the NRC amended its regulations in 10 CFR 51.22, “Categorical exclusions,” including the provision Westinghouse cited as the basis for excluding the exemption request from environmental review under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). As further discussed below, the NRC staff has determined that issuance of the requested exemption meets the criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22, specifically paragraph (d)(5) related to changes to scheduling requirements. Before the March 30, 2026, rulemaking, this provision was located at 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25)(vi)(G), which Westinghouse cited in its exemption request. The NRC staff's evaluation of the applicability of the categorical exclusion under 10 CFR 51.22(d)(5) is discussed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Categorical Exclusion Under 10 CFR 51.22(d)(5)</HD>
                <P>The provisions of 10 CFR 51.22(d) exclude certain categories of NRC actions from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement, provided that any ground disturbance is limited to previously disturbed areas and there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure, and no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents.</P>
                <P>This action relates to an exemption from scheduling requirements for DC renewal applications set forth in 10 CFR 52.57(a) and would allow Westinghouse to submit an application for renewal of the AP1000 DC more than 36 months before the initial 40-year period, which expires in 2046. Therefore, 10 CFR 51.22(d)(5), which categorically excludes from environmental review NRC actions related to changes to scheduling requirements, applies to this exemption.</P>
                <P>The NRC staff has determined this action regarding the DC renewal scheduling requirement involves no physical change to the human environment. Thus, any ground disturbance is limited to previously disturbed areas. Additionally, the NRC staff has determined that the action involves no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure, and no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents. Finally, the NRC staff has determined that a categorical exclusion applies and that special circumstances under 10 CFR 51.22, “Categorical exclusions,” are not present that would preclude reliance on the categorical exclusion. Accordingly, this action meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(d)(5). Pursuant to 10CFR51.22, no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Commission has determined that, pursuant to 10 CFR 52.7 and 10 CFR 50.12, the exemption is authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and is consistent with the common defense and security. Also, special circumstances are present. Therefore, the Commission hereby grants Westinghouse a one-time exemption from the requirement in 10 CFR 52.57(a) that an application for renewal of a DC must be submitted not less than 12 nor more than 36 months before expiration of the initial 40-year period, such that Westinghouse may apply for renewal of the AP1000 DC more than 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 24 day of June 2026.</P>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Michele Sampson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Division Director, Division of Advanced Reactor Licensing,Office of Advanced Reactors.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13386 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: Report of Medical Examination of Person Electing  Survivor Benefits, OPM 1530, 3206-0162</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on an expiring information collection request (ICR), Report of Medical Examination of Person Electing Survivor Benefits, OPM 1530.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-BD, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson sent via electronic mail to: 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40599"/>
                    information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                </P>
                <P>At the time of retirement, an employee or Member in good health may elect an insurable interest survivor annuity benefit on behalf of an eligible beneficiary. OPM Form 1530 is used to collect the information necessary to determine whether the employee or Member is in good health so that OPM can determine whether the applicant is eligible to elect an insurable interest survivor annuity benefit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Report of Medical Examination of Person Electing Survivor Benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0162.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     250.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>U.S. Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13431 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Request: Federal Employee Viewpoint Survey, OMB Control Number (3206-NEW)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) offers the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a new Federal Employee Viewpoint Survey (FEVS) information collection request (ICR). OPM conducts this collection to satisfy statutorily required employee survey requirements.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 31, 2026. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments on the Federal Rulemaking Portal: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Employee Viewpoint Survey Team, Attention: Makisha Brown, via electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">EVS@opm.gov</E>
                         or via telephone at (202) 606-1800.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, as amended 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2), OPM is soliciting comments for this new information collection request prior to seeking Office of Management and Budget approval. A Federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>3. Suggest ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    4. Suggest ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submissions of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Section 1128 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2004 (Pub. L. 108-136, 5 U.S.C. 7101 note) requires executive agencies to conduct an annual employee survey and directs OPM to issue regulations prescribing the survey questions that must appear on all agency surveys to allow for comparison across agencies. The survey is the instrument through which agencies meet the statutory requirement to assess (1) leadership and management practices that contribute to agency performance and (2) employee satisfaction with leadership policies and practices, the work environment, rewards and recognition for professional accomplishment and personal contributions to achieving the organizational mission, opportunity for professional development and growth, and opportunity to contribute to achieving the organizational mission. OPM implemented this requirement through regulations at 5 CFR part 250, subpart C, to provide comparable governmentwide data and centrally administered the annual survey, the Federal Employee Viewpoint Survey (FEVS), on behalf of agencies. Agencies participating in the FEVS satisfy the annual employee survey requirement by including the prescribed core survey questions, while retaining limited flexibility to add agency-specific items consistent with OPM guidance.</P>
                <P>
                    In the Rules section of this issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , OPM proposes to reduce the number of prescribed annual employee survey questions from 16 to 10, retaining the most probative items to better serve workforce planning needs. In addition, OPM will no longer centrally administer the survey on behalf of agencies. Instead, each agency will administer the survey to its employees. The survey consists of Likert-type, mark-one, and mark-all-that-apply items. The information collection consists of the responses provided by the employees who complete the survey. The OPM survey will be available to agencies as a common form. An agency will submit the resulting data for the prescribed questions to OPM and OMB once per year to enable governmentwide comparison. Should agencies add questions to the common form, agencies would be responsible for their own collections separate from the OPM common form and would need to seek their own OMB control number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Federal Employee Viewpoint Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New collection (Request for a new OMB control number).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Federal employees.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40600"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     619,184 (annualized 3-year historical average from 2022-2024).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     206,395 hours.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jerson Matias,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13443 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-64-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: Information and Instructions on Your Reconsideration Rights, RI 38-47, 3206-0237</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management (OPM), Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on the review of an expiring information collection request (ICR), Information and Instructions on Your Reconsideration Rights, RI 38-47.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 6500-AS, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson, or sent via electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, as amended (PRA) (44 U.S.C. Ch. 35), OPM is soliciting comments for this collection. The information collection (OMB No. 3206-0237) was previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on February 27, 2026, at 91 FR 9896, allowing for a 60-day public comment period. No comments were received. The Office of Management and Budget is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of OPM; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might OPM enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might OPM minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                </P>
                <P>RI 38-47 accompanies certain adverse initial decisions affecting retirement, health benefits, and life insurance matters. It informs affected individuals of their right to request reconsideration and provides the information needed to exercise that right.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Information and Instructions on Your Reconsideration Rights.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0237.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individual or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3,100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     45 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     2,325 hours.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13428 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: Request to Disability Annuitant for Information on Physical Condition and Employment, RI 30-1</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on the review of an expiring information collection request (ICR), Request to Disability Annuitant for Information on Physical Condition and Employment, RI 30-1.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-BD, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson sent via electronic mail 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Request to Disability Annuitant for Information on Physical Condition and Employment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0143.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     8,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     60 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     8,000.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40601"/>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13427 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: 3206-0194, Annuity Supplement Earnings Report, RI 92-22</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on the review of an expiring information collection request (ICR), Annuity Supplement Earnings Report, RI 92-22.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-BD, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson or via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>RI 92-22, Annuity Supplement Earnings Report, is used to obtain annually the earned income of Federal Employees Retirement System (FERS) annuitants receiving an annuity supplement. The annuity supplement is paid eligible FERS annuitants who are not retired on disability and are not yet age 62. The supplement approximates the portion of a full career Social Security benefits earned while under FERS and ends at age 62. Like Social Security benefits, the annuity supplement is subject to an earnings limitation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Annuity Supplement Earnings Report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0194.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     13,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,250.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13425 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: 3206-0138, Reinstatement of Disability Annuity Previously Terminated Because of Restoration to Earning Capacity, RI 30-9</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on an expiring information collection request (ICR), RI 30-9—Reinstatement of Disability Annuity Previously Terminated Because of Restoration to Earning Capacity.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-BD, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson or via electronic mail at: 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, as amended (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    RI 30-9, Reinstatement of Disability Annuity Previously Terminated Because of Restoration to Earning Capacity, informs former annuitants of their right to request reconsideration. It also specifies the conditions to be met and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40602"/>
                    the documentation that must be submitted with a request for reinstatement.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Reinstatement of Disability Annuity Previously Terminated Because of Restoration to Earning Capacity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0138.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     60 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     200.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13424 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: 3206-0134, Application To Make Deposit or Redeposit (CSRS)—SF 2803 and Application To Make Service Credit Payment for Civilian Service (FERS)—SF 3108</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on the review of an expiring information collection request (ICR), Application to Make Deposit or Redeposit (CSRS)—SF 2803 and Application to Make Service Credit Payment for Civilian Service (FERS)—SF 3108.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 6500-AS, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson or via electronic mail at: 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>Eligible employees and former employees may make payments to receive credit in their annuity computations for certain periods of service. These periods of service include service that was not subject to retirement deductions when the service was performed (non-deduction service) and service that was subject to retirement deductions that the employee or former employee later withdrew from the Retirement Fund in a lump-sum credit (refunded service). SF 2803, Application to Make Deposit or Redeposit (CSRS) and SF 3108, Application to Make Service Credit Payment for Civilian Service (FERS), are applications to make a deposit/redeposit before retirement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Application to Make Deposit or Redeposit (CSRS), and Application to Make Service Credit Payment for Civilian Service (FERS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0134.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individual or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     150.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     75.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13429 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: Initial Certification of Full-Time School Attendance,  RI 25-41, 3206-0099</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on an expiring information collection request (ICR), Initial Certification of Full-Time School Attendance, RI 25-41.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 6500-AS, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson or via electronic mail to: 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40603"/>
                    requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
                </P>
                <P>OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>OPM may pay survivor benefits to children of deceased Federal employees and annuitants if the children are between the ages of 18 &amp; 22, unmarried and full-time students in a recognized school. RI 25-41 is used by OPM to determine if a child is eligible to receive survivor benefits. If this information were not collected, OPM would be unable to determine whether unmarried dependent children (between 18 and 22 years of age) are eligible to receive survivor benefits.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Initial Certification of Full-Time School Attendance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0099.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individual or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     90 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,800.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13432 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Review: Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions (CSRS)—SF 2802 and Current/Former Spouse's Notification for Refund of Retirement Deductions Under CSRS—SF 2802A, 3206-0128</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Retirement Services offers the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on an expiring information collection request (ICR), SF 2802 
                        <E T="03">Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions: CSRS</E>
                         and SF 2802A 
                        <E T="03">Notification of Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions Under CSRS.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Office of Personnel Management” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting the Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-BD, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson sent via electronic mail to: 
                        <E T="03">RSPublicationsTeam@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>Standard Form 2802 is used to support the payment of monies from the Retirement Fund. It identifies the applicant for refund of retirement deductions. Standard Form 2802A is used to comply with the legal requirement that any spouse or former spouse of the applicant has been notified that the former employee is applying for a refund.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Retirement Operations, Retirement Services, Office of Personnel Management.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions (CSRS) and Current/Former Spouse's Notification of Application for Refund of Retirement Deductions under CSRS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3206-0128.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3,741 
                    <E T="03">[SF 2802]</E>
                     and 3,389 
                    <E T="03">[SF 2802A]</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     60 minutes 
                    <E T="03">[SF 2802]</E>
                     and 15 minutes 
                    <E T="03">[SF 2802A]</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,588.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13433 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105801; File No. SR-ISE-2026-34]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Short Term Option Series Program Related to Qualifying Securities</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ), and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 15, 2026, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Short Term Option Series Program in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40604"/>
                    Supplementary Material .03 of Options 4, Section 5 with respect to Qualifying Securities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/ise/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Short Term Option Series Program in Supplementary Material .03 of Options 4, Section 5. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend the Qualifying Securities to: (1) permit the listing of up to two Tuesday and Thursday Expirations for options on certain Exchange-Traded Funds that meet the current criteria in addition to the existing Monday and Wednesday Expirations; and (2) permit the listing of up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations for options on additional Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet new criteria. The Exchange also proposes to designate the Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the current criteria in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 as “Tier 1 Qualifying Securities” and designate the Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the proposed new set of criteria for Qualifying Securities that would only be permitted to trade up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations, as “Tier 2 Qualifying Securities.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, as set forth in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, after an option class has been approved for listing and trading on the Exchange as a Short Term Option Series pursuant to Options 1, Section 1(a)(50),
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange may open for trading on any Thursday or Friday that is a business day (“Short Term Option Opening Date”) series of options on that class that expire at the close of business on each of the next five Fridays that are business days and are not Fridays in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Friday Short Term Option Expiration Dates”). The Exchange may have no more than a total of five Short Term Option Expiration Dates (“Short Term Option Weekly Expirations”). Further, if the Exchange is not open for business on the respective Thursday or Friday, the Short Term Option Opening Date for Short Term Option Weekly Expirations will be the first business day immediately prior to that respective Thursday or Friday. Similarly, if the Exchange is not open for business on a Friday, the Short Term Option Expiration Date for Short Term Option Weekly Expirations will be the first business day immediately prior to that Friday.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(50) provides that a Short Term Option Series means a series in an option class that is approved for listing and trading on the Exchange in which the series is opened for trading on any Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday or Friday that is a business day and that expires on the Monday, Wednesday or Friday of the following business week that is a business day, or, in the case of a series that is listed on a Friday and expires on a Monday, is listed one business week and one business day prior to that expiration. If a Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday or Friday is not a business day, the series may be opened (or shall expire) on the first business day immediately prior to that Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday or Friday. For a series listed pursuant to this section for Monday expiration, if a Monday is not a business day, the series shall expire on the first business day immediately following that Monday.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the Exchange may open for trading series of options on the symbols provided in Table 1 of Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 that expire at the close of business on each of the next two Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays, respectively, that are business days beyond the current week and are not business days in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Short Term Option Daily Expirations”).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For those symbols listed in Table 1, the Exchange may have no more than a total of two Short Term Option Daily Expirations beyond the current week for each of Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday Expirations, as applicable, at one time.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         As set forth in Table 1 of Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, the Exchange currently permits expirations in SPY, IWM, QQQ on Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays and Thursdays. Also, the Exchange permits expirations in GLD, SLV and TLT on Mondays and Wednesdays. Finally, the Exchange permits expirations in USO and UNG on Wednesdays.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, the Exchange may open for trading series of options on the symbols provided in Table 2 of Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 that expire on the close of business on each of the next two Mondays and Wednesdays, respectively, that are business days beyond the current week and are not business days in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Qualifying Securities”). For those symbols listed in Table 2, the Exchange may have no more than a total of two Short Term Option Daily Expirations beyond the current week for each of Monday and Wednesday Expirations, at one time.</P>
                <P>Qualifying Securities may be eligible individual stocks or Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the following criteria on a quarterly basis:</P>
                <P>(1) an underlying security, as measured on the last day of the prior calendar quarter, must have:</P>
                <P>
                    (A) a market capitalization of greater than 700 billion dollars for an individual stock based on the closing price,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The closing price and the opening price shall be that of the primary exchange where the security is listed.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(B) Assets under Management (“AUM”) greater than 50 billion dollars for an Exchange-Traded Fund Share based on net asset value (“NAV”);</P>
                <P>(2) monthly options volume, as measured by sides traded in the last month preceding the quarter end, of greater than 10 million options;</P>
                <P>(3) a position limit of at least 250,000 contracts; and</P>
                <P>(4) participate in the Penny Interval Program.</P>
                <P>
                    Each calendar quarter, the Exchange will apply the above criteria to individual stocks and Exchange-Traded Fund Shares to determine eligibility for the following quarter as a Qualifying Security. Beginning on the second trading day in the first month of each calendar quarter, the market capitalization of individual stocks shall be calculated based on the closing price established on the primary exchange on the last trading day of the prior calendar quarter and the AUM for Exchange-Traded Fund Shares shall be calculated based on the NAV established on the primary exchange on the last trading day of the prior calendar quarter. The data establishing the volume thresholds will be established by using data from the last month of the prior calendar quarter from The Options Clearing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40605"/>
                    Corporation (“OCC”). For options listed on the first trading day of a given calendar quarter, the volume shall be calculated using the last month of the quarter prior to that calendar quarter.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ISE provides a list of Qualifying Securities available by close of business on the first trading day of the quarter.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Eligible Qualifying Securities are permitted to list two Short Term Option Expiration Dates beyond the current week for each Monday and Wednesday expiration at one time.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Qualifying Securities that do not continue to meet the above criteria are no longer permitted to list Monday and Wednesday Expirations beginning on the second day of the following quarter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         OCC data becomes available for the end of a quarter on the first trading day of a new quarter.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         ISE posts this information on its website.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         With respect to individual stock options, the Exchange does not list an expiry on a day when there will be an Earnings Announcement that takes place after market close with respect to individual stock to avoid permitting an additional expiry on a day where post-close price volatility may be impacted due to the Earnings Announcement. Pursuant to Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, an Earnings Announcement shall include official public quarterly or yearly earnings filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposal</HD>
                <P>At this time, the Exchange proposes to amend the listing and trading of Qualifying Securities to: (1) permit the listing of up to two Tuesday and Thursday Expirations for options on certain Exchange-Traded Funds that meet the current criteria in addition to the existing Monday and Wednesday Expirations; and (2) permit the listing of up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations for options on additional Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet new additional criteria. As noted above, the Exchange proposes to designate the Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the current criteria in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 as “Tier 1 Qualifying Securities” and designate the Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the proposed new set of criteria for Qualifying Securities that would only be permitted to trade up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations, as “Tier 2 Qualifying Securities.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Expansion of Exchange-Traded Fund Shares Qualifying Securities</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 1, 2025, ISE filed a rule proposal, which was approved by the SEC on January 16, 2026, to permit the listing of Qualifying Securities.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange began listing Qualifying Securities on January 26, 2026 on Tesla, Inc. (TSLA); NVIDIA Corporation (NVDA); Apple Inc. (AAPL); iShares Bitcoin Trust ETF (IBIT); Amazon.com, Inc. (AMZN); Meta Platforms, Inc. (META); Broadcom Inc. (AVGO); Alphabet, Inc. (GOOGL); and Microsoft Corporation (MSFT).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These securities continue to trade in the current calendar quarter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104624 (January 16, 2026), 91 FR 2806 (January 22, 2026) (SR-ISE-2025-15) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Amend the Short Term Option Series Program To List Qualifying Securities) (“SR-ISE-2025-15”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.nasdaqtrader.com/MicroNews.aspx?id=OTA2026-3.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    IBIT is the only current Qualifying Security that is an Exchange-Traded Fund Share. The Exchange believes that IBIT trading has benefitted from the additional expirations that allowed market participants to precisely hedge their positions in the underlying security. At the time of filing SR-ISE-2025-15, IBIT's position limit was restricted at 25,000 contracts but that position limit increased to 250,000 contracts at a later date, thereby meeting the position limit requirements for a Qualifying Security.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes that market participants have been able to utilize the additional expirations in IBIT to closely tailor their investment and hedging decisions in these options which afforded them a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection, thus allowing them to better manage their risk exposure in IBIT. Further, the Exchange notes that based on current data, Financial Select Sector SPDR Fund (“XLF”) will meet the criteria for a Qualifying Security in the upcoming calendar quarter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         IBIT commenced trading in January 2024 and options on IBIT did not commence trading until November 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Tier 1 Expansion</HD>
                <P>At this time, the Exchange proposes to permit the listing and trading of Qualifying Securities on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the current criteria in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 to list up to two Tuesday and Thursday Expirations in addition to the existing Monday and Wednesday Expirations and redesignate them as Tier 1 Qualifying Securities.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed Tuesday Qualifying Securities expirations on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities will be similar to the current Tuesday Expirations in SPDR S&amp;P 500 ETF Trust (“SPY”), Invesco QQQ Trust (“QQQ”), and iShares Russell 2000 ETF (“IWM”) in Short Term Option Daily Expirations set forth in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, such that the Exchange may open for trading on any Monday or Tuesday that is a business day series of options on the symbols provided in Table 1 and Table 2 that expire at the close of business on each of the next two Tuesdays that are business days and are not business days in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Tuesday Short Term Option Expiration Date”).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the event Tier 1 Qualifying Securities expire on a Tuesday and that Tuesday is the same day that a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expires, the Exchange would skip that week's listing and instead list the following week; the two weeks would therefore not be consecutive. Today, Tuesday Expirations in SPY, QQQ, and IWM similarly skip the weekly listing in the event the weekly listing expires on the same day in the same class as a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         They may also trade on Fridays, as is the case for all options series in the Short Term Option Series Program.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed Thursday Qualifying Securities expirations on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities will be similar to the current Thursday SPY, QQQ, and IWM in Short Term Option Daily Expirations set forth in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, such that the Exchange may open for trading on any Wednesday or Thursday that is a business day series of options on the symbols provided in Table 1 and Table 2 above that expire at the close of business on each of the next two Thursdays that are business days and are not business days in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Thursday Short Term Option Expiration Date”).
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the event Tier 1 Qualifying Securities expire on a Thursday and that Thursday is the same day that a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expires, the Exchange would skip that week's listing and instead list the following week; the two weeks would therefore not be consecutive. Today, Thursday Expirations in SPY, QQQ, and IWM similarly skip the weekly listing in the event the weekly listing expires on the same day in the same class as a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The interval between strike prices for the proposed Tuesday and Thursday 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40606"/>
                    Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be the same as those currently applicable for SPY, QQQ, and IWM Tuesday and Thursday Expirations (among other symbols that may list a Tuesday or Thursday Expiration) in the Short Term Option Series Program.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations will have a strike interval of (i) $0.50 or greater for strike prices below $100, and $1 or greater for strike prices between $100 and $150 for all option classes that participate in the Short Term Option Series Program, (ii) $0.50 for option classes that trade in one dollar increments and are in the Short Term Option Series Program, or (iii) $2.50 or greater for strike prices above $150.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As is the case with other equity options series listed pursuant to the Short Term Option Series Program, the Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations series will be P.M.-settled.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(e) to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Options 1, Section 1(a)(50), with respect to the Short Term Option Series Program, if a Tuesday is not a business day, the series shall expire on the first business day immediately prior to that Tuesday, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Monday of that week if the Tuesday is not a business day. Also, pursuant to Options 1, Section 1(a)(50), with respect to the Short Term Option Series Program, a Thursday expiration series shall expire on the first business day immediately prior to that Thursday, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Wednesday of that week if the Thursday is not a business day.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Currently, for each option class eligible for participation in the Short Term Option Series Program, the Exchange is limited to opening thirty (30) series for each expiration date for the specific class.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The thirty (30) series restriction does not include series that are open by other securities exchanges under their respective weekly rules; the Exchange may list these additional series that are listed by other options exchanges.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With the proposed changes, this thirty (30) series restriction would apply to Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations as well. In addition, the Exchange will be able to list series that are listed by other exchanges, assuming they file similar rules with the Commission to list Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(a) to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With this proposal, Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations would be treated similarly to existing SPY, QQQ, and IWM Tuesday or Thursday Expirations. With respect to standard expiration option series, Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be permitted to expire in the same week in which standard expiration option series on the same class expire.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Not listing Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations for one week every month because there was a standard options series on that same class on the Friday of that week would create investor confusion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, as with SPY, QQQ, and IWM Tuesday or Thursday Expirations, the Exchange would not permit Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations to expire on a business day in which standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, all Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations would expire at the close of business on each of the next two Tuesdays or Thursdays, respectively, that are business days and are not business days in which standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to not permit two expirations on the same day in which a standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or a Quarterly Options Series would expire because those options would be duplicative of each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that any market disruptions will be encountered with the introduction of Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations. The Exchange currently trades P.M.-settled Short Term Option Series that expire Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday on several symbols 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and has not experienced any market disruptions nor issues with capacity. Today, the Exchange has surveillance programs in place to support and properly monitor trading in Short Term Option Series that expire Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday on several symbols.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes that it has the necessary capacity and surveillance programs in place to support and properly monitor trading in the proposed Tuesday or Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 6 [sic] as well as Qualifying Securities in Table 2 in Supplementary Material of Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Tier 2 Expansion</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to permit the listing of up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations for options on additional Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet new additional criteria as Qualifying Securities. The Exchange believes that given the success of listing and trading Monday and Wednesday Expirations on IBIT options, expanding the Qualifying Securities program for Exchange-Traded Funds is appropriate. The Exchange proposes a different set of criteria for Qualifying Securities that are Exchange-Traded Funds that would only be permitted to trade up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations as follows: an underlying security, as measured on the last day of the prior calendar quarter, must have: AUM greater than 25 billion dollars for an Exchange-Traded Fund Share based on NAV,
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and monthly options volume, as measured by sides traded in the last month preceding the quarter end, of greater than 5 million options; a position limit of at least 250,000 contracts; 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and participate in the Penny Interval Program (“Tier 2 Qualifying Securities”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Currently, Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that are Qualifying Securities must have an AUM greater than 25 [sic] billion dollars based on NAV.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         Currently, Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that are Qualifying Securities must have a monthly options volume, as measured by sides traded in the last month preceding the quarter end, of greater than 10 million options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As with any Qualifying Security, each calendar quarter, the Exchange will apply the above criteria to the proposed new Tier 2 Qualifying Securities to determine eligibility for the following quarter as a Qualifying Security. Beginning on the second trading day in the first month of each calendar quarter, the AUM for Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that are Tier 2 Qualifying Securities shall be calculated based on the NAV established on the primary exchange on the last trading day of the prior calendar quarter. As is the case for all Qualifying Securities, the data establishing the volume thresholds will be established by using data from the last month of the prior calendar quarter from OCC. For options listed on the first trading day of a given calendar quarter, the volume shall be calculated using the last month of the quarter prior to that calendar quarter.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ISE will make the list of Qualifying Securities available by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40607"/>
                    close of business on the first trading day of the quarter.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         OCC data becomes available for the end of a quarter on the first trading day of a new quarter.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         ISE will continue to make this information available on its website.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Eligible Qualifying Securities for the proposed Tier 2 Qualifying Securities would be permitted to list two Short Term Option Expiration Dates beyond the current week for each Monday and Wednesday Expirations at one time. Tier 2 Qualifying Securities that do not continue to meet the above criteria would no longer be permitted to list Monday and Wednesday Expirations beginning on the second day of the following quarter.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The Exchange has noted the additional expirations in Table 2 of Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5 along with the criteria for a Qualifying Security for the proposed Tier 2 Qualifying Securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed Monday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be similar to the Monday Expirations for the existing Qualifying Securities (among other symbols that may list a Monday Expiration) in Short Term Option Daily Expirations set forth in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, such that the Exchange may open for trading on any Friday or Monday that is a business day (beyond the current week) series of options on Tier 2 Qualifying Securities to expire on any Monday of the month that is a business day and is not a Monday in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire, provided that Monday Expirations that are listed on a Friday must be listed at least one business week and one business day prior to the expiration (“Monday Qualifying Securities Expirations”).
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the event Tier 2 Qualifying Securities expire on a Monday and that Monday is the same day that a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expires, the Exchange would skip that week's listing and instead list the following week; the two weeks would therefore not be consecutive. Today, Monday Expirations for the existing Qualifying Securities similarly skip the weekly listing in the event the weekly listing expires on the same day in the same class as a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         They may also trade on Fridays, as is the case for all options series in the Short Term Option Series Program.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be similar to the current Wednesday Expirations for the existing Qualifying Securities (among other symbols that may list a Wednesday Expiration) in Short Term Option Daily Expirations set forth in Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5, such that the Exchange may open for trading on any Tuesday or Wednesday that is a business day (beyond the current week) series of options on Tier 2 Qualifying Securities to expire on any Wednesday of the month that is a business day and is not a Wednesday in which standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire (“Wednesday Qualifying Securities Expirations”).
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the event Tier 2 Qualifying Securities expire on a Wednesday and that Wednesday is the same day that a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expires, the Exchange would skip that week's listing and instead list the following week; the two weeks would therefore not be consecutive. Today, Wednesday Expirations in existing Qualifying Securities similarly skip the weekly listing in the event the weekly listing expires on the same day in the same class as a standard expiration options series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The interval between strike prices for the proposed Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be the same as those currently applicable for Monday and Wednesday Expirations in existing Qualifying Securities (among other symbols that may list a Monday or Wednesday Expiration) in the Short Term Option Series Program.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations for the proposed new Exchange-Traded Fund Shares will have a strike interval of (i) $0.50 or greater for strike prices below $100, and $1 or greater for strike prices between $100 and $150 for all option classes that participate in the Short Term Option Series Program, (ii) $0.50 for option classes that trade in one dollar increments and are in the Short Term Option Series Program, or (iii) $2.50 or greater for strike prices above $150.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As is the case with other equity options series listed pursuant to the Short Term Option Series Program, the Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be P.M.-settled.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(e) to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                  
                <P>
                    As noted above, pursuant to Options 1, Section 1(a)(50), with respect to the Short Term Option Series Program, if a Monday is not a business day, the series shall expire on the first business day immediately following that Monday. Also, pursuant to Options 1, Section 1(a)(50), with respect to the Short Term Option Series Program, a Wednesday expiration series shall expire on the first business day immediately prior to that Wednesday, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Tuesday of that week if the Wednesday is not a business day.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, currently, for each option class eligible for participation in the Short Term Option Series Program, the Exchange is limited to opening thirty (30) series for each expiration date for the specific class.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The thirty (30) series restriction does not include series that are open by other securities exchanges under their respective weekly rules; the Exchange may list these additional series that are listed by other options exchanges.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With the proposed changes, this thirty (30) series restriction would apply to Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations as well. In addition, the Exchange will be able to list series that are listed by other exchanges, assuming they file similar rules with the Commission to list Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(a) to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With this proposal, Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations would be treated similarly to existing Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Security Expirations. With respect to standard expiration option series, Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations will be permitted to expire in the same week in which standard expiration option series on the same class expire.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Not listing Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations for one week every month because there was a standard options series on that same class on the Friday of that week would create investor confusion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, as with existing Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Security Expirations, the Exchange would not permit Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations to expire on a business day in which standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, all Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations would expire at the close of business on each of the next two Mondays and Wednesdays, respectively, that are business days and are not business days 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40608"/>
                    in which standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or Quarterly Options Series expire. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to not permit two expirations for the proposed Tier 2 Qualifying Securities on the same day in which a standard expiration option series, Monthly Options Series, or a Quarterly Options Series would expire because those options would be duplicative of each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03 to Options 4, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that any market disruptions will be encountered with the introduction of Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations. The Exchange currently trades P.M.-settled Short Term Option Series that expire Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday on several symbols 
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and has not experienced any market disruptions nor issues with capacity. Today, the Exchange has surveillance programs in place to support and properly monitor trading in Short Term Option Series that expire Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday on several symbols.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes that it has the necessary capacity and surveillance programs in place to support and properly monitor trading in the proposed Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Impact of Proposal</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that listings in the Short Term Option Series Program comprise a significant part of the standard listings in options markets. Table 1 demonstrates the percentage of weekly listings in the options industry compared to monthly, quarterly, and Long-Term Option Series for a twelve-month period from January 1, 2025 to May 19, 2026.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         The Exchange sourced this information from OCC. The information includes time averaged data (the number of strikes by maturity date divided from the number of trading days) for all 18 options markets from January 1, 2025 to May 19, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table 1</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="239">
                    <GID>EN02JY26.068</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>While the Exchange is expanding the Short Term Option Series Program to permit Tuesday and Thursday Expirations for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities and Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities, the Exchange anticipates that it would overall add a small number of weekly expiration dates because the Exchange will limit the number of Qualifying Securities Expirations to two Monday Expirations, two Tuesday Expirations, two Wednesday Expirations, and two Thursday Expirations. Currently, the following Tier 1 Qualifying Securities that are Exchange-Traded Fund Shares would receive Tuesday and Thursday Expirations: IBIT and XLF. Utilizing data for April 2026, the following Exchange-Traded Funds would qualify as Tier 2 Qualifying Securities: VanEck Semiconductor ETF (“SMH”), Energy Select Sector SPDR Fund, (“XLE”) and iShares MSCI Emerging Markets ETF (“EEM”). Expanding the Short Term Option Series Program for IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM would account for the addition of approximately 0.16% of strikes.</P>
                <P>
                    Further, as shown in Table 2, weeklies comprise 59% of the total volume of options contracts.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         The chart represents industry volume in terms of overall contracts. Weeklies comprise 58.5% of volume, as shown in Table 2, while only being 21.1% of the strikes, as shown in Table 1. The Exchange sourced this information from OCC. The information includes data for all 18 options markets from January 1, 2025 to May 19, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table 2</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40609"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.069</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>As is the case with existing Qualifying Securities, inner weeklies (first two weeks) represent higher volume as compared to outer weeklies (the last three weeks) and are more attractive to market participants.</P>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange looked at the average daily contracts traded in options that met the criteria for a Qualifying Security. Specifically, for IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM, the Exchange looked at pre-close movements between 3:30-4:00 p.m. Eastern Time (“ET”) as well as post-close movements between 4:00-5:30 p.m. ET.</P>
                <P>Table 3, below, references the number of trading days with at least one strike break post close (comparing 4:00 p.m. ET to 5:30 p.m. ET) from January 2023 through May 2026 for the IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM as well as SPY, QQQ and IWM. As can be seen plainly, the proposed expanded list of securities represents a significantly lower probability of a strike break historically than SPY, QQQ and IWM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table 3</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="244">
                    <GID>EN02JY26.070</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>
                    Table 4, below, references average annualized closing volatilities (as measured by the standard deviation of 30 seconds returns over the last 30 minutes of trading) for the IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM from January 2022 through May 2026. Table 4 demonstrates that IBIT has an average annualized closing volatility of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40610"/>
                    generally greater than 25%, SMH has an average annualized closing volatility of generally less than 25%, and that XLF, EEM and XLE have an average annualized closing volatility of generally less than 20%.
                </P>
                <PRTPAGE P="40611"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table 4</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="325">
                    <GID>EN02JY26.071</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>
                    Table 4, above, demonstrates that SMH and IBIT are more volatile than SPY, QQQ, IWM, XLE, XLF and EEM, however; based on Table 3, the volatility in Table 4 for SMH and IBIT does not impact the customer's exposure to the Contrary Exercise Window from 4:00 p.m. ET to 5:30 p.m. ET timeframe. In fact, the customer exposure is lower than SPY, QQQ and IWM, as demonstrated in Table 3. Per Table 4, IBIT has the highest average return which resides below 30% as measured in annualized volatility. Further, EEM is the least volatile among the symbols per Table 4. Moreover, with respect to Monday and Wednesday Expirations for SMH, XLE and EEM and Tuesday and Thursday Expirations for IBIT and XLF, there does not appear to be any excessive propensity to penetrate 
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     strikes post close (4:00 p.m.-5:30 p.m. ET) in comparison to SPY, QQQ and IWM as demonstrated in Table 3. Consequently, the burden of American-style option 
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     exercise management on investors is not overwhelming for the proposed Exchange-Traded Fund Shares relative to SPY, QQQ and IWM which have the largest retail participation based on volume in the industry.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         For purposes of this rule change, “penetrating a strike” refers to the underlying asset's price moving beyond the designated strike price of an option contract.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         The term “American-style option” means an options contract that, subject to the provisions of Options 6B, Section 1 (relating to the cutoff time for exercise instructions) and to the Rules of the Clearing Corporation, can be exercised on any business day prior to its expiration date and on its expiration date. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also reviewed the number of strike breaks for calendar years 2023-2026 for IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM between 4:00 p.m. and 5:30 p.m. ET to find the maximum 
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     number of strike breaks 
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as well as the mean 
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the number of strike breaks as evidenced by the various Table 5 charts. Table 5 demonstrates the amount of new strike breaks as a result of the Exchange's proposal for Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         The term “maximum” refers to the largest instance of strike breaks measured as the number of strikes crossed by the underlying security from the 4:00 p.m. ET closing price to the 9:30 a.m. ET opening price.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         A strike break is the existence of a strike between the closing price and the opening price on the following day when there has been a penetration of a strike post-close.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         The term “mean” refers to the average number of strike breaks when there has been a penetration of a strike post-close.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40612"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Monday Charts</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Security</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of days
                            <LI>with strike</LI>
                            <LI>break Mondays</LI>
                            <LI>(4:00 p.m. ET-</LI>
                            <LI>5:30 p.m. ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Max
                            <LI>(strikes moved</LI>
                            <LI>Mondays from</LI>
                            <LI>4:00 p.m. to</LI>
                            <LI>9:30 a.m.</LI>
                            <LI>next day)</LI>
                            <LI>when strikes are</LI>
                            <LI>penetrated from</LI>
                            <LI>4:00-5:30 p.m. ET</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Max
                            <LI>(percentage move</LI>
                            <LI>overnight</LI>
                            <LI>Mondays</LI>
                            <LI>when there is a</LI>
                            <LI>strike break</LI>
                            <LI>from 4:00 p.m.</LI>
                            <LI>to 5:30 p.m. ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Mean strikes
                            <LI>moved through</LI>
                            <LI>Monday when</LI>
                            <LI>there is an</LI>
                            <LI>instance of</LI>
                            <LI>move through</LI>
                            <LI>(from 4:00 p.m. to</LI>
                            <LI>5:30 p.m.</LI>
                            <LI>Monday)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.21</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.53</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.07</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2024</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.74</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.37</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.35</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.62</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.89</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.90</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.67</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.43</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.94</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.94</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.59</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2025</E>
                             
                            <E T="01">†</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.22</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.22</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.73</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.48</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.32</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.97</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>17.62</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.99</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.34</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.33</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.34</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2026</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.97</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="01">†</E>
                         For Table 5, the Exchange notes that some of the mean strikes moved through Monday when there is an instance of move through (from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. Monday) in the 2025 chart reflect numbers that were different than the numbers shown in SR-ISE-2025-15. The difference in the numbers is a result of the application of a filter that was applied in this latest analysis to arrive at the last traded price. Specifically, certain prints were excluded because they did not represent genuine, on-time, round-lot executions. The prints that were eliminated were stale mid-day trades reported late, opening and closing auction prints not representing last price, out-of-sequence trades, fractional odd-lots that executed at an off-market price, and quotes that are not actual executions. The application of the filter was de minimis, resulting in two data points in the 2025 tables being amended, the remainder of the tables from the prior rule change remained unaffected.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Table 6 charts, below, reviewed the number of strike breaks for calendar years 2022—2025 for IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM between 4:00 p.m. and 5:30 p.m. ET to find the maximum number of strike breaks as well as the mean of the number of strike breaks.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40613"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Tuesday Charts</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Security</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of days
                            <LI>with strike</LI>
                            <LI>breaks through</LI>
                            <LI>Tuesdays</LI>
                            <LI>(4:00 p.m. ET-</LI>
                            <LI>5:30 p.m. ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Max
                            <LI>(strikes moved</LI>
                            <LI>through Tuesdays</LI>
                            <LI>from 4:00 p.m.</LI>
                            <LI>to 9:30 a.m.</LI>
                            <LI>next day)</LI>
                            <LI>when strikes are</LI>
                            <LI>penetrated from</LI>
                            <LI>4:00-5:30 p.m. ET</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Max
                            <LI>(percentage move</LI>
                            <LI>overnight</LI>
                            <LI>Tuesdays</LI>
                            <LI>when there is a</LI>
                            <LI>strike break</LI>
                            <LI>from 4:00 p.m.</LI>
                            <LI>to 5:30 p.m. ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Mean strikes
                            <LI>moved through</LI>
                            <LI>Tuesday when</LI>
                            <LI>there is an</LI>
                            <LI>instance of</LI>
                            <LI>move through</LI>
                            <LI>(from 4:00 p.m. to</LI>
                            <LI>5:30 p.m.</LI>
                            <LI>Tuesday)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.91</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.70</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.17</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.18</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.70</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2024</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT **</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.28</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.73</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.41</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.33</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.39</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.11</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.27</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.96</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2025</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.28</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.96</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.78</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.79</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.10</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.17</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2026</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.36</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.36</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.48</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.95</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.91</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.56</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.85</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.09</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>** IBIT commenced trading in January 2024 and options on IBIT did not commence trading until November 2024.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,17,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Wednesday Charts</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Security</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of days with strike break through Wednesdays (4:00 p.m. ET—5:30 p.m. ET)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Max (strikes moved through Wednesdays from 4:00 p.m. to 9:30 a.m. next day) when strikes are penetrated from 4:00-5:30 p.m. ET</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Max (percentage move overnight Wednesdays when there is a strike break from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. ET)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mean strikes moved through Wednesdays when there is an instance of move through (from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. Wednesdays)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.09</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.63</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.59</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.38</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.76</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.48</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.12</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.08</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.99</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.63</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.62</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.03</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.19</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2024</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.22</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.02</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.22</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.16</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.37</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.16</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.43</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.32</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.72</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.79</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40614"/>
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02"/>
                            2025 ***
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.84</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.27</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.52</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.70</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>19.87</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.17</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.06</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.35</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.61</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>19.45</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.45</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.89</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2026</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">EEM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.09</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.09</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.68</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.94</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.01</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SMH</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.97</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.99</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.26</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.77</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.66</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLE</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>*** For Table 7, the Exchange notes that some of the mean strikes moved through Wednesdays when there is an instance of move through (from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. Monday) in the 2025 chart reflect numbers that were different than the numbers shown in SR-ISE-2025-15. The difference in the numbers is a result of the application of a filter that was applied in this latest analysis to arrive at the last traded price. Specifically, certain prints were excluded because they did not represent genuine, on-time, round-lot executions. The prints that were eliminated were stale mid-day trades reported late, opening and closing auction prints not representing last price, out-of-sequence trades, fractional odd-lots that executed at an off-market price, and quotes that are not actual executions. The application of the filter was de minimis, resulting in two data points in the 2025 tables being amended, the remainder of the tables from the prior rule change remained unaffected.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,17,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—Thursday Charts</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Security</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of days with strike break through Thursdays (4:00 p.m. ET—5:30 p.m. ET)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Max (strikes moved through Thursdays from 4:00 p.m. to 9:30 a.m. next day) when strikes are penetrated from 4:00-5:30 p.m. ET</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Max (percentage move overnight Thursdays when there is a strike break from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. ET)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mean strikes moved through Thursdays when there is an instance of move through (from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. Thursdays)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.08</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.18</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.24</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2024</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.28</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.92</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.08</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.98</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.53</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.43</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.37</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.44</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2025</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.72</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.79</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.91</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.82</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.55</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.94</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.39</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">2026</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">IBIT</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IWM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.88</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.46</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">QQQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SPY</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.22</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.90</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.99</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40615"/>
                        <ENT I="01">XLF</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.08</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.01</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.08</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Because the Exchange proposes to limit the number of Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday Qualifying Securities Expirations to two expirations beyond the current week, the Exchange believes that the addition of these Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Securities Expirations, as applicable, should encourage Market Makers to continue to deploy capital more efficiently and improve displayed market quality.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Utilizing IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM as a proxy, the marginal increase in the number of occurrences of strike breaks in 2023 would be 13 with the addition of these expirations. Also, the marginal increase in the number of occurrences of strike breaks in 2024 would be 15 with the addition of these expirations. Further, there would be a marginal increase of 25 instances of strike breaks in 2025. Finally, there would be a marginal increase of 9 instances of strike breaks in 2026.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         Market Makers include Primary Market Makers and Competitive Market Makers. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(21). Today, Primary Market Makers and Competitive Market Makers are required to quote a specified time in their assigned options series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In the observed time period (2023 to 2026), there would be a marginal increase of 11 instances of strike breaks on Monday Expirations after regular trading hours. There would be a marginal increase of 8 instances of strike breaks on Tuesday Expirations after regular trading hours. There would be a marginal increase of 33 instances of strike breaks on Wednesday Expirations after regular trading hours. There would be a marginal increase of 10 instances of strike breaks on Thursday Expirations after regular trading hours.</P>
                <P>Similar to SPY, QQQ and IWM Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday Expirations, the introduction of Monday and Wednesday for Tier 2 and Tuesday and Thursday for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations will, among other things, expand hedging tools available to market participants and allow for a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection. The Exchange believes that the proposal would permit only the most liquid securities to have the additional Tier 1 Tuesday and Thursday Expirations and Tier 2 Monday and Wednesday Expirations. The Exchange believes that offering these additional expirations in the Qualifying Securities would permit Market Makers and other market participants to precisely hedge their positions in the underlying security with the additional expirations.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Exchange considered the impact of a market participant's propensity to rationally exercise outstanding options contracts by the tender of an exercise notice (“Contrary Exercise Advice”).
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, ISE examined SPY data from April 2, 2025 (a day where there was a significant drop after the close).
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On April 2, 2025, SPY settled at 4:00 p.m. at $564.52.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At 5:00 p.m., SPY was trading at $552.42.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Every call option with a April 2, 2025 expiration date and a strike price below $564 was automatically exercised by OCC, unless OCC received Contrary Exercise Advices from a market participant.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ISE obtained the amount of long open interest in the customer or “C” range 
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at OCC starting at the close of the prior trading day and added customer long activity that executed on April 2, 2025 to that figure.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Next, ISE subtracted the liquidating activity for customers, and examined the quantity of Contrary Exercise Advices received by OCC on April 2, 2025 and compared that figure to the number of customers that did not abandon their calls rationally relative to the number of customers who entered into options contracts. The data below in Table 9 and Table 10 
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     applies to calls in SPY in the customer range at OCC for expiration date April 2, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         A Contrary Exercise Advice may be exercised during the time period specified in the Rules of the Clearing Corporation by the tender to the Clearing Corporation of an exercise notice in accordance with the Rules of the Clearing Corporation. An exercise notice may be tendered to the Clearing Corporation only by the Clearing Member in whose account such options contract is carried with the Clearing Corporation. Members may establish fixed procedures as to the latest time they will accept exercise instructions from customers. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 6B, Section 1. Option holders have until 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time (“ET”) on the business day of expiration, or, in the case of a standardized equity option expiring on a day that is not a business day, on the business day immediately prior to the expiration date to make a final exercise decision to exercise or not exercise an expiring option. Members may not accept exercise instructions for customer or non-customer accounts after 5:30 p.m. ET. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA Rule 2360(a)(23)(A)(iii). A Contrary Exercise Advice is a form approved by the national options exchanges, FINRA or The Options Clearing Corporation for use by a member to submit a final exercise decision committing an options holder to either: (1) not exercise an option position which would automatically be exercised pursuant to The Options Clearing Corporation's Ex-by-Ex procedure; or (2) to exercise a standardized equity option position which would not automatically be exercised pursuant to The Options Clearing Corporation's Ex-by-Ex procedure. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA Rule 2360(a)(23)(A)(iv).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         On April 2, 2025, President Trump announced a series of tariffs on imports, which he called “Liberation Day”. This news impacted markets generally and remains the largest post-close movement since 2023. To that end, the Liberation Day data point is the most useful data point to understand the customer's rational exercise and assignment behavior in the Contrary Exercise Window.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         The data was obtained from OCC by request.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         The “C” range at OCC includes customer transactions, professional transactions and transactions executed by broker-dealers that are not affiliated with a clearing member that clear in the “C” range at OCC.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         Table 9 and Table 10 should be read together.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40616"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 9</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Strike</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Longs held on 4/1/2025 *</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Buys to open or expand a position</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Aggregate longs held</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Open contracts
                            <LI>at EOD which are</LI>
                            <LI>eligible for</LI>
                            <LI>Auto-ex on</LI>
                            <LI>April 2, 2025 EOD</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">553</ENT>
                        <ENT>104</ENT>
                        <ENT>265</ENT>
                        <ENT>369</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">554</ENT>
                        <ENT>340</ENT>
                        <ENT>795</ENT>
                        <ENT>1135</ENT>
                        <ENT>258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">555</ENT>
                        <ENT>2240</ENT>
                        <ENT>4135</ENT>
                        <ENT>6375</ENT>
                        <ENT>238</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">556</ENT>
                        <ENT>619</ENT>
                        <ENT>5582</ENT>
                        <ENT>6201</ENT>
                        <ENT>142</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">557</ENT>
                        <ENT>582</ENT>
                        <ENT>9235</ENT>
                        <ENT>9817</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">558</ENT>
                        <ENT>587</ENT>
                        <ENT>14683</ENT>
                        <ENT>15270</ENT>
                        <ENT>72</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">559</ENT>
                        <ENT>705</ENT>
                        <ENT>22931</ENT>
                        <ENT>23636</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">560</ENT>
                        <ENT>2218</ENT>
                        <ENT>49336</ENT>
                        <ENT>51554</ENT>
                        <ENT>316</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">561</ENT>
                        <ENT>2284</ENT>
                        <ENT>55318</ENT>
                        <ENT>57602</ENT>
                        <ENT>1014</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">562</ENT>
                        <ENT>1941</ENT>
                        <ENT>67057</ENT>
                        <ENT>68998</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">563</ENT>
                        <ENT>1339</ENT>
                        <ENT>83871</ENT>
                        <ENT>85210</ENT>
                        <ENT>87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">564</ENT>
                        <ENT>1222</ENT>
                        <ENT>78612</ENT>
                        <ENT>79834</ENT>
                        <ENT>533</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * The term “long position” means a person's interest as the holder of one or more options contracts. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(20).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 10</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Strike</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Aggregate
                            <LI>liquidation of longs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Liquidation ratio
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Contracts where
                            <LI>abandon</LI>
                            <LI>instructions were issued</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Unabandoned
                            <LI>and</LI>
                            <LI>unliquidated contracts</LI>
                            <LI>(auto-</LI>
                            <LI>exercised by OCC)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Contracts unabandoned or unliquidated as a % of total long contracts held during the day</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percentage of unabandoned and unliquidated
                            <LI>contracts as </LI>
                            <LI>compared to open contracts</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">553</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.80</ENT>
                        <ENT>22</ENT>
                        <ENT>23</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.23</ENT>
                        <ENT>51.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">554</ENT>
                        <ENT>877</ENT>
                        <ENT>77.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>187</ENT>
                        <ENT>71</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.26</ENT>
                        <ENT>27.52</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">555</ENT>
                        <ENT>6137</ENT>
                        <ENT>96.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>53</ENT>
                        <ENT>185</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.90</ENT>
                        <ENT>77.73</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">556</ENT>
                        <ENT>6059</ENT>
                        <ENT>97.71</ENT>
                        <ENT>88</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.87</ENT>
                        <ENT>38.03</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">557</ENT>
                        <ENT>9765</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.47</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.51</ENT>
                        <ENT>96.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">558</ENT>
                        <ENT>15198</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.53</ENT>
                        <ENT>49</ENT>
                        <ENT>23</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>31.94</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">559</ENT>
                        <ENT>23566</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.70</ENT>
                        <ENT>26</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.19</ENT>
                        <ENT>62.86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">560</ENT>
                        <ENT>51238</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.39</ENT>
                        <ENT>240</ENT>
                        <ENT>76</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.05</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">561</ENT>
                        <ENT>56588</ENT>
                        <ENT>98.24</ENT>
                        <ENT>994</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.97</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">562</ENT>
                        <ENT>68943</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>39</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.06</ENT>
                        <ENT>70.91</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">563</ENT>
                        <ENT>85123</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.90</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>62</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.07</ENT>
                        <ENT>71.26</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">564</ENT>
                        <ENT>79301</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.33</ENT>
                        <ENT>467</ENT>
                        <ENT>66</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.08</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.38</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The data indicates that the vast majority of open contracts (over 90%) were liquidated by customers prior to the close. Of the remaining open contracts, a substantial portion were rationally abandoned. In considering what constitutes rational activity on the part of a market participant in determining whether to exercise, especially in the strike near the 5:00 p.m. price, it must be taken into consideration that some market participants may elect to hold a contract given the illiquidity of the time period, and the desire for long exposure despite a trade price that may be lower. In other words, it cannot be assumed that customers are unaware of the market conditions for SPY after the close on April 2, 2025, or their ability to liquidate. Also, it cannot be assumed that the customer would always liquidate in these circumstances. In reviewing Tables 9 and 10 together, customers with calls in SPY on April 2, 2025 had a very high liquidation ratio which is evidenced by comparing the unabandoned contracts to the entire pool of long contracts throughout the day. Finally, the amount of unliquidated and unabandoned call contracts in Table 10 represents a de minimis amount (less than 1%) when considering that SPY trades millions of contracts each day.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also examined the out-of-the-money or “OTM” activity on the puts in SPY on April 2, 2025 for customers. The data below in Table 11 and Table 12 
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     applies to puts in SPY in the customer range at OCC for expiration date April 2, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         Table 11 and Table 12 should be read together.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 11</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Strike</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Longs held on 4/1/2025 EOD</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Buys to open or expand a position on
                            <LI>4/2/2025</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Aggregate longs held on 4/2</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Open contracts at EOD on 4/2 that are eligible for OTM
                            <LI>exercise</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">553</ENT>
                        <ENT>2008</ENT>
                        <ENT>17807</ENT>
                        <ENT>19815</ENT>
                        <ENT>1992</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">554</ENT>
                        <ENT>3575</ENT>
                        <ENT>23220</ENT>
                        <ENT>26795</ENT>
                        <ENT>2459</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">555</ENT>
                        <ENT>6271</ENT>
                        <ENT>67698</ENT>
                        <ENT>73969</ENT>
                        <ENT>5009</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40617"/>
                        <ENT I="01">556</ENT>
                        <ENT>3177</ENT>
                        <ENT>37457</ENT>
                        <ENT>40634</ENT>
                        <ENT>2648</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">557</ENT>
                        <ENT>3094</ENT>
                        <ENT>47699</ENT>
                        <ENT>50793</ENT>
                        <ENT>1573</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">558</ENT>
                        <ENT>3091</ENT>
                        <ENT>66130</ENT>
                        <ENT>69221</ENT>
                        <ENT>7063</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">559</ENT>
                        <ENT>2492</ENT>
                        <ENT>82114</ENT>
                        <ENT>84606</ENT>
                        <ENT>16366</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">560</ENT>
                        <ENT>3382</ENT>
                        <ENT>118564</ENT>
                        <ENT>121946</ENT>
                        <ENT>17481</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">561</ENT>
                        <ENT>1707</ENT>
                        <ENT>76970</ENT>
                        <ENT>78677</ENT>
                        <ENT>5660</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">562</ENT>
                        <ENT>435</ENT>
                        <ENT>75447</ENT>
                        <ENT>75882</ENT>
                        <ENT>6552</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">563</ENT>
                        <ENT>581</ENT>
                        <ENT>75463</ENT>
                        <ENT>76044</ENT>
                        <ENT>6522</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">564</ENT>
                        <ENT>399</ENT>
                        <ENT>50724</ENT>
                        <ENT>51123</ENT>
                        <ENT>197</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 12</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Strike</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Aggregate
                            <LI>liquidation of longs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Liquidation ratio
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Contracts where OTM exercise
                            <LI>instructions were received by OCC</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Puts# where no OTM
                            <LI>exercise</LI>
                            <LI>instructions</LI>
                            <LI>were given</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Contracts not exercised as a % of long
                            <LI>contracts held throughout the day</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percentage of put contracts where no OTM exercise
                            <LI>instructions</LI>
                            <LI>were given</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">553</ENT>
                        <ENT>17823</ENT>
                        <ENT>89.95</ENT>
                        <ENT>833</ENT>
                        <ENT>1159</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.85</ENT>
                        <ENT>58.18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">554</ENT>
                        <ENT>24336</ENT>
                        <ENT>90.82</ENT>
                        <ENT>791</ENT>
                        <ENT>1668</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.23</ENT>
                        <ENT>67.83</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">555</ENT>
                        <ENT>68960</ENT>
                        <ENT>93.23</ENT>
                        <ENT>1436</ENT>
                        <ENT>3573</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.83</ENT>
                        <ENT>71.33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">556</ENT>
                        <ENT>37986</ENT>
                        <ENT>93.48</ENT>
                        <ENT>1170</ENT>
                        <ENT>1478</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.64</ENT>
                        <ENT>55.82</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">557</ENT>
                        <ENT>49220</ENT>
                        <ENT>96.90</ENT>
                        <ENT>557</ENT>
                        <ENT>1016</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>64.59</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">558</ENT>
                        <ENT>62158</ENT>
                        <ENT>89.80</ENT>
                        <ENT>3064</ENT>
                        <ENT>3999</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.78</ENT>
                        <ENT>56.62</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">559</ENT>
                        <ENT>68240</ENT>
                        <ENT>80.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>15642</ENT>
                        <ENT>724</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.86</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.42</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">560</ENT>
                        <ENT>104465</ENT>
                        <ENT>85.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>16745</ENT>
                        <ENT>736</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">561</ENT>
                        <ENT>73017</ENT>
                        <ENT>92.81</ENT>
                        <ENT>5415</ENT>
                        <ENT>245</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">562</ENT>
                        <ENT>69330</ENT>
                        <ENT>91.37</ENT>
                        <ENT>6436</ENT>
                        <ENT>116</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.77</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">563</ENT>
                        <ENT>69522</ENT>
                        <ENT>91.42</ENT>
                        <ENT>6443</ENT>
                        <ENT>79</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">564</ENT>
                        <ENT>50926</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.61</ENT>
                        <ENT>180</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.63</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        # The term “put” means an options contract under which the holder of the option has the right, in accordance with the terms and provisions of the option, to sell to the Clearing Corporation the number of shares of the underlying security covered by the options contract. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(44).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>With respect to the put data for SPY on April 2, 2025, it can be observed that out-of-the-money options were either liquidated or exercised. Only a small percentage of options went unexercised. Additionally, it can be observed that very few puts remained unexercised at the higher strikes where opportunity for profit and less risk exists. This is in contrast to puts on lower strikes where opportunity for profit relative to the risk of the short is greater. In particular, with respect to the risk exposure of put writers, the exposure to an event similar to April 2, 2025 for the proposed Wednesday Expirations would be substantially similar to the current risk that a put writer is exposed to with Friday expirations. In other words, the day of the expiry does not increase or decrease the amount of risk of a put writer, but for the premium difference. Additionally, the Exchange believes that since the rational abandonment and out-of-the-money exercise rates were so high, as evidenced in Tables 9 and 10, it is clear that customers are largely aware of the exposure between 4:00 and 5:00 p.m. ET and therefore, the risk from the unliquidated position is undertaken knowingly.</P>
                <P>
                    In determining the rational in-the-money abandonment or out-of-the-money exercise, the Exchange elected not to consider the amount of contracts rationally exercised/abandoned divided by the amount of open contracts at the end of the day. The Exchange believes that this data point fails to consider the outsized amount of liquidation customers undertake prior to the Contrary Exercise Window.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In other words, the amount of liquidations taken by customers prior to the Contrary Exercise Window is evidence that market participants are informed and electing to accept a premium in lieu of the potential to maximize the value of their option in the Contrary Exercise Window. The Exchange believes that the amount of open contracts in these options is de minimis and, therefore, any evidence of an option trader's failure to act rationally would skew the percentage in such a way to exaggerate the perception of the risk averting behaviors. For example, taken to an extreme, if 3 contracts are left open in an option that trades over 100,000 in a given day, and 2 options are not rationally exercised this would amount to 66.6% of non-rationally exercised/abandoned contracts. In this example, 3 options are not rationally exercised out of the 3 open contracts or 100%. The Exchange does not believe this comparison yields a result that is insightful. For this reason, the Exchange opted to compare the amount of irrational failures to exercise/abandon to the total amount of contracts that were open during that trading day. The Exchange believes its method of comparison provides a better risk determination.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         A “Contrary Exercise Window” refers to a specific timeframe during which an options holder can submit a Contrary Exercise Advice. Option holders who hold expiring options have until 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on the day of expiration to make a final exercise decision to exercise or not exercise the option. Members may establish an earlier time to accept exercise instructions for customer or non-customer accounts (typically by 5:00 p.m. ET) but may not accept instructions after 5:30 p.m. ET. 
                        <E T="03">See https://www.finra.org/rules-guidance/notices/information-notice-020321.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40618"/>
                <P>The ODD provides information on options exercise and a brokerage firm's cut-off time for accepting exercise instructions as follows:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>To exercise an option that is not subject to automatic exercise, the holder must direct his brokerage firm to give exercise instructions to OCC. In order to ensure that an option is exercised on a particular day, the holder must direct his brokerage firm to exercise before the firm's cut-off time for accepting exercise instructions for that day. Different firms may have different cut-off times for accepting exercise instructions from customers, and those cut-off times may be different for different options.</P>
                    <P>
                        A brokerage firm's cut-off time for accepting exercise instructions becomes critical on the last trading day before an option expires. An option that expires unexercised becomes worthless. An option holder who intends to exercise an option before expiration must give exercise instructions to his brokerage firm before the firm's cut-off time for accepting exercise instructions on the last trading day before expiration. If the expiration date of an option falls on a day on which an options market is open for trading in that option, a brokerage firm's last cut-off time for accepting exercise instructions prior to the option's expiration may be on the expiration date. Investors should be aware of their brokerage firm's policies in this regard. Many brokerage firms accept standing instructions to exercise, or have procedures for the exercise of, every option which is in the money by a specified amount at expiration. These procedures often incorporate by reference OCC's administrative procedures that provide for the exercise of every option that is in the money by a specified amount at expiration unless the Clearing Firm carrying the option in its accounts instructs OCC not to exercise the option. Investors should determine from their brokerage firm the applicable cut-off times, the firm's procedures for submitting exercise instructions, and whether any of their options are subject to automatic exercise. Investors should also determine whether the exercise of their options is subject to standing instructions of their brokerage firm, and, if so, they should discuss with the firm the potential consequences of such instructions.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             The “How to Exercise” section in the ODD describes how to utilize the Contrary Exercise Advice. 
                            <E T="03">See https://www.theocc.com/getmedia/a151a9ae-d784-4a15-bdeb-23a029f50b70/riskstoc.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    Market participants that elect to transact in options should receive a copy of the ODD from their broker-dealer.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The ODD explains the risks inherent in options trading.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Broker-dealers must have a reasonable basis to believe that a recommended transaction or investment strategy involving a security or securities is suitable for the customer.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Suitability rules are intended to distinguish the trading of customers with those of professional traders who are likely to have distinct risk/reward profiles, risk tolerance and capital.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA Rule 2360(b)(16)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.theocc.com/company-information/documents-and-archives/options-disclosure-document.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA Rule 2111.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Finally, the Exchange believes there is general demand for alternative expirations in Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday Qualifying Securities Expirations. Table 13 below displays the percentage of SPY options volume, from 2018-2026, versus the number of days until expiration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table 13</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="274">
                    <GID>EN02JY26.072</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Table 13 displays a clear preference for shorter-dated options trading.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposal to permit Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities Expirations and Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Security Expirations, subject to the proposed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40619"/>
                    limitation of two expirations beyond the current week, would protect investors and the public interest by providing the investing public and other market participants more choice and flexibility to closely tailor their investment and hedging decisions in these options and allow for a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection, thus allowing them to better manage their risk exposure.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed criteria for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities requires Exchange-Traded Fund Shares to be highly liquid. An AUM of 50 billion dollars for an Exchange-Traded Fund Share, in conjunction with the monthly options volume requirement of greater than 10 million options as measured by sides traded in the last month preceding the quarter end, is very restrictive. This requirement represents substantially less than 1% of Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. IBIT and XLF would be eligible today for the additional Tuesday and Thursday Qualifying Security Expirations. Therefore, an Exchange-Traded Fund Share that meets the aforementioned market capitalization and volume requirements is highly liquid and could be viewed as a stable security.</P>
                <P>Further, with respect to the Tier 2 Qualifying Securities, which have a lower AUM of 25 billion dollars and monthly options volume as measured by sides traded in the last month preceding the quarter end, of greater than 5 million options for an Exchange-Traded Fund Share, the Exchange believes that despite the lower criteria, these Exchange-Traded Fund Shares represent highly liquid securities. This requirement also represents substantially less than 1% of Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. SMH, XLE and EEM would be eligible today for the additional Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Security Expirations based on the proposed criteria. Therefore, an Exchange-Traded Fund Share that meets the aforementioned market capitalization and volume requirements would also be highly liquid and could be viewed as a stable security.</P>
                <P>The table below demonstrates the very low average realized volatility experienced by IBIT, XLF, SMH, XLE and EEM in the last 30 minutes of trading before the close in 2026 as compared to any security that traded an average of more than 100 options contracts per day.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="324">
                    <GID>EN02JY26.073</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>The Exchange notes that with respect to position limits, Options 9, Section 13(d)(5) provides, that “[t]o be eligible for the 250,000 contract limit, either the most recent six (6) month trading volume of the underlying security must have totalled at least 100 million shares or the most recent six-month trading volume of the underlying security must have totalled at least seventy-five (75) million shares and the underlying security must have at least 300 million shares currently outstanding.” The 250,000 contract position limit is the highest position limit by Exchange rule. Options that qualify for the 250,000 position (and exercise) limit are highly liquid securities that have met the stringent requirements noted in Options 9, Section 13(d)(5) to qualify for the highest position limit.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, a Qualifying Security must participate in the Penny Interval Program. In order to qualify for the Penny Interval Program, an options class must be among the 300 most actively traded multiply listed option classes overlying securities priced 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40620"/>
                    below $200.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The most actively traded options classes are included in the Penny Interval Program based on certain objective criteria (trading volume thresholds and initial price tests).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .01(b) to Options 3, Section 3. Each December OCC ranks all multiply listed option classes based on National Cleared Volume for the six full calendar months from June 1 through November 30 for determination of the most actively traded option classes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The improvement in price transparency brought about by the existing Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Security Expirations offers Market Makers and investors better volatility pricing which informs trading on the related products to these indexes. The Exchange believes that the proposed criteria for Tier 1 Qualifying Securities remains consistent with the protection of investors and the general public because the criteria targets the most liquid Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. The addition of Tuesday and Thursday Qualifying Security Expirations would further provide Market Makers and investors with volatility pricing clarity. Further, the expansion of the Qualifying Securities program for Tier 2 would engender the same benefits to a select few additional Exchange-Traded Fund Shares.</P>
                <P>Qualifying Securities that do not continue to meet the above criteria would no longer be permitted to list Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday or Thursday Expirations in the following quarter, although the Qualifying Security would potentially have two weeks of strikes already listed which will persist. These remaining listings could continue to be traded until they expire.</P>
                <P>
                    With this proposal, overall, the Exchange would add a small number of additional Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Security Expirations and new Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Securities and would continue to limit the addition of two Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday Expirations, respectively, beyond the current week. These additional Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Security Expirations would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market by encouraging Market Makers to continue to deploy capital more efficiently and improve displayed market quality.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes that the proposal will continue to allow Members to expand hedging tools and tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively in Qualifying Securities as these funds are most likely to be utilized by market participants to hedge the underlying asset classes.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         Today, Primary Market Makers and Market Makers are required to quote a specified time in their assigned options series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Section 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Similar to SPY, QQQ, and IWM the additional Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities, as well as the new Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities, are consistent with the Act as they will, among other things, expand hedging tools available to market participants and allow for a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection. The Exchange believes that the Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Security Expirations will allow market participants to purchase options on Qualifying Securities based on their timing as needed and allow them to tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively, thus allowing them to better manage their risk exposure.</P>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes the Short Term Option Series Program has been successful to date and that proposed Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Security Expirations (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday) should simply expand the ability of investors to hedge risk against market movements stemming from economic releases or market events that occur throughout the month in the same way that the Short Term Option Series Program has expanded the landscape of hedging.</P>
                <P>There are no material differences in the treatment of SPY, QQQ and IWM Tuesday and Thursday Qualifying Security Expirations compared to the proposed Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Security Expirations. Further, there are no material differences in the treatment of current Qualifying Securities that will qualify as Tier 1 Monday and Wednesday Expirations compared to the proposed Monday and Wednesday Tier 2 Qualifying Security Expirations.</P>
                <P>The data in Table 9 and Table 10 in the Purpose section, related to calls in SPY on April 2, 2025, indicates that the vast majority of open contracts (over 90%) were liquidated by customers prior to the close. Of the remaining open contracts, a substantial portion were rationally abandoned. In considering what constitutes rational activity on the part of a market participant in determining whether to exercise, especially in the strike near the 5:00 p.m. price, it must be taken into account that some market participants may elect to hold a contract given the illiquidity of the time period, and the desire for long exposure despite a trade price that may be lower. In other words, it cannot be assumed that customers are unaware of the market conditions, or their ability to liquidate. Also, it cannot be assumed that the customer would always liquidate in these circumstances. In reviewing Tables 9 and 10, customers with calls in SPY on April 2, 2025 had a very high liquidation ratio which is evidenced by comparing the unabandoned contracts to the entire pool of long contracts throughout the day. With respect to the put data for SPY on April 2, 2025, it can be observed in Table 9 and Table 10 in the Purpose section that out-of-the-money options were either liquidated or exercised. Only a small percentage of put options went unexercised. Additionally, it can be observed that very few puts remained unexercised at the higher strikes where opportunity for profit and less risk exists. This is in contrast to puts on lower strikes where opportunity for profit relative to the risk of the short is greater. In particular, with respect to the risk exposure of put writers, the exposure to an event similar to April 2, 2025 for the proposed Wednesday Expirations would be substantially similar to the current risk that a put writer is exposed to with Friday expirations. In other words, the day of the expiry does not increase or decrease the amount of risk of a put writer, but for the premium difference. Additionally, the Exchange believes that since the rational abandonment and out-of-the-money exercise rates were so high, as evidenced in Tables 9 and 10, it is clear that customers are largely aware of the exposure between 4:00 and 5:00 p.m. ET and therefore, the risk from the unliquidated position is undertaken knowingly.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, market participants that elect to utilize options receive a copy of the ODD which explains the risks inherent in options trading. Also, broker-dealers must have a reasonable basis to believe that a recommended transaction or investment strategy involving a security or securities is suitable for the customer.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Suitability rules are intended to distinguish the trading of customers with those of professional traders who are likely to have distinct risk/reward profiles, risk tolerance and capital. Regardless of whether the account is self-directed or options are being recommended, broker-dealers must perform due diligence on the customer and collect information about the customer to support a determination that options trading is appropriate for the customer. Options accounts are subject to specific supervisory reviews, including, among others, reviewing the compatibility of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40621"/>
                    options transactions with investment objectives and with the types of transactions for which the account was approved, and are subject to other FINRA rules that apply when opening customer accounts, including among others, customer identification requirements under anti-money laundering rules.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, ISE does not believe that listing of up to two Monday and Wednesday Expirations for options on certain individual stocks or Exchange-Traded Fund Shares is inconsistent with the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA Rule 2111.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.finra.org/rules-guidance/notices/21-15.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>ISE represents that it has an adequate surveillance program in place to detect manipulative trading in the proposed option expirations, in the same way that it monitors trading in the current Qualifying Security expirations. The Exchange also represents that it has the necessary system capacity to support the new expirations. Finally, the Exchange does not believe that any market disruptions will be encountered with the introduction of these option expirations. As discussed above, the Exchange believes that its proposal is a modest expansion of weekly expiration dates for Qualifying Security Expirations given that it will be limited to two expirations beyond the current week.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>While the proposal will expand the Short Term Options Expirations to allow Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities for Exchange-Traded Funds to be listed in addition to Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Securities, the Exchange believes that this limited expansion for Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Securities for Exchange-Traded Funds will not impose an undue burden on competition; rather, it will meet customer demand. The Exchange would uniformly continue to apply the Qualifying Security criteria to options in individual stocks and Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. The Exchange believes that Members will continue to be able to expand hedging tools and tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively in the Qualifying Securities.</P>
                <P>Similar to SPY, QQQ and IWM Tuesday and Thursday Expirations, the introduction of Tuesday and Thursday Expirations for Tier 1 Qualifying Security Expirations on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares does not impose an undue burden on competition. The Exchange believes that it will, among other things, expand the hedging tools available to market participants and allow for a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection. The Exchange believes that Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Security Expirations will allow market participants to purchase options on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the criteria based on their timing as needed and allow them to tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe the proposal will impose any burden on inter-market competition, as nothing prevents other options exchanges from proposing similar rules to list and trade Tuesday and Thursday Tier 1 Qualifying Security Expirations on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. Further, the Exchange does not believe the proposal will impose any burden on intra-market competition, as all market participants will be treated in the same manner under this proposal.</P>
                <P>With respect to the proposed expansion of Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities that are Exchange-Traded Fund Shares, in addition to the current Monday and Wednesday Qualifying Securities, the Exchange believes that this limited expansion will not impose an undue burden on competition; rather, it will meet customer demand. The Exchange would uniformly continue to apply the Qualifying Security criteria to options in individual stocks and Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that are Tier 1 and Tier 2 Qualifying Securities. The Exchange believes that Members will continue to be able to expand hedging tools and tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively in the Qualifying Securities.</P>
                <P>Similar to Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Qualifying Securities for Exchange-Traded Funds, the introduction of Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities that are Exchange-Traded Fund Shares does not impose an undue burden on competition. The Exchange believes that it will, among other things, expand the hedging tools available to market participants and allow for a reduced premium cost of buying portfolio protection. The Exchange believes that Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities will allow market participants to purchase options on Exchange-Traded Fund Shares that meet the criteria based on their timing as needed and allow them to tailor their investment and hedging needs more effectively.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe the proposal will impose any burden on inter-market competition, as nothing prevents other options exchanges from proposing similar rules to list and trade Monday and Wednesday Expirations for Tier 2 Qualifying Securities that are Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. Further, the Exchange does not believe the proposal will impose any burden on intra-market competition, as all market participants will be treated in the same manner under this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-ISE-2026-34 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-34. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40622"/>
                    Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection.
                </FP>
                <P>All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-34 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13357 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3235-0681]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Extension: Rules 15Ba1-1 to 15Ba1-8—Registration of Municipal Advisors and Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. § 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (“PRA”), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) is soliciting comments on the mandatory collection of information related to the registration of municipal advisors provided for in Rules 15Ba1-1 to 15Ba1-8 (17 CFR 240.15Ba1-1 to 17 CFR 240.15Ba1-8) and Forms MA (17 CFR 249.1300), MA-I (17 CFR 249.1310), MA-W (17 CFR 249.1320), and MA-NR (17 CFR 249.1330) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (the “Exchange Act”). The Commission plans to submit this existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for extension and approval. Specific requests for comment are set forth in Section IX below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Reference copies of the forms and instructions are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formma.pdf</E>
                         (Form MA), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formma-i.pdf</E>
                         (Form MA-I), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formma-w.pdf</E>
                         (Form MA-W), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formma-nr.pdf</E>
                         (Form MA-NR), and 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formmadata.pdf</E>
                         (Instructions for the Form MA Series).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In 2010, the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”) amended Section 15B of the Exchange Act to require a new class of regulated persons, “municipal advisors,” to register with the Commission.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 15B(a)(1)(B) of the Exchange Act, as added by the Dodd-Frank Act, makes it unlawful for a municipal advisor to provide advice to or on behalf of a municipal entity or obligated person with respect to municipal financial products or the issuance of municipal securities, or to undertake certain solicitations of a municipal entity or obligated person, unless the municipal advisor is registered with the Commission.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78o-4; Dodd-Frank Act, Public Law 111-203, title IX, section 975, July 21, 2010, 124 Stat. 1915-1923, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/PLAW-111publ203/pdf/PLAW-111publ203.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78o-4(a)(1)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On September 20, 2013, the Commission adopted Rules 15Ba1-1 through 15Ba1-8 and Rule 15Bc4-1 under the Exchange Act to establish the rules by which a municipal advisor must obtain, maintain, and terminate its registration with the Commission.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The rules, among other things: (i) require municipal advisors to file Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR with the Commission to obtain, maintain, or terminate their registration with the Commission, (ii) require municipal advisors to maintain certain books and records in accordance with the Exchange Act, (iii) interpret the definition of the term “municipal advisor,” (iv) interpret the statutory exclusions to that definition, and (v) provide certain additional regulatory exemptions.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The rules became effective on January 13, 2014; however, on January 13, 2014, the Commission temporarily stayed such rules until July 1, 2014.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Amendments to Forms MA and MA-I designed to eliminate aspects of the forms that request filers to provide certain forms of personally identifiable information of natural persons, including Social Security numbers, dates of birth, and foreign identity numbers became effective on May 14, 2018.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Registration of Municipal Advisors,</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 70462 (Sept. 20, 2013), 78 FR 67468 (Nov. 12, 2013), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2013-11-12/pdf/2013-23524.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Registration of Municipal Advisors; Temporary Stay of Final Rule,</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 71288 (Jan. 13, 2014), 79 FR 2777 (Jan. 16, 2014), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2014-01-16/pdf/2014-00740.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Amendments to Forms and Schedules to Remove Provision of Certain Personally Identifiable Information,</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 83097 (Apr. 24, 2018), 83 FR 22190 (May 14, 2018), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2018-05-14/pdf/2018-10227.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Forms MA and MA-I</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-2 requires each person applying for registration with the Commission as a municipal advisor to file electronically with the Commission Form MA and, with respect to each natural person associated with the municipal advisory firm who engages in municipal advisory activities on its behalf, Form MA-I.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 15Ba1-5 and the Instructions for the Form MA Series require municipal advisors to amend Form MA annually; amend Form MA whenever certain information previously provided therein becomes inaccurate or materially inaccurate; amend Form MA-I whenever the information previously provided therein becomes inaccurate for any reason; and amend Form MA-I to indicate that an individual is no longer an associated person of the municipal advisory firm filing the form or no longer engaged in municipal advisory activities on its behalf.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 15Ba1-7 requires municipal advisors to report succession of registration on Form MA.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-2. The terms “municipal advisor” and “municipal advisory firm” are used interchangeably herein. Both terms include sole proprietors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Instructions for the Form MA Series, at 19, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formmadata.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-5; Instructions for the Form MA Series, at 2-3 &amp; 4-5, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formmadata.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Forms MA and MA-I help ensure that the Commission can make information about municipal advisors transparent and easily accessible to the investing public, including municipal entities and obligated persons who engage municipal advisors; investors who may purchase securities from offerings in which municipal advisors participated; and other regulators. Further, the information provided on Forms MA and MA-I expands the amount of publicly available information about municipal advisors and their associated persons, including conflicts of interest and disciplinary history. Although much of the information required by Form MA is already publicly available with respect to municipal advisors that are already registered with the Commission as investment advisers or broker-dealers, many municipal advisors that are not currently registered with the Commission in another capacity will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40623"/>
                    make this information available for the first time. Consequently, the rules and forms allow municipal entities and obligated persons, as well as others, to become more fully informed about municipal advisors in a more efficient manner.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, the requirement that each municipal advisory firm register with the Commission on Form MA and complete Form MA-I with respect to each natural person who is a person associated with the municipal advisor and engages in municipal advisory activities on its behalf will help ensure that the Commission has information to oversee respondents and their activities in the municipal securities market effectively. In particular, the information provided in Form MA will be used to determine whether to grant a municipal advisor's application for registration or to institute proceedings to determine whether registration should be denied. The information will also be used to focus examinations and aid in risk-based examinations. Moreover, Forms MA and MA-I will enable the Commission to obtain an accurate estimate of the number of municipal advisors, by size and by municipal advisory activity; analyze data regarding the various types of municipal advisory activities; and evaluate the disciplinary history of all municipal advisors and associated persons, including regulatory, civil, and criminal proceedings.</P>
                <P>The requirement that a municipal advisor file amendments to Forms MA and MA-I will help ensure the availability of up-to-date information about municipal advisors and their associated persons.</P>
                <P>No assurances of confidentiality are provided with respect to Forms MA and MA-I, except with respect to certain private residential addresses reported therein. Forms MA and MA-I require applicants and registered municipal advisors to report various addresses, which may include private residential addresses. However, where the forms request an address, the applicant or registrant is asked to indicate whether the address provided is a private residence and is advised that, if so, the private residential address will not be included in publicly available versions of the form.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Form MA</HD>
                <P>
                    The initial application for municipal advisor registration under Form MA is a one-time reporting burden. The Commission estimates that this collection of information would apply to approximately 15 new municipal advisory firms that will submit new Form MA applications in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This estimate is based on existing Form MA submission data. Over the three years of the information collection, the total estimated number of Form MA applicants would be 45, or 15 per year.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further estimates that the average amount of time for a municipal advisory firm to complete Form MA would be approximately 3.5 hours. This figure is based on the estimated average amount of time for a municipal advisory firm to complete Form MA and the estimated average amount of time for an investment adviser to complete Part 1A of Form ADV. Thus, the Commission estimates that the aggregate annual reporting burden placed on Form MA applicants will be approximately 53 hours.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of Form MA filings over the last three calendar years. There were 11 Form MA submissions in 2023, 20 Form MA submissions in 2024, and 13 Form MA submissions in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 (estimated number of Form MA applicants, year one) + 15 (estimated number of Form MA applicants, year two) + 15 (estimated number of Form MA applicants, year three) = 45.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 (estimated number of Form MA applicants per year) × 3.5 hours (average time required to submit a completed Form MA) = 52.5 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to filing initial Form MA applications, the rules require municipal advisory firms to amend Form MA once annually (Form MA-A) and after the occurrence of any enumerated material event (Form MA/A). The requirement to amend Form MA is an ongoing annual reporting burden that applies to all registered municipal advisory firms. As of December 31, 2025, there were approximately 419 municipal advisors registered with the Commission and, as noted above, the Commission anticipates receiving 15 new Form MA submissions annually in each of the next three years; however, the Commission also estimates that it will receive an average of 21 withdrawals on Form MA-W annually in each of the next three years,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Commission further estimates that it will enter orders cancelling or revoking the registration of 4 municipal advisors on average in each of the next three years,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a net decrease of 10 municipal advisors annually in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the Commission expects that the rules' requirement to amend Form MA will apply to approximately 409 municipal advisors in year one, approximately 399 municipal advisors in year two, and approximately 389 municipal advisors in year three, or 399 respondents on average.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission estimates that the average amount of time for a municipal advisor to prepare an annual amendment to Form MA would be approximately 1.5 hours. The Commission further estimates that the average amount of time necessary to prepare any interim updating amendment to Form MA other than the required annual amendment would be approximately 0.5 hours. This figure is based on the burden estimates for an interim updating amendment for Form ADV. The Commission estimates that each municipal advisor would likely submit two Form MA amendments annually in each of the next three years—one annual amendment and one interim updating amendment. Thus, the Commission estimates that the total annual reporting burden to amend Form MA would be approximately 818 hours in year one,
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     798 hours in year two,
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 778 hours in year three,
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 2,394 hours over a three-year period. The annual reporting burden per respondent to amend Form MA per year is 2.0 hours.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See infra</E>
                         Section II.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of CANCELLATION-MA and REVOCATION-MA filings over the last three calendar years. There were 8 CANCELLATION-MA filings in 2023, 1 CANCELLATION-MA filing in 2024, and 1 CANCELLATION-MA filing in 2025. There were 0 REVOCATION-MA filings in 2023, 0 REVOCATION-MA filings in 2024, and 0 REVOCATION-MA filings in 2025. ((8 + 0) + (1 + 0) + (1 + 0)) ÷ 3 = 3.33, rounded up to 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 − (21 + 4) = − 10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         (409 (year one) + 399 (year two) + 389 (year three)) ÷ 3 = 399.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         ((409 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an annual amendment to Form MA in year one) × 1.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an annual amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of annual amendments per year)) + ((409 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an interim updating amendment to Form MA in year one) × 0.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an interim updating amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of interim updating amendments per year)) = 818 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         ((399 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an annual amendment to Form MA in year two) × 1.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an annual amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of annual amendments per year)) + ((399 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an interim updating amendment to Form MA in year two) × 0.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an interim updating amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of interim updating amendments per year)) = 798 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         ((389 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an annual amendment to Form MA in year three) × 1.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an annual amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of annual amendments per year)) + ((389 (number of municipal advisors required to submit an interim updating amendment to Form MA in year three) × 0.5 hours (average estimated time to prepare an interim updating amendment to Form MA)) × 1.0 (number of interim updating amendments per year)) = 778 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40624"/>
                    hour (occupational hourly rate) 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     associated with the completion, amendment, and submission of Form MA is approximately $271.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         To calculate the occupational hourly rates used in this 60-Day Collection Notice, the Commission uses occupational mean hourly wage data from the Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics (“OEWS”) program of the Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) for “Securities, Commodity Contracts, and Other Financial Investments and Related Activities” (NAICS 523). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         “Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics,” BLS, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes; see also</E>
                         “Standard Occupational Classification,” BLS, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/soc</E>
                         (describing occupational classification system used by BLS); Exec. Off. of the President, Off. of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, North American Industry Classification System (2022), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/naics/reference_files_tools/2022_NAICS_Manual.pdf</E>
                         (describing the industry classification system used by BLS and other agencies). The mean hourly wage for each occupation is adjusted for changes in the seasonally adjusted employment cost index for private wages and salaries between the data reference period and when the data are released by BLS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         “Employment Cost Index,” BLS, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/eci.</E>
                         The adjusted mean hourly wage is then multiplied by a factor that accounts for nonwage costs borne by employers, such as bonuses, benefits, and overhead. This factor is calculated as an average over the 10 most recently available years of data of the ratio of the Bureau of Economic Analysis's annual gross output data for NAICS 523 to total annual wages across all occupations for NAICS 523 in the OEWS data. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         “Gross Output by Industry,” U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bea.gov/data/industries/gross-output-by-industry;</E>
                         “Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics,” BLS, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes.</E>
                         The final product is the occupational hourly rate. 
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         “Updated Methodology for Calculating Occupational Hourly Rates” (Dec. 19, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/method-occupational-hourly-rates.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         This estimate uses a blended rate for Financial Examiners (SOC Code 13-2061) ($375/hour), and Bookkeeping, Accounting, and Auditing Clerks (SOC Code 43-3031) ($167/hour). ($375/hour + $167/hour) ÷ 2 = $271/hour. 
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         BLS, OEWS, “13-2061 Financial Examiners,” 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/2023/may/oes132061.htm</E>
                         (“Enforce or ensure compliance with laws and regulations governing financial and securities institutions and financial and real estate transactions. May examine, verify, or authenticate records.”); BLS, OEWS, “43-3031 Bookkeeping, Accounting, and Auditing Clerks,” 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/2019/may/oes433031.htm</E>
                         (“Compute, classify, and record numerical data to keep financial records complete. Perform any combination of routine calculating, posting, and verifying duties to obtain primary financial data for use in maintaining accounting records. May also check the accuracy of figures, calculations, and postings pertaining to business transactions recorded by other workers. Excludes `Payroll and Timekeeping Clerks' (43-3051).”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total reporting burden for the completion, amendment, and submission of Form MA would be 2,552 hours ($691,592 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 851 hours ($230,621) per year when annualized over three years. The average reporting burden per respondent would be approximately 6.40 hours ($1,734 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 2.13 hours ($577) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         (45 (municipal advisory firms required to file Form MA, over three years) × 3.5 hours (average estimated time to complete Form MA)) + 2,394 (total reporting burden to amend Form MA, over three years) = 2,551.5 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         2,552 (estimated average total burden to complete and amend Form MA, annually) ÷ 399 (estimated average number of respondents annually) = 6.40 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further believes that some municipal advisory firms would seek outside counsel or outside compliance consultants to help them comply with the requirements of the final rules and to complete Form MA. For PRA purposes, the Commission assumes that all 45 municipal advisory firms registering on Form MA during the three-year period would, on average, consult with outside counsel or outside compliance consultants for one hour, and would cost $25,875 for all municipal advisory firms.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total additional cost burden for all municipal advisory firms to hire outside counsel and outside compliance consultants to complete Form MA would be approximately $25,875,
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or $8,625 per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         45 (estimated number of municipal advisory firms that would hire outside counsel or outside compliance consultants, over three years) × 1 hour (average estimated time spent by outside counsel to help a municipal advisory firm comply with the rule) × $575 (estimated blended average hourly rate for an outside attorney and outside compliance consultant) = $25,875. The hourly cost estimate of $575 uses a blended rate for Lawyers (SOC Code 23-1011) ($774/hour), and Financial Examiners (SOC Code 13-2061) ($375/hour). ($774/hour + $375/hour) ÷ 2 = $574.5/hour, rounded up. 
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 21.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 25.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Form MA-I</HD>
                <P>
                    The initial completion of Form MA-I for each natural person who is a person associated with a municipal advisor is a one-time reporting burden. The Commission estimates that municipal advisors would need to submit a new Form MA-I for approximately 370 individuals annually in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This estimate is based on existing Form MA-I submission data. Over the three years of the information collection, the total estimated number of Form MA-I submissions would be approximately 1,110.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further estimates that the average amount of time for a municipal advisory firm to complete each Form MA-I would be approximately three hours. Accordingly, the Commission estimates that respondents will spend approximately 3,330 hours completing Form MA-I over the three-year period. The estimated average annual reporting burden per respondent to submit new Form MA-Is is approximately 2.89 hours.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of Form MA-I submissions over the last three calendar years and rounding up. There were 344 Form MA-I submissions in 2023, 385 Form MA-I submissions in 2024, and 379 Form MA-I submissions in 2025. (344 (2023) +385 (2024) + 379 (2025)) ÷ 3 = 369.33.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year one) + 370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year two) + 370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year three) = 1,110.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         ((1,110 (estimated total burden to complete Form MA-I, year one) ÷ 370 (estimated number of respondents, year one)) + (1,110 (estimated total burden to complete Form MA-I, year two) ÷ 385 (estimated number of respondents, year two)) + (1,110 (estimated total burden to complete Form MA-I, year three) ÷ 400 (estimated number of respondents, year three))) ÷ 3 = 2.89 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, municipal advisory firms will need to complete amendments to Form MA-I (Form MA-I/A) whenever the information previously provided therein becomes inaccurate, or to indicate that the individual is no longer an associated person of the municipal advisor or no longer engages in municipal advisory activities on its behalf. As discussed above, as of December 31, 2025, there were approximately 419 municipal advisors registered with the Commission, and the Commission estimates that approximately 45 firms will submit Form MA applications over the next three years.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These firms would need to prepare amendments to Form MA-I for approximately 3,573 associated persons in year one,
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     3,943 associated persons in year two,
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 4,313 associated persons in year three.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     During calendar years 2023, 2024, and 2025, municipal advisors submitted approximately 0.39 Form MA-I amendments for each Form MA-I on file or, approximately, 1,232 Form MA-I amendments per year.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>34</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="40625"/>
                    The Commission, however, expects that firms will file an increasing number of Form MA-I amendments as the municipal advisor registration regime continues to mature. As a result, the Commission estimates that a Form MA-I respondent would submit an average of 2.91 amendments annually in each of the next three years,
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and that each such amendment would take approximately 0.5 hours to complete. Thus, the Commission estimates that the total annual burden municipal advisors will incur to prepare amendments to Form MA-I would be approximately 5,199 hours in year one,
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     5,737 hours in year two,
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 6,275 hours in year three,
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 17,211 hours over a three-year period. This results in an estimated average annual reporting burden of 14.41 hours per respondent.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         Section I, Form MA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         3,203 (estimated number of active Form MA-I submissions on file with the Commission as of December 31, 2025) + 370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year one) = 3,573. The estimated number of active Form MA-I filings is derived by taking the total number of Form MA-I submissions filed with the Commission from the inception of the rules to December 31, 2025, and subtracting the total number of Form MA-I/A withdrawals filed with the Commission from the inception of the rules to December 31, 2025. 9,596 (Form MA-I submissions)—6,393 (Form MA-I/A withdrawals) = 3,203 active Form MA-Is on file.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         3,573 (estimated number of active MA-I submissions on file with the Commission after year one) + 370 (estimated number of MA-I submissions, year two) = 3,943.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         3,943 (estimated number of active Form MA-I submissions on file with the Commission after year two) + 370 (estimated number of MA-I submissions, year three) = 4,313.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         (1,234 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2023) + 1,043 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2024) + 1,419 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2025)) ÷ 9,596 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        (estimated total number of MA-Is on file with the Commission as of December 31, 2025) = 0.39. (1,234 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2023) + 1,043 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2024) + 1,419 (number of MA-I/As filed in 2025)) ÷ 3 = 1,232.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of amendments submitted by respondents over the last three calendar years. In 2023, the average number was 1,234 Form MA-I/As ÷ 428 municipal advisors = 2.88. In 2024, the average number was 1,043 Form MA-I/As ÷ 425 municipal advisors = 2.45. In 2025, the average number was 1,419 Form MA-I/As ÷ 419 municipal advisors = 3.39. Averaging the average number of amendments for the last three calendar years: (2.88 (2023) + 2.45 (2024) + 3.39 (2025)) ÷ 3 = 2.91 amendments per year.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         (3,573 (estimated number of associated persons for whom amendments to Form MA-I would need to be filed, year one) × 2.91 (average number of amendments per year)) × (0.50 hours (average estimated time to prepare an amendment to Form MA-I)) = 5,198.72 hours per year.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         (3,943 (estimated number of associated persons for whom amendments to Form MA-I would need to be filed, year two) × 2.91 (average number of amendments per year)) × (0.50 hours (average estimated time to prepare an amendment to Form MA-I)) = 5,737.07 hours per year.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         (4,313 (estimated number of associated persons for whom amendments to Form MA-I would need to be filed, year three) × 2.91 (average number of amendments per year)) × (0.50 hours (average estimated time to prepare an amendment to Form MA-I)) = 6,275.42 hours per year.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         ((5,199 hours (estimated total annual reporting burden for Form MA-I amendments, year one) ÷ 409 (estimated number of respondents required to amend Form MA-I, year one)) + (5,737 (estimated total annual reporting burden for Form MA-I amendments, year two) ÷ 399 (estimated number of respondents required to amend Form MA-I, year two)) + (6,275 (estimated total annual reporting burden for Form MA-I amendments, year three) ÷ 389 (estimated number of respondents required to amend Form MA-I, year three))) ÷ 3 = 14.41 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with the completion, amendment, and submission of Form MA-I is approximately $271.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total reporting burden for the completion, amendment, and submission of Form MA-I would be 20,541 hours ($5.6 million cost equivalent),
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 6,847 hours ($1.9 million) per year when annualized over three years. The average reporting burden per respondent would be approximately 51.48 hours ($13,951 cost equivalent), or approximately 17.16 hours ($4,650) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         3,330 (estimated total burden to complete and file Form MA-Is during three-year period) + 17,211 (estimated total burden to complete and file Form MA-I amendments during three-year period) = 20,541 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Form MA-W</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-4 requires that notice of withdrawal from registration as a municipal advisor be filed electronically with the Commission on Form MA-W.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirement that a municipal advisor file Form MA-W to withdraw from registration will inform the Commission that a municipal advisor is no longer engaging in municipal advisory activities.</P>
                <P>No assurances of confidentiality are provided with respect to Form MA-W.</P>
                <P>
                    Withdrawal from municipal advisor registration is a one-time reporting burden. The Commission estimates that there would be approximately 21 withdrawals from Form MA registration annually in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Over the three years of the information collection, the total estimated number of Form MA-W submissions would be 63.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         The estimate of 21 Form MA-W submissions is derived by averaging the number of Form MA-W submissions over the last three calendar years and rounding up. There were 21 Form MA-W submissions in 2023, 22 Form MA-W submissions in 2024, and 18 Form MA-W submissions in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         21 (estimated number of Form MA-W submissions, year one) + 21 (estimated number of Form MA-W submissions, year two) + 21 (estimated number of Form MA-W submissions, year three) = 63.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission further estimates that the average amount of time for a municipal advisor to complete each Form MA-W submission would be approximately 0.5 hours.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with the completion of Form MA-W is approximately $271.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total one-time reporting burden for the completion of Form MA-W would be 31.5 hours ($8,537 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 10.5 hours ($2,845) per year when annualized over three years. The one-time reporting burden would be 0.5 hours ($136) per respondent.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         63 (estimated number of Form MA-W submissions, over three years) × 0.5 hours (average estimated time to complete Form MA-W) = 31.5 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         31.5 hours (total burden to complete Form MA-W, over three years) ÷ 63 (total number of MA-W submissions, over three years) = 0.5 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Form MA-NR</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-6 provides that each non-resident municipal advisor shall, at the time of its application, furnish to the Commission for itself and for each non-resident general partner, non-resident managing agent, and non-resident natural person associated with the municipal advisor who engages in municipal advisory activities on behalf of the municipal advisor Form MA-NR, which appoints an agent in the United States for the service of process, as well as an opinion of counsel on Form MA stating that the municipal advisor can, as a matter of law, provide the Commission with access to its books and records as required by law and submit to inspection and examination by the Commission.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirement that a non-resident municipal advisor complete Form MA-NR, and furnish Form MA-NR for its non-resident general partners, non-resident managing agents, and associated persons engaged in municipal advisory activities, will help minimize legal or logistical obstacles that the Commission may encounter when attempting to effect service, conserve Commission resources, and avoid potential conflicts of law. The requirement that a non-resident municipal advisor provide an opinion of counsel on Form MA will help ensure that such non-resident municipal advisor can provide access to its books and records and submit to inspection and examination by the Commission.</P>
                <P>No assurances of confidentiality are provided with respect to Form MA-NR.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that approximately four municipal advisors will have a non-resident general partner, non-resident managing agent, or non-resident associated person 
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and such advisors will submit a total of approximately seven Form MA-NRs annually in each of the next three 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40626"/>
                    years.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These estimates are based on existing Form MA-NR submission data. Over three years, the four non-resident municipal advisor respondents would file approximately 21 Form MA-NRs.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of Form MA-NR respondents over the last three calendar years and rounding up. There were three Form MA-NR respondents in 2023, two Form MA-NR respondent in 2024, and six Form MA-NR respondents in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         The estimate is derived by averaging the number of Form MA-NR submissions over the last three calendar years and rounding up. There were six Form MA-NR submissions in 2023, six Form MA-NR submissions in 2024, and eight Form MA-NR submissions in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         7 (estimated number of Form MA-NR submissions, year one) + 7 (estimated number of Form MA-NR submissions, year two) + 7 (estimated number of Form MA-NR submissions, year three) = 21.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further estimates that the average amount of time to complete each Form MA-NR would be approximately one hour. This figure is based on the burden estimates for completing Form ADV-NR. Thus, the Commission estimates that the total annual burden to complete Form MA-NR would be approximately 28 hours,
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 7 hours per respondent annually.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         (7 (estimated Form MA-NR submissions each year) × 4 (estimated number of respondents each year)) × 1 hour (average estimated time to complete Form MA-NR) = 28 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         28 hours (estimated total annual burden to complete and file Form MA-NRs) ÷ 4 (estimated number of respondents, annually) = 7 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, each respondent that submits a Form MA-NR must also provide an opinion of counsel on Form MA stating that the municipal advisor can, as a matter of law, provide the Commission with access to its books and records as required by law and submit to inspection and examination by the Commission. The Commission estimates that such an opinion of counsel would take three hours to complete. Thus, the Commission estimates that the total annual burden to provide the opinions of counsel would be approximately 12 hours, or 36 hours over the three-year period.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         4 (non-resident municipal advisory firms expected to provide opinion of counsel, annually) × 3.0 hours (average estimated time to provide an opinion of counsel) = 12 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with the completion of Form MA-NR is approximately $271.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total reporting burden for the completion of Form MA-NR would be approximately 64 hours ($17,344 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 21.3 hours ($5,772) per year when annualized over three years. The reporting burden per respondent would be approximately 16 hours ($4,336 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 5.3 hours ($1,436) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         28 hours (total burden to complete Form MA-NR) + 36 hours (total burden to provide opinions of counsel) = 64 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         64 hours (estimated total burden to complete Form MA-NR and opinion of counsel, over three years) ÷ 4 (estimated number of non-resident municipal advisory firms) = 16 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further believes that non-resident municipal advisors would seek outside counsel to comply with the opinion of counsel requirements of Form MA-NR. The Commission estimates that this would add $1,584 in outside legal costs per respondent.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Commission estimates that the total annual cost for all non-resident municipal advisory firms to hire outside counsel as part of providing an opinion of counsel would be $6,336,
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or $19,008 over the three-year period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         The $1,584 figure is based on an hourly cost estimate of $528 on average for outside counsel and three hours of work. Based on previous burden estimates, the Commission estimated that outside counsel will take, on average, three hours to assist in the preparation of the opinion of counsel, for an average cost of $1,584 per respondent. The hourly cost estimate of $528 uses a blended rate for Lawyers (SOC Code 23-1011) ($774/hour), and Paralegals and Legal Assistants (SOC Code 23-2011) ($281/hour). ($774/hour + $281/hour) ÷ 2 = $527.5/hour, rounded up. 
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 21.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         4 (non-resident municipal advisory firms expected to provide opinion of counsel, annually) × $1,584 (average estimated cost to hire outside counsel to provide an opinion of counsel) = $6,336.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Consent To Service of Process From Certain Associated Persons</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-8 and Form MA-I require each municipal advisory firm to obtain and retain, for not less than five years, a written consent from each natural person associated with the municipal advisor who engages in municipal advisory activities on its behalf that service of any civil action brought by, or notice of any proceeding before, the SEC or any self-regulatory organization (“SRO”) in connection with the individual's municipal advisory activities may be given by registered or certified mail to the individual's address given in Item 1 of Form MA-I.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-8(a)(8); Form MA-I, Item 7, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formMA-I.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirement that a municipal advisor obtain and retain a consent to service of process from certain associated persons will help minimize legal or logistical obstacles that the Commission and SROs may encounter when attempting to effect service, conserve Commission and SRO resources, and avoid potential conflicts of law. The associated recordkeeping requirement will help ensure that such natural persons have indeed executed consents to service of process and will allow Commission staff to examine such consents to service of process.</P>
                <P>
                    The consent to service of process from certain associated persons is a one-time recordkeeping burden. Over three years, the Commission estimates that all 45 new municipal advisory firms expected to register with the Commission will need to complete a written consent to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further estimates that each municipal advisory firm would spend approximately one hour to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written consents to service of process, amounting to an initial, one-time burden of approximately 45 hours over three years,
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 15 hours per year.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         Rule 15Ba1-8(a)(8) requires each municipal advisory firm to retain written consents to service of process from each natural person who is a person associated with the municipal advisor and engages in municipal advisory activities solely on behalf of such registered municipal advisor.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         45 (estimated number of applicants for municipal advisor registration over the three-year period) × 1.0 hour (estimated time required to draft a template to use in obtaining the written consents to service of process) = 45 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to the one-time burden borne by new municipal advisory firms that register with the Commission during the three-year period, the Commission estimates that existing municipal advisory firms would need to obtain 370 consents to service of process from natural persons that begin engaging in municipal advisory activities on their behalf in each of the next three years. The Commission further estimates that, after the written consents are drafted, it will take municipal advisory firms approximately 0.10 hours to obtain each consent. Thus, the Commission estimates that municipal advisory firms would spend approximately 111 hours over the three-year period obtaining written consents from their associated persons,
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 37 hours per year. Based on existing registration data, the Commission estimates that approximately 35 of the 111 hours municipal advisory firms will spend obtaining written consents will be borne by newly registered firms, while approximately 76 of such hours will be borne by municipal advisory firms currently registered with the Commission.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         (370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year one) + 370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year two) + 370 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions, year three)) × 0.10 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written consents to service of process) = 111 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Current registration data indicate that the average number of associated persons per municipal advisory firm is approximately 7.64 (3,203 (estimated number of active Form MA-I 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        submissions on file with the Commission as of December 31, 2025) ÷ 419 (estimated number of municipal advisors registered with the Commission as of December 31, 2025) = 7.64). Accordingly, based on the Commission's assumption that it will receive 15 new Form MA applications per year over the three-year period, those new applicants will also submit approximately 115 new Form MA-Is per year over the three-year period (15 new Form MA applications, annually) × 7.64 (average number of associated persons per municipal advisory firm) = 114.6. (115 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions by new registrants, year 1) + 115 (estimated number of Form MA-I submission by new registrants, year 2) + 115 (estimated number of Form MA-I submissions by new registrants, year 3)) × 0.10 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written consents to service of process) = 34.5 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40627"/>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with obtaining written consents to service of process is approximately $271.
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total recordkeeping burden for all municipal advisory firms to obtain written consents to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf would be 156 hours ($42,276 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 52 hours ($14,092) per year when annualized over three years. The recordkeeping burden per respondent would be approximately 0.39 hours ($106 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 0.13 hours ($35) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         Total estimated annual burden: 15 hours (one-time burden to draft template document) + 37 hours (ongoing burden to obtain consent) = 52 hours. 52 hours (estimated burden for all municipal advisory firms to obtain written consents to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf, year one) + 52 hours (estimated burden to obtain written consents to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf, year two) + 52 hours (estimated burden to obtain written consents to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf, year three) = 156 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         156 hours (total estimated annual burden for all municipal advisory firms to obtain written consents to service of process from each natural person engaged in municipal advisory activities on their behalf, during the three-year period) ÷ 399 (estimated average number of registered municipal advisory firms, during the three-year period) = 0.391 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Books and Records To Be Made and Maintained by Municipal Advisors</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-8 requires all registered municipal advisors to maintain, for not less than five years, true, accurate, and current books and records relating to their municipal advisory activities.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirement that a municipal advisor make and keep books and records, including written communications and records of associated persons, will help to ensure that records of the respondent's primary municipal advisory activities, as well as the activities of its associated persons, exist. The Commission and other regulators could potentially request books and records during an examination to evaluate the municipal advisor's compliance with the Exchange Act, the rules thereunder, and Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (“MSRB”) rules, as well as for other regulatory purposes.</P>
                <P>
                    The maintenance of books and records is an ongoing annual recordkeeping burden. The Commission estimates that this collection of information currently applies to approximately 419 municipal advisory firms, and further estimates that it will apply to approximately 409, 399, and 389 municipal advisors annually in each of the next three years, respectively.
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         Section I, Form MA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further estimates that the average annual burden for a municipal advisory firm to comply with the recordkeeping requirements would be approximately 182 hours. Thus, the Commission estimates that the total ongoing recordkeeping burden for the three-year period would be 217,854 hours.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The estimated annual recordkeeping burden over the three-year period would be 74,438 hours in year one; 
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     72,618 hours in year two; 
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 70,798 hours in year three.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         (409 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year one) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with the books and records requirement)) + 399 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year two) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with books and records requirement)) + 389 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year three) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with books and records requirement)) = 217,854 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         (409 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year one) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with the books and records requirement) = 74,438 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         (399 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year two) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with the books and records requirement) = 72,618 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         (389 (estimated number of municipal advisors after year three) × 182 hours (estimated time spent by municipal advisors to ensure annual compliance with the books and records requirement) = 70,798 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with this recordkeeping burden is approximately $271.
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total recordkeeping burden would be 217,854 hours ($59 million cost equivalent),
                    <SU>75</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 72,618 hours ($19.7 million) when annualized over three years. The estimated annual recordkeeping burden per respondent would be 182 hours ($49,322).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 70 and accompanying text.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Independent Registered Municipal Advisor Exemption</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-1(d)(3)(vi) exempts from the definition of “municipal advisor” any person engaging in municipal advisory activities in a circumstance in which a municipal entity or obligated person is otherwise represented by an independent registered municipal advisor with respect to the same aspects of a municipal financial product or an issuance of municipal securities, provided that certain written requirements are satisfied.
                    <SU>76</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-1(d)(3)(vi).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirement that certain written representations and disclosures be made in order for a person to be exempt from the definition of municipal advisor (where a municipal entity or obligated person is represented by an independent registered municipal advisor with respect to the same aspects of a municipal financial product or an issuance of municipal securities) will allow the Commission staff to determine whether a person engaging in municipal advisory activities has failed to register with the Commission. Further, the information will allow municipal entities and obligated persons to understand whether a person is acting as a municipal advisor.</P>
                <P>
                    The written representations required pursuant to the exemption when a municipal entity or obligated person is represented by an independent registered municipal advisor is a one-time third-party disclosure burden. The Commission estimates that this collection of information would apply to approximately 157 respondents annually in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>77</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further estimates that each respondent seeking to rely on this exemption would need approximately one hour to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, amounting to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40628"/>
                    an initial, one-time burden of approximately 157 hours.
                    <SU>78</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         Estimate based on information obtained from Mergent Municipal Bond Securities Database. The estimate is derived by averaging the number of underwriters that participated in negotiated transactions from 2023 to 2025. There were 158 underwriters that participated in negotiated transactions in 2023, 160 underwriters that participated in negotiated transactions in 2024, and 153 underwriters that participated in negotiated transactions in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         157 (estimated number of respondents that will seek to rely on the exemption) × 1.0 hours (estimated time required to draft the written representation) = 157 hours. The Commission believes that once these disclosures have been drafted, such language would become part of the standard municipal advice documentation and, accordingly, there would be no further ongoing associated burden.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission also recognizes that respondents will be subject to a recurring burden each time they seek to rely on this exemption. The Commission estimates that respondents may seek the exemption on approximately 12,381 transactions annually in each of the next three years.
                    <SU>79</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further estimates that a person seeking to rely on this exemption would need approximately 0.25 hours to obtain a written representation from a municipal entity or obligated person, amounting to an annual ongoing burden of approximately 3,095.25 hours,
                    <SU>80</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 9,286 hours over the three-year period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>79</SU>
                         Estimate based on information obtained from Mergent Municipal Bond Securities Database. The estimate is derived by averaging the number of negotiated deals using an underwriter each year from 2023 to 2025 and rounding up. There were 11,825 negotiated deals using an underwriter in 2023, 12,545 negotiated deals using an underwriter in 2024, and 12,771 negotiated deals using an underwriter in 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>80</SU>
                         12,381 (estimated average number of negotiated deals per year) × 0.25 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written representation) = 3,095.25 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) related to the exemption when a municipal entity or obligated person is represented by an independent registered municipal advisor is approximately $271.
                    <SU>81</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>81</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total one-time third-party disclosure burden related to the exemption when a municipal entity or obligated person is represented by an independent registered municipal advisor would be 9,443 hours ($2.6 million cost equivalent),
                    <SU>82</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 3,148 hours ($853,108) per year when annualized over three years. The third-party disclosure burden per respondent would be approximately 60.15 hours ($16,300 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>83</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 20.05 hours ($5,434) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>82</SU>
                         (157 hours (estimated time to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, year one) + 9,286 hours (estimated time to obtain a written representation from a municipal entity or obligated person, three-year period) = 9,443 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>83</SU>
                         9,443 hours (total burden related to the exemption when a municipal entity or obligated person is represented by an independent registered municipal advisor, over three years) ÷ 157 (estimated number of persons who will seek to rely on the exemption) = 60.15 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Exception to Definition of Municipal Escrow Investments</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 15B of the Exchange Act provides in pertinent part that, unless registered with the Commission, a municipal advisor may not provide advice to or on behalf of a municipal entity or obligated person with respect to “municipal financial products,” a term that is defined to include “investment strategies” such as: (i) the recommendation of and brokerage of “municipal escrow investments,” and (ii) plans or programs for the investment of the “proceeds of municipal securities.” 
                    <SU>84</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 15Ba1-1(h)(2) provides that in determining whether or not funds to be invested or reinvested constitute “municipal escrow investments,” a person may rely on representations in writing made by a knowledgeable official of the municipal entity or obligated person whose funds are to be invested or reinvested regarding the nature of such investments, provided that the person seeking to rely on such representations has a reasonable basis for such reliance.
                    <SU>85</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>84</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78o-4(a)(1)(B), (e)(3), (e)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>85</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-1(h)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The exception to the definition of municipal escrow investments for reasonable reliance will allow the Commission staff to determine whether a person engaging in municipal advisory activities has failed to register with the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    The written representations required to qualify for the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to municipal escrow investments is a one-time third-party disclosure burden. The Commission believes that state-registered investment advisers with municipal entity clients are the persons most likely to rely on this exception. The Commission estimates that approximately 611 persons may seek to rely on this exception.
                    <SU>86</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>86</SU>
                         The Commission estimates in this section are based on information reported directly by state-registered-only investment advisers (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not dual registrants) in Item 5.D.(i)(1) within Form ADV, as of December 31, 2025. The number of state-registered investment advisers that reported state or municipal government entity clients in Item 5.D.(i)(1) within Form ADV = 611.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further estimates that each person seeking to rely on this exception would need approximately one hour to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, amounting to an initial, one-time burden of approximately 611 hours.
                    <SU>87</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Commission estimates that, once drafted, a person seeking to rely on this exception would need approximately 0.25 hours to obtain a written representation from its client each time they seek to rely on the exception. Based on responses to Form ADV, the Commission estimates that persons that would seek to rely on this exception have approximately 1,855 clients that are municipal entities.
                    <SU>88</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Commission estimates that the burden to obtain the written representation would be 471 hours.
                    <SU>89</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>87</SU>
                         611 (estimated number of persons who will seek to rely on the exception) × 1.0 hours (estimated time required to draft the written representation) = 611 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>88</SU>
                         The number of state or municipal government entity clients reported by state-registered investment advisers in Item 5.D.(i)(1) within Form ADV = 1,885.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>89</SU>
                         1,885 (estimated number of clients from which written representation will be obtained) × 0.25 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written representation) = 471.25 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to municipal escrow investments is approximately $271.
                    <SU>90</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>90</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the one-time total third-party disclosure burden for all persons to rely on the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to municipal escrow investments would be 1,082 hours ($293,222 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>91</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 361 hours ($97,831) per year when annualized over three years. The one-time third-party disclosure burden per respondent would be approximately 1.77 hours ($480 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>92</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 0.59 hours ($160) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>91</SU>
                         611 hours (estimated time to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, over three years) + 471 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written representations from clients, over three years) = 1,082 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>92</SU>
                         1,082 hours (total burden related to the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to municipal escrow investments, during the three-year period) ÷ 611 (estimated number of persons who will seek to rely on the exception, during the three-year period) = 1.77 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Exception to Definition of Proceeds of Municipal Securities</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 15Ba1-1(m)(3) provides that in determining whether or not funds to be invested constitute “proceeds of municipal securities” (see Section VII above), a person may rely on representations in writing made by a knowledgeable official of the municipal entity or obligated person whose funds 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40629"/>
                    are to be invested regarding the nature of such funds, provided that the person seeking to rely on such representations has a reasonable basis for such reliance.
                    <SU>93</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>93</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.15Ba1-1(m)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The exception to the definition of proceeds of municipal securities for reasonable reliance will allow the Commission staff to determine whether a person engaging in municipal advisory activities has failed to register with the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    The written representations required to qualify for the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to proceeds of municipal securities is a one-time third-party disclosure burden. The Commission believes the persons most likely to rely on this exception are state-registered investment advisers with clients that are: (i) state or municipal government entities, or (ii) certain pooled investment vehicles in which municipal entities invest. Based on responses to Form ADV, the Commission estimates that approximately 669 persons may seek to rely on this exception.
                    <SU>94</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>94</SU>
                         The Commission estimates in this section are based on information reported directly by state-registered-only investment advisers (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not dual registrants) in Items 5.D.(i)(1) and 5.D.(f)(1) within Form ADV, as of December 31, 2025. The number of state-registered investment advisers that reported pooled investment vehicle clients (other than investment company and business development company clients) in Item 5.D.(f)(1) within Form ADV = 480. The percentage of state-registered investment advisers that reported state or municipal government entity clients in Item 5.D.(f)(1) within Form ADV, out of the total number of state-registered investment advisers = 12%. (480 × .12) = approximately 58 state-registered investment advisers with clients that are pooled investment vehicles (other than registered investment companies and business development companies) in which municipal entities invest. The number of state-registered investment advisers that reported state or municipal government entity clients in Item 5.D.(i)(1) within Form ADV = 611. (58 + 611) = 669 respondents.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission further estimates that each person seeking to rely on this exception would need approximately one hour to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, amounting to an initial, one-time burden of approximately 669 hours.
                    <SU>95</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Commission estimates that, once drafted, a person seeking to rely on this exception would need approximately 0.25 hours to obtain a written representation from its client each time they seek to rely on the exception. Based on responses to Form ADV, the Commission estimates that persons that would seek to rely on this exception have approximately 3,326 clients that are state or municipal government entities or that are pooled investment vehicles (other than registered investment companies and business development companies) with municipal entity investors.
                    <SU>96</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Commission estimates that the burden to obtain the written representation would be 832 hours.
                    <SU>97</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>95</SU>
                         669 (estimated number of respondents that will seek to rely on the exception) × 1.0 hours (estimated time required to draft the written representation) = 669 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>96</SU>
                         The number of state or municipal government entity clients reported by state-registered investment advisers in Item 5.D.(i)(1) within Form ADV = 1,885 clients. The number of pooled investment vehicle clients (other than investment company and business development company clients) reported by state-registered investment advisers in Item 5.D.(f)(1) within Form ADV = 1,441 clients. (1,885 + 1,441) = 3,326 clients.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>97</SU>
                         3,326 (estimated number of clients from which written representation will be obtained) × 0.25 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written representation) = approximately 832 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission estimates that the average internal cost of compliance per hour (occupational hourly rate) associated with the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to proceeds of municipal securities is approximately $271.
                    <SU>98</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>98</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         notes 21-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In summary, the Commission estimates that, over a three-year period, the total one-time third-party disclosure burden for all persons to rely on the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to proceeds of municipal securities would be 1,501 hours ($406,771 cost equivalent),
                    <SU>99</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or 500.33 hours ($135,589) per year when annualized over three years. The one-time third-party disclosure burden per respondent would be approximately 2.24 hours ($607),
                    <SU>100</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or approximately 0.75 hours ($203) per year when annualized over three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>99</SU>
                         669 hours (estimated time to draft a template document to use in obtaining the written representation, during the three-year period) + 832 hours (estimated time required to obtain the written representations from clients, during the three-year period) = 1,501 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>100</SU>
                         1,501 hours (total burden related to the exception for reasonable reliance on representations related to proceeds of municipal securities, over three years) ÷ 669 (estimated number of persons who will seek to rely on the exception, over three years) = 2.24 hours.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Requests for Comment</HD>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <P>Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the SEC, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the SEC's estimate of the burden imposed by the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and the assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated, electronic collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Written comments are also invited on the following topics:</P>
                <P>
                    1. With the exception of outside legal costs associated with Forms MA and MA-NR, the Commission has historically estimated that the rules and forms, including the recordkeeping requirements of Rule 15Ba1-8, would result in no cost to respondents beyond internal time burdens. What additional costs associated with the rules and forms should the Commission consider incorporating in its estimates, including start-up costs, maintenance costs, and purchases of services (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     paying outside consultants, contractors, legal advisors, or subscription-based services for activities required by the rules and forms)? Per OMB guidance, such estimates should generally not include purchases of equipment or services, or portions thereof, made: (1) prior to October 1, 1995, (2) to achieve regulatory compliance with requirements not associated with the information collection, (3) for reasons other than to provide information or keep records for the government, or (4) as part of customary and usual business or private practices.
                </P>
                <P>2. In its PRA Supporting Statements for this information collection, the Commission has historically estimated that no persons who rely on the independent registered municipal advisor exemption under Rule 15Ba1-1(d)(3)(vi) are small entities. Is that an accurate estimate for the next three years? What methodology and data source(s) should the Commission use to estimate how many persons who rely on the independent registered municipal advisor exemption are small entities?</P>
                <P>3. The Commission and Office of Municipal Securities (“OMS”) staff participate in an ongoing dialogue with representatives of the municipal advisor industry through public conferences, meetings, and informal exchanges. What additional steps should the Commission and OMS staff take to ascertain and act upon burdens confronting the municipal advisor industry on an ongoing basis?</P>
                <P>
                    4. What specific questions related to the registration of municipal advisors (including with respect to Rules 15Ba1-1 to 15Ba1-8, Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR, and the Instructions for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40630"/>
                    the Form MA Series) should be clarified in public statements by Commission staff, such as in speeches or in updates to the Registration of Municipal Advisors FAQs? 
                    <SU>101</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>101</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Registration of Municipal Advisors: Frequently Asked Questions (Jan. 10, 2014; additional FAQs issued in 2014, 2017, 2023, and 2025), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/about/divisions-offices/office-municipal-securities/registration-municipal-advisors.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>5. What enhancements should the Commission make to the EDGAR filing system to improve the user experience of electronically completing and filing Forms MA, MA-I, and MA-W? When completing Forms MA, MA-I, and MA-W on the EDGAR filing system, are there any technical issues with the system that the Commission needs to resolve? When completing Forms MA, MA-I, and MA-W on the EDGAR filing system, are there any specific items for which the system should display a pop-up message clarifying how to complete that item?</P>
                <P>6. What enhancements should the Commission make to the EDGAR website or to SEC.gov to improve the public accessibility of information filed on Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR?</P>
                <P>
                    7. Since August 2025, the Commission has published a “Statistics &amp; Data Visualizations” web page on SEC.gov related to municipal advisors registered with the Commission.
                    <SU>102</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     What enhancements should the Commission make to that web page in particular (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     publishing additional charts or data)?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>102</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Statistics &amp; Data Visualizations: Municipal Advisors, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/data-research/statistics-data-visualizations/municipal-advisors.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>8. Are there any aspects of Rules 15Ba1-1 to 15Ba1-8, Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR, or the Instructions for the Form MA Series that the Commission should view as imposing a requirement with no corresponding regulatory benefit?</P>
                <P>9. Prior to engaging in municipal advisory activities, a firm must register as a municipal advisor with the Commission, and then separately register as a municipal advisor with the MSRB under MSRB Rule A-12. Does the MSRB's separate registration requirement lead to unnecessary duplication?</P>
                <P>10. Should the Commission consider amending any aspects of Rules 15Ba1-1 to 15Ba1-8, Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR, or the Instructions for the Form MA Series (including the Glossary of Terms)?</P>
                <P>
                    11. Should the Commission consider amending any aspects of the EDGAR Filer Manual to clarify the filing process for Forms MA, MA-I, MA-W, and MA-NR? 
                    <SU>103</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>103</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         EDGAR Filer Manual—Volume II: EDGAR Filing, Version 77 (Mar. 16, 2026), at 8-112, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/edgar/filermanual/edgarfm-vol2-v77.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    12. Should the Commission consider defining which municipal advisors constitute small entities for purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”)? 
                    <SU>104</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If so, what metric should be used to determine small entity status? What should the ceiling for small entity status be under that metric?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>104</SU>
                         For example, Exchange Act Rule 0-10 defines which regulated entities qualify as small entities for purposes of the RFA, but that rule does not speak to municipal advisors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.0-10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Please direct your written comments on this 60-Day Collection Notice to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg via email to 
                    <E T="03">PaperworkReductionAct@sec.gov</E>
                     by August 31, 2026. There will be a second opportunity to comment on this SEC request following the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     publishing a 30-Day Submission Notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13358 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105798; File No. SR-NYSEAMER-2026-52]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Change To Amend Rule 7.31E, Orders and Modifiers</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that, on June 16, 2026, NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31E (Orders and Modifiers) relating to Limit Orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31E (Orders and Modifiers) to provide for the operation of routable Limit Orders as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31E(a)(2) defines a Limit Order as an order to buy or sell a stated amount of a security at a specified price or better. Unless otherwise specified, the working price and the display price of a Limit Order equal the limit price of the order, it is eligible to be routed, and it is ranked Priority 2—Display Orders.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) currently provides that a marketable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) before routing to the PBO (PBB) and may route to prices higher (lower) than the PBO (PBB) only after trading with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book at each price point. Once no longer marketable, the Limit Order will be ranked and displayed on the Exchange Book.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to provide that routable Limit Orders would no longer operate as described in current Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A), but would instead function like an Inside Limit Order as described in current Rule 7.31E(a)(3).</P>
                <P>
                    Rule 7.31E(a)(3) defines an Inside Limit Order as a Limit Order that is to be traded at the best price obtainable 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40631"/>
                    without trading through the NBBO. On arrival, a marketable Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) is assigned a working price of the NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) before routing to the NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Once the NBO (NBB) is exhausted, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be displayed at its working price and be eligible to trade with incoming sell (buy) orders at that price. When the updated NBO (NBB) is displayed, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be assigned a new working price of the updated NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below the updated NBO (NBB) before routing to the updated NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Such assessment will continue at each new NBO (NBB) until the order is filled, no longer marketable, or the limit price is reached. Once the order is no longer marketable, it will be ranked and displayed in the Exchange Book. An Inside Limit Order may not be designated as a Limit IOC Order but may be designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order. An Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order will trade with sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) and the quantity not traded will be routed to the NBO (NBB). Any unfilled quantity not traded on the Exchange or an Away Market will be cancelled.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the Inside Limit Order is to assess away market displayed interest on a price-by-price basis, thereby slowing down the routing of such order, rather than simultaneously routing an order to away markets at potentially multiple prices as a Limit Order would. For example, if the NBBO is $10.10 by $10.12, and the Exchange receives a Limit Order to buy with a limit price of $10.15, in addition to executing with the interest on the Exchange Book, the Exchange will route the balance of the order to all protected quotes, including quotes with an inferior price than the NBO (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     any protected offers priced at $10.13 or higher), up to the Limit Order price of $10.15. By contrast, an Inside Limit Order with a price of $10.15 would be matched with interest on the Exchange Book and routed only to away market interest priced at the NBO of $10.12. After routing to the $10.12 offer(s), Exchange systems will wait for the NBBO to update and then reevaluate the next best displayed offer price, and route to that single price point and continue such assessment at each price point until either the order has been filled, or there is no further interest available to satisfy the Limit Order price either at the Exchange or at away markets. The proposed change to have routable Limit Orders function as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, would eliminate routing of Limit Orders as currently described in Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) and would instead offer market participants opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO via Inside Limit Order functionality as described in Rule 7.31E(a)(3).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange is not obligated to offer order routing as currently outlined in Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders and will no longer offer such optional routing, as proposed. Accordingly, to the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to away markets at multiple price points, they remain free to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that Inside Limit Order functionality as set forth in Rule 7.31E(a)(3) has been available to market participants since 2017; the Commission has thus had the opportunity to consider this order type and any potential issues it raises. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 80590 (May 4, 2017), 82 FR 21843 (May 10, 2017) (SR-NYSEMKT-2017-01).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effect the proposed change to routable Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) so that the first sentence of the rule would provide that a marketable Limit Order will operate like an Inside Limit Order, as such order is described in Rule 7.31E(a)(3), and will be assigned a working price and display price as described in such Rule, unless otherwise specified. The Exchange proposes to delete the remainder of current Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) because, as proposed, Limit Orders would either operate as described in Rule 7.31E(a)(3) or as specified elsewhere in Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) are also intended to convey that the operation of Limit Orders that are non-routable will be as described elsewhere in Exchange rules. For example, Rule 7.31E(e)(1) and the subparagraphs thereunder describe the operation of a Non-Routable Limit Order.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because a Non-Routable Limit Order is not eligible to route, it will not, as proposed, operate as an Inside Limit Order and instead will continue to operate as specified in Rule 7.31E(e)(1). Rule 7.31E(e)(1)(A) specifies that a Non-Routable Limit Order will not be displayed at a price that would lock or cross the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market and that a Non-Routable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book priced equal to or below (above) the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market. Rule 7.31E(e)(1)(A)(ii) specifies how any untraded quantity of such order would be processed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how its working price and display price would be determined) if not designated to cancel as provided for in Rule 7.31E(e)(1)(A)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rules 7.31E(b)(2)(A) (describing the Limit IOC Order); 7.31E(c) (describing the Limit-on-Open Order, Limit-on-Close Order, and Imbalance Offset Order); 7.31E(d)(2) (describing the Non-Displayed Limit Order); 7.31E(d)(3) (describing the Mid-Point Liquidity Order); 7.31E(d)(4) (describing the Tracking Order); 7.31E(e)(2) (describing the ALO Order); 7.31E(e)(3) (describing the Intermarket Sweep Order); 7.31E(f)(1)-(f)(3) (describing the Primary Only Order, Primary Until 9:45 Order, and Primary After 3:55 Order, when routing to primary listing markets); 7.31E(f)(4) (describing the Directed Order); 7.31E(h) (describing Pegged Orders).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, further to the proposed deletion of certain text in Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) that describes the behavior of Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31E(b)(2)(A) to ensure that this rule clearly describes the behavior of Limit IOC Orders. In Rule 7.31E(b)(2)(A), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit IOC Order is a Limit Order to buy (sell) designated IOC, that is to be traded in whole or in part on the Exchange with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) as soon as such order is received. This proposed change does not reflect any change to this order type and is intended only to add clarity in this rule regarding how the order type currently functions.</P>
                <P>The following example illustrates how a routable Limit Order operates under current Exchange rules and how it would operate, as proposed:</P>
                <P>Assume the offer on Away Market 1 is for 100 shares at $10.12 and the offer on Away Market 2 is for 100 shares at $10.15. Order 1 on the Exchange is a Limit Order to sell 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2, a Limit Order to buy 300 shares at $10.15, arrives at the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Under current Exchange rules, Order 2 would trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11, then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, then route to Away Market 2 to trade 100 shares at $10.15.</P>
                <P>
                    As proposed, with Order 2 now operating like an Inside Limit Order, Order 2 would still first trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2 would then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, but the remaining 100 shares of Order 2 would be displayed on the Exchange Book at 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40632"/>
                    $10.12 instead of routing to trade on Away Market 2 at $10.15.
                </P>
                <P>Next, assume Away Market 1 updates its offer to 100 shares at $10.13. Order 2 would now route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.13, allowing it to execute at a better price than if it had routed to Away Market 2 to trade at $10.15 instead of waiting for an updated away offer.</P>
                <P>Because of the technology changes associated with the proposed change, the Exchange proposes to announce the implementation date of this change by Trader Update. Subject to approval of this proposed rule change, the Exchange anticipates that such change will be implemented before the end of the fourth quarter of 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because modifying routable Limit Orders to function like Inside Limit Orders would promote additional opportunities for market participants' orders to obtain better execution prices. Specifically, because the orders would be routed to the best displayed price, and any unfilled portion would not be routed to the next best price level until all quotes at the current best bid or offer are updated, routable Limit Orders would, by default, be afforded additional opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO. The Exchange believes that the proposed change to have routable Limit Orders instead function as Inside Limit Orders is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, even though Limit Orders would no longer route as currently described in Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A). Although market participants directing Limit Orders to the Exchange may not receive as many executions or have their orders executed as quickly (or be able to meet certain regulatory obligations), as proposed, the Exchange believes they are likely to benefit from better-priced executions as a result of their orders waiting for changes to the NBBO before trading. As noted above, order routing as currently described in Rule 7.31E(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders is an optional functionality that the Exchange is not required to offer, and the proposed rule change would result in such functionality no longer being available on the Exchange. To the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they continue to have the option to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to enhance trading opportunities for market participants by modifying routable Limit Orders to behave as Inside Limit Orders. To the extent the proposed change facilitates improved execution opportunities for market participants, it could promote competition among equities exchanges by making the Exchange a more attractive venue for order execution.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-52 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-52. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">
                        https://www.sec.gov/
                        <PRTPAGE P="40633"/>
                        rules/sro.shtml
                    </E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-52 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13355 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105799; File No. SR-NYSE-2026-30]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 7.31. Orders and Modifiers</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 16, 2026, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) relating to Limit Orders and Discretionary Orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes amendments to Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) to (1) provide for the operation of routable Limit Orders as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, and (2) specify that all Discretionary Orders (“D Orders”) will be non-routable. The Exchange also proposes conforming changes to Rules 7.31 and 7.35 in connection with the proposed change to D Orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Routable Limit Orders</HD>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2) defines a Limit Order as an order to buy or sell a stated amount of a security at a specified price or better. Unless otherwise specified, the working price and the display price of a Limit Order equal the limit price of the order, it is eligible to be routed, and it is ranked Priority 2—Display Orders.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) currently provides that a marketable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) before routing to the PBO (PBB) and may route to prices higher (lower) than the PBO (PBB) only after trading with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book at each price point. Once no longer marketable, the Limit Order will be ranked and displayed on the Exchange Book.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to provide that routable Limit Orders would no longer operate as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A), but would instead function like an Inside Limit Order as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(3). Rule 7.31(a)(3) defines an Inside Limit Order as a Limit Order that is to be traded at the best price obtainable without trading through the NBBO. On arrival, a marketable Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) is assigned a working price of the NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) before routing to the NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Once the NBO (NBB) is exhausted, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be displayed at its working price and be eligible to trade with incoming sell (buy) orders at that price. When the updated NBO (NBB) is displayed, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be assigned a new working price of the updated NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below the updated NBO (NBB) before routing to the updated NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Such assessment will continue at each new NBO (NBB) until the order is filled, no longer marketable, or the limit price is reached. Once the order is no longer marketable, it will be ranked and displayed in the Exchange Book. An Inside Limit Order may not be designated as a Limit IOC Order but may be designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order. An Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order will trade with sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) and the quantity not traded will be routed to the NBO (NBB). Any unfilled quantity not traded on the Exchange or an Away Market will be cancelled.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the Inside Limit Order is to assess away market displayed interest on a price-by-price basis, thereby slowing down the routing of such order, rather than simultaneously routing an order to away markets at potentially multiple prices as a Limit Order would. For example, if the NBBO is $10.10 by $10.12, and the Exchange receives a Limit Order to buy with a limit price of $10.15, in addition to executing with the interest on the Exchange Book, the Exchange will route the balance of the order to all protected quotes, including quotes with an inferior price than the NBO (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     any protected offers priced at $10.13 or higher), up to the Limit Order price of $10.15. By contrast, an Inside Limit Order with a price of $10.15 would be matched with interest on the Exchange Book and routed only to away market interest priced at the NBO of $10.12. After routing to the $10.12 offer(s), Exchange systems will wait for the NBBO to update and then reevaluate the next best displayed offer price, and route to that single price point and continue such assessment at each price point until either the order has been filled, or there is no further interest available to satisfy the Limit Order price either at the Exchange or at away 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40634"/>
                    markets. The proposed change to have routable Limit Orders function as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, would eliminate routing of Limit Orders as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) and would instead offer market participants opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO via Inside Limit Order functionality as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange is not obligated to offer order routing as currently outlined in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders and will no longer offer such optional routing, as proposed. Accordingly, to the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they remain free to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that Inside Limit Order functionality as set forth in Rule 7.31(a)(3) has been available to market participants since 2022; the Commission has thus had the opportunity to consider this order type and any potential issues it raises. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 94030 (January 24, 2022), 87 FR 4695 (January 28, 2022) (SR-NYSE-2022-05) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Modify Rule 7.31 To Provide for Inside Limit Orders and Make Other Conforming Changes).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effect the proposed change to routable Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) so that the first sentence of the rule would provide that a marketable Limit Order will operate like an Inside Limit Order, as such order is described in Rule 7.31(a)(3), and will be assigned a working price and display price as described in such Rule, unless otherwise specified. The Exchange proposes to delete the remainder of current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) because, as proposed, Limit Orders would either operate as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3) or as specified elsewhere in Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) are also intended to convey that the operation of Limit Orders that are non-routable will be as described elsewhere in Exchange rules. For example, Rule 7.31(e)(1) and the subparagraphs thereunder describe the operation of a Non-Routable Limit Order.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because a Non-Routable Limit Order is not eligible to route, it will not, as proposed, operate as an Inside Limit Order and instead will continue to operate as specified in Rule 7.31(e)(1). Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A) specifies that a Non-Routable Limit Order will not be displayed at a price that would lock or cross the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market and that a Non-Routable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book priced equal to or below (above) the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market. Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(ii) specifies how any untraded quantity of such order would be processed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how its working price and display price would be determined) if not designated to cancel as provided for in Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                         Rules 7.31(b)(2)(A) (describing the Limit IOC Order); 7.31(c) (describing the Limit-on-Open Order, Opening D Order, Issuer Direct Offering Order, Limit-on-Close Order, and Closing Imbalance Offset Order); 7.31(d)(2) (describing the Non-Displayed Limit Order); 7.31(d)(3) (describing the Mid-Point Liquidity Order); 7.31(d)(4) (describing Discretionary Orders, which may only be non-routable as proposed in this filing); 7.31(d)(5) (describing the Capital Commitment Order); 7.31(e)(2) (describing the ALO Order); 7.31(e)(3) (describing the Intermarket Sweep Order); 7.31(f)(1) (describing the Directed Order) 7.31(h) (describing Pegged Orders); 7.44 (describing the Retail Order and Retail Price Improvement Order).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, further to the proposed deletion of certain text in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) that describes the behavior of Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rules 7.31(b)(2)(A) and 7.35(d)(4)(A)(i) to ensure that these rules clearly describe the behavior of Limit IOC Orders and Limit Price D Orders, respectively. In Rule 7.31(b)(2)(A), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit IOC Order is a Limit Order to buy (sell) designated IOC, that is to be traded in whole or in part on the Exchange with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) as soon as such order is received. In Rule 7.35(d)(4)(A)(i) (in addition to the changes proposed below), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit Price D Order to buy (sell) would, on arrival, trade with sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book up (down) to the lower (higher) of the PBO (PBB) or the limit price of the order. These proposed changes do not reflect any changes to these order types and are intended only to add clarity in these rules regarding how these order types currently function.</P>
                <P>The following example illustrates how a routable Limit Order operates under current Exchange rules and how it would operate, as proposed:</P>
                <P>Assume the offer on Away Market 1 is for 100 shares at $10.12 and the offer on Away Market 2 is for 100 shares at $10.15. Order 1 on the Exchange is a Limit Order to sell 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2, a Limit Order to buy 300 shares at $10.15, arrives at the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Under current Exchange rules, Order 2 would trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11, then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, then route to Away Market 2 to trade 100 shares at $10.15.</P>
                <P>As proposed, with Order 2 now operating like an Inside Limit Order, Order 2 would still first trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2 would then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, but the remaining 100 shares of Order 2 would be displayed on the Exchange Book at $10.12 instead of routing to trade on Away Market 2 at $10.15.</P>
                <P>Next, assume Away Market 1 updates its offer to 100 shares at $10.13. Order 2 would now route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.13, allowing it to execute at a better price than if it had routed to Away Market 2 to trade at $10.15 instead of waiting for an updated away offer.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D Orders</HD>
                <P>Rule 7.31(d)(4) defines a D Order as a Limit Order that may trade at an undisplayed discretionary price. A D Order must be designated Day and, currently, may be designated as routable or non-routable. A D Order is available only to Floor Brokers and is eligible to be traded in the Core Trading Session only.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(d)(4) to provide that D Orders may only be non-routable. Eliminating routable D Orders would remove optional functionality that is not currently utilized by Floor Brokers, thereby streamlining Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also proposes the following conforming changes in Rules 7.31 and 7.35 to eliminate references to the routing of D Orders:</P>
                <P>• In Rule 7.31(d)(4)(A)(i), which describes the Limit Price D Order, the Exchange proposes to delete text in the first and second sentences of the rule that refers to routing such orders. The Exchange also proposes to delete the last sentence of this rule, which describes the treatment of a Limit Price D Order that is partially routed to an Away Market on arrival.</P>
                <P>• In Rule 7.31(d)(4)(A)(ii), which describes the Midpoint Price D Order, the Exchange proposes to delete the second sentence of the rule, which currently provides that a Midpoint Price D Order does not route on arrival.</P>
                <P>
                    • In Rule 7.35(f)(3)(A)(i), which describes order processing following the transition to continuous trading, the Exchange proposes to delete the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40635"/>
                    parenthetical referencing routable D Orders.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Exchange also proposes a non-substantive change to delete an extraneous semicolon in Rule 7.35(f)(3)(A)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <STARS/>
                <P>Because of the technology changes associated with the proposed changes, the Exchange proposes to announce the implementation date of these changes by Trader Update. Subject to approval of this proposed rule change, the Exchange anticipates that such changes will be implemented before the end of the fourth quarter of 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change with respect to routable Limit Orders is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because modifying routable Limit Orders to function like Inside Limit Orders would promote additional opportunities for market participants' orders to obtain better execution prices. Specifically, because the orders would be routed to the best displayed price, and any unfilled portion would not be routed to the next best price level until all quotes at the current best bid or offer are updated, routable Limit Orders would, by default, be afforded additional opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO. The Exchange believes that the proposed change to have routable Limit Orders instead function as Inside Limit Orders is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, even though Limit Orders would no longer route as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A). Although market participants directing Limit Orders to the Exchange may not receive as many executions or have their orders executed as quickly (or be able to meet certain regulatory obligations), as proposed, the Exchange believes they are likely to benefit from better-priced executions as a result of their orders waiting for changes to the NBBO before trading. As noted above, order routing as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders is an optional functionality that the Exchange is not required to offer, and the proposed rule change would result in such functionality no longer being available on the Exchange. To the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they continue to have the option to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed change with respect to D Orders (and the related conforming changes) is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest because it would update the Exchange's rules to remove functionality that has not been utilized by Floor Brokers. As noted above, this proposed change would only eliminate optional functionality that Floor Brokers have not chosen to use.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to enhance trading opportunities for market participants by modifying routable Limit Orders to behave as Inside Limit Orders. To the extent the proposed change facilitates improved execution opportunities for market participants, it could promote competition among equities exchanges by making the Exchange a more attractive venue for order execution. The proposed change with respect to D Orders is intended to streamline Exchange rules by removing functionality that has been underutilized by Floor Brokers, rather than to address any competitive issue.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                    <PRTPAGE P="40636"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov</E>
                    . Please include file number SR-NYSE-2026-30 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2026-30. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2026-30 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13356 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3235-0756]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Extension: Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) Written Representation as to Purchaser Residency</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget this request for extension of the previously approved collection of information discussed below.
                </P>
                <P>Rule 147 (17 CFR 230.147) provides a safe harbor pursuant to which an offering will be deemed to be in compliance with Section 3(a)(11) of the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”), which provides an exemption from the Securities Act's registration requirements for intrastate offerings. Rule 147 is intended to facilitate intrastate and regional securities offerings. Among other things, Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) requires issuers relying on the rule to “obtain a written representation from each purchaser as to his or her residence.” The written representation required under Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) is intended to help ensure that the issuer's offering is, in fact, an intrastate offering. The information required by Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) is mandatory, and although the information required by Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) is not publicly filed with the Commission, there are no assurances of confidentiality provided with respect to such information. Approximately 700 respondents provide the information required by Rule 147(f)(1)(iii) annually at an estimated 2.75 hours per response and $150 per response for a total annual reporting burden of 1,925 hours (2.75 hours per response × 700 responses annually) and a total annual cost burden of $105,000 ($150 per response × 700 responses annually).</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <P>
                    The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202604-3235-004</E>
                     or send an email comment to 
                    <E T="03">MBX.OMB.OIRA.SEC_desk_officer@omb.eop.gov</E>
                     within 30 days of the day after publication of this notice by August 3, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13457 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3235-0757]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Extension: Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) Written Representation as to Purchaser Residency</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget this request for extension of the previously approved collection of information discussed below.
                </P>
                <P>Rule 147A (17 CFR 230.147A) provides an exemption from registration under Section 5 of the Securities Act of 1933 for certain intrastate offerings. Rule 147A is intended to facilitate intrastate and regional securities offerings. Among other things, Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) requires issuers relying on the rule to “obtain a written representation from each purchaser as to his or her residence.” The written representation required under Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) is intended to help ensure that the issuer's offering is, in fact, an intrastate offering. The information required by Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) is mandatory, and although the information required by Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) is not publicly filed with the Commission, there are no assurances of confidentiality provided with respect to such information. Approximately 700 respondents provide the information required by Rule 147A(f)(1)(iii) annually at an estimated 2.75 hours per response and $150 per response for a total annual reporting burden of 1,925 hours (2.75 hours per response × 700 responses annually) and a total annual cost burden of $105,000 ($150 per response × 700 responses annually).</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <P>
                    The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202604-3235-005</E>
                     or send an email comment to 
                    <E T="03">MBX.OMB.OIRA.SEC_desk_officer@omb.eop.gov</E>
                     within 30 days of the day 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40637"/>
                    after publication of this notice by August 3, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13456 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105795; File No. SR-NYSETEX-2026-23]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Texas, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 7.31, Orders and Modifiers</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that, on June 16, 2026, the NYSE Texas, Inc. (“NYSE Texas” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) relating to Limit Orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) to provide for the operation of routable Limit Orders as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2) defines a Limit Order as an order to buy or sell a stated amount of a security at a specified price or better. Unless otherwise specified, the working price and the display price of a Limit Order equal the limit price of the order, it is eligible to be routed, and it is ranked Priority 2—Display Orders.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) currently provides that a marketable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) before routing to the PBO (PBB) and may route to prices higher (lower) than the PBO (PBB) only after trading with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book at each price point. Once no longer marketable, the Limit Order will be ranked and displayed on the Exchange Book.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to provide that routable Limit Orders would no longer operate as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A), but would instead function like an Inside Limit Order as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(3).</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(3) defines an Inside Limit Order as a Limit Order that is to be traded at the best price obtainable without trading through the NBBO. On arrival, a marketable Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) is assigned a working price of the NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) before routing to the NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Once the NBO (NBB) is exhausted, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be displayed at its working price and be eligible to trade with incoming sell (buy) orders at that price. When the updated NBO (NBB) is displayed, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be assigned a new working price of the updated NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below the updated NBO (NBB) before routing to the updated NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Such assessment will continue at each new NBO (NBB) until the order is filled, no longer marketable, or the limit price is reached. Once the order is no longer marketable, it will be ranked and displayed in the Exchange Book. An Inside Limit Order may not be designated as a Limit IOC Order but may be designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order. An Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order will trade with sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) and the quantity not traded will be routed to the NBO (NBB). Any unfilled quantity not traded on the Exchange or an Away Market will be cancelled.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the Inside Limit Order is to assess away market displayed interest on a price-by-price basis, thereby slowing down the routing of such order, rather than simultaneously routing an order to away markets at potentially multiple prices as a Limit Order would. For example, if the NBBO is $10.10 by $10.12, and the Exchange receives a Limit Order to buy with a limit price of $10.15, in addition to executing with the interest on the Exchange Book, the Exchange will route the balance of the order to all protected quotes, including quotes with an inferior price than the NBO (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     any protected offers priced at $10.13 or higher), up to the Limit Order price of $10.15. By contrast, an Inside Limit Order with a price of $10.15 would be matched with interest on the Exchange Book and routed only to away market interest priced at the NBO of $10.12. After routing to the $10.12 offer(s), Exchange systems will wait for the NBBO to update and then reevaluate the next best displayed offer price, and route to that single price point and continue such assessment at each price point until either the order has been filled, or there is no further interest available to satisfy the Limit Order price either at the Exchange or at away markets. The proposed change to have routable Limit Orders function as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, would eliminate routing of Limit Orders as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) and would instead offer market participants opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO via Inside Limit Order functionality as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange is not obligated to offer order routing as currently outlined in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders and will no longer offer such optional routing, as proposed. Accordingly, to the extent market participants wish to have 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40638"/>
                    routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to away markets at multiple price points, they remain free to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that Inside Limit Order functionality as set forth in Rule 7.31(a)(3) has been available to market participants since 2019; the Commission has thus had the opportunity to consider this order type and any potential issues it raises. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 87264 (October 9, 2019), 84 FR 55345 (October 16, 2019) (SR-NYSECHX-2019-08).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effect the proposed change to routable Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) so that the first sentence of the rule would provide that a marketable Limit Order will operate like an Inside Limit Order, as such order is described in Rule 7.31(a)(3), and will be assigned a working price and display price as described in such Rule, unless otherwise specified. The Exchange proposes to delete the remainder of current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) because, as proposed, Limit Orders would either operate as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3) or as specified elsewhere in Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) are also intended to convey that the operation of Limit Orders that are non-routable will be as described elsewhere in Exchange rules. For example, Rule 7.31(e)(1) and the subparagraphs thereunder describe the operation of a Non-Routable Limit Order.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because a Non-Routable Limit Order is not eligible to route, it will not, as proposed, operate as an Inside Limit Order and instead will continue to operate as specified in Rule 7.31(e)(1). Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A) specifies that a Non-Routable Limit Order will not be displayed at a price that would lock or cross the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market and that a Non-Routable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book priced equal to or below (above) the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market. Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(ii) specifies how any untraded quantity of such order would be processed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how its working price and display price would be determined) if not designated to cancel as provided for in Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rules 7.31(b)(2)(A) (describing the Limit IOC Order); 7.31(c) (describing the Limit-on-Open Order, Limit-on-Close Order, and Imbalance Offset Order); 7.31(d)(2) (describing the Non-Displayed Limit Order); 7.31(d)(3) (describing the Mid-Point Liquidity Order); 7.31(d)(4) (describing the Tracking Order); 7.31(e)(2) (describing the ALO Order); 7.31(e)(3) (describing the Intermarket Sweep Order); 7.31(f)(1)-(f)(3) (describing the Primary Only Order, Primary Until 9:45 Order, and Primary After 3:55 Order, when routing to the primary listing market); 7.31(f)(4) (describing the Directed Order); 7.31(g) (describing Cross Orders); 7.31(h) (describing Pegged Orders).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, further to the proposed deletion of certain text in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) that describes the behavior of Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(b)(2)(A) to ensure that this rule clearly describes the behavior of Limit IOC Orders. In Rule 7.31(b)(2)(A), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit IOC Order is a Limit Order to buy (sell) designated IOC, that is to be traded in whole or in part on the Exchange with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) as soon as such order is received. This proposed change does not reflect any change to this order type and is intended only to add clarity in this rule regarding how the order type currently functions.</P>
                <P>The following example illustrates how a routable Limit Order operates under current Exchange rules and how it would operate, as proposed:</P>
                <P>Assume the offer on Away Market 1 is for 100 shares at $10.12 and the offer on Away Market 2 is for 100 shares at $10.15. Order 1 on the Exchange is a Limit Order to sell 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2, a Limit Order to buy 300 shares at $10.15, arrives at the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Under current Exchange rules, Order 2 would trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11, then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, then route to Away Market 2 to trade 100 shares at $10.15.</P>
                <P>As proposed, with Order 2 now operating like an Inside Limit Order, Order 2 would still first trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2 would then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, but the remaining 100 shares of Order 2 would be displayed on the Exchange Book at $10.12 instead of routing to trade on Away Market 2 at $10.15.</P>
                <P>Next, assume Away Market 1 updates its offer to 100 shares at $10.13. Order 2 would now route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.13, allowing it to execute at a better price than if it had routed to Away Market 2 to trade at $10.15 instead of waiting for an updated away offer.</P>
                <P>Because of the technology changes associated with the proposed change, the Exchange proposes to announce the implementation date of this change by Trader Update. Subject to approval of this proposed rule change, the Exchange anticipates that such change will be implemented before the end of the fourth quarter of 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because modifying routable Limit Orders to function like Inside Limit Orders would promote additional opportunities for market participants' orders to obtain better execution prices. Specifically, because the orders would be routed to the best displayed price, and any unfilled portion would not be routed to the next best price level until all quotes at the current best bid or offer are updated, routable Limit Orders would, by default, be afforded additional opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO. The Exchange believes that the proposed change to have routable Limit Orders instead function as Inside Limit Orders is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, even though Limit Orders would no longer route as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A). Although market participants directing Limit Orders to the Exchange may not receive as many executions or have their orders executed as quickly (or be able to meet certain regulatory obligations), as proposed, the Exchange believes they are likely to benefit from better-priced executions as a result of their orders waiting for changes to the NBBO before trading. As noted above, order routing as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders is an optional functionality that the Exchange is not required to offer, and the proposed rule change would result in such functionality no longer being available on the Exchange. To the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they continue to have the option to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40639"/>
                    obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to enhance trading opportunities for market participants by modifying routable Limit Orders to behave as Inside Limit Orders. To the extent the proposed change facilitates improved execution opportunities for market participants, it could promote competition among equities exchanges by making the Exchange a more attractive venue for order execution.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-23 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-23. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-23 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13352 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105796; File No. SR-NYSENAT-2026-19]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE National, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 7.31, Orders and Modifiers</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 16, 2026, NYSE National, Inc. (“NYSE National” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) relating to Limit Orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) to provide for the operation of routable Limit Orders as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40640"/>
                </P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2) defines a Limit Order as an order to buy or sell a stated amount of a security at a specified price or better. Unless otherwise specified, the working price and the display price of a Limit Order equal the limit price of the order, it is eligible to be routed, and it is ranked Priority 2—Display Orders.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) currently provides that a marketable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) before routing to the PBO (PBB) and may route to prices higher (lower) than the PBO (PBB) only after trading with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book at each price point. Once no longer marketable, the Limit Order will be ranked and displayed on the Exchange Book.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to provide that routable Limit Orders would no longer operate as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A), but would instead function like an Inside Limit Order as described in current Rule 7.31(a)(3).</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31(a)(3) defines an Inside Limit Order as a Limit Order that is to be traded at the best price obtainable without trading through the NBBO. On arrival, a marketable Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) is assigned a working price of the NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) before routing to the NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Once the NBO (NBB) is exhausted, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be displayed at its working price and be eligible to trade with incoming sell (buy) orders at that price. When the updated NBO (NBB) is displayed, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be assigned a new working price of the updated NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below the updated NBO (NBB) before routing to the updated NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Such assessment will continue at each new NBO (NBB) until the order is filled, no longer marketable, or the limit price is reached. Once the order is no longer marketable, it will be ranked and displayed in the Exchange Book. An Inside Limit Order may not be designated as a Limit IOC Order but may be designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order. An Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order will trade with sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) and the quantity not traded will be routed to the NBO (NBB). Any unfilled quantity not traded on the Exchange or an Away Market will be cancelled.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the Inside Limit Order is to assess away market displayed interest on a price-by-price basis, thereby slowing down the routing of such order, rather than simultaneously routing an order to away markets at potentially multiple prices as a Limit Order would. For example, if the NBBO is $10.10 by $10.12, and the Exchange receives a Limit Order to buy with a limit price of $10.15, in addition to executing with the interest on the Exchange Book, the Exchange will route the balance of the order to all protected quotes, including quotes with an inferior price than the NBO (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     any protected offers priced at $10.13 or higher), up to the Limit Order price of $10.15. By contrast, an Inside Limit Order with a price of $10.15 would be matched with interest on the Exchange Book and routed only to away market interest priced at the NBO of $10.12. After routing to the $10.12 offer(s), Exchange systems will wait for the NBBO to update and then reevaluate the next best displayed offer price, and route to that single price point and continue such assessment at each price point until either the order has been filled, or there is no further interest available to satisfy the Limit Order price either at the Exchange or at away markets. The proposed change to have routable Limit Orders function as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, would eliminate routing of Limit Orders as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) and would instead offer market participants opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO via Inside Limit Order functionality as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange is not obligated to offer order routing as currently outlined in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders and will no longer offer such optional routing, as proposed. Accordingly, to the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to away markets at multiple price points, they remain free to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that Inside Limit Order functionality as set forth in Rule 7.31(a)(3) has been available to market participants since 2018; the Commission has thus had the opportunity to consider this order type and any potential issues it raises. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83289 (May 17, 2018), 83 FR 23968 (May 23, 2018) (SR-NYSENAT-2018-02).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effect the proposed change to routable Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) so that the first sentence of the rule would provide that a marketable Limit Order will operate like an Inside Limit Order, as such order is described in Rule 7.31(a)(3), and will be assigned a working price and display price as described in such Rule, unless otherwise specified. The Exchange proposes to delete the remainder of current Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) because, as proposed, Limit Orders would either operate as described in Rule 7.31(a)(3) or as specified elsewhere in Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) are also intended to convey that the operation of Limit Orders that are non-routable will be as described elsewhere in Exchange rules. For example, Rule 7.31(e)(1) and the subparagraphs thereunder describe the operation of a Non-Routable Limit Order.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because a Non-Routable Limit Order is not eligible to route, it will not, as proposed, operate as an Inside Limit Order and instead will continue to operate as specified in Rule 7.31(e)(1). Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A) specifies that a Non-Routable Limit Order will not be displayed at a price that would lock or cross the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market and that a Non-Routable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book priced equal to or below (above) the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market. Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(ii) specifies how any untraded quantity of such order would be processed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how its working price and display price would be determined) if not designated to cancel as provided for in Rule 7.31(e)(1)(A)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rules 7.31(b)(2)(A) (describing the Limit IOC Order); 7.31(c) (describing the Limit-on-Open Order and Limit-on-Close Order); 7.31(d)(2) (describing the Non-Displayed Limit Order); 7.31(d)(3) (describing the Mid-Point Liquidity Order); 7.31(d)(4) (describing the Tracking Order); 7.31(e)(2) (describing the ALO Order); 7.31(e)(3) (describing the Intermarket Sweep Order); 7.31(f)(1)-(f)(3) (describing the Primary Only Order, Primary Until 9:45 Order, and Primary After 3:55 Order, when routing to primary listing markets); 7.31(f)(4) (describing the Directed Order); 7.31(h) (describing Pegged Orders); 7.44 (describing Retail Orders).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, further to the proposed deletion of certain text in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) that describes the behavior of Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31(b)(2)(A) to ensure that this rule clearly describes the behavior of Limit IOC Orders. In Rule 7.31(b)(2)(A), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit IOC Order is a Limit Order to buy (sell) designated IOC, that is to be traded in whole or in part on the Exchange with all sell (buy) orders on the Exchange Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) as soon as such order is received. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40641"/>
                    This proposed change does not reflect any change to this order type and is intended only to add clarity in this rule regarding how the order type currently functions.
                </P>
                <P>The following example illustrates how a routable Limit Order operates under current Exchange rules and how it would operate, as proposed:</P>
                <P>Assume the offer on Away Market 1 is for 100 shares at $10.12 and the offer on Away Market 2 is for 100 shares at $10.15. Order 1 on the Exchange is a Limit Order to sell 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2, a Limit Order to buy 300 shares at $10.15, arrives at the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Under current Exchange rules, Order 2 would trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11, then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, then route to Away Market 2 to trade 100 shares at $10.15.</P>
                <P>As proposed, with Order 2 now operating like an Inside Limit Order, Order 2 would still first trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2 would then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, but the remaining 100 shares of Order 2 would be displayed on the Exchange Book at $10.12 instead of routing to trade on Away Market 2 at $10.15.</P>
                <P>Next, assume Away Market 1 updates its offer to 100 shares at $10.13. Order 2 would now route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.13, allowing it to execute at a better price than if it had routed to Away Market 2 to trade at $10.15 instead of waiting for an updated away offer.</P>
                <P>Because of the technology changes associated with the proposed change, the Exchange proposes to announce the implementation date of this change by Trader Update. Subject to approval of this proposed rule change, the Exchange anticipates that such change will be implemented before the end of the fourth quarter of 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because modifying routable Limit Orders to function like Inside Limit Orders would promote additional opportunities for market participants' orders to obtain better execution prices. Specifically, because the orders would be routed to the best displayed price, and any unfilled portion would not be routed to the next best price level until all quotes at the current best bid or offer are updated, routable Limit Orders would, by default, be afforded additional opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO. The Exchange believes that the proposed change to have routable Limit Orders instead function as Inside Limit Orders is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, even though Limit Orders would no longer route as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A). Although market participants directing Limit Orders to the Exchange may not receive as many executions or have their orders executed as quickly (or be able to meet certain regulatory obligations), as proposed, the Exchange believes they are likely to benefit from better-priced executions as a result of their orders waiting for changes to the NBBO before trading. As noted above, order routing as currently described in Rule 7.31(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders is an optional functionality that the Exchange is not required to offer, and the proposed rule change would result in such functionality no longer being available on the Exchange. To the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they continue to have the option to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to enhance trading opportunities for market participants by modifying routable Limit Orders to behave as Inside Limit Orders. To the extent the proposed change facilitates improved execution opportunities for market participants, it could promote competition among equities exchanges by making the Exchange a more attractive venue for order execution.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40642"/>
                    including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-19 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-19. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-19 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13353 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105794; File No. SR-DTC-2026-009]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Depository Trust Company; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Amend the Redemptions Service Guide and the Operational Arrangements (Necessary for Securities To Become and Remain Eligible for DTC Services)</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 15, 2026, The Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II and III below, which Items have been prepared by the clearing agency. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Each term not otherwise defined herein has its respective meaning as set forth in the Rules, By-Laws and Organization Certificate of DTC (“Rules”), the Redemptions Service Guide (“Redemptions Guide”), the Operational Arrangements (Necessary for Securities to Become and Remain Eligible for DTC Services) (“OA”), 
                        <E T="03">available at www.dtcc.com/legal/rules-and-procedures.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change would amend the Redemptions Guide 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the OA to update Payment without Presentation (“PWP”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a DTC process which permits Agents to remit maturity or full call proceeds to DTC without requiring delivery of the associated physical certificate and allows them to rely instead on DTC's book-entry records of entitlement. The proposed rule change would (i) eliminate the need for a Letter of Transmittal (“LT”) 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or the presentment of certain other physical documents; (ii) codify into the Rules the existing process by which Agents opt-in to receive automated notifications; (iii) make participation in the PWP process mandatory with opt-out only where necessary; (iv) establish retention and destruction protocols; and (v) make clarifying and conforming changes, as more fully described below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Redemptions Guide is a Procedure of DTC. Pursuant to the DTC Rules, the term “Procedures” means the Procedures, service guides, and regulations of DTC adopted pursuant to DTC Rule 27 (Procedures), as amended from time to time. DTC Rule 1 (Definitions; Governing Law), Section 1, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3. They are binding on DTC and each Participant in the same manner that they are bound by the Rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 44169 (Apr. 10, 2001), 66 FR 19592 (Apr. 16, 2001) (SR-DTC-99-6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The LT is the form used by Agents to confirm information about Securities to be redeemed and provides the paying agent with payment instructions. OA, Article V.A. (Redemptions, Advance Refundings, and Calls Inclusive of Sinking Funds and Mandatory Redemptions), 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(A) Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change would amend the Redemptions Guide and the OA to update PWP, a DTC process which permits Agents to remit maturity or full call proceeds to DTC without requiring delivery of the associated physical certificate and allows them to rely instead on DTC's book-entry records of entitlement. The proposed rule change would (i) eliminate the need for an LT or the presentment of certain other physical documents; (ii) codify into the Rules the existing process by which Agents opt-in to receive automated notifications; (iii) make participation in the PWP process mandatory with opt-out only where necessary; (iv) establish retention and destruction protocols; and (v) make clarifying and conforming changes, as more fully described below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(i) Background</HD>
                <P>DTC makes eligible for deposit, processes and holds physical debt certificates on behalf of its Participants. DTC also facilitates the redemption and maturity of securities by interfacing with Agents to collect and distribute proceeds.</P>
                <P>Under the current process for redeeming a debt security at maturity, DTC presents a physical debt certificate and an LT to the Agent before redemption proceeds are released. Once the Agent receives the physical debt certificate and LT, the Agent provides the funds to DTC. DTC then allocates the proceeds to Participants and deletes their positions from DTC's records.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change would update the PWP process to eliminate the requirement for physical certificate presentment and related physical documentation for eligible redemption and maturity events. More specifically, under the proposed update, Agents may continue to opt-in to receive automated notifications that identify the relevant security (including CUSIP), payment date, and amount due. These notifications are sent to agents electronically prior to the event taking place. Agents must opt-in to receive 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40643"/>
                    these notifications by sending an email to the redemptions operations team. However, the physical certificates associated with such redemption or maturity events would no longer be delivered to Agents. Instead, Agents would remit proceeds to DTC without requiring delivery of physical certificates or LT. DTC would continue to allocate redemption proceeds to Participants based on its book-entry records and remove positions from its records following payment. Meanwhile, the associated physical certificates would be segregated, imaged for record retention purposes, retained for at least 90-days following redemption, and subsequently destroyed in accordance with DTC's established procedures.
                </P>
                <P>Participation in this PWP process would be mandatory for all eligible fully registered debt securities represented by a physical certificate held at DTC and registered in the name of Cede &amp; Co., with an opportunity for opt-out only where necessary (A) to comply with a state statute, court order, or other legal or regulatory requirement, or (B) where the Agent is a governmental entity or an authorized representative thereof that requires physical presentment in connection with its obligations. Any such opt-out must be provided to DTC in writing and would be limited in scope to the affected securities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(ii) Proposed Rule Changes</HD>
                <P>To effectuate the proposed rule change, DTC would update the Redemptions Guide and the OA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Redemptions Guide Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change would amend the “About Maturities,” “About Redemptions,” and “Maturities” sections of the Redemptions Guide to remove references to DTC presenting physical certificates, letter of instructions, or an LT in connection with redemption or maturity events. The proposed change would also remove “or electronic file of expected payments due” from the “About Redemptions” section because the new “automated notification” language provides the same information regarding expected payments due.</P>
                <P>
                    Instead, under the proposed language, DTC would provide specific payment details (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     CUSIP number, payment date, amount due, etc.) to redemption agents via automated notification upon Agents opting to receive the information, as they do today.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">OA Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed revisions would make several changes to the “Redemption Payments without Presentation (“PWP”)” section of the OA:</P>
                <P>• substitute “paying agent” in two separate locations with “Agent” because “Agent” is a defined term that encompasses several types of Agents;</P>
                <P>• substitute “BEO” issues with “non-FAST” issues to encompass all certificated bond asset types;</P>
                <P>• include securities certificates and LTs in the list of physical documents that would not be provided;</P>
                <P>• clarify that either or both “the Agent and/or Issuer” may review the details prior to the redemption date;</P>
                <P>• add language that, “In the case of non-FAST issues, securities certificates will be maintained for at least 90 days following the redemption date, after which they will be destroyed” to ensure all associated payments have been successfully completed and to reduce the risk of subsequent payment reclamations due to agent allocation errors, in alignment with existing certificates of deposit processes.</P>
                <P>• add language stating that participation in the PWP process would be mandatory for all eligible, fully registered debt securities represented by a physical certificate held at DTC and registered in the name of Cede &amp; Co., but would provide an opportunity for opt-out, if provided in writing, only where necessary under the two circumstances described above.</P>
                <P>The following language would be deleted from Article V.A. of the OA to eliminate the use of all physical documentation in connection with redemption or maturity events:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Automated CUSIP level identification must accompany all redemption payments to DTC. Agents must include the CUSIP number, DTC's RPS form number, or DTC's Letter of Transmittal (“LT”) form number to identify all redemption payments. The LT is the form used by paying agents to confirm information about Securities to be redeemed and provides the paying agent with payment instructions. </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    Instead, as noted in the “Redemption Payments without Presentation (“PWP”)” section of the OA, Agents may opt-in to receive DTC specific payment details (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     CUSIP number, payment date, amount due, etc.) for upcoming redemption payments via automated notification in lieu of DTC's physical presentment of applicable documents.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Implementation Timeframe</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change would be implemented by December 31, 2026, with the specific date being announced by Important Notice no later than 14 Business Days prior to such date. A legend would be added to the OA and the Redemptions Guide stating such, and that once implemented, the legend would automatically be removed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    DTC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Exchange Act, and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a registered clearing agency. Specifically, DTC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the reasons described below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act requires, in part, that the rules of a clearing agency, such as DTC, be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, the proposed changes would (i) eliminate the need for an LT or the presentment of other physical documents; (ii) codify into the Procedures the existing process by which Agents opt-in to receive automated notifications; (iii) make participation in the PWP process mandatory with opt-out only where necessary; (iv) establish retention and destruction protocols; and (v) make clarifying and conforming changes.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By eliminating physical certificate presentment and related physical documentation in connection with eligible redemption and maturity events and by relying instead on automated notifications and DTC's book-entry records, the proposed rule change reduces the operational risk, cost, and delay associated with the handling, transportation, and reconciliation of physical certificates. In addition, the proposed process would enhance the safeguarding of securities by maintaining controlled retention and destruction procedures for physical certificates and supports more efficient and reliable redemption processing through the use of system-generated automated notifications and DTC's book-entry records. As such, DTC believes the proposed rule change would promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions by facilitating more timely, secure payments for debt securities while aligning with modernization goals shared across the industry. Therefore, DTC believes the proposed changes described above are consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40644"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(B) Clearing Agency's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>DTC does not believe that the proposed changes to the Redemptions Guide and the OA, as described above, will have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition, because as described above, DTC would continue to provide the necessary information for payments to occur but without the cumbersome and unnecessary process of delivering physical documents—an enhancement to the efficiency and safety of the redemption and maturity processing model.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(C) Clearing Agency's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The DTC has not received or solicited any written comments relating to this proposal. If any written comments are received, DTC will amend its filing to publicly file such comments as an Exhibit 2 to its filing, as required by Form 19b-4 and the General Instructions thereto.</P>
                <P>Persons submitting written comments are cautioned that, according to Section IV (Solicitation of Comments) of the Exhibit 1A in the General Instructions to Form 19b-4, the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. Commenters should submit only information that they wish to make available publicly, including their name, email address, and any other identifying information.</P>
                <P>
                    All prospective commenters should follow the Commission's instructions on how to submit comments, 
                    <E T="03">available at www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/how-submit-comment.</E>
                     General questions regarding the rule filing process or logistical questions regarding this filing should be directed to the Main Office of the Commission's Division of Trading and Markets at 
                    <E T="03">tradingandmarkets@sec.gov</E>
                     or 202-551-5777.
                </P>
                <P>DTC reserves the right to not respond to any comments received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change, and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-DTC-2026-009  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-DTC-2026-009. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of DTC and on DTCC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.dtcc.com/legal/sec-rule-filings</E>
                    ). Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-DTC-2026-009 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13362 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105797; File No. SR-NYSEARCA-2026-66]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 7.31-E, Orders and Modifiers</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 29, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 16, 2026, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31-E (Orders and Modifiers) relating to Limit Orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31-E (Orders and Modifiers) to provide for the operation of routable Limit Orders as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40645"/>
                </P>
                <P>Rule 7.31-E(a)(2) defines a Limit Order as an order to buy or sell a stated amount of a security at a specified price or better. Unless otherwise specified, the working price and the display price of a Limit Order equal the limit price of the order, it is eligible to be routed, and it is ranked Priority 2—Display Orders.</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) currently provides that a marketable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the NYSE Arca Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) before routing to the PBO (PBB) and may route to prices higher (lower) than the PBO (PBB) only after trading with orders to sell (buy) on the NYSE Arca Book at each price point. Once no longer marketable, the Limit Order will be ranked and displayed on the NYSE Arca Book.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to provide that routable Limit Orders would no longer operate as described in current Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A), but would instead function like an Inside Limit Order as described in current Rule 7.31-E(a)(3).</P>
                <P>Rule 7.31-E(a)(3) defines an Inside Limit Order as a Limit Order that is to be traded at the best price obtainable without trading through the NBBO. On arrival, a marketable Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) is assigned a working price of the NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the NYSE Arca Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) before routing to the NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Once the NBO (NBB) is exhausted, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be displayed at its working price and be eligible to trade with incoming sell (buy) orders at that price. When the updated NBO (NBB) is displayed, the Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) will be assigned a new working price of the updated NBO (NBB) and will trade with all sell (buy) orders on the NYSE Arca Book priced at or below the updated NBO (NBB) before routing to the updated NBO (NBB) on an Away Market. Such assessment will continue at each new NBO (NBB) until the order is filled, no longer marketable, or the limit price is reached. Once the order is no longer marketable, it will be ranked and displayed in the NYSE Arca Book. An Inside Limit Order may not be designated as a Limit IOC Order but may be designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order. An Inside Limit Order to buy (sell) designated as a Limit Routable IOC Order will trade with sell (buy) orders on the NYSE Arca Book priced at or below (above) the NBO (NBB) and the quantity not traded will be routed to the NBO (NBB). Any unfilled quantity not traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace or an Away Market will be cancelled.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the Inside Limit Order is to assess away market displayed interest on a price-by-price basis, thereby slowing down the routing of such order, rather than simultaneously routing an order to away markets at potentially multiple prices as a Limit Order would. For example, if the NBBO is $10.10 by $10.12, and the Exchange receives a Limit Order to buy with a limit price of $10.15, in addition to executing with the interest on the NYSE Arca Book, the Exchange will route the balance of the order to all protected quotes, including quotes with an inferior price than the NBO (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     any protected offers priced at $10.13 or higher), up to the Limit Order price of $10.15. By contrast, an Inside Limit Order with a price of $10.15 would be matched with interest on the NYSE Arca Book and routed only to away market interest priced at the NBO of $10.12. After routing to the $10.12 offer(s), Exchange systems will wait for the NBBO to update and then reevaluate the next best displayed offer price, and route to that single price point and continue such assessment at each price point until either the order has been filled, or there is no further interest available to satisfy the Limit Order price either at the Exchange or at away markets. The proposed change to have routable Limit Orders function as Inside Limit Orders, unless otherwise specified, would eliminate routing of Limit Orders as currently described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) and would instead offer market participants opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO via Inside Limit Order functionality as described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(3).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange is not obligated to offer order routing as currently outlined in Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders and will no longer offer such optional routing, as proposed. Accordingly, to the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to away markets at multiple price points, they remain free to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that Inside Limit Order functionality as set forth in Rule 7.31(a)(3) has been available to market participants since 2016; the Commission has thus had the opportunity to consider this order type and any potential issues it raises. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 76267 (October 26, 2015), 80 FR 66951 (October 30, 2015) (SR-NYSEARCA-2015-56).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effect the proposed change to routable Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) so that the first sentence of the rule would provide that a marketable Limit Order will operate like an Inside Limit Order, as such order is described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(3), and will be assigned a working price and display price as described in such Rule, unless otherwise specified. The Exchange proposes to delete the remainder of current Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) because, as proposed, Limit Orders would either operate as described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(3) or as specified elsewhere in Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) are also intended to convey that the operation of Limit Orders that are non-routable will be as described elsewhere in Exchange rules. For example, Rule 7.31-E(e)(1) and the subparagraphs thereunder describe the operation of a Non-Routable Limit Order.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because a Non-Routable Limit Order is not eligible to route, it will not, as proposed, operate as an Inside Limit Order and instead will continue to operate as specified in Rule 7.31-E(e)(1). Rule 7.31-E(e)(1)(A) specifies that a Non-Routable Limit Order will not be displayed at a price that would lock or cross the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market and that a Non-Routable Limit Order to buy (sell) will trade with orders to sell (buy) on the Exchange Book priced equal to or below (above) the PBO (PBB) of an Away Market. Rule 7.31-E(e)(1)(A)(ii) specifies how any untraded quantity of such order would be processed (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how its working price and display price would be determined) if not designated to cancel as provided for in Rule 7.31-E(e)(1)(A)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rules 7.31-E(b)(2)(A) (describing the Limit IOC Order); 7.31-E(c) (describing the Limit-on-Open Order, Limit-on-Close Order, and Imbalance Offset Order); 7.31-E(d)(2) (describing the Non-Displayed Limit Order); 7.31-E(d)(3) (describing the Mid-Point Liquidity Order); 7.31-E(d)(4) (describing the Tracking Order); 7.31-E(e)(2) (describing the ALO Order); 7.31-E(e)(3) (describing the Intermarket Sweep Order); 7.31-E(f)(1)-(f)(3) (describing Primary Only Orders, Primary Until 9:45 Orders, and Primary After 3:55 Orders, when routing to primary listing markets); 7.31-E(f)(4) (describing the Directed Order); 7.31-E(h) (describing Pegged Orders).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, further to the proposed deletion of certain text in Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) that describes the behavior of Limit Orders, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31-E(b)(2)(A) to ensure that this rule clearly describes the behavior of Limit IOC Orders. In Rule 7.31-E(b)(2)(A), the Exchange proposes to add text clarifying that a Limit IOC Order is a Limit Order to buy (sell) designated IOC, that is to be traded in whole or in part on the NYSE Arca Marketplace with all sell (buy) orders on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40646"/>
                    the NYSE Arca Book priced at or below (above) the PBO (PBB) as soon as such order is received. This proposed change does not reflect any change to this order type and is intended only to add clarity in this rule regarding how the order type currently functions.
                </P>
                <P>The following example illustrates how a routable Limit Order operates under current Exchange rules and how it would operate, as proposed:</P>
                <P>Assume the offer on Away Market 1 is for 100 shares at $10.12 and the offer on Away Market 2 is for 100 shares at $10.15. Order 1 on the Exchange is a Limit Order to sell 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2, a Limit Order to buy 300 shares at $10.15, arrives at the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Under current Exchange rules, Order 2 would trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11, then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, then route to Away Market 2 to trade 100 shares at $10.15.</P>
                <P>As proposed, with Order 2 now operating like an Inside Limit Order, Order 2 would still first trade with Order 1 for 100 shares at $10.11. Order 2 would then route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.12, but the remaining 100 shares of Order 2 would be displayed on the NYSE Arca Book at $10.12 instead of routing to trade on Away Market 2 at $10.15.</P>
                <P>Next, assume Away Market 1 updates its offer to 100 shares at $10.13. Order 2 would now route to Away Market 1 to trade 100 shares at $10.13, allowing it to execute at a better price than if it had routed to Away Market 2 to trade at $10.15 instead of waiting for an updated away offer.</P>
                <P>Because of the technology changes associated with the proposed change, the Exchange proposes to announce the implementation date of this change by Trader Update. Subject to approval of this proposed rule change, the Exchange anticipates that such change will be implemented before the end of the fourth quarter of 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because modifying routable Limit Orders to function like Inside Limit Orders would promote additional opportunities for market participants' orders to obtain better execution prices. Specifically, because the orders would be routed to the best displayed price, and any unfilled portion would not be routed to the next best price level until all quotes at the current best bid or offer are updated, routable Limit Orders would, by default, be afforded additional opportunities to obtain improved executions by waiting for changes to the NBBO. The Exchange believes that the proposed change to have routable Limit Orders instead function as Inside Limit Orders is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, even though Limit Orders would no longer route as currently described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A). Although market participants directing Limit Orders to the Exchange may not receive as many executions or have their orders executed as quickly (or be able to meet certain regulatory obligations), as proposed, the Exchange believes they are likely to benefit from better-priced executions as a result of their orders waiting for changes to the NBBO before trading. As noted above, order routing as currently described in Rule 7.31-E(a)(2)(A) for Limit Orders is an optional functionality that the Exchange is not required to offer, and the proposed rule change would result in such functionality no longer being available on the Exchange. To the extent market participants wish to have routable Limit Orders simultaneously routed to protected quotes on away markets at multiple price points, they continue to have the option to seek such functionality on other trading venues, consistent with their regulatory obligations in the handling and executing of customer orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to enhance trading opportunities for market participants by modifying routable Limit Orders to behave as Inside Limit Orders. To the extent the proposed change facilitates improved execution opportunities for market participants, it could promote competition among equities exchanges by making the Exchange a more attractive venue for order execution.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40647"/>
                    arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEARCA-2026-66 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2026-66. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2026-66 and should be submitted on or before July 23, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13354 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 33-11426; 34-105808; IC-36228; File No. S7-2026-24]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3235-AN81</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Request for Comment on Novel ETFs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Securities and Exchange Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission” or the “SEC”) requests public comment on exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”) seeking to invest in innovative asset classes or engage in novel investment strategies. We seek comment on ways to facilitate innovation in the ETF space while protecting investors, maintaining fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitating capital formation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This request for comment was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on July 2, 2026. Comments must be received on or before [60 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ].
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number S7-2026-24  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number S7-2026-24. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method of submission. The Commission will post all comments on the SEC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/public-comments/s7-2026-24</E>
                    ). Do not include personally identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. The Commission may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection.
                </FP>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Taylor Evenson, Senior Counsel; Marc Mehrespand, Branch Chief; Kay M. Vobis and Michael Kosoff, Senior Special Counsels; Kaitlin C. Bottock and Andrea Ottomanelli Magovern, Assistant Directors, at (202) 551-6720, Division of Investment Management, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Commission is seeking public comment from funds, their advisers, investors, and other market participants on ETFs seeking to invest in innovative asset classes or engage in innovative investment strategies and to help assess whether further action would better protect investors, maintain fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitate capital formation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    ETFs are a type of exchange-traded product (“ETP”) that possess characteristics of both open-end funds (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     mutual funds), which issue redeemable securities, and closed-end funds, which may issue shares that trade at market-determined prices on a national securities exchange and are not redeemable.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because ETFs were not contemplated by the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Investment Company Act”), they required, and the Commission granted, exemptions from certain provisions of the Investment Company Act in order for them to operate.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         Exchange-Traded Funds, Investment Company Act Release No. 33646 (Sept. 25, 2019) [84 FR 57162 (Oct. 24, 2019)] (“6c-11 Adopting Release”). As used in this Request for Comment, the term “ETF” refers to exchange-traded funds organized as open-end investment companies registered under the Investment Company Act. Other types of ETPs include exchanged-traded commodity trusts and exchange-traded notes that register their offerings only under the Securities Act (as defined below). For a description of different types of ETPs, 
                        <E T="03">see, e.g.,</E>
                         Request for Comment on Exchange-Traded Products, Exchange Act Release No. 75165 (June 12, 2015) [80 FR 34729 (June 17, 2015)], 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sec.gov/files/rules/proposed/2018/33-10515.pdf,</E>
                         at 6-8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission issued the first exemptive order allowing the operation of an ETF in 1992. These exemptive orders were subject to several conditions designed to address the concerns underlying the relevant provisions of the Investment Company Act. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         SPDR Trust, Series 1, Investment Company Act Release Nos. 18959 (Sept. 17, 1992) [57 FR 43996 (Sept. 23, 1992)] (notice) and 19055 (Oct. 26, 1992) (order) and related application.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In 2019, the Commission adopted rule 6c-11 under the Investment Company Act to permit ETFs that satisfy certain conditions to operate without the expense and delay of obtaining an exemptive order. The rule includes conditions designed to support an efficient arbitrage mechanism to maintain a close tie between the market price of an ETF share and its net asset value (“NAV”) per share. The rule sets forth a consistent, transparent, and efficient regulatory framework for ETFs, which has led to greater competition and innovation among ETFs as well as increased investor choice. Since the adoption of rule 6c-11, the ETF market has grown significantly. Between the end of 2019 and end of 2025, total net assets under management have grown from over $4 trillion to over $12 trillion and the number of ETFs from almost 1,900 to over 4,600.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Registered Fund Statistics, Staff of the Division of Investment Management Analytics 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Office, Securities and Exchange Commission, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sec.gov/data-research/investment-management-data.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="40648"/>
                <P>
                    Exchange listing is one of the fundamental characteristics that distinguishes ETFs from other types of open-end funds. Before an ETF can trade on a national securities exchange, an exchange must make a determination to list the ETF for trading on its market, and it must have initial and continued listing standards that permit listing of that type or “class” of ETF. These listing standards are rules of the listing exchange and are therefore subject to filing with the Commission and public notice and comment under Section 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Exchanges have received approval of “generic” listing standards for ETFs that rely on rule 6c-11, which permit an exchange to list and trade these ETFs without the need to file a product-specific proposed rule change with the Commission for each ETF.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(8); Nasdaq Rule 5704; Cboe BZX Rule 14.11(l).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    ETFs issue publicly offered securities and thus file a registration statement with the Commission to register the offering of their securities under the Securities Act of 1933 (the “Securities Act”). As is the case with mutual funds, new ETFs typically are offered as a new series of an existing investment company that, along with its shares, are registered by preparing and filing a post-effective amendment to a previously effective registration statement under rule 485(a) of the Securities Act.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Registering new ETFs via post-effective amendment allows these ETFs to avoid the costs associated with a new registration statement, which is filed on Form N-1A. Additionally, rule 485(a) permits post-effective amendments making material changes to registration statements to become effective automatically after a prescribed period of time, thus allowing such ETFs to launch efficiently and respond to market opportunities without Commission or staff action. Non-material changes and other enumerated routine changes are permitted to be filed under rule 485(b) and such post-effective amendments may become automatically effective immediately upon filing. ETFs may also reflect certain changes by filing a “sticker” pursuant to rule 497 under the Securities Act. Rule 497 filings enable a fund and its adviser to respond to market conditions without the significant delay inherent in a rule 485(a) filing.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, a post-effective amendment filed under rule 485(a) is required “to reflect any facts or events arising after the effective date of the registration statement (or the most recent post-effective amendment thereto) which, individually or in the aggregate, represent a fundamental change in the information set forth in the registration statement.” 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 230.485(a). An investment company's (“registrant's”) initial registration statement under the Securities Act is filed with the Commission and, unless a delaying amendment is included, becomes effective automatically after 20 days. Most registrants, however, include a delaying amendment and then request that the Commission accelerate the effective date. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section 8(a) of the Securities Act [15 U.S.C. 77h(a)] and rule 473 [17 CFR 230.473] thereunder.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 230.497. When making material changes by rule 497 filing, ETFs must follow the rule 497 filing with a rule 485(a) filing before becoming eligible to file under rule 485(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Adoption of Integrated Disclosure System, Securities Act Release No. 6383 (Mar. 3, 1982) [47 FR 11380 at 11395 (Mar. 16, 1982)]. This release clarifies the meaning of “fundamental” by explaining that post-effective amendments are required when major and substantial changes are made to information in the registration statement, and that even numerous smaller changes can, in the aggregate, become fundamental. Further, the release states the Commission's view that “the filing of a post-effective amendment is appropriate in certain instances in order to ensure full statutory liability for the information disclosed and to afford the Commission's staff an opportunity to review the disclosure in appropriate cases.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Over the past several years, sponsors of ETFs have expressed interest in providing exposure to innovative asset classes or using novel investment strategies (“Novel ETFs”). To date, these include: crypto assets; commodity-focused instruments; single-stock strategies; heightened leverage; blockchain-enabled opportunities; private assets; event contracts; and/or a combination of any of the above.</P>
                <P>Market participants, including sponsors, registrants, exchanges, and intermediaries, among others, have raised questions regarding certain issues associated with Novel ETFs. For example, questions have arisen about whether a Novel ETF qualifies as an “investment company” or will operate consistent with rule 6c-11 and its conditions. Moreover, questions have arisen about whether the Commission's Division of Investment Management (“IM”) staff has sufficient time to effectively review and address legal issues that may arise with these Novel ETFs due to the fact that many Novel ETF filings seek automatic effectiveness within prescribed time periods.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Investment Company Status</HD>
                <P>Market participants have raised questions regarding whether Novel ETFs with a principal investment strategy to invest in assets that are not securities under the Investment Company Act are investment companies as defined under the Investment Company Act. This, in turn, raises questions regarding whether such a Novel ETF may register as an investment company and whether the Novel ETF should be regulated as such under the Investment Company Act.</P>
                <P>As relevant here, Section 3 of the Investment Company Act defines the term “investment company” as an issuer that:</P>
                <P>
                    • Is or holds itself out as being engaged primarily, or proposes to engage primarily, in the business of investing, reinvesting, or trading in securities (the “Subjective Test”),
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Section 3(a)(1)(A) of the Investment Company Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-3(a)(1)(A)]. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Section 2(a)(36) of the Investment Company Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(36)] (which defines “securities” for the purposes of the Investment Company Act).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Is engaged or proposes to engage in the business of investing, reinvesting, owning, holding, or trading in securities, and owns or proposes to acquire investment securities having a value exceeding 40 percent or more of such issuer's total assets (exclusive of Government securities 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and cash items), on an unconsolidated basis (the “Objective Test”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section 2(a)(16) of the Investment Company Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(16)] (which defines “Government security” for the purposes of the Investment Company Act).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Section 3(a)(1)(C) of the Investment Company Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-3(a)(1)(C)]. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Section 3(a)(2) of the Investment Company Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-3(a)(2)] (which defines “investment securities” for the purposes of the Objective Test, as relevant here, to include all securities except (a) Government securities and (b) securities issued by majority-owned subsidiaries of the issuer which are (i) not investment companies, and (ii) not relying on the exclusion from the definition of investment company in Section 3(c)(1) or (7) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         private funds)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For purposes of the Subjective Test, the Commission developed a five-factor test.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The five factors are the issuer's:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         In the Matter of Tonopah Mining Co., 26 SEC. 426 (July 21, 1947).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Historical development;</P>
                <P>• Public representations of policy;</P>
                <P>
                    • Activities of its officers and directors; 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The Commission has also considered the activities of an issuer's employees, in addition to its officers and directors, in determining its primary business. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         rule 3a-8 under the Investment Company Act [17 CFR 270.3a-8].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Nature of its present assets; and</P>
                <P>• Sources of its present income (collectively, the “Tonopah Factors”).</P>
                <P>The Commission is interested in feedback on the following questions:</P>
                <P>
                    1. Would a Novel ETF meet the Subjective Test by “hold[ing] itself out” as an “investment company,” and/or as “engaged primarily, or propos[ing] to engage primarily, in the business of investing, reinvesting, or trading in securities,” notwithstanding that its principal investment strategy is to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40649"/>
                    invest in assets that may not be securities? Is there a need for greater clarity about this aspect of the Subjective Test? Why or why not?
                </P>
                <P>2. Why would a Novel ETF with a principal investment strategy to invest in assets that are not securities seek to register as an investment company and be regulated as such (rather than as, for example, an exchanged-traded commodity trust or some other type of ETP)?</P>
                <P>3. When evaluating whether a Novel ETF meets the Subjective Test, should the Commission continue to apply the Tonopah Factors? Are there different or additional factors the Commission should consider or emphasize in its analysis of a Novel ETF? Why or why not?</P>
                <P>
                    4. Would a Novel ETF that holds on an unconsolidated basis “securities” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     shares or other equity interests) issued by one or more wholly-owned subsidiaries that are not themselves primarily invested in securities meet the Subjective Test, notwithstanding that its principal investment strategy is to invest in assets that are not securities? Why or why not? Under what circumstances, if any, should the Commission consider investments in securities issued by wholly-owned subsidiaries (or by other subsidiaries generally consolidated with the issuer) to comprise part of a securities investment business under the Subjective Test? Should the analysis differ for holding companies that are engaged in various operating businesses through wholly-owned and majority-owned subsidiaries? Why or why not?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Novel ETFS and Rule 6C-11</HD>
                <P>
                    While rule 6c-11 defines the fundamental structural characteristics of ETFs to support effective arbitrage, it does not restrict which investment strategies or asset classes an ETF may pursue.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ETFs that meet rule 6c-11's conditions are eligible for exchange listing under generic listing standards and thus can generally be sold directly to investors soon after their registration statement goes effective.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">But see</E>
                         rule 6c-11(c)(4) [17 CFR 270.6c-11(c)(4)] (an ETF “that seeks, directly or indirectly, to provide investment returns that correspond to the performance of a market index by a specified multiple, or to provide investment returns that have an inverse relationship to the performance of a market index, over a predetermined period of time, must comply with all applicable provisions of [rule 18f-4 under the Investment Company Act]”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission is interested in feedback on the following questions:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Portfolio-Related Conditions</HD>
                <P>5. Do the assets and strategies of Novel ETFs present any questions regarding: (a) the functioning of the ETF arbitrage mechanism and related secondary trading activity that supports it; (b) investor protection; (c) the maintenance of fair, orderly, and efficient markets, as well as any unique challenges to market surveillance necessary to support the ETF's listing; or (d) other structural or operational issues? Why or why not?</P>
                <P>
                    6. Should rule 6c-11 be amended to address these or other questions with respect to Novel ETFs? For instance, should the Commission consider amendments addressing new portfolio requirements, such as minimum holdings in securities, restrictions from using certain strategies or investing in certain asset classes, or criteria such as specific diversification requirements, concentration limits, or issuer-specific limits? Why or why not? Or should the rule be amended to exclude certain assets or investment strategies? 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Why or why not?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         rule 6c-11(a) [17 CFR 270.6c-11(a)] (defining “exchange-traded fund” as “a registered open-end management company: (A) That issues (and redeems) creation units to (and from) authorized participants in exchange for a basket and a cash balancing amount if any; and (B) Whose shares are listed on a national securities exchange and traded at market-determined prices”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Other Questions</HD>
                <P>
                    7. Should the Commission consider any steps to help investors better understand the features of Novel ETFs? Are there steps the Commission could consider to help investors understand what distinguishes Novel ETFs from other ETFs? 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         For example, industry observers have noted recommendations to aid investors in understanding the differences among Novel ETFs and other ETFs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Investor Advisory Committee, Securities and Exchange Commission, Recommendation of the Advisory Committee on Single Stock ETFs and Leveraged ETFs,” (June 22, 2023), 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sec.gov/files/spotlight/iac/20230622-recommendation-single-stock-etfs-and-leveraged-etfs.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    8. Some ETPs that are not investment companies (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     exchange-traded commodity trusts) may use the term “ETF” (or “fund”) in their name or label themselves as ETFs. How do investors interpret this, and are there any implications for investor clarity?
                </P>
                <P>9. Amendments to rule 6c-11 (such as new portfolio conditions) could affect how the generic listing standards apply to a Novel ETF. Should this interplay between rule 6c-11 and the generic listing standards inform any analysis of potential changes to the rule? Are there other ways in which rule 6c-11 could be amended or other Commission action taken to better facilitate innovation while protecting investors, maintaining fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitating capital formation?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Registration and Rule 485</HD>
                <P>As discussed above, rule 485 under the Securities Act sets forth the effective dates for post-effective amendments to registration statements filed by certain investment companies, including ETFs. Generally, Novel ETFs that are registering their shares use rule 485(a), which allows certain existing investment companies to add new funds as series of the company or make material changes to existing series of an investment company, by filing a post-effective amendment to their existing registration statement. Under the rule, these filings become automatically effective in as early as 75 and 60 days, respectively, of the filing. IM staff uses this time to review filings and to provide feedback to registrants.</P>
                <P>The Commission is interested in feedback on the following questions:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Timing of Effectiveness</HD>
                <P>10. Certain post-effective amendments filed under rule 485, including those for certain Novel ETFs, may raise issues that may be challenging to address within the rule's currently prescribed timeframes. Should the 75-day and 60-day automatic effectiveness periods be extended for Novel ETFs? If yes, for how long? If not, why not?</P>
                <P>
                    11. Should effectiveness be automatically tolled for a Novel ETF if a registrant fails to respond to staff comments within a specified period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     five business days) before effectiveness? Why or why not?
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. While registrants may voluntarily delay effectiveness under rule 485, should the rule be amended to enable the Commission to delay effectiveness of a Novel ETF on its own initiative? 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If yes, how should the amended rule be structured, under what circumstances should the Commission be able to delay effectiveness, and what if any limits or notice requirements should apply?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See infra</E>
                         note 22 discussing potential actions that the Commission may take to delay or suspend effectiveness.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>13. Some market participants have raised questions about Novel ETFs seeking to become effective before an asset class or instrument is available for investment. Is additional clarity needed regarding rule 485(a) with respect to a Novel ETF becoming effective before its investment strategy can be implemented? Why or why not?</P>
                <P>
                    14. If the automatic effectiveness periods were extended, would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40650"/>
                    registrants experience unnecessary delays in responding to market demand?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Early Engagement &amp; Innovation</HD>
                <P>
                    15. Should the Commission consider mechanisms for early engagement for Novel ETFs (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a pre-filing consultation process or confidential draft registration statements) that would allow the staff and sponsors of Novel ETFs to work together on potential issues before the sponsor makes a public filing? 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If so, should we publicly report on these consultations to provide for a measure of accountability in the process? For example, should we report how many such consultations occur, how long they take, and how many result in public filings?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         The staff of the Division of Corporation Finance has made accommodations available for non-public review for non-investment company issuers since 2017. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Enhanced Accommodations for Issuers Submitting Draft Registration Statements (Mar. 3, 2025), SEC Division of Corporation Finance, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sec.gov/about/divisions-offices/division-corporation-finance/draft-registration-statement-processing-procedures-expanded.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>16. Are there other ways rule 485(a) could be modified to better support innovation, while protecting investors, maintaining fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitating capital formation?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Competitive Pressures and First-Mover Incentives</HD>
                <P>17. Do market participants have concerns about competitive pressures that may incentivize sponsors to submit filings for Novel ETFs quickly and in rapid succession? If so, could such competitive pressures result in rushed or incomplete filings or the filing of many ETFs that never launch? Could such competitive pressures cause sponsors to attempt to repurpose unused series to take advantage of shorter waiting periods resulting in an unfair treatment of funds? Should we amend rule 485 to specifically address these concerns? Why or why not? For example, should the Commission amend its rules to require upfront payment of a minimum registration fee that may be subsequently offset by redemptions under rule 24f-2?</P>
                <P>
                    18. Should the Commission allow rule 485(a)(2) filings to remain nonpublic for part of the 75-day period to promote innovation and reduce imitative filings? 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Why or why not? If yes, for how long?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         IM Staff has observed several Novel ETF filings submitted in rapid succession that are largely identical. Market participants have suggested that the use of artificial intelligence may be significantly accelerating the speed at which a filing can be mimicked.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    19. To encourage filing only fully developed new series, should rule 485(a) require a fund's board or authorized signatories specifically to identify each new series included in the filing? 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Why or why not?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Rule 483(b) under the Securities Act [17 CFR 230.483(b)] includes a similar provision requiring that power of attorney must relate to a specific registration statement filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>20. Certain ETFs may be able to allocate assets to markets or strategies before newly registering funds pursue similar exposures, due to the discretion they have sought to retain over their investment practices. How should the Commission balance permitting investment flexibility with the need to preserve a fair and orderly registration process and to ensure investors are protected?</P>
                <P>
                    21. Should the Commission take action with respect to funds that become effective but never launch? For example, should the Commission amend its rules to provide that such funds would be automatically deregistered after a defined period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     6 months)? Why or why not?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unresolved Staff Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    22. Should the Commission develop additional mechanisms to address unresolved staff comments? For instance, should funds be required to disclose material unresolved staff comments, similar to the approach used for certain closed-end funds and Form 10-K and Form 20-F filers? 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Would such disclosure be useful to investors and other market participants? Why or why not?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Instruction 4.h.(4) to Item 24 of Form N-2; Item 1B of Form 10-K. The Commission recently proposed to require non-accelerated filers to make this disclosure, as large accelerated and accelerated filers do currently. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Enhancement of Emerging Growth Company Accommodations and Simplification of Filer Status for Reporting Companies, Securities Act Release No. 11419 (May 19, 2026) [91 FR 30086 (May 21, 2026)].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Material Changes During Review or Pre-Launch</HD>
                <P>23. Is there a need for greater clarity about how our rules apply when a material investment strategy change is made for a Novel ETF during the review process or before launch? Should rule 485 be amended to explicitly require a new 75-day or 60-day rule 485(a) filing for changes that are not made in response to staff comments?</P>
                <P>24. Some registrants seek to make material changes to a Novel ETF's investment strategy after the effectiveness of the registration statement but before, at, or shortly after launch. For example, questions have arisen about material pre-launch changes made to a Novel ETF through a rule 497 filing rather than by a rule 485(a) amendment. Is additional clarity needed about rules 485 or 497 in light of these questions? Alternatively, should rule 485 be amended to automatically suspend or delay the effectiveness of a registration statement for a Novel ETF when a material pre- or at launch change occurs?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Suspensions</HD>
                <P>
                    25. Rule 485 allows the Commission to suspend a registrant's ability to file under rule 485(b) if it appears the registrant has not complied with the applicable conditions of the rule or to suspend the effective date of a rule 485(a) filing that is materially incomplete or inaccurate.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Should the Commission consider changes to this rule? For example, should the circumstances under which the Commission may suspend a post-effective amendment be expanded? Should the Commission have the authority to suspend the effectiveness of a specific post-effective amendment, or of a particular series within that amendment, after it has become effective? Should the Commission condition the use of rule 6c-11 on compliance with filing requirements, or reserve the ability to suspend the use of rule 482 advertisements? 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         rule 485(c)(1) and (2) [17 CFR 230.485(c)(1) and (2)]. The Commission retains other options, such as a stop order under Section 8(d) of the Securities Act [15 U.S.C. 77h(d)].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         Rule 482 under the Securities Act [17 CFR 230.482] permits investment company advertisements or sales materials that are used to offer or promote securities so long as they comply with certain content and disclosure standards.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Changes to ETF Disclosure</HD>
                <P>26. Should the Commission consider changes to the ETF disclosure regime because of questions that Novel ETFs may raise? Should the Commission consider heightened disclosure requirements for certain Novel ETFs?</P>
                <P>27. Are there additional reforms the Commission should consider to help facilitate innovation, while protecting investors, maintaining fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitating capital formation?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>This request for comment is a significant regulatory action under Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 and has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget, consistent with Executive Order 14215.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. General Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    This request for comment is not intended to limit the scope of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40651"/>
                    comments, views, issues, or approaches to be considered. In addition to comments from investors and funds, we welcome comments from other market participants and particularly welcome statistical, empirical, and other data and real-world examples from commenters that may support their views or support or refute the views or issues raised by other commenters.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13423 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 13056]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Specially Designated Global Terrorist Designation of Chone Killers</SUBJECT>
                <P>Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(a)(ii)(A) of Executive Order 13224 (“E.O. 13224” or “Order”), I hereby determine that the person known as Chone Killers (also known as Chone Killer gang) is a foreign person who has committed or has attempted to commit, poses a significant risk of committing, or has participated in training to commit acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.</P>
                <P>Consistent with the determination in section 10 of E.O. 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.</P>
                <P>
                    This determination shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 12, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marco Rubio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13348 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-AD-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Delegation of Authority No. 620]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Negotiation, Conclusion, and Termination of Treaties and Other International Agreements</SUBJECT>
                <P>By virtue of the authority vested in me by Section 1 of the State Department Basic Authorities Act (22 U.S.C. 2651a), and to the extent authorized by law, I hereby delegate to the officers holding the positions designated herein my authority under 1 U.S.C. 112b(g) and the Circular 175 procedure of the Department of State (22 CFR 181.6 and 11 FAM 700) to negotiate, conclude, and terminate treaties and other international agreements, and to authorize the negotiation, conclusion, and termination of treaties and other international agreements by other United States Government officials:</P>
                <P>• Either Deputy Secretary;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Political Affairs;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Economic Affairs;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Arms Control and International Security;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Foreign Assistance, Humanitarian Affairs, and Religious Freedom;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs;</P>
                <P>• The Under Secretary for Management; and</P>
                <P>• Any successor positions to these positions.</P>
                <P>The Secretary of State may at any time exercise any function hereby delegated. Delegation of Authority 311, dated March 28, 2008, is revoked.</P>
                <P>
                    This document will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marco Rubio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of State, U.S. Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13350 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-08-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice:13055]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign Terrorist Organization Designation of Chone Killers</SUBJECT>
                <P>Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that the relevant circumstances described in section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (hereinafter “INA”) (8 U.S.C. 1189), exist with respect to: Chone Killers (also known as Chone Killer gang).</P>
                <P>Therefore, I hereby designate the aforementioned organization and its respective alias as a Foreign Terrorist Organization pursuant to section 219 of the INA.</P>
                <P>
                    This determination shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The designation goes into effect upon publication.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 12, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marco Rubio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13349 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-AD-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA- 2026-5017]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of a Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public to make comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the following collection of information was published on June 02, 2026. The Information to be collected is necessary to insure the safety of the flying public. Documentation of maintenance repair actions record who, what, when, where and how of the task performed. All maintenance actions as well as documentation are required by Title 14 CFR part 43. This collection focuses on Form 337 which is collected by the FAA. Other records for preventative maintenance, and logbook entries are not collected by the FAA serve as a responsibility of the owner to maintain in case of verification of airworthiness when seeking approval or sale of the aircraft. This ensures proper certification of personnel; proper tooling is utilized and accurate measures to ensure safety. Total form 337s submitted in 2024 is 76,253. Total general aviation aircraft registrations on file are 438,651. It is estimated by the numbers collected one in every five aircraft have a 337-
                        <PRTPAGE P="40652"/>
                        form submitted for major alteration and repairs performed. Each 337 takes approximately 1 hour.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be submitted by August 3, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jude Sellers by email at: 
                        <E T="03">jude.n.sellers@faa.gov</E>
                        ; phone: 202-267-1675.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for FAA's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for FAA to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2120-0020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     Form 337.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Renewal of an information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the following collection of information was published on June 02, 2026. The Information to be collected is necessary to insure the safety of the flying public. Documentation of maintenance repair actions record who, what, when, where and how of the task performed. All maintenance actions as well as documentation are required by Title 14 CFR part 43. This collection focuses on Form 337 which is collected by the FAA. Other records for preventative maintenance, and logbook entries are not collected by the FAA serve as a responsibility of the owner to maintain in case of verification of airworthiness when seeking approval or sale of the aircraft. This ensures proper certification of personnel; proper tooling is utilized and accurate measures to ensure safety. Total form 337s submitted in 2024 is 76,253. Total general aviation aircraft registrations on file are 438,651. It is estimated by the numbers collected one in every five aircraft have a 337-form submitted for major alteration and repairs performed. Each 337 takes approximately 1 hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     438,651.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     on Occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     1 Hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     Industry Annual burden 76,253 man hours.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Issued in Washington, DC on June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jude Sellers,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Aviation Safety Inspector, AFS-340 General Aviation Maintenance Branch.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13477 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. DOT-OST-2026-1915]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments; Revision of Currently Approved Information Collection(s): U.S. Department of Transportation, Individual Complaint of Employment Discrimination Form</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Transportation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) will forward the Information Collection Request (ICR) abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for renewal of a previously approved collection. The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden hours. The OMB approved the form in 2023 with its renewal required by June 30, 2023. The 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the form renewal was published on May 4, 2026 [FR Vol. 91, No. 85, page 24031]. No comments were received.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by August 2, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sierra Collins, Associate Director, EEO Complaints and Investigations Division (S-34), U.S. Department of Transportation, Departmental Office of Civil Rights, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, 202-934-3439 (office), 
                        <E T="03">sierra.collins@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2105-0556.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Individual Compliant of Employment Discrimination Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     DOT-F 1050-8.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a Previously Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     DOT will utilize the form to collect information necessary to process EEO discrimination complaints filed by individuals who are Federal employees, former employees or applicants for employment with the Department. These complaints are processed in accordance with the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulations, Title 29, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 1614, as amended. DOT will use the form to: (a) Request requisite information from the applicant for processing his/her EEO discrimination complaint; and (b) obtain information to identify an individual or his or her attorney or other representative, if appropriate. An applicant's filing of an EEO discrimination complaint is solely voluntary. The DOT estimates that it takes an applicant approximately one hour to complete the form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     DOT employees, former employees and/or applicants for federal employment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     244 per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Estimated Burden:</E>
                     244 hours per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     An individual's filing of an EEO complaint is solely voluntary.
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES:</E>
                     Send comments regarding the burden estimate, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503. Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Public Comments are Invited on: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the Department's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40653"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.49.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sierra Collins,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director, EEO Complaints and Investigations Division, Departmental Office of Civil Rights, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Transportation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13478 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing updates to the identifying information of one or more entries currently included on one or more of OFAC's sanctions lists.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for relevant dates.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for the Office of Sanctions Support and Operations, 202-622-6943; Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    OFAC's sanctions lists and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Action</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 25, 2026, OFAC updated the following names to improve data standardization and consistency and/or to correct records that were published with minor errors. The updated names and relevant sanctions authorities are available at the below URL: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/recent-actions/20260625</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 31 CFR chapter V.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13363 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Action</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List (SDN List) based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This action was issued on May 28, 2026. See Supplementary Information for relevant dates.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance, 202-622-2490; or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Actions</HD>
                <P>On May 28, 2026, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="440">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40654"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.066</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="443">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40655"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.067</GID>
                </GPH>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: E.O. 13224, as amended.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13389 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Action</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons and vessels that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List (SDN List) based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them. The vessels placed on the SDN List have been identified as property in which a blocked person has an interest.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This action was issued on June 5, 2026. See Supplementary Information for relevant dates.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance, 202-622-2490; or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Actions</HD>
                <P>On June 5, 2026, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below.</P>
                <P>Individuals</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="455">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40656"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.061</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40657"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.062</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40658"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.063</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40659"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.064</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="360">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40660"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.065</GID>
                </GPH>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: E.O. 13902.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13388 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Action</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the name of one person that has been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List (SDN List) based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of this person are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action was issued on May 27, 2026. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for relevant dates.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance, 202-622-2490; or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Action</HD>
                <P>On May 27, 2026, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following person are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below. </P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="203">
                    <PRTPAGE P="40661"/>
                    <GID>EN02JY26.060</GID>
                </GPH>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: E.O. 13224, as amended.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13387 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Requesting Comment Tax Information Security Guidelines for Federal, State, and Local Agencies</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the IRS is inviting comments on the information collection request outlined in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be received on or before August 31, 2026 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all written comments to Andres Garcia, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">pra.comments@irs.gov.</E>
                         Include “OMB Control No. 1545-0962” in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        View the latest drafts of the tax forms related to the information collection listed in this notice at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/draft-tax-forms.</E>
                         Requests for additional information or copies of this collection should be directed to Jason Schoonmaker, (801) 620-6008.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The IRS, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the IRS assess the impact and minimize the burden of its information collection requirements. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record, and viewable on relevant websites. For this reason, please do not include in your comments information of a confidential nature, such as sensitive personal information. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Tax Information Security Guidelines for Federal, State, and Local Agencies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1545-0962.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Publication Number:</E>
                     1075.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Section 6103(p) of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) requires the IRS to provide periodic reports to Congress describing safeguard procedures utilized by agencies which receive information from the IRS to protect the confidentiality of the information. This IRC section also requires that these agencies furnish reports to the IRS describing their safeguards. Publication 1075 provides guidance to ensure policies, practices, controls, and safeguards employed by recipient agencies, agents, contractors, or sub-contractors adequately protect the confidentiality of Federal Tax Information (FTI). The reporting and recordkeeping requirements within Publication 1075 allow IRS to administer the Safeguards Program and determine that authorized recipients of FTI establish and maintain safeguards to protect the confidentiality of FTI.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     There is no change to the previously approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit organizations, not-for-profit institutions, and Federal, state, local, or tribal governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     40 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     11,040.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 29, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jason M. Schoonmaker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Tax Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13412 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4831-GV-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="40662"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Regulation Agency Protests</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to comment on the proposed information collection listed below, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to U.S. Department of the Treasury, Attention: Treasury PRA Clearance Officer, 1500 Suite #8100, JBAB, 250 Murray Lane SW, BLDG 410/Door 123, Washington, DC 20222, or email at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@treasury.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Spencer W. Clark by emailing 
                        <E T="03">PRA@treasury.gov,</E>
                         calling (202) 927-5331, or viewing the entire information collection request at 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Regulation Agency Protests.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1505-0107.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR); 48 CFR Chapter 1 provides general procedures on handling protests submitted by contractors to federal agencies. Treasury regulations provide detailed guidance for contractors doing business with acquisition offices within the U.S. Department of the Treasury to implement the FAR. FAR part 33.103, Protests to the agency prescribes the policies and procedures for filing protests to the agency. Information is requested of contractors so that the Government will be able to evaluate protests effectively and provide prompt resolution of issues in dispute when contractors file protests.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     5.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     5.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     2 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Request for Comments:</E>
                     Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will become a matter of public record. Comments are invited on: (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services required to provide information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Spencer W. Clark,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Treasury PRA Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13468 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AK-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. VA-2026-VACO-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, notice is hereby given that VA is modifying the system of records titled “Patient Medical Records-VA” (24VA10A7). This system is used for ongoing treatment of individuals and patients; documentation of treatment provided; payment; health care operations such as producing various management and patient follow-up reports; responding to patient and other inquiries; for epidemiological research and other health care related studies; statistical analysis, resource allocation, and planning; providing clinical and administrative support to patient medical care; and determining entitlement and eligibility for VA benefits.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by August 3, 2026. This modified system of records is effective as of July 2, 2026 unless modified by a subsequent notice incorporating any comments received.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or mailed to VA Privacy Service, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420. Comments should indicate that they are submitted in response to “Patient Medical Records-VA” (24VA10A7). Comments received will be available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         for public viewing, inspection, or copies.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Stephania Griffin, Chief Privacy Officer, Veterans Health Administration, 
                        <E T="03">stephania.griffin@va.gov,</E>
                         (704) 245-2492.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>VA is modifying the system by revising the System Number; System Location; System Manager; Purpose; Categories of Records in the System; Records Source Categories; Routine Uses of Records Maintained in the System; Policies and Practices for Storage of Records; Policies and Practices for Retrieval of Records; Administrative, Technical and Physical Safeguards; Record Access Procedures; Contesting Record Procedures; and Notification Procedure.</P>
                <P>System Number is being updated from 24VA10A7 to 24VA10 to reflect the current VHA organizational routing symbol.</P>
                <P>System Location is being amended to “Primary Data Center in Chicago, IL and Continuity of Operations/Disaster Recovery Data Center in Ashburn, VA.” Being added are the “VA Boston Development Center,” “VA Health Data Repository (HDR), located at the VA National Data Centers,” and “VA Records Center and Vault.”</P>
                <P>System Manager(s) is being amended to remove “Clinical Health Data Repository/Health Data Repository: Director, Clinical Informatics and Data Management Office (10A7A), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420.”</P>
                <P>Purpose(s) of the System is being amended to replace “automated” with “electronic” and add “telehealth.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Categories of Records in the System:</E>
                     Section (i) is being amended to replace “automated” with “electronic.” “Veterans and Beneficiaries Identification and Records Location Subsystem-VA” (38VA23) is being removed from this section as this SORN was rescinded and is now encompassed in “Compensation, Pension, Education, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40663"/>
                    and Vocational Rehabilitation and Employment Records-VA” (58VA21/22/28). Section (ii) is being amended to include “regardless of where health care is provided.” Section (iii) is being moved to Section (iv), and the new Section (iii) will state “Federal electronic health record (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     PowerChart, CareAware View, FirstNet, Enterprise Document Management) hosted in the Federal Electronic Health Record (EHR) enclave used by Department of War (DoW), VA and other specific agencies.” Section (iv) is being updated to include My VA Health, Message Center, PowerChart, Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record (ILER), Integration Control Number (ICN), Electronic Data Interchange Personal Identifier (EDIPI) and Financial Identification Number (FIN).
                </P>
                <P>Record Source Categories is being amended to remove “Veterans and Beneficiaries Identification and Records Location Subsystem-VA” (38VA23).</P>
                <P>Routine Uses will be renumbered in its entirety to address duplicate routine uses (routine uses number 11, 12, and 31) and update language.</P>
                <P>Policies and Practices for Retrievability of Records is being amended to add “Integration Control Number (ICN) and Electronic Data Interchange Personal Identifier (EDIPI).”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Administrative, Technical, and Physical Safeguards:</E>
                     Section 2 is being updated to remove “Automated Data Processing (ADP) peripheral devices are generally placed in secure areas or are otherwise protected.” Section 4 is being removed, which stated, “Access to the VA Health Data Repository, located at the VA National Data Centers, is generally restricted to Center employees, custodial personnel, Federal Protective Service, and other security personnel. Access to computer rooms is restricted to authorized operational personnel through electronic locking devices. All other persons gaining access to computer rooms are escorted. Information stored in the computer may be accessed by authorized VA employees at remote locations including VA health care facilities, VA Central Office, Veterans Integrated Service Networks (VISN), and Office of Inspector General (OIG) Central Office and field staff. Access is controlled by USAccess card or individually unique passwords/codes that must be changed periodically by the employee.” Section 5 is being amended to remove “VA Central Office.” New section 7 is being added, which states, “VA Enterprise Cloud data storage conforms to security protocols as stipulated in VA Directives 6500 and 6517. Access control standards are stipulated in specific agreements with Cloud vendors to restrict and monitor access.”
                </P>
                <P>Record Access Procedure is being amended to state, “Individuals seeking information regarding access to VA medical records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above, or may write, call, or visit the last VA facility where medical care was provided. A request for access to records must contain the requester's full name, address and telephone number, be signed by the requester, and describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable VA personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort.”</P>
                <P>Contesting Record Procedures is being amended to state, “Individuals seeking to contest or amend records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above, or may write, call, or visit the last VA facility where medical care was provided. A request to contest or amend records must be signed, state clearly and concisely what record is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the record.”</P>
                <P>Notification Procedure section is being amended to state, “Individuals who wish to be notified if a record in this system of records pertains to them should submit the request following the procedures described in “Record Access Procedures,” above.”</P>
                <P>The Report of Intent to Amend a System of Records Notice (Narrative Statement) and an advance copy of the system notice have been sent to the appropriate Congressional committees and to the Director of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(r) (Privacy Act) and guidelines issued by OMB (65 FR 77677), December 12, 2000.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>The Senior Agency Official for Privacy, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Paul R. Lawrence, Assistant Secretary for Information and Technology and Chief Information Officer, Department of Veterans Affairs approved this document on May 26, 2026 for publication.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026</DATED>
                    <NAME>Crystal Drakeford,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Government Information Specialist, VA Privacy Service, Office of Information and Technology, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>“Patient Medical Records-VA” (24VA10).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Records are maintained at each VA health care facility (in most cases, backup information is stored at off-site locations), VA Enterprise Cloud Data Centers/Amazon Web Services, 1915 Terry Avenue, Seattle, WA 98101 and contracted data repository sites, such as the Cerner Technology Centers (CTC): Primary Data Center in Chicago, IL, and Continuity of Operations/Disaster Recovery Data Center in Ashburn, VA. Subsidiary record information is maintained at the various respective services within the health care facility (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Pharmacy, Fiscal, Dietetic, Clinical Laboratory, Radiology, Social Work, Psychology) and by individuals, organizations, and/or agencies with which VA has a contract or agreement to perform such services, as VA may deem practicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>Address locations for VA facilities are listed in Appendix 1 of the biennial publication of the VA Privacy Act Issuances; VA National Data Centers; Federal Records Center; VA Records Center and Vault; VA Boston Development Center, VA Chief Information Office (CIO) Field Offices; Veterans Integrated Service Networks (VISN); and Regional and General Counsel Office.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>Director, Health Information Governance, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>38 U.S.C. 501(b), 304.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The electronic and paper records may be used for such purposes as: ongoing treatment of individuals and patients including through telehealth; documentation of treatment provided; payment; health care operations such as producing various management and patient follow-up reports; responding to patient and other inquiries; for epidemiological research and other health care related studies; statistical analysis, resource allocation and planning; providing clinical and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40664"/>
                        administrative support to patient medical care; determining entitlement and eligibility for VA benefits; processing and adjudicating benefit claims by Veterans Benefits Administration Regional Office (VARO) staff; for audits, reviews, and investigations conducted by staff of the health care facility, the networks, VA Central Office, and the VA Office of Inspector General (OIG); sharing of health information between and among Veterans Health Administration (VHA), DoW, Indian Health Services (IHS), and other government and private industry health care organizations; quality assurance audits, reviews, and investigations; personnel management and evaluation; employee ratings and performance evaluations; and employee disciplinary or other adverse action, including discharge; advising health care professional licensing or monitoring bodies or similar entities of activities of VA and former VA health care personnel; accreditation of a facility by an entity such as the Joint Commission (TJC); and notifying medical schools of medical students' performance and billing.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>1. Veterans who have applied for health care services under Chapter 17 of 38 U.S.C. and members of their immediate families;</P>
                    <P>2. Spouses, surviving spouses, and children of Veterans who have applied for health care services under Chapter 17 of 38 U.S.C.;</P>
                    <P>3. Beneficiaries of other Federal agencies;</P>
                    <P>4. Individuals examined or treated under contract or resource sharing agreements;</P>
                    <P>5. Individuals examined or treated for research or donor purposes;</P>
                    <P>6. Individuals who have applied for Title 38 benefits but who do not meet the requirements under Title 38 to receive such benefits;</P>
                    <P>7. Individuals who were provided medical care under other circumstances, including but not limited to, emergency conditions for humanitarian reasons;</P>
                    <P>8. Pensioned members of allied forces provided health care services under Chapter I of 38 U.S.C.; and</P>
                    <P>9. Caregivers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>The medical record is a consolidated health record (CHR) which may include:</P>
                    <P>
                        (i) An administrative (non-clinical information) record (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         medical benefit application and eligibility information) including information obtained from Veterans Benefits Administration electronic records such as the “Compensation, Pension, Education and Rehabilitation Records-VA” (58VA21/22/28), and correspondence about the individual;
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) A medical record (a cumulative account of sociological, diagnostic, counseling, rehabilitation, drug and alcohol, dietetic, medical, surgical, dental, psychological, and/or psychiatric information compiled by VA professional staff regardless of where health care is provided and non-VA health care providers), and</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) Federal electronic record information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         PowerChart, CareAware View, FirstNet, Enterprise Document Management) hosted in the Federal EHR enclave used by (DoW) VA and other specific agencies,
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) Subsidiary record information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Bed Management Solution (BMS), tumor registry, certain clinically oriented information associated with My Health
                        <E T="03">e</E>
                        Vet/My VA Health such as secure messages and Message Center, minimum data set, Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record (ILER), dental, pharmacy, nuclear medicine, clinical laboratory, radiology, and patient scheduling information). The CHR may also include identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address, date of birth, VA claim number, social security number); medical record number, integration control number (ICN), Electronic Data Interchange Personal Identifier (EDIPI), Financial Identification Number (FIN), military service information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dates, branch and character of service, service number, medical information); family information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         next of kin and person to notify in an emergency; address information, name, social security number and date of birth for Veteran's spouse and dependents; family medical history information); employment information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         occupation, employer name and address); financial information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         family income; assets; expenses; debts; amount and source of income for Veteran, spouse, and dependents); third-party health plan contract information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         health insurance carrier name and address, policy number, amounts billed and paid); and information pertaining to the individual's medical, surgical, psychiatric, dental, and/or psychological examination, evaluation, and/or treatment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         information related to the chief complaint and history of present illness; information related to physical, diagnostic, therapeutic special examinations; clinical laboratory, pathology and x-ray findings; operations; medical history; medications prescribed and dispensed; treatment plan and progress; consultations; photographs taken for identification and medical treatment; education and research purposes; facility locations where treatment is provided; observations and clinical impressions of health care providers to include identity of providers and to include, as appropriate, the present state of the patient's health; and an assessment of the patient's emotional, behavioral, and social status, as well as an assessment of the patient's rehabilitation potential and nursing care needs). Abstract information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         environmental, epidemiological and treatment regimen registries) is maintained in auxiliary paper and electronic records.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The individual receiving care, patients, family members, friends, or accredited representatives, employers; military service departments; health insurance carriers; private medical facilities and health care professionals; State and local agencies; other Federal agencies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         DoW; VA Regional Offices; VHA national databases; Veterans Benefits Administration automated record systems (the “Compensation, Pension, Education and Rehabilitation Records-VA” (58VA21/22/28); and various electronic systems providing clinical and managerial support to VA health care facilities.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND THE PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To the extent that records contained in the system include information protected by 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         individually identifiable health information, and 38 U.S.C. 7332, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         medical treatment information related to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, sickle cell anemia, or infection with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), that information may not be disclosed under a routine use unless there is also specific statutory authority in 38 U.S.C. 7332 and regulatory authority in 45 CFR parts 160 and 164 permitting disclosure.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">1. Government Agencies, Health Organizations, for Claimants' Benefits:</E>
                         To Federal, State, and local government agencies and national health organizations as reasonably necessary to assist in the development of programs that will be beneficial to claimants, to protect their rights under law, and assure that they are receiving all benefits to which they are entitled.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">2. Claims Representatives, for Title 38 Benefits:</E>
                         To accredited service organizations, VA-approved claim agents, and attorneys acting under a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40665"/>
                        declaration of representation, upon request, so that these individuals can aid claimants in the preparation, presentation, and prosecution of claims under the laws administered by VA, provided that the disclosure is limited to information relevant to a claim, such as the name, address, the basis and nature of a claim, amount of benefit payment information, medical information, and military service and active duty separation information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">3. Governmental Agencies, for VA Hiring, Security Clearance, Contract, License, Grant:</E>
                         To a Federal, State, local, or other governmental agency maintaining civil or criminal violation records, or other pertinent information, such as employment history, background investigations, or personal or educational background, to obtain information relevant to VA's hiring, transfer, or retention of an employee, issuance of a security clearance, letting of a contract, or issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit. A disclosure of information about Veterans or their dependents from VA claims files under this routine use must also comply with the requirements of 38 U.S.C. 5701(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">4. Federal Agencies, for Employment:</E>
                         To a Federal agency, except the United States Postal Service, or the District of Columbia government, in response to its request, in connection with that's agency's decision on the hiring, transfer, or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by that agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">5. Family, Partner, for Notification of Patient Status:</E>
                         To family members or the persons involved in the patient's care or with whom the patient has a meaningful relationship, provided that the disclosure is made by appropriate VA personnel to the extent necessary, on a need-to-know basis, and consistent with good medical ethical practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">6. Guardians, Courts, for Incompetent Veterans:</E>
                         To a court, magistrate, or administrative tribunal in matters of guardianship, inquests, and commitments; to private attorneys representing Veterans rated incompetent in conjunction with issuance of Certificates of Incompetency; or to probation and parole officers in connection with court-required duties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">7. Guardians Ad Litem, for Representation:</E>
                         To a fiduciary or guardian ad litem in relation to their representation of a claimant in any legal proceeding as relevant and necessary to fulfill the duties of the fiduciary or guardian ad litem.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">8. Congress:</E>
                         To a member of Congress or staff requests the information on behalf of, and at the request of, the individual who is the subject of the record.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">9. Nonprofits, for Release of Name and Address:</E>
                         To a nonprofit organization if the release is directly connected with the conduct of programs and the utilization of benefits under Title 38 provided that the disclosure is limited the names and addresses of present or former members of the armed services or their beneficiaries, the records will not be used for any purpose other than that stated in the request, and the organization is aware of the penalty provision of 38 U.S.C. 5701(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">10. Red Cross, for Emergency Leave:</E>
                         To the American Red Cross for the purpose of justifying emergency leave, provided that the disclosure is limited to information about the nature of the patient's illness, probable prognosis, estimated life expectancy, and need for the presence of the related Service Member.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">11. Attorneys, Insurers, Employers, for Preparation, Prosecution of Claims:</E>
                         To attorneys, insurance companies, employers, third parties liable or potentially liable under health plan contracts, and courts, boards, or commissions as relevant and necessary to aid VA in the preparation, presentation, and prosecution of claims authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">12. Researchers, for Research:</E>
                         To epidemiological and other research facilities approved by the Under Secretary for Health for research purposes determined to be necessary and proper, provided that the names and addresses of Veterans and their dependents will not be disclosed unless those names and addresses are first provided to VA by the facilities making the request.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">13. Federal Agencies, for Research:</E>
                         To a Federal agency for the purpose of conducting research and data analysis to perform a statutory purpose of that Federal agency upon the written request of that agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">14. Department of Justice, Litigation, Administrative Proceeding:</E>
                         To the Department of Justice (DoJ) or in a proceeding before a court, adjudicative body, or other administrative body before which VA is authorized to appear, when any of the following is a party to such proceedings or has an interest in such proceedings, and VA determines that use of such records is relevant and necessary to the proceedings:
                    </P>
                    <P>a. VA or any component thereof;</P>
                    <P>b. A VA employee in their official capacity;</P>
                    <P>c. A VA employee in their individual capacity, where DOJ has agreed to represent the employee; or</P>
                    <P>d. The United States, where VA determines that litigation is likely to affect the agency or any of its components.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">15. Health Care Providers, for Referral to VA:</E>
                         To a non-VA health care provider when that health care provider has referred the individual to VA for medical or other health services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">16. National Archives and Records Administration:</E>
                         To National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) in records management inspections conducted under 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906, or other functions authorized by laws and policies governing NARA operations and VA records management responsibilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">17. Third Party, for Benefit or Discharge:</E>
                         To a third party upon the written request of the patient's next-of-kin in order for a non-judicially declared incompetent patient or, consistent with the best interest of the patient, a member of the patient's family to receive a benefit to which the patient or family member is entitled or to arrange for the patient's discharge from a VA medical facility. Sufficient data to make an informed determination will be made available to such next-of-kin. If the patient's next-of-kin is not reasonably accessible, the Chief of Staff, Director, or designee of the custodial VA medical facility may disclose the information for these purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        18. 
                        <E T="03">State Licensing Boards, for Licensing:</E>
                         To a Federal agency, a State or local government licensing board, the Federation of State Medical Boards, or a similar non-governmental entity that maintains records concerning individuals' employment histories or concerning the issuance, retention, or revocation of licenses, certifications, or registration necessary to practice an occupation, profession, or specialty, to inform such non-governmental entities about the health care practices of a terminated, resigned, or retired health care employee whose professional health care activity so significantly failed to conform to generally accepted standards of professional medical practice as to raise reasonable concern for the health and safety of patients in the private sector or from another Federal agency. These records may also be disclosed as part of an ongoing computer matching program to accomplish these purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        19. 
                        <E T="03">Public Health Authorities, for Human Immunodeficiency Virus:</E>
                         To a Federal, State, or local public health authority that is charged by law with the protection of the public health, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40666"/>
                        provided that the disclosure is limited to information maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to infection with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), if disclosure of the information to that public health authority is required by law, and a qualified representative of such authority has made a written request that such record be provided as required by the law for a purpose authorized by the law. The person to whom information is disclosed should be advised, consistent with 38 U.S.C. 7332(b)(2)(C), that they may not re-disclose or use the information for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made. A disclosure of information about Veterans or their beneficiaries from VA claims files under this routine use must comply with the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 5701(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        20. 
                        <E T="03">Partner, for Human Immunodeficiency Virus:</E>
                         To the spouse of the patient or subject, an individual with whom the patient or subject has a meaningful relationship, or an individual whom the patient or subject has identified as being a sexual partner of the patient or subject, provided that the disclosure is limited to information indicating that a patient or subject is infected with HIV and made by a physician or professional counselor during the process of professional counseling or of testing to determine whether the patient or subject is infected with the virus, if the physician or counselor, after making reasonable efforts to counsel and encourage the patient or subject to provide the information to the spouse or sexual partner, determines that the disclosure is necessary to protect the health of the spouse or sexual partner. Such disclosures should, to the extent feasible, be made by the patient's or subject gives consent to being tested for HIV, as part of pre-testing counseling, the patient or subject must be informed fully about these notification procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        21. 
                        <E T="03">National Practitioner Data Bank for Hiring, Privileging:</E>
                         To the National Practitioner Data Bank at the time of hiring or clinical privileging/re-privileging of health care practitioners, and other times as deemed necessary by VA, in order for VA to obtain information relevant to a Department decision concerning the hiring, privileging/re-privileging, retention, or termination of the applicant or employee.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        22. 
                        <E T="03">National Practitioner Data Bank, State Licensing Board, for Medical Malpractice:</E>
                         To the National Practitioner Data Bank or State Licensing Board in which a practitioner is licensed, in which the VA facility is located, or in which an act or omission occurred upon which a medical malpractice claim was based when VA reports information concerning:
                    </P>
                    <P>(a) Any payment for the benefit of a physician, dentist, or other licensed health care practitioner that was made as the result of a settlement or judgment of a claim of medical malpractice, if an appropriate determination is made in accordance with Department policy that payment was related to substandard care, professional incompetence, or professional misconduct on the part of the individual;</P>
                    <P>(b) A final decision which relates to possible incompetence or improper professional conduct that adversely affects the clinical privileges of a physician or dentist for a period longer than 30 days; or</P>
                    <P>(c) The acceptance of the surrender of clinical privileges or any restriction of such privileges by a physician or dentist, either while under investigation by the health care entity relating to possible incompetence or improper professional conduct, or in return for not conducting such an investigation or proceeding. These records may also be disclosed as part of a computer matching program to accomplish these purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        23. 
                        <E T="03">Vets Home, for Treatment:</E>
                         To a State Veterans Home for the purpose of medical treatment or follow-up at the state home when VA makes payment of a per diem rate to the state home for the patient receiving care at such home, and the patient receives VA medical care.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        24. 
                        <E T="03">Health Care Providers, for Referral by VA: To:</E>
                         (a) a Federal agency or a health care provider when VA refers a patient for medical and other health services, or authorizes a patient to obtain such services and the information is needed by the Federal agency or health care provider to perform the services; or (b) a Federal agency or a health care provider under the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 513, 7409, 8111, or 8153, when treatment is rendered by VA under the terms of such contract or agreement, or the issuance of an authorization, and the information is needed for purposes of medical treatment or follow-up, determination of eligibility for benefits, or recovery by VA of the costs of the treatment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        25. 
                        <E T="03">The Joint Commission:</E>
                         To survey teams of The Joint Commission, College of American Pathologists, American Association of Blood Banks, and similar national accrediting agencies or boards with which VA has a contract or agreement to conduct such reviews, as relevant and necessary for the purpose of program review or the seeking of accreditation or certification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        26. 
                        <E T="03">Nursing Home, for Pre-Admission Screening:</E>
                         To a non-VA nursing home facility that is considering the patient for admission, when information concerning the individual's medical care is needed for the purpose of preadmission screening under 42 CFR 483.20(f) to identify patients who are mentally ill or mentally retarded so they can be evaluated for appropriate placement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        27. 
                        <E T="03">Medical Schools, for Evaluating Students:</E>
                         To a medical or nursing school, or other facility with which VA has an affiliation, sharing agreement, contract, or similar arrangement, provided that the disclosure is limited to information that relates to the performance of a health care student or provider enrolled at or employed by the school or training institution or other facility, and the information is needed for personnel management, rating, or evaluation purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        28. Contractors:
                        <E T="03"/>
                         To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, students, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for VA, when reasonably necessary to accomplish an agency function related to the records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        29. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, for Computer Matches:</E>
                         To other Federal agencies for the purpose of conducting computer matches to obtain information to determine or verify eligibility of Veterans receiving VA benefits or medical care under Title 38.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        30. 
                        <E T="03">Social Security Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, for Social Security Number Validation:</E>
                         To the Social Security Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) for the purpose of conducting computer matches to obtain information to validate the SSN maintained in VA records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        31. 
                        <E T="03">Food and Drug Administration, for Adverse Drug Reaction:</E>
                         To the Food and Drug Administration, HHS provided that the disclosure is limited to information concerning an adverse drug reaction of a patient, for purpose of quality of care management, including detection, treatment, monitoring, reporting, analysis, and follow-up actions pertaining to adverse drug reactions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        32. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, for Recovery of Medical Care Costs:</E>
                         To Federal agencies and Government-wide third-party insurers responsible for payment of the cost of medical care for the identified patients, to seek recovery of the medical care costs. These records may also be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40667"/>
                        disclosed as part of a computer matching program to accomplish this purpose.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        33. 
                        <E T="03">VA Disciplinary Appeals Board:</E>
                         To a former VA employee, as well as an authorized representative of the employee, whose case is under consideration by the VA Disciplinary Appeals Board pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 7464, in connection with the considerations of the Board, to the extent the Board considers appropriate for purposes of the proceedings of the Board in that case, when authorized by the chairperson of the Board.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        34. 
                        <E T="03">Partner, for Hepatitis:</E>
                         To the spouse of the patient, the person or subject with whom the patient has a meaningful relationship, or an individual whom the patient or subject has identified as being a sexual partner of the patient or subject, provided that the disclosure is limited to information indicating that a patient or subject is infected with hepatitis C and made by a physician or professional counselor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        35. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Labor Relations Authority:</E>
                         To the Federal Labor Relations Authority in connection with the investigation and resolution of allegations of unfair labor practices, the resolution of exceptions to arbitration awards when a question of material fact is raised, matters before the Federal Service Impasses Panel, and the investigation of representation petitions and the conduct or supervision of representation elections.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        36. 
                        <E T="03">Unions, for Representation:</E>
                         To officials of labor organizations recognized under 5 U.S.C. Chapter 71 provided that the disclosure is limited to information identified in 5 U.S.C. 7114(b)(4) that is relevant and necessary to their duties of exclusive representation concerning personnel policies, practices, and matters affecting working conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        37. 
                        <E T="03">Merit Systems Protection Board:</E>
                         To the Merit Systems Protection Board in connection with appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of rules and regulations, investigation of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, such other functions promulgated in 5 U.S.C. 1205 and 1206, or as otherwise authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        38. 
                        <E T="03">Equal Employment Opportunity Commission:</E>
                         To the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) in connection with investigations of alleged or possible discriminatory practices, examinations of Federal affirmative employment programs, or other functions of the Commission as authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        39. 
                        <E T="03">Health/Welfare Agencies, etc., for Veterans Basic/Emergency Needs:</E>
                         To health and welfare agencies, housing resources, and utility companies, in situations where VA needs to act quickly in order to provide basic or emergency needs for the Veteran and Veteran's family where the family resides with the Veteran or serves as a caregiver.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        40. 
                        <E T="03">Funeral Homes, for Arrangements:</E>
                         To funeral directors or representatives of funeral homes in order for them to make necessary arrangements prior to and in anticipation of a Veteran's impending death.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        41. 
                        <E T="03">Food and Drug and Administration, for Adverse Drug Reaction:</E>
                         To the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), or a person subject to the jurisdiction of the FDA, with respect to FDA-regulated products for purposes of reporting adverse events, product defects or problems, or biological product deviations; tracking products; enabling product recalls, repairs, or replacement; or conducting post marketing surveillance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        42. 
                        <E T="03">Non-VA Health Care Providers, for Treatment:</E>
                         To a non-VA health care provider, such as the DoW and HHS, for the purpose of treating any VA patient, including Veterans.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        43. 
                        <E T="03">Phone Operators, for the Hearing-Impaired:</E>
                         To telephone company operators facilitating phone calls to or for hearing-impaired individuals using telephone devices for the hearing-impaired, including Telecommunications Device for the Deaf or Text Telephones.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        44. 
                        <E T="03">Law Enforcement, for Locating Fugitive:</E>
                         To any Federal, State, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement agency in order to identify, locate, or report a known fugitive felon, in compliance with 38 U.S.C. 5313B(d).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        45. 
                        <E T="03">Organ Procurement Agencies, for Determination of Suitability:</E>
                         To an Organ Procurement Organization, a designated requester that is a non-VA employee, or their designees acting on behalf of local Organ Procurement Organizations, for the purpose of determining suitability of a patient's organs or tissues for organ donation, provided that the information does not reveal medical treatment related to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, sickle cell anemia, or infection with HIV, and the names and addresses of Veterans and their beneficiaries, and the disclosure is made by VA employees who are designated requesters (individuals who have completed a course offered or approved by an Organ Procurement Organization), or their designee.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        46. 
                        <E T="03">Department of Defense, for Military Mission:</E>
                         To DoW or its components, provided that the disclosure is limited to information regarding individuals treated under 38 U.S.C. 8111A, for the purpose deemed necessary by appropriate military command authorities to assure proper execution of the military mission.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        47. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, Fraud and Abuse:</E>
                         To other Federal agencies to assist such agencies in preventing and detecting possible fraud or abuse by individuals in their operations and programs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        48. 
                        <E T="03">Data Breach Response and Remediation, for VA:</E>
                         To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when: (a) VA suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (b) VA has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, VA (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (c) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, or persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with VA's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        49. 
                        <E T="03">Health Care Effectiveness Data and Information Set Quality Review:</E>
                         To health plans, quality review and/or peer review organizations in connection with the audit of claims or other review activities to determine quality of care or compliance with professionally accepted claims processing standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        50. 
                        <E T="03">Travel Agencies:</E>
                         To travel agencies, transportation carriers, or others authorized to act on behalf of VA to provide or arrange travel for examination, treatment, or care, or in connection with vocational rehabilitation or counseling services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        51. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for Litigation Involving Individual:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in pending or reasonably anticipated litigation against the individual regarding health care provided during the period of their employment or contract with VA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        52. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for Litigation Involving VA:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in defense or reasonable anticipation of a tort claim, litigation, or other administrative or judicial proceeding involving VA when the Department requires information or consultation assistance from the former employee or contractor regarding health care 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40668"/>
                        provided during the period of their employment or contract with VA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        53. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for Malpractice:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in connection with or in consideration of the reporting of:
                    </P>
                    <P>a. Any payment for the benefit of the former VA employee or contractor that was made as the result of a settlement or judgment of a claim of medical malpractice, if an appropriate determination is made in accordance with Department policy that payment was related to substandard care, professional incompetence, or professional misconduct on the part of the individual;</P>
                    <P>b. A final decision which relates to possible incompetence or improper professional conduct that adversely affects the former employee's or contractor's clinical privileges for a period longer than 30 days; or</P>
                    <P>c. The former employee's or contractor's surrender of clinical privileges or any restriction of such privileges while under investigation by the health care entity relating to possible incompetence or improper professional conduct to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the state licensing board in any state in which the individual is licensed, the VA facility is located, or an act or omission occurred upon which a medical malpractice claim was based.</P>
                    <P>
                        54. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for State Licensing Board Reporting:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in connection with or in consideration of reporting that the individual's professional health care activity so significantly failed to conform to generally accepted standards of professional medical practice as to raise reasonable concern for the health and safety of patients, to a Federal agency, a state or local government licensing board, or the Federation of State Medical Boards or a similar nongovernmental entity that maintains records concerning individuals' employment histories or concerning the issuance, retention, or revocation of licenses, certifications, or registration necessary to practice an occupation, profession, or specialty.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        55. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for Equal Employment Opportunity Commission:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in connection with investigations by the EEOC pertaining to alleged or possible discrimination practices, examinations of Federal affirmative employment programs, or other functions of the Commission as authorized by law or regulation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        56. 
                        <E T="03">Former Employee or Contractor, Representative, for Merit Systems Protection Board, Office of Special Counsel:</E>
                         To a former VA employee or contractor, as well as the authorized representative of a current or former employee or contractor of VA, in proceedings before the Merit Systems Protection Board or the Office of Special Counsel in connection with appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of rules and regulations, investigation of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, and such other functions promulgated in 5 U.S.C. 1205 and 1206, or as otherwise authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        57. 
                        <E T="03">State Prescription Drug Monitoring Program:</E>
                         To a State Prescription Drug Monitoring Program, or similar program, for the purpose of submitting to or receiving from the program information regarding prescriptions to an individual for controlled substances, as required under the applicable State law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        58. 
                        <E T="03">Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services:</E>
                         To the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and/or their designee to evaluate compliance with Medicare or Medicaid health care standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        59. 
                        <E T="03">Department of War and Defense Health Agency:</E>
                         To DoW for the purpose of VA health care operations as defined in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Privacy Rule, 45 CFR parts 160 and 164 and to Defense Health Agency (DHA), as a health care provider, for the purpose of DHA heath care operations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        60. 
                        <E T="03">Data Breach Response and Remediation, for Another Federal Agency:</E>
                         To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when VA determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        61. 
                        <E T="03">Health Data Exchange Organizations:</E>
                         To an organization with whom VA has a documented partnership, arrangement or agreement (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Health Information Exchange, Health Information Service Provider Direct, CommonWell Health Alliance network), for the purpose of identifying and correlating patients.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        62. 
                        <E T="03">Centers for Disease Control and Prevention:</E>
                         To the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and/or its designee in response to its request or at the initiation of VA, in connection with disease-tracking, patient outcomes, bio-surveillance, or other health information required for program accountability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        63. 
                        <E T="03">Cardiac Arrest Registry to Enhance Survival (CARES) Program:</E>
                         To local communities to identify and track cases of hospital cardiac arrest and identify opportunities for quality improvement in the intervention, treatment and survival of such events.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        64. 
                        <E T="03">Health Care Operations of a Federal Covered Entity:</E>
                         To Federal health care providers, for the purpose of performing quality improvement activities or other health care operations of the recipient Federal health care provider.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Records are maintained on paper, microfilm, electronic media including images and scanned documents, or laser optical media in the consolidated health record at the health care facility where care was rendered, in the VA Health Data Repository, at Federal Record Centers and Oracle Health Technology Centers. In most cases, copies of backup computer files are maintained at offsite locations. Subsidiary record information is maintained at the various respective services within the health care facility (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pharmacy, fiscal, dietetic, clinical laboratory, radiology, social work, psychology) and by individuals, organizations, and/or agencies with whom VA has a contract or agreement to perform such services, as the VA may deem practicable.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVABILITY OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are retrieved by name, SSN, ICN, EDIPI, FIN, medical record number or other assigned identifiers of the individuals to whom they pertain.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Records in this system are retained and disposed of in accordance with the records disposition authority approved by the Archivist of the United States, VHA Records Control Schedule (RCS 10-1), Chapter 6, 6000.1d (N1-15-91-6, Item 1d) and 6000.2b (N1-15-02-3, Item 3).
                        <PRTPAGE P="40669"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PHYSICAL, PROCEDURAL, AND ADMINISTRATIVE SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>1. Access to working spaces and patient medical record storage areas in VA health care facilities is restricted to authorized VA employees. Generally, filing areas are locked after normal duty hours. Health care facilities are protected from outside access by the Federal Protective Service and/or other security personnel. Access to patient medical records is restricted to VA employees who have a need for information in the performance of their official duties. Sensitive patient medical records, including employee patient medical records, records of public figures, or other sensitive patient medical records are generally stored in separate locked files or a similar electronically controlled access environment. Strict control measures are enforced to ensure that access to and disclosures from these patient medical records are limited.</P>
                    <P>2. Access to computer rooms within health care facilities is generally limited by appropriate locking devices and restricted to authorized VA employees and vendor personnel. Only authorized VA employees or vendor employees may access information in the system. Access to file information is controlled at two levels: the system recognizes authorized employees by a series of individually unique passwords/codes as a part of each data message, and the employees are limited to only that information in the file that is needed in the performance of their official duties. Information that is downloaded and maintained on personal computers must be afforded similar storage and access protections as the data that is maintained in the original files. Access by remote data users such as Veteran Outreach Centers, Veteran Service Officers with power of attorney to assist with claim processing, VARO staff for benefit determination and processing purposes, OIG staff conducting official audits or investigations, and other authorized individuals is controlled in the same manner.</P>
                    <P>3. Access to the VA National Data Centers is generally restricted to Center employees, custodial personnel, Federal Protective Service, and other security personnel. Access to computer rooms is restricted to authorized operational personnel through electronic locking devices. All other persons gaining access to computer rooms are escorted. Information stored in the computer may be accessed by authorized VA employees at remote locations including VA health care facilities, VA Central Office, VISNs, and OIG Central Office and field staff. Access is controlled by individually unique passwords/codes that must be changed periodically by the employee.</P>
                    <P>4. Access to records maintained at the VA Boston Development Center, Chief Information Office Field Offices, and VISNs are restricted to VA employees who have a need for the information in the performance of their official duties. Access to information stored in electronic format is controlled by USAccess card or individually unique passwords/codes. Records are maintained in manned rooms during working hours. The facilities are protected from outside access during non-working hours by the Federal Protective Service or other security personnel.</P>
                    <P>5. Computer access authorizations, computer applications available and used, information access attempts, and frequency and time of use are recorded.</P>
                    <P>6. Access to Oracle Health Technology Centers is generally restricted to Oracle Health employees, contractors or associates with an Oracle Health issued ID badge and other security personnel cleared for access to the data center. Access to computer rooms housing Federal data, hence Federal enclave, is restricted to persons Federally cleared for Federal enclave access through electronic badge entry devices. All other persons, such as custodians, gaining access to Federal enclave are escorted.</P>
                    <P>7. VA Enterprise Cloud data storage conforms to security protocols as stipulated in VA Directives 6500 and 6517. Access control standards are stipulated in specific agreements with Cloud vendors to restrict and monitor access.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURE:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking information regarding access to VA medical records in this system pertaining to them should write, call or visit the Release of Information Office at the last VA health care facility where medical care was provided. A request for access to records must contain the requester's full name, address and telephone number, be signed by the requester and describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable VA personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking to contest or amend records in this system pertaining to them should write, call or visit the Release of Information Office at the last VA health care facility where medical care was provided. A request to contest or amend records must state clearly and concisely what record is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the record.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURE:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals who wish to be notified if a record in this system of records pertains to them should submit the request following the procedures described in “Record Access Procedures,” above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>69 FR 18428 (April 7, 2004); 79 FR 47732 (August 14, 2014); 85 FR 62406 (October 2, 2020)</P>
                </PRIACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13454 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0261]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Application for Refund of Educational Contributions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of a currently approved collection, and allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Program-Specific information:</E>
                         Kendra McCleave, 202-461-8924, 
                        <E T="03">kendra.mccleave@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">VA PRA information:</E>
                         Dorothy Glasgow, 202-461-1084, 
                        <E T="03">VAPRA@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
                    <PRTPAGE P="40670"/>
                </P>
                <P>With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Application for Refund of Educational Contributions, VA Form 22-5281.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0261 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRASearch</E>
                     (Once at this link, you can enter the OMB Control Number to find the historical versions of this Information Collection).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Public Law 94-502 established the Post-Vietnam Era Educational Assistance Program (VEAP). The VEAP program account is jointly funded by the eligible participant and the Department of Defense. The fund provides educational assistance payments to eligible participants who entered the service after December 31, 1976, and before July 1, 1985, and are pursuing training under chapter 32, title 38 U.S.C. The Application for Refund of Educational Contributions, VA Form 22-5281, is required to process a refund of contributions made by eligible participants who wish to disenroll from the program. If a participant stops enrollment from the program prior to discharge or release from active duty, such participant's contributions will be refunded on the date of the participant's discharge or release from active duty, or within 60 days of receipt of notice by the Secretary of the participants' discharge. If a participant stops enrollment from the program after discharge or release from active duty, the participant's contributions shall be refunded within 60 days of receipt of an application for a refund from the participant. In 2022, VA conducted a project which attempted to identify all Veterans with remaining chapter 32 contributions and provide them with the VA Form 22-5281 to receive a refund, as they're no longer eligible to use chapter 32 benefits. The burden for the current renewal has decreased because no similar large-scale effort to contact Veterans was conducted during 2023, 2024, or 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     429 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     10 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Once.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     2,571.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shunda Willis,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate, VA PRA Clearance Officer, Office of Information Technology/Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13399 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. VA-2026-VACO-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Debt Management Center (DMC), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, notice is hereby given that VA is modifying the system of records titled “Centralized Accounts Receivable System/Centralized Accounts Receivable On-Line System (CARS/CAROLS)” (88VA244). This system is used to collect and maintain information on individuals that have an accounts receivable resulting from participating in a VA benefit program. It is designed to assist in the collection of government overpayments (debts). The system reflects the accounts receivable under the jurisdiction of the VA DMC. The system displays debts which are generated from four main areas in the Veterans Benefits Administration: Education, Compensation, Pension, and Loan Guaranty. The system also houses some debts relating to the Veterans Health Administration but does not directly contain medical records.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments on this modified system of records must be received no later than 30 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . If no public comment is received during the period allowed for comment or unless otherwise published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         by VA, the modified system of records will become effective a minimum of 30 days after date of publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . If VA receives public comments, VA shall review the comments to determine whether any changes to the notice are necessary.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under docket number VA-2026-VACO-0001 or mailed to VA Privacy Service (005X6F), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420. Comments should indicate that they are submitted in response to “Centralized Accounts Receivable System/Centralized Accounts Receivable On-Line (CARS/CAROLS)” (88VA244). Instructions for accessing agency documents, submitting comments, and viewing the docket are available on 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under “FAQ.”
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Morgen Egesdal, Management Analyst, FOIA, Privacy and Records Officer, Debt Management Center, Office of Management, 
                        <E T="03">Morgan.Egesdal@va.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>VA is modifying the systems of records by revising the following sections: System Name, System Location, System Manager, Categories of Records in the System, Routine Uses, Policies and Practices for Storage of Records, Policies and Practices for Retrieval of Records, Policies and Practices for Retention and Disposal of Records, Administrative, Technical, and Physical Safeguards, Record Access Procedures, Contesting Records Procedures, Notification Procedures, and History.</P>
                <P>System Name is being changed to “Benefits Accounts Receivable Records (BARR)—VA.”</P>
                <P>System Location is being updated to “Applications servers, external interface, and databases located at the VA Austin Information Technology Center (AITC) in Austin, TX.”</P>
                <P>
                    System Manager email is being updated to 
                    <E T="03">“DMC_SSOD_Questions@va.gov.”</E>
                </P>
                <P>Categories of Records in the System is being updated in part to “VA file number, social security number, Receivable ID, Tax Identification Number (TIN), name, date of birth, mailing address, loan reference number, phone number, email address, financial information, and VA benefit overpayment (debt) information.”</P>
                <P>Routine Uses are being updated to align with VA standard practices.</P>
                <P>Routine uses 1-16 and 19-23 remain the same in substance, if not exact verbiage.</P>
                <P>The former routine use 17 is being removed, as it is covered under routine use 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The former routine use 18 is being split into routine uses 17 and 18, respectively, to state “Treasury, for Payment or Reimbursement—To the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="40671"/>
                    Department of the Treasury to facilitate payments to veterans for reimbursement of authorized expenses, as well as to collect, by set off or otherwise, debts owed the United States.” and “Treasury, for Withholding—To the Department of the Treasury for the collection of title 38 benefit overpayments, overdue indebtedness, or costs of services provided to an individual not entitled to such services, by the withholding of all or a portion of the person's Federal income tax refund, provided that the disclosure is limited to information concerning an individual's indebtedness by virtue of a person's participation in a benefits program administered by VA.”
                </P>
                <P>The title of routine use 23 is being updated to “Third Party Collection Agencies, for Debt Collection Purposes,” while the text it precedes remains the same.</P>
                <P>The Do Not Pay routine use number 24 is being added to comply with OMB disclosure requirements.</P>
                <P>The Policies and Practices for Storage of Records is being updated to “Records are maintained electronically on computer storage devices such as servers and cloud storage. The computer storage devices are located at the AITC. Computer records are maintained in a secure password protected environment.”</P>
                <P>Policies and Practices for Retrieval of Records is being updated to “Records may be retrieved or identified using any combination of the following: VA file number, VA Receivable ID, social security number, full name, date of birth, address, phone number.”</P>
                <P>Policies and Practices for Retention and Disposal of Records is being updated to “Records in this system are retained and disposed of in accordance with the schedule approved by the Archivist of the United States, General Records Schedule 1.1, Item number 10.”</P>
                <P>Administrative, Technical, and Physical Safeguards is being updated to “Access to these records is restricted to authorized VA employees or contractors, on a “need to know” basis. Offices where these records are maintained are locked after working hours and are protected from outside access by the Federal Protective Service, other security officers, and alarm systems. Access to computerized records is restricted to authorized VA employees or contractors, by means of Single Sign-On Integration (SSOI) and two factor authentication via the use of employee PIV cards and unique PIN. Security controls used to protect personal sensitive data are commensurate with those required for an information system rated moderate for confidentiality, integrity, and availability, as prescribed in NIST Special Publication, 800-53, “Recommended Security Controls for Federal Information Systems,” Revision 4. Administrative controls include the policies and procedures governing the agency program and systems operated within, background investigations for privileged users, and rules of behavior. Technical controls include role-based, user access controls and data encryption.”</P>
                <P>Record Access Procedures is being updated to “Individuals seeking information on the existence and content of records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above. A request for access to records must contain the requester's full name, address, telephone number, be signed by the requester, and describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable VA personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort.”</P>
                <P>Contesting Records Procedures is being updated to “Individuals seeking to contest or amend records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above. A request to contest or amend records must state clearly and concisely what record is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the record.”</P>
                <P>Notification Procedures is being updated to “Individuals who wish to be notified if a record in this system of records pertains to them should submit the request following the procedures described in “Record Access Procedure, above.”</P>
                <P>History is being updated to “63 FR 16864 (April 6, 1998); 83 FR 40140 (August 13, 2018).”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Signing Authority:</E>
                     The Senior Agency Official for Privacy, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Paul Lawrence, Assistant Secretary for Information and Technology and Chief Information Officer, Department of Veterans Affairs approved this document on May 26, 2026 for publication.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 30, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Crystal Drakeford,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Government Information Specialist, VA Privacy Service, Office of Information and Technology, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Benefits Accounts Receivable Records/(BARR)—VA—88VA244.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Applications servers, external interface, and databases are located at the VA Austin Information Technology Center (AITC) in Austin, TX.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>
                        Executive Director, Debt Management Center (189/00), U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, Bishop Henry Whipple Federal Building, 1 Federal Drive, Ft. Snelling, MN 55111. Phone: 612-725-4353. Email: 
                        <E T="03">DMC_SSOD_Questions@va.gov</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>31 U.S.C. Chapter 37; 5 U.S.C. Chapter 55; and 5 U.S.C. Chapter 53.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>The purpose of this system is to maintain records of individuals, organizations and other entities: (1) indebted to the United States as a result of their participation in benefit and health care programs administered by VA; (2) indebted as a result of erroneous pay administration; (3) indebted under any other program administered by any agency of the United States Government and whose indebtedness record has been referred to VA for Government-wide cross-servicing under 31 U.S.C. 3711(g)(4); and (4) indebted under any Federal, state, or local government program and whose debt was referred to VA for collection under any valid interagency agreement. Information in this system of records is used for the administrative management and collection of debts owed the United States and any state or local government and for which records are maintained in accordance with the preceding sentence.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Persons indebted to the United States Government as a result of their participation in benefit programs (including health care programs) administered by VA under title 38, United States Code, chapters 11, 13, 15, 17, 18, 21, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36 and 37, including persons indebted to the United States Government by virtue of their ownership, contractual obligation or rental of property owned by the Government or encumbered by a VA- guaranteed, insured, direct or vendee loan. The individuals covered are persons indebted to the United States Government as a result of their participation in a benefit program administered by VA, but who did not meet the requirements for receipt of such benefits or services. Persons 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40672"/>
                        indebted to the United States, a state or local government whose debts are referred to the Department of Veterans Affairs for Government-wide cross-servicing under 31 U.S.C. 3711(g)(4) or any valid interagency agreement. Persons indebted to the United States as the result of erroneous payment of pay or allowances or as the result of erroneous payment of travel, transportation or relocation expenses and allowances (previously and hereinafter referred to as “pay administration”) under the provisions of title 5, United States Code, part III, subpart D.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Identifying information for a person indebted to the VA may include VA file number, social security number, Tax Identification Number (TIN), Receivable ID, name, date of birth, mailing address, loan reference number, phone number, email address, financial information, and VA benefit overpayment (debt) information. These data elements may be obtained from: indebtedness records of Federal agencies other than VA and the following Privacy Act systems of records: “Debt Collection Operations System—Treasury/Financial Management Service” (Treasury/FMS.014); “Compensation, Pension, Education and Vocational Rehabilitation Records—VA” (58VA21/22/28); “Loan Guaranty Home, Condominium and Manufactured Home Loan Applicant Records, Specially Adapted Housing Applicant Records, and Vendee Loan Applicant Records—VA” (55VA26); “Patient Medical Records—VA” (24VA10A7); and, “Veterans and Beneficiaries Purchased Care Community Health Care Claims, Correspondence, Eligibility, Inquiry and Payment Files—VA” (54VA10NB3); initial indebtedness amount, amounts claimed for reimbursement, type of benefit from which the debt arose, identifying number of the VA regional office with jurisdiction over the underlying benefit claim or property subject to default or foreclosure, station number of the VA health care facility rendering services, name of co-obligor, and property address of the defaulted home loan from 58VA21/22/28, 55VA26, 24VA10A7, and 54VA10NB3, history of debt collection activity on the person, organization or entity includes correspondence, telephone calls, referrals to other Federal, state, or local agencies, VA regional counsel, private collection and credit reporting agencies, payments received, refunds made, interest amount, current balance of debt and indication of status of current VA benefit payments, Federal employment status obtained by computer matching with Government agencies and the United States Postal Service, among other sources. No personal medical information concerning the nature of disease, injury or disability is transmitted to or maintained in this system of records.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>The records in this system are derived from the five other systems of records as set forth above in “Categories Of Records In The System”, persons indebted to the United States by virtue of their participation in programs administered by VA or other Government agencies, dependents of those persons, fiduciaries for those persons (VA or court appointed), other Federal agencies, state and local agencies, private collection agencies, consumer reporting agencies, state, local and county courts and clerks, other third parties and other VA records.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">Congress:</E>
                         To a Member of Congress or staff acting upon the Member's behalf when the Member or staff requests the information on behalf of, and at the request of, the individual who is the subject of the record.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">Data Breach Response and Remediation, for VA:</E>
                         To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when: (a) VA suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (b) VA has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, VA (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (c) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with VA's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        3. 
                        <E T="03">Data Breach Response and Remediation, for Another Federal Agency:</E>
                         To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when VA determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        4. 
                        <E T="03">Law Enforcement Authorities, for Reporting Violations of Law:</E>
                         To a Federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement authority or other appropriate entity charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal, or regulatory in nature, or charged with enforcing or implementing such law, provided that the disclosure is limited to information that, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicates such a violation or potential violation. A disclosure of information about veterans or their dependents from VA claims files under this routine use must also comply with the requirements of 38 U.S.C. 5701(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        5. 
                        <E T="03">Department of Justice, Litigation, Administrative Proceeding:</E>
                         To the Department of Justice (DoJ), or in a proceeding before a court, adjudicative body, or other administrative body before which VA is authorized to appear, when any of the following is a party to such proceedings or has an interest in such proceedings, and VA determines that use of such records is relevant and necessary to the proceedings:
                    </P>
                    <P>(a) VA or any component thereof;</P>
                    <P>(b) Any VA employee in their official capacity;</P>
                    <P>(c) Any VA employee in their individual capacity where DoJ has agreed to represent the employee; or</P>
                    <P>(d) The United States, where VA determines that litigation is likely to affect the agency or any of its components.</P>
                    <P>
                        6. 
                        <E T="03">Contractors:</E>
                         To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, students, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for VA, when reasonably necessary to accomplish an agency function related to the records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        7. 
                        <E T="03">Equal Employment Opportunity Commission:</E>
                         To the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in connection with investigations of alleged or possible discriminatory practices, examination of Federal affirmative employment programs, or other functions of the Commission as authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        8. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Labor Relations Authority:</E>
                         To the Federal Labor Relations Authority in connection with the investigation and resolution of allegations of unfair labor practices, the resolution of exceptions to arbitration awards when a question of material fact is raised, matters before the Federal Service Impasses Panel, and the investigation of representation petitions 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40673"/>
                        and the conduct or supervision of representation elections.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        9. 
                        <E T="03">Merit System Protection Board:</E>
                         To the Merit Systems Protection Board in connection with appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of rules and regulations, investigation of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, and such other functions promulgated in 5 U.S.C. 1205 and 1206, or as authorized by law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        10. 
                        <E T="03">National Archives and Records Administration:</E>
                         To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) in records management inspections conducted under 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906, or other functions authorized by laws and policies governing NARA operations and VA records management responsibilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        11. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, for Computer Matches:</E>
                         To other Federal agencies for the purpose of conducting computer matches to obtain information to determine or verify eligibility of veterans receiving VA benefits or medical care under title 38.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        12. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, Courts, Litigants, for Litigation or Administrative Proceedings:</E>
                         To another Federal agency, court, or party in litigation before a court or in an administrative proceeding conducted by a Federal agency, when the government is a party to the judicial or administrative proceeding.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        13. 
                        <E T="03">Governmental Agencies, for VA Hiring, Security Clearance, Contract, License, Grant:</E>
                         To a Federal, state, local, or other governmental agency maintaining civil or criminal violation records, or other pertinent information, such as employment history, background investigations, or personal or educational background, to obtain information relevant to VA's hiring, transfer, or retention of an employee, issuance of a security clearance, letting of a contract, or issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit. The disclosure of the names and addresses of veterans and their dependents from VA records under this routine use must also comply with the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 5701.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        14. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Agencies, for Employment:</E>
                         To a Federal agency, except the United States Postal Service, or to the District of Columbia government, in response to its request, in connection with that agency's decision on the hiring, transfer, or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by that agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        15. 
                        <E T="03">State or Local Agencies, for Employment:</E>
                         To a state, local, or other governmental agency, upon its official request, as relevant and necessary to that agency's decision on the hiring, transfer, or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by that agency. A disclosure of information about veterans or their dependents from VA claims files under this routine use must also comply with the requirements of 38 U.S.C. 5701(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        16. 
                        <E T="03">Consumer Reporting Agencies:</E>
                         To a consumer reporting agency for the purpose of locating the individual, obtaining a consumer report to determine the ability of the individual to repay an indebtedness to the United States, or assisting in the collection of such indebtedness, provided that the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 5701(g)(2) and (4) have been met, provided that the disclosure is limited to information that is reasonably necessary to identify such individual or concerning that individual's indebtedness to the United States by virtue of the person's participation in a benefits program administered by the Department.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        17. 
                        <E T="03">Treasury, for Payment or Reimbursement:</E>
                         To the Department of the Treasury to facilitate payments to veterans for reimbursement of authorized expenses, as well as to collect, by set off or otherwise, debts owed the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        18. 
                        <E T="03">Treasury, for Withholding:</E>
                         To the Department of the Treasury for the collection of title 38 benefit overpayments, overdue indebtedness, or costs of services provided to an individual not entitled to such services, by the withholding of all or a portion of the person's Federal income tax refund, provided that the disclosure is limited to information concerning an individual's indebtedness by virtue of a person's participation in a benefits program administered by VA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        19. 
                        <E T="03">Treasury, to Report Waived Debt as Income:</E>
                         To the Department of the Treasury as a report of income under 26 U.S.C. 61(a)(12), provided that the disclosure is limited to information concerning an individual's indebtedness that is waived under 38 U.S.C. 3102, compromised under 4 CFR part 103, otherwise forgiven, or for which the applicable statute of limitations for enforcing collection has expired.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        20. 
                        <E T="03">Guardians Ad Litem, for Representation:</E>
                         To a fiduciary or guardian ad litem in relation to his or her representation of a claimant in any legal proceeding as relevant and necessary to fulfill the duties of the fiduciary or guardian ad litem.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        21. 
                        <E T="03">Guardians, Courts, for Incompetent Veterans:</E>
                         To a court, magistrate, or administrative tribunal in matters of guardianship, inquests, and commitments; to private attorneys representing veterans rated incompetent in conjunction with issuance of Certificates of Incompetency; or to probation and parole officers in connection with court-required duties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        22. 
                        <E T="03">Claims Representatives, for Title 38 Benefits:</E>
                         To accredited service organizations, VA-approved claim agents, and attorneys acting under a declaration of representation, upon request, so that these individuals can aid claimants in the preparation, presentation, and prosecution of claims under the laws administered by VA, provided that the disclosure is limited to information relevant to a claim, such as the name, address, the basis and nature of a claim, amount of benefit payment information, medical information, and military service and active duty separation information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        23. 
                        <E T="03">Third Party Collection Agencies, for Debt Collection Purposes:</E>
                         A. Any information in this system, including available identifying information regarding a person, such as the person's name, address, Social Security number, VA insurance number, VA claim number, VA loan number, date of birth, employment information or identification number assigned by any Government component, may be disclosed, except to consumer reporting agencies, to a third party in order to obtain current name, address and credit report in connection with any proceeding for the collection of an amount owed the United States. Such disclosure may be made in the course of computer matching having the purpose of obtaining the information indicated above. Third parties may include other Federal agencies or state probate courts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        B. Any information concerning a person's indebtedness to the United States, including personal information obtained from other Federal agencies through computer matching programs, may be disclosed to any third party, except consumer reporting agencies, in connection with any proceeding for the collection of any amount owed to the United States. Purposes of these disclosures include but are not limited to (a) assisting the Government in collection of debts resulting from participation in Government programs of all categories and pay administration, and (b) initiating legal actions for prosecuting individuals who willfully or fraudulently obtain Government benefits, pay or allowances without entitlement. Third parties may include, but are not limited to, persons, organizations or other entities with contracts for collection services with the Government.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40674"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>C. The name and address of a debtor, other information as is reasonably necessary to identify such person, including personal information obtained from other Federal, state, or local agencies as well as private sources through computer matching, and other information concerning the person's indebtedness to the United States, may be disclosed to third parties, including Federal, state, and local government agencies to determine the debtor's employer. Such information may be used to initiate garnishment of disposable pay in accordance with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3720D.</P>
                    <P>D. The name and address of a debtor, and such other information as may be necessary for identification of that debtor, may be disclosed to a debtor's employer for purposes of initiating garnishment of the disposable pay of that debtor under the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3720D.</P>
                    <P>E. The names and addresses of delinquent debtors, along with the amounts of their debts, may be published or otherwise publicly disseminated subject to the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3720E.</P>
                    <P>F. Any information in this system may be disclosed to a third-party purchaser of debt more than 90 days delinquent and for which the sale of such debt was conducted pursuant to the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3711(i).</P>
                    <P>
                        24. 
                        <E T="03">Treasury, for the Do Not Pay Working System:</E>
                         To The U.S. Department of the Treasury when disclosure of the information is relevant to review payment and award eligibility through the Do Not Pay Working System for the purposes of identifying, preventing, or recouping improper payments to an applicant for, or receipt of, Federal funds including funds disbursed by a state (meaning a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, a territory or possession of the United States, or a federally recognized Indian tribe) in a state-administered, federally funded program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are maintained electronically on computer storage devices such as servers and cloud storage. The computer storage devices are located at the AITC. Computer records are maintained in a secure password protected environment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records may be retrieved or identified using any combination of the following: VA file number, social security number, Receivable ID, full name, date of birth, address, phone number.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system are retained and disposed of in accordance with the schedule approved by the Archivist of the United States, General Records Schedule 1.1, Item number 10.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>Access to these records is restricted to authorized VA employees or contractors, on a “need-to-know” basis. Offices where these records are maintained are locked after working hours and are protected from outside access by the Federal Protective Service, other security officers and alarm systems. Access to computerized records is restricted to authorized VA employees or contractors, by means of SSOI and two factor authentication via the use of employee PIV cards and unique PIN. Security controls used to protect personal sensitive data are commensurate with those required for an information system rated moderate for confidentiality, integrity, and availability, as prescribed in NIST Special Publication, 800-53, “Recommended Security Controls for Federal Information Systems,” Revision 4. Administrative controls include the policies and procedures governing the agency program and systems operated within, background investigations for privileged users, and rules of behavior. Technical controls include role-based, user access controls and data encryption.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking information on the existence and content of records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above. A request for access to records must contain the requester's full name, address, telephone number, be signed by the requester, and describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable VA personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals seeking to contest or amend records in this system pertaining to them should contact the system manager in writing as indicated above. A request to contest or amend records must state clearly and concisely what record is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the record.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals who wish to be notified if a record in this system of records pertains to them should submit the request following the procedures described in “Record Access Procedure,” above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>63 FR 16864 (April 6, 1998); 83 FR 40140 (August 13, 2018).</P>
                </PRIACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13453 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="40675"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Homeland Security</AGENCY>
            <CFR>8 CFR Parts 204, 205, et al.</CFR>
            <TITLE>EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022; Ensuring the Integrity of the EB-5 Program; Automatic Revocation of Petitions for Immigrant Classification; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40676"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>8 CFR Parts 204, 205, 216 and 235</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[CIS No. 2770-24; DHS Docket No. USCIS-2026-0100]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1615-AC94</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022; Ensuring the Integrity of the EB-5 Program; Automatic Revocation of Petitions for Immigrant Classification</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (“USCIS”), Department of Homeland Security (“DHS”).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This proposed rule would implement the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 (RIA), which the President signed on March 15, 2022. The RIA substantially reforms and adds significant integrity provisions to the employment-based, fifth preference (EB-5) visa category for alien investors and the associated Regional Center Program. In general, under the EB-5 program, aliens are eligible to apply for lawful permanent resident status in the United States if they make the necessary investment in a new commercial enterprise in the United States and create 10 permanent full-time jobs for qualified U.S. workers.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Submission of Public Comments:</E>
                             Written comments must be submitted on or before August 31, 2026. The electronic Federal Docket Management System will accept comments prior to midnight eastern time at the end of that day.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            You may submit comments on the entirety of this proposed rulemaking package, identified by DHS Docket No. USCIS-2026-0100, through the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             eRulemaking Portal: 
                            <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), the summary of this rule found above may also be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             Follow the website instructions for submitting comments.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Comments must be submitted in English, or an English translation must be provided. Comments that will provide the most assistance to USCIS in implementing these changes will reference a specific portion of the proposed rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information, or authority that support such recommended change. Comments submitted in a manner other than the one listed above, including emails or letters sent to DHS or USCIS officials, will not be considered comments on the proposed rule and may not receive a response from DHS. Please note that DHS and USCIS will not accept any comments that are hand-delivered, couriered, or sent by mail. In addition, USCIS cannot accept comments contained on any form of digital media storage devices, such as CDs/DVDs and USB drives. If you cannot submit your comment by using 
                            <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                             please contact the Regulatory Coordination Division, Office of Policy and Strategy, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, by telephone at (240) 721-3000 for alternate instructions.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Immigrant Investor Program Office, Field Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 5900 Capital Gateway Drive, Camp Springs, MD 20746; telephone (240) 721-3000. Individuals with hearing or speech impairments may access the telephone number above via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Information Relay Service at 711.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Public Participation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Legal Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Summary of Proposed Regulatory Changes</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Summary of Benefits and Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Background and Purpose</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. The EB-5 Program</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. The Regional Center Program</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. The EB-5 Immigrant Visa Process</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion of Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Regulatory Background, Proposed Structure, and Implementation of This Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Definitions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. National Security and Fraud</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Alien Investors</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Targeted Employment Areas</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Infrastructure Projects</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Troubled Businesses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Regional Center Program</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Removal of Conditions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Withdrawal Requests and Petition Revocations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Severability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review), and Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Family Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ACS American Community Survey</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AML/CFT Anti-money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ASC Application Support Center</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BLS Bureau of Labor Statistics</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CPI-U Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CY Calendar Year</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EB-5 Employment-Based Fifth Preference</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EIA Economic Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FIRRMA Foreign Investment Risk Review Modernization Act of 2018</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FY Fiscal Year</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GAAS Generally Accepted Auditing Standards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GAO Government Accountability Office</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GS General Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GSA General Services Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HSA Homeland Security Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">INA Immigration and Nationality Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">INS Immigration and Naturalization Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IPO Immigrant Investor Program Office</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IRFA Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">JCE Job-Creating Entity</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LAUS Local Area Unemployment Statistics</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LPR Lawful Permanent Resident</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MSA Metropolitan Statistical Area</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NAICS North American Industry Classification System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NCE New Commercial Enterprise</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NEPA National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OCB Oracle Crystal Ball®</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PRA Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RC Regional Center</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFA Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIA EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SAM Staffing Allocation Model</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SBA Small Business Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SBREFA Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SEC Securities and Exchange Commission</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SOC Standard Occupational Classification</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TEA Targeted Employment Area</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UMRA Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">USCIS United States Citizenship and Immigration Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VPC Volume Projection Committee</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS invites all interested parties to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written data, views, comments, and arguments on all aspects of this proposed rule. DHS also invites comments that relate to the economic, environmental, or federalism effects that might result from this proposed rule. Comments must be submitted in English, or an English translation must be provided. Comments that will 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40677"/>
                        provide the most assistance to USCIS in implementing these changes will reference a specific portion of the proposed rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information, or authority that support such recommended change. Comments submitted in a manner other than the one listed above, including emails or letters sent to DHS or USCIS officials, will not be considered comments on the proposed rule and may not receive a response from DHS. In addition to its general call for comments, DHS is specifically seeking comments on:
                    </P>
                    <P>A. Audits and a regional center's record keeping requirements under section 203(b)(5)(E)(vii) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA);</P>
                    <P>B. The types of projects that may meet the definition of an infrastructure project;</P>
                    <P>C. The high unemployment area designation process, including the most appropriate data sources to calculate weighted unemployment average of census tracts and how a regional center should renew the designation of a previously designated high unemployment area under section 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(IV) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(IV);</P>
                    <P>D. Redeployment of alien investor capital under section 203(b)(5)(F)(v) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v), including the process a regional center should use to document its compliance with the statutory requirements; and</P>
                    <P>E. The process for registering direct and third-party promoters of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.</P>
                    <P>DHS also invites comments on the economic analysis supporting this rule and the proposed form revisions.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         If you submit a comment, you must include the agency name (U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services) and the DHS Docket No. USCIS-2026-0100 for this rulemaking. Regardless of the method used for submitting comments or material, all submissions will be posted, without change, to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         and will include any personal information you provide. Therefore, submitting this information makes it public. You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary public comment submission you make to DHS. DHS may redact information that is offensive or impacts the privacy of an individual. For additional information, please read the Privacy and Security Notice available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         referencing DHS Docket No. USCIS-2026-0100. You may also sign up for email alerts on the online docket to be notified when comments are posted or a final rule is published.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) proposes to update its regulations governing EB-5 alien investors and the Regional Center Program to reflect new requirements provided in the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         as amended by the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 (RIA). Public Law 117-103, Division BB, 136 Stat. 1070 (2022).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Secretary of Homeland Security's authority for the regulatory amendments is found in various provisions of the INA, RIA, 21st Century Department of Justice Appropriations Authorization Act, Public Law 107-273, 116 Stat. 1758 (2002), and the Homeland Security Act of 2002 (HSA), Public Law 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135, 6 U.S.C. 101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         General authority for issuing the rule is found in section 103(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103(a), which authorizes the Secretary to administer and enforce the immigration and nationality laws, including establishing regulations deemed necessary to carry out that authority, as well as section 102 of the HSA, 6 U.S.C. 112, which vests all of the functions of DHS in the Secretary and authorizes the Secretary to issue regulations. Specific authority for the proposed regulatory amendments includes:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), which vests in the Secretary the authority to make visas available to immigrants seeking to engage in a new commercial enterprise in which the immigrant has invested and which will benefit the U.S. economy and create full-time employment for not fewer than 10 U.S. workers. This also includes authority for, among other things, the designation and regulation of regional centers and related entities at sections 203(b)(5)(E), (F), (G), (H), (I), (J) and (K) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E), (F), (G), (H), (I), (J), and (K). It further provides new requirements regarding sources of capital at section 203(b)(5)(L) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(L), protections for good faith investors at section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), authorities to take adverse action related to national security and fraud at sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O), administrative appeals of EB-5 related determinations at section 203(b)(5)(P) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(P), administration requirements for EB-5 investor funds at section 203(b)(5)(Q) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q), required checks for investor petitions at section 203(b)(5)(R) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(R), and future protections from expired legislation at section 203(b)(5)(S) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(S).</P>
                    <P>• Section 203(h)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(h)(5), which provides age-out protections to certain children of EB-5 investors.</P>
                    <P>• Section 204(a)(1)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H), which requires that petitions for classification filed by regional center investors be filed in accordance with the new provisions of the INA, may only be filed after a regional center has filed an associated project application, and that eligibility for such petitions is subject to the approval of the related project application.</P>
                    <P>• Section 245(k) and (n) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1255(k) and (n), which permits concurrent or subsequent filing of applications for adjustment of status for certain EB-5 investors filing petitions for classification.</P>
                    <P>• Section 216A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b, which places conditions on permanent residence obtained through section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), and authorizes the Secretary to remove such conditions on permanent residence for those alien investors who have met the applicable investment requirements, created sufficient employment, and otherwise met the requirements of section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5).</P>
                    <P>• Section 103(b)(1) of the RIA, Public Law 117-103, 136 Stat. 1070 (2022), which amends the INA to direct DHS to issue regulations to implement certain provisions of the INA; specifically, sections 203(b)(5)(F)(v) and (H)(ii)(III) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v) and (H)(ii)(III).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Summary of Proposed Regulatory Changes</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Summary of Major Provisions of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes the following major revisions to the EB-5 program regulations:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Implementing sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) to protect the EB-5 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40678"/>
                        program from fraud and threats to national security.
                    </P>
                    <P>• Reorganizing the regulatory provisions in a new subpart D.</P>
                    <P>• Adding new definitions.</P>
                    <P>• Implementing priority date retention.</P>
                    <P>• Clarifying eligibility requirements, including new capital investment amounts, duration of investment, job creation requirements, and evidentiary requirements.</P>
                    <P>• Eliminating the use of repaid bridge financing as a basis to demonstrate job creation in the EB-5 program.</P>
                    <P>• Determining targeted employment areas (TEAs).</P>
                    <P>• Defining infrastructure projects.</P>
                    <P>• Removing troubled businesses as an avenue to establish eligibility.</P>
                    <P>• Describing regional center program requirements, including designation of a regional center, project applications, redeployment, and bona fides of persons involved with the Regional Center Program.</P>
                    <P>• Implementing the registration process of direct and third-party promoters.</P>
                    <P>• Establishing enforcement provisions, including monetary penalties, suspensions, debarments, and terminations.</P>
                    <P>• Implementing audits.</P>
                    <P>• Creating process improvements for removal of conditions.</P>
                    <P>• Establishing procedures for amendment of the petition to remove conditions on permanent resident status for investors associated with a terminated regional center or debarred new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity.</P>
                    <P>• Explaining the processing of withdrawal requests.</P>
                    <P>• Clarifying the automatic revocation of petitions for immigrant classification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Technical Changes</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes certain miscellaneous technical amendments to improve the readability of the regulatory provisions and eliminate unnecessary descriptions of internal procedures. These modifications are not intended to be substantive and would not change eligibility criteria or evidentiary standards or confer rights or obligations upon any party. In addition to the changes mentioned in this summary, DHS is also describing proposed technical changes in the relevant sections. DHS invites comments on these changes during the public comment period.</P>
                    <P>DHS proposes to modify references to specific form names, and numbers, where appropriate, from various regulatory provisions and replace them with general references to the type of application and petition, in recognition that these forms may evolve or change over time, be consolidated, discontinued, or modified, especially with the expansion of online filings. Removing form numbers, where appropriate, would provide greater flexibility to account for future changes to the form or how the forms are filed.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also proposes to update terminology, as some of the regulations predate the creation of DHS. As such, DHS proposes, for example, to replace the term “Service,” which is the outdated reference to the former Immigration and Naturalization Service, with “USCIS,” “Department,” or “DHS,” as appropriate. Additionally, DHS proposes to remove the term “shall” and to replace it with the term “will,” where appropriate, to clearly indicate what action USCIS will take. Making these changes will assist with clarity and readability of the provisions. Finally, DHS is also proposing to remove, in certain regulatory provisions, the phrase “alien entrepreneur” and add, in its place, the phrase “alien investor.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.2 and 216.3.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also proposes to remove em-dashes, where appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(a). Finally, DHS proposes grammatical changes to better reflect the intended meaning. For example, DHS proposes to change “which” to “that” in proposed 8 CFR 216.3(b) to read “obtained permanent resident status through a commercial enterprise that was improper.”
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Summary of Benefits and Costs</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes to update and align its regulations governing EB-5 immigrant investors and the Regional Center Program to reflect new requirements provided in the RIA. The proposed rule would apply to business entities involved in EB-5 program investment activity; regional centers (RCs), New Commercial Enterprises (NCEs), and Job Creating Entities (JCEs). It would thus apply to investors and some individuals associated with the businesses. This rule proposes numerous technical changes, codifications, clarifications, guidance, and procedural and operational adjustments to the EB-5 program. Many of the changes are not expected to create economic impacts. For provisions that are expected to generate impacts, DHS has made estimates of some, but not all potential impacts due to data and information constraints.</P>
                    <P>EB-5 investment activity can be influenced by local, regional, and national factors relevant to economic growth, employment, demand for types of investment, and availability of capital. It can also be influenced by factors such as capital mobility in particular regions and countries outside the United States. The variation in past program investments and intensity within certain project areas (types of projects and geographical areas) could have been and may be influenced by multiple factors that are exogenous to the regulatory framework of the EB-5 program. It is not possible to sort out or identify all the possible factors that can influence the program to determine exactly how the investment activity and related business entities would be impacted, and further, what the effects from and responses to the impacts could be. The multiple provisions being proposed are intended to align the practice of the program with its true intent of stimulating domestic capital investment and job creation while rooting out problems the program has encountered. Second, most of the impacts are expected to accrue to time-related, administrative, documentary, evidentiary, and organizational efforts needed to meet the requirements of the provisions, and this is not something that can be quantified.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule seeks to implement RIA's provisions to improve the program along five pathways. First, it would provide clear and thorough guidance to program participants and the public concerning practices, responsibilities, and requirements of the program under the RIA.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Second, it would provide DHS with a set of tools to implement provisions under RIA to protect the EB-5 program from fraud and threats to national security, including sanctions that also act as incentives for EB-5 entities to engage in appropriate practices to avoid sanctions. Third, it would support RIA's stringent oversight and evidentiary requirements to provide more assurance that program activities and investments meet compliance standards. Fourth, it would provide some flexibilities for investors to deal with changes in business conditions pertinent to them.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Participants in EB-5 programs may also need to consider the extent to which their activities or a particular project may raise issues or impose obligations under the Federal securities laws, including whether there is an offering or sale of any “security” under those laws. A description of these laws is available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/statutes-regulations.</E>
                             Activities subject to Federal securities laws may lead to liability under the statutes and rules administered by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), separately from any requirements of the EB-5 programs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As is noted above, it is not possible to determine how specific entities 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40679"/>
                        would be impacted by specific provisions and what the resulting effects of such impacts would be. However, DHS can draw on some information and data to make partial quantified estimates applicable to some provisions. For the impacts that could be estimated and quantified, at a three percent discount rate the annualized impacts over ten years could range from $39.90 million to $87.36 million, with a midpoint of $63.59 million. At a seven percent discount rate, annualized impacts could range from $38.80 million to $85.39 million, with a midpoint of $62.06 million. These monetized estimated impacts will accrue to the public and private sector.
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 1 presents the main provisions in the proposed rule, beginning with the monetized estimates (or the quantified impacts) (Table 3A), following by the unquantified impacts (Table 3B), whereas monetized figures reflect the annualized amount for the midpoint of a range, at a seven percent discount rate. The population figures reflect annual averages unless otherwise stated. The information in Table 3 is presented as a broad outline with greater detail provided in the ensuring analysis.  </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="230">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.017</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40680"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.018</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40681"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.019</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40682"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.020</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="450">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40683"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.021</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>In addition to the summary of potential impacts elucidated in Table 3, DHS offers the OMB A-4 accounting statement in Table 2.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="173">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.022</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40684"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.023</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40685"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.024</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="605">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40686"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.025</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>Comprehensive details aligned to the impacts summarized here are provided in the accompanying regulatory impact assessment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background and Purpose</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The EB-5 Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        Congress established the EB-5 immigrant visa classification for investors associated with employment creation as part of the Immigration Act of 1990. Public Law 101-649, 104 Stat. 4978. With the amendments made by the RIA, Public Law 117-103, Division BB, 136 Stat. 1070 (2022), the EB-5 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40687"/>
                        classification makes lawful permanent resident (LPR) status available to aliens who invest at least $1.05 million in a new commercial enterprise (NCE) that will create at least 10 full-time jobs for qualifying employees 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(i). The required investment amount is lowered to $800,000 if the investment is made in a Targeted Employment Area (TEA) or in an infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(ii). A TEA is a rural area or area designated by DHS as an area of high unemployment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(viii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(viii); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         INA secs. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii), (b)(5)(D)(vii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii), (b)(5)(D)(vii). The INA allots 7.1 percent of the worldwide level of employment-based visas (generally around 9,940 immigrant visas) each fiscal year for aliens seeking to enter the United States under the EB-5 classification.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 201(d), 203(b)(5), 8 U.S.C. 1151(d), 1153(b)(5). The INA reserves annually 20 percent of these visas for qualified immigrants who invest in a rural area, 10 percent of these visas for qualified immigrants who invest in a high unemployment area, and 2 percent of these visas for qualified immigrants who invest in an infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             A qualifying employee may include a U.S. citizen, U.S. national, lawful permanent resident of the United States, or other immigrant lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii). A qualifying employee does not include the investor, his or her spouse, or his or her children. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             An immigrant investor, his or her spouse, and children (if any) will each use a separate visa number.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Regional Center Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        Enacted in 1992, section 610 of the Departments of Commerce, Justice, and State, the Judiciary, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 1993, Public Law 102-395, 106 Stat. 1828, 1874, established a pilot program that authorized the provision of a limited number of EB-5 immigrant visas to aliens who invested in designated regional centers. The Regional Center Program was initially designed as a pilot program set to expire after 5 years. Congress continuously extended the program, often through short-term extensions, until the last extension expired on June 30, 2021. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 116-260, Division O, sec. 104, 134 Stat. 2148.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        On March 15, 2022, President Biden signed the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2022, Public Law 117-103, 136 Stat. 1070. Division BB of this Act contains the RIA, which repealed section 610 of Public Law 102-395 and established new provisions of section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), to authorize and reform the Regional Center Program, including myriad integrity and process reforms. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 103, 136 Stat. 1070, 1075 (2022). The Regional Center Program authorized by the RIA took effect May 14, 2022, and is discussed in greater detail in section IV.H.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under the Regional Center Program, aliens base their EB-5 immigrant visa petitions on investments in new commercial enterprises associated with and located within designated regional centers. A regional center is an entity in the United States that has been designated by USCIS on the basis of a proposal for the promotion of economic growth, including prospective job creation and increased domestic capital investment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E). While all EB-5 petitioners have to create at least 10 full-time jobs for qualifying employees in the United States, petitioners participating in the Regional Center Program may meet statutory job creation requirements based on economic projections of either direct or indirect job creation, rather than only using jobs the new commercial enterprise creates directly. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Any entity seeking designation as a regional center must submit all information required by statute 
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         using forms designated by USCIS Prior to the RIA, entities seeking designation as a regional center had to file Form I-924, Application for Regional Center Designation under the Immigrant Investor Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(m)(3)-(4) (Nov. 20, 2019). On or after May 14, 2022 (the effective date of the provisions of the Regional Center Program in the INA established by the RIA), entities seeking designation as a regional center must file Form I-956, Application for Regional Center Designation. USCIS published Form I-956 on May 13, 2022, under an exemption from the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) provided by the RIA,
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and subsequently published Form I-956 for public comment to comply with the PRA because the exemption only lasted one year. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         87 FR 54233 (Sept. 2, 2022); 87 FR 79343 (Dec. 27, 2022). The form was subsequently updated on March 15, 2023,
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under the exemption from the PRA provided by the RIA,
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         with a subsequent submission to OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), to finalize all edits to impacted forms with approval granted on the following forms on July 24, 2023: USCIS Forms I-526, I-526E, I-956, I-956F, I-956G, I-956H, I-956K. The current version of Form I-956 is available on the USCIS website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/i-956.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Section 106 of the RIA provided a one-year exemption from the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 35). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, Sec. 106(d) (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, “Forms Updates”, see links for USCIS Forms I-526, I-526E, I-956, I-956F, I-956G, I-956H, I-956K 
                            <E T="03">available at https://www.uscis.gov/forms/forms-updates?items_per_page=25&amp;page=9</E>
                             (Edition Date: March 15, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             Section 106 of the RIA provided a one-year exemption from the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 35). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, Sec. 106(d) (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Once designated, regional centers may submit Form I-956F, Application for Approval of an Investment in a Commercial Enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 103(b)(1), 136 Stat. 1070, 1078 (2022); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F). USCIS published Form I-956F on June 1, 2022, and subsequently published Form I-956F for public comment and made revisions based on those comments. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         87 FR 54233 (Sept. 2, 2022); 87 FR 79343 (Dec. 27, 2022). The current version of Form I-956F is available on the USCIS website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/i-956f.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Designated regional centers must also provide USCIS with updated information to demonstrate continued eligibility for the designation by submitting Form I-956G, Regional Center Annual Statement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G). Prior to the RIA, designated regional centers submitted an annual statement to USCIS on Form I-924A, Annual Certification of Regional Center. USCIS published Form I-956G on June 1, 2022, and subsequently published Form I-956G for public comment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         87 FR 54233 (Sept. 2, 2022); 87 FR 79343 (Dec. 27, 2022). The current version of Form I-956G is available on the USCIS website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/i-956g.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The RIA also established in the INA the EB-5 Integrity Fund, for which each designated regional center must pay annually a required fee to retain its designation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(J), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(J). USCIS will use the EB-5 Integrity Fund for integrity measures and in the administration of the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(J)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40688"/>
                        1153(b)(5)(J)(iii). DHS published a 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice explaining the payment process and requiring payment beginning on March 2, 2023, and before April 3, 2023. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 13141 (Mar. 2, 2023). For FY 2024 and each year thereafter, a designated regional center must pay the required fee between October 1st and October 31st of the same year. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR at 13141.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. The EB-5 Immigrant Visa Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien seeking LPR status under the EB-5 immigrant visa classification must go through a multi-step process. The alien must first file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition with USCIS, either as a standalone investor by filing a Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor, or as a regional center investor by filing a Form I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor. The petition must be supported by evidence that the alien's lawfully obtained investment capital is invested (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         contributed and placed at risk), or is actively in the process of being invested, in a new commercial enterprise in the United States that will create full-time positions for not fewer than 10 qualifying employees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A); 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If USCIS approves the EB-5 immigrant visa petition, the petitioner must take additional steps to obtain LPR status. In general, once USCIS has approved the petition and an immigrant visa is available, the petitioner may apply for a visa through a Department of State (State) consular post abroad. Alternatively, if the petitioner is already in the United States and is otherwise eligible to adjust status, the petitioner may seek to adjust status to that of an LPR. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 245, 8 U.S.C. 1255. A petitioner does so by filing a Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, with USCIS, which the petitioner may file concurrently with 
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or any time after filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition. The ability to obtain LPR status is limited because Congress has imposed limits on the availability of immigrant visas based on the category of visa and the immigrant's country of birth. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 201(d), 202, 8 U.S.C. 1151, 1152.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             The RIA amended section 245 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1255 to allow an immigrant investor to concurrently file for adjustment of status if the approval of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition makes an immigrant visa immediately available to the investor. Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 102(d), 136 Stat. 1070, 1075 (2022); INA sec. 245(n), 8 U.S.C 1255(n).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To request an immigrant visa while abroad, an EB-5 petitioner must apply at a consular post of the Department of State (State). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 203(e) and (g), 8 U.S.C. 1153(e) and (g); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         22 CFR part 42, subparts F and G. If a visa is available for the petition, the petitioner must generally wait to receive a notification from State's National Visa Center 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to begin the visa application process with State. After receiving this notification, the petitioner must collect required information and file the immigrant visa application with State. As noted above, the wait for an immigrant visa depends on the demand for immigrant visas in the EB-5 category and the petitioner's country of birth.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Generally, State authorizes the issuance of a visa and schedules the petitioner for an immigrant visa interview for the month in which the priority date will be current. If State approves the petitioner's immigrant visa application, the consulate issues an immigrant visa and the petitioner, on the date of admission to the United States, obtains LPR status on a conditional basis. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 211, 216A, and 221; 8 U.S.C. 1181, 1186b, and 1201.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             The NVC is the unit assigned to pre-process the immigrant visa application. As part of the process, the NVC requests the immigrant visa application fee and all documents. The NVC will hold a petition and all documentation until an immigrant visa interview can be scheduled at a U.S. Embassy or Consulate. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Consular Affairs, State, “National Visa Center,” 
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/us-visas/immigrate/national-visa-center.html</E>
                             (last visited Apr. 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             When demand for a visa exceeds the number of visas available for that category and country, the demand for that particular preference category and country of birth is deemed oversubscribed. The U.S. Department of State (State) publishes a Visa Bulletin that determines when an alien may apply for a visa, and when such visa may be authorized for issuance. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Consular Affairs, State, “
                            <E T="03">The Visa Bulletin,” https://travel.state.gov/content/visas/en/law-and-policy/bulletin.html</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 27, 2025). Specifically, an alien outside the United States cannot begin the visa application process with  State unless the alien's “priority date” (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             the date USCIS received the properly filed Form I-526 or Form I-526E, as appropriate), is earlier than the cut-off date indicated in the “date for filing application” chart in the most recent Visa Bulletin for the relevant category and country. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 204.6(d) and proposed 8 CFR 204.404 (defining the “priority date” for EB-5 petitioners). Similarly, an alien inside the United States generally may file an application for adjustment of status with USCIS only if his or her priority date is earlier than the cut-off date in the Visa Bulletin. However, when USCIS determines that there are more immigrant visas available for the fiscal year than there are known applicants for such visas, USCIS will state on its website that, during that month, applicants may instead use the “dates for filing visa applications” in the Visa Bulletin for purposes of determining whether they may file adjustment of status applications with USCIS. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, DHS, “Adjustment of Status Filing Charts from the Visa Bulletin,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/green-card/green-card-processes-and-procedures/visa-availability-priority-dates/adjustment-of-status-filing-charts-from-the-visa-bulletin</E>
                             (last updated Jan. 13, 2025).
                        </P>
                        <P>In either case, the State may not issue a visa and USCIS may not approve an adjustment of status application unless the alien's priority date is earlier than the corresponding cut-off date in the “final action date” chart listed in the Visa Bulletin.</P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Alternatively, an EB-5 petitioner who is in the United States in lawful nonimmigrant status, with limited exceptions, may seek LPR status by filing Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, with USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 245, 8 U.S.C. 1255; 8 CFR part 245. While the RIA amended the INA to allow for filing the application for adjustment with the petition for classification or while the petition for classification is pending (
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division. BB, sec. 102(d), 136 Stat. 1070, 1075 (2022); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         INA sec. 245(n), 8 U.S.C. 1255(n)), an immigrant visa needs to be “immediately available” for such an application to be considered properly filed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 245(n), 8 U.S.C. 1255(n); 8 CFR 245.2(a)(2)(i)(B) and (C). Generally, an immigrant visa is considered “immediately available” if the petitioner's priority date for the EB-5 category is earlier than the relevant date indicated in the monthly Visa Bulletin.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 245.1(g)(1).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Consular Affairs, State, “The Visa Bulletin,” 
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/legal/visa-law0/visa-bulletin.html</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 27, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Whether obtained through the issuance of an immigrant visa or adjustment of status, LPR status based on an EB-5 petition is granted on a conditional basis. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(a)(1). In general, within the 90-day period preceding the second anniversary of the date the alien investor obtains conditional permanent resident status, the alien investor must file Form I-829, Petition by Investor to Remove Conditions on Permanent Resident Status, with USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(2), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(2); 8 CFR 216.6(a)(1). Failure to timely file Form I-829 results in automatic termination of the alien investor's conditional permanent resident status and the initiation of removal proceedings. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(c), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c); 8 CFR 216.6(a)(5). In support of the petition to remove conditions, the investor must establish that the investor meets the requirements to remove conditions. If approved, the conditions on the investor's permanent residence are generally removed as of the second anniversary of the date the investor obtained conditional permanent resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(c)(3), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c)(3); 8 CFR 216.6(d)(1). For investors who file a Form I-829 petition based on an underlying Form I-526 or Form I-526E petition filed on or after enactment of the RIA, DHS, in its 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40689"/>
                        discretion, may provide a 1-year extension of the investor's conditional status if the investor is actively in the process of creating requisite employment and will do so before the third anniversary of the date the investor obtained conditional permanent resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(c)(3)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c)(3)(B)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>DHS provided a summary of the proposed changes in Section II.C. In this section, DHS describes the changes in greater detail. The discussion proceeds as follows:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">A. Regulatory Background, Proposed Structure, and Implementation of this Rule</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">B. Definitions</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">C. National Security and Fraud</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">D. Alien Investors</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">E. Targeted Employment Areas (TEAs)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">F. Infrastructure Projects</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">G. Troubled Businesses</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">H. Regional Center Program</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">I. Removal of Conditions</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">J. Withdrawal Requests and Petition Revocations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">K. Severability</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Background, Proposed Structure, and Implementation of This Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        In 2019, DHS published the EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program Modernization Final Rule (EB-5 Modernization Rule) which revised 8 CFR 204.6 to reflect previous statutory changes 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and modernize the EB-5 program, as well as codified existing policies and change certain aspects in need of reform. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         84 FR 35750 (July 24, 2019). The final rule's effective date was scheduled to be November 21, 2019. 
                        <E T="03">See id. at</E>
                         35750. Although the Secretary of Homeland Security attempted to ratify the EB-5 Modernization Rule on March 31, 2021, on June 22, 2021, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California vacated the rule on procedural grounds notwithstanding such ratification, reverting the changes made to 8 CFR 204.6 by the EB-5 Modernization Rule to what existed prior to its promulgation.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, on March 15, 2022 (and before DHS could issue a rule implementing the vacatur of the EB-5 Modernization Rule by removing or amending the regulatory text currently in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)), the President signed the RIA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, 136 Stat. 1070 (2022).
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             21st Century Department of Justice Appropriations Authorization Act, Public Law 107-273, 116 Stat. 1758, 1837.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Behring Regional Center LLC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Wolf,</E>
                             544 F. Supp. 3d 937 (N.D. Cal. 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, 136 Stat. 1070 (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To effectively and clearly revise the regulations based on the new and amended provisions of the INA, DHS proposes to remove and reserve 8 CFR 204.6 and create a new Subpart D to part 204 of Title 8 of the CFR. DHS thus proposes that 8 CFR 204.6, as it existed on November 20, 2019, (before the effective date of the EB-5 Modernization Final Rule) would generally apply to adjudications for petitions filed before March 15, 2022. See proposed 8 CFR 204.400. The new subpart would provide a clear distinction between the requirements for an EB-5 immigrant visa before and after enactment of the RIA, and also provide DHS the greatest opportunity to establish clear regulations for the EB-5 program, including the Regional Center Program, so all stakeholders can determine the eligibility and filing requirements for all aspects of the program, as specified by the new and amended provisions of the INA.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, DHS proposes that this rule be implemented prospectively to petitions and applications filed on or after its effective date, subject to the following exceptions:</P>
                    <P>1. Where otherwise directed by the INA or RIA;</P>
                    <P>2. Where this proposed rule would codify a post-RIA practice or policy that DHS has been implementing since the RIA went into effect, DHS will continue to apply such policies as codified;</P>
                    <P>
                        3. With respect to priority date retention for alien investors who filed prior to March 15, 2022; 
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             As of May 1, 2025, USCIS has approximately 1,500 pending Form I-526 petitions filed before March 15, 2022.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        4. In instances where the petitioner poses an ongoing or continued threat to the public safety or national security of the United States or otherwise continues to engage in fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.400(a);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        5. All regional centers, including those designated prior to enactment of the RIA, must establish eligibility to participate in the reformed EB-5 Regional Center Program and are subject to all requirements applicable to their continuing participation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.400(b); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        6. With respect to EB-5 immigrant visa petition amendments filed because of the termination of the alien investor's regional center or the debarment of the alien investor's new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For ease of reference and adjudication, DHS proposes to incorporate applicable holdings from the four EB-5 precedent decision cases (
                        <E T="03">Matter of Ho, Matter of Hsiung, Matter of Izummi,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Soffici</E>
                        ) 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         into various provisions in this proposed rule, such as proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(2), incorporating legal ownership of capital provisions of 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Ho,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 206, 206 (Assoc. Comm. 1998) (holding that the petitioner must establish legal ownership of the investment capital and that bank statements and other financial documents do not do so if the petitioner shows someone else as the legal owner), proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b)(5), incorporating promissory note provisions of 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Hsiung,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 201, 202 (Assoc. Comm. 1998) (promissory notes can constitute capital if the note is secured by assets owned by the petitioner, the security interests are perfected, and the assets are fully amenable to seizure), and 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Izummi,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 169, 191 (Assoc. Comm. 1998) (promissory note must be valued at fair market value). DHS also proposes to codify those activities in 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Ho</E>
                         that do not rise to the level of concrete business activity and are, therefore, insufficient to show that the investment is at risk, such as a deposit in a business account over which the investor has control, formulating an idea for a future business activity, forming a business entity, and executing a lease.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b)(6). A simple contribution of capital in exchange for a debt agreement or purchase of an asset by a petitioner is insufficient to demonstrate concrete business activity.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b)(6). As in 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Ho,</E>
                         DHS anticipates that the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity will have undertaken some concrete activity that evidences meaningful implementation of the business plan in order to show that the capital investment is or will be at risk. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b)(6). In the event that a particular holding is not incorporated into a new regulatory provision and is not otherwise superseded by statute, USCIS would continue to apply applicable holdings from the four EB-5 precedent case 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40690"/>
                        decisions to relevant eligibility determinations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Matter of Ho,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 206 (Assoc. Comm. 1998); 
                            <E T="03">Matter of Hsiung,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 201 (Assoc. Comm. 1998); 
                            <E T="03">Matte</E>
                            r 
                            <E T="03">of Izummi,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 169 (Assoc. Comm. 1998); and 
                            <E T="03">Matter of Soffici,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 158 (Assoc. Comm. 1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Matter of Ho,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 206, 209--10 (Assoc. Comm. 1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Matter of Ho,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 206, 209--10 (Assoc. Comm. 1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, DHS does not believe that other rulemakings it is pursuing would significantly impact this rule. On October 23, 2025, DHS published a notice of proposed rulemaking titled “U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services Employment-Based Immigrant Visa, Fifth Preference (EB-5) Fee Rule.” 90 FR 48516. That rule focuses primarily on fees and financial penalties, with other procedural revisions that would generally not impact this rule. Certain technical changes made to existing 8 CFR 216.6(a)(1) by that rule are incorporated into the more comprehensive changes made to 8 CFR 216.6 by this rule and DHS does not believe it would have a significant impact on this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(b). Additionally, on November 3, 2025, DHS published the notice of proposed rulemaking titled Collection and Use of Biometrics by U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (Biometrics NPRM). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 49062. In the Biometrics NPRM, DHS proposed to generally amend its regulations governing biometrics use and collections related to all immigration benefit requests and for other immigration-related purposes. Specific to the EB-5 program, DHS explains that it would continue its existing practice of collecting biometrics and performing background checks on U.S. citizens, lawful permanent residents, and any other persons involved with an EB-5 regional center, new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1152(b)(5)(H)(iii). However, DHS is proposing to remove the EB-5 related regulations 8 CFR 216.4(b)(1), “Authority to waive interview,” and 8 CFR 216.4(b)(2), “Location of interview” and explains that these two regulatory provisions serve no purpose and are unnecessary, respectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 49062, 49092. As these proposed EB-5 related regulatory amendments are being removed as serving no purpose and unnecessary, DHS does not believe the changes being proposed in the Biometrics NPRM would have a significant impact on this rule. DHS welcomes public comment on any potential joint impacts.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Definitions</HD>
                    <P>Under this proposed rule, DHS would define terms used throughout this new subpart in section 204.401. This rule proposes to carry over and update certain definitions from the regulations as they existed prior to the EB-5 Modernization Rule, denoted by reference to 8 CFR 204.6 (Nov. 20, 2019), as well as proposing several new definitions to provide additional clarity based on new or revised statutory definitions in the INA. This section discusses each term, generally in alphabetical order, except where terms are better discussed together, such as direct and indirect jobs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Capital</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA defines “capital” generally as cash and all real, personal, or mixed tangible assets owned and controlled by the investor or held in trust for the benefit of the investor and to which the investor has unrestricted access. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii)(I). DHS proposes to clarify that “mixed tangible assets” means a “mix of tangible assets (which may include equipment, inventory, or other tangible property).” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Capital.</E>
                         DHS believes this clarification is necessary to specify that investors would only be able to meet the requirements for an EB-5 immigrant visa by investing tangible assets whose value can be clearly determined, rather than intangible assets, such as patents and trademarks, whose value would be subjective, would vary, and would not clearly establish that an investor has invested the required amount of capital in a new commercial enterprise.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS further proposes to clarify that capital held in trust must be held in a revocable living trust of which the investor is the settlor and beneficiary and to which the investor has unrestricted access. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Capital.</E>
                         DHS believes this type of trust most clearly meets the requirements of INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii)(I), particularly the requirement that the investor has unrestricted access to the capital, while other types of trusts would not, such as an irrevocable trust where the investor would not have unrestricted access to the capital in the trust. Finally, DHS proposes to incorporate applicable holdings from 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Soffici</E>
                         that capital does not include loans secured by the assets of the new commercial enterprise or a personal guarantee of the business debt of the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Capital; Matter of Soffici,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 160-163.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with the definition at 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019), the INA's definition of “capital” requires that capital be valued at fair market value in U.S. dollars when it is invested and further clarifies that the valuation must be made in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or other standard accounting practice adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii)(II).
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to capture these requirements in the regulatory definition of “capital.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Capital.</E>
                         Most investors meet their capital requirement using cash, so this provision would likely apply in limited circumstances where the investor invests equipment or inventory, for example. Though rare, DHS believes this additional language would ensure that the investor fairly values any non-cash investment and is meeting the required investment amount established by section 203(b)(5)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C). Where an investor uses any non-cash capital to invest in a new commercial enterprise, this proposed rule would require the investor to establish the fair market value of the capital at the time of filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition if the investor is in the process of investing or, at the time of investment, if the investor has already invested the capital into the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(4).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) designated the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) as the accounting standard setter for public companies, and the maintenance of the Accounting Standards Codification (ASC). The ASC is currently the single source of the United States Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. The ASC can be accessed through 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fasb.org/standards</E>
                             (last visited Apr. 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The definition of “capital” in 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019) excludes “[a]ssets acquired, directly or indirectly, by unlawful means (such as criminal activities).” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019), 
                        <E T="03">Capital.</E>
                         The INA likewise excludes these types of assets from meeting the definition of “capital,” along with several other provisions that would preclude certain assets from qualifying as capital. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii)(III). DHS recognizes that these items will continue to be excluded from being considered “capital” under the INA but believes a more streamlined regulatory definition would better aid comprehensibility as these exclusions are more appropriately reviewed as an eligibility requirement for approval of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c) and (d), and consequently, discusses these additional requirements in greater detail in section IV.D.5 of this preamble.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40691"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Certifier</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA defines a “certifier” as a person in a position with substantive authority for the management or operations of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity, or issuer of securities, such as a principal executive officer or principal financial officer, with knowledge of such entities' policies and procedures related to compliance with the requirements of [the EB-5 program]. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(iii). This statutory definition is included in the definitions of this proposed rule since the certifier role is relevant to the filing of an application for approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise (Form I-956F), and the regional center annual statement (Form I-956G). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 203(b)(5)(F)(i), (b)(5)(G)(i), (b)(5)(I)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(F)(i), (b)(5)(G)(i), (b)(5)(I)(ii), 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Certifier.</E>
                         While the definition of a “certifier” includes similar terminology as the definition of a “person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity,” (INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(v)), DHS expects that a “certifier” would always be a “person involved,” but a “person involved” would not necessarily meet the definition of a “certifier,” unless his or her position within the related entity provides the person with the necessary accountability and knowledge required to meet the certifier definition.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Under section 203(b)(5)(D)(iii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(iii), a “certifier” must have “knowledge of [EB-5 entities'] policies and procedures related to compliance” but a “person involved” under section 203(b)(5)(H)(v) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(v), would not need such knowledge.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS further proposes to codify its post-RIA practice and extend the definition of “certifier” to entities registered as a direct or third-party promoter. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Certifier.</E>
                         First, the RIA requires promoters to provide certification that they are eligible to participate in the EB-5 program under section 203(b)(5)(H)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K)(i)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(i)(II). In addition, DHS believes it is important to extend this definition to promoters to ensure that whoever is certifying on behalf of an entity seeking registration as, or registered as, a promoter has the same level of knowledge to provide that certification as is required of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, or issuer of securities in other filings with USCIS. The proposed rule would further require that promoters certify they are familiar with and understand the rules and standards for promoters. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(b)(3).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comprehensive Business Plan</HD>
                    <P>
                        A designated regional center must submit a comprehensive business plan with its application for approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise (Form I-956F), which is incorporated into associated post-RIA regional center investor petitions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(ii)(III), (b)(5)(F)(i)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(ii)(III), (b)(5)(F)(i)(I). For all pre-RIA petitioners as well as post-RIA standalone investor petitioners seeking to rely on prospective job creation, current regulations likewise require an investor to submit a comprehensive business plan to show that, due to the nature and projected size of the new commercial enterprise, at least 10 qualifying employees would be required. 8 CFR 204.6(j)(4)(i)(B) (Nov. 20, 2019). A comprehensive business plan should be credible and contain a description of the business, its products and services, and its objectives, as well as sales, cost, and income projections. 
                        <E T="03">See Matter of Ho,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 206, 213 (Assoc. Comm. 1998).
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to capture each of these requirements by defining a “comprehensive business plan” as a credible business plan that describes the nature, timeline, and projected size of the activities being undertaken by the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies), as applicable. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Comprehensive business plan.</E>
                         Furthermore, DHS also proposes that the business plan must describe the use of capital from alien investors to create full-time employment for not fewer than 10 qualifying employees per alien investor. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         DHS proposes to further require that a comprehensive business plan identify detailed capital requirements, including the sources and uses of funds. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         DHS believes this additional requirement is essential to establishing that the business plan is credible and that the sources of funds, including those that do not derive from EB-5 investors, provided to the new commercial enterprise will be lawful.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Matter of Ho,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 206, 213 (Assoc. Comm. 1998) (“A comprehensive business plan as contemplated by the regulations should contain, at a minimum, a description of the business, its products and/or services, and its objectives . . . It should contain sales, cost, and income projections and detail the bases therefor.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, to meet the definition of a “comprehensive business plan,” the plan would have to include a marketing plan, a market and competitive analysis, a list of the required and obtained permits and licenses, the timetable for hiring, the construction schedule of the project, and a detailed overview of the organizational structure, including the relevant experience and expertise of the owners and managers of the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies), as applicable. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         Based on extensive experience reviewing business plans related to projects financed with EB-5 capital, DHS believes this information would allow USCIS to determine the viability of the investment and ensure compliance with the INA. DHS recognizes that each business is different and thus, that business plans may vary. While the proposed definition outlines certain items that must be included in the plan to meet the definition of a comprehensive business plan (such as a description of the business and its objective), other elements are only required if relevant for that particular business (such as a construction schedule). As such, these items are qualified with “as applicable” in the regulatory text because, in some instances, they may not be necessary.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Criminal Misuse, Deceit, Fraud, and Intentional Material Misrepresentation</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to separately codify the definitions of “criminal misuse,” “deceit,” “fraud,” and “intentional material misrepresentation.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Criminal misuse, Deceit,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">Fraud,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Intentional material misrepresentation.</E>
                         The statutory language of section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O), differs from fraud and material misrepresentation findings otherwise made by USCIS during admissibility determinations under section 212(a)(6)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(6)(C). Existing agency guidance regarding fraud and misrepresentation in the inadmissibility context is specific to fraud or misrepresentation committed by an individual or entity against the U.S. government.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 8, “Admissibility,” Part J, “Fraud and Willful Misrepresentation,” Chapter 2, “Overview of Fraud and Willful Misrepresentation,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-8-part-j-chapter-2</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, the authority to take adverse actions based on determinations under section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O), with respect to whether an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, application, or benefit is predicated on or involves fraud or misrepresentation, is broader and not limited solely to fraud or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40692"/>
                        misrepresentations made by a petitioner or applicant to the U.S. government. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O); 
                        <E T="03">cf.</E>
                         INA sec. 212(a)(6)(C)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(6)(C)(i) (constructed more narrowly to apply only to aliens who have engaged in the prohibited conduct rather than the construction of INA 203(b)(5)(O), which applies more broadly to any application, petition, or benefit that was predicated on or involved the prohibited conduct).
                    </P>
                    <P>Existing USCIS guidance on inadmissibility concerning willfulness, intent, and materiality remains relevant to determining whether an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, application, or benefit was predicated on or involves fraud or misrepresentation, and this proposed rule expands on the existing guidance to cover the additional situations addressed by section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O).</P>
                    <P>USCIS proposes to codify its interpretation of the INA statutory terms, generally, in accordance with their plain language meanings and in each case as related to the petition, application, or benefit.</P>
                    <P>
                        For fraud findings made under section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O), USCIS will consider a petition, application, or benefit to have been predicated on or involve “fraud” based on a finding that an individual or entity related to the petition, application, or benefit knowingly made a false representation of or knowingly concealed a material fact with intent to induce action or to deceive.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “fraud,” Black's Law Dictionary (11th ed. 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For findings of intentional material misrepresentation under section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O), USCIS generally considers a petition, application, or benefit to have been predicated on or involve intentional “material misrepresentation” based on a finding that an individual or entity related to the petition, application, or benefit made a false or misleading assertion about a material fact with the intent to deceive.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “misrepresentation,” Black's Law Dictionary (11th ed. 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        USCIS generally considers a petition, application, or benefit to have been predicated on or involve “deceit” based on a finding that an individual or entity related to the petition, application, or benefit intentionally led another person to believe something that is not true in connection with the petition, application, or benefit.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “deceit,” Black's Law Dictionary (11th ed. 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>USCIS generally considers a petition, application, or benefit to have been predicated on or involve “criminal misuse” based on a finding that an individual or entity related to the petition, application, or benefit improperly used the EB-5 program or capital obtained through the EB-5 program in connection with or in furtherance of a crime.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the context of the EB-5 program, criminal misuse is most likely to arise in the context of financial misuse of EB-5 capital in connection with or in furtherance of financial crime.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “misuse,” Black's Law Dictionary (11th ed. 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Types of fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse that may arise with individual investor petitions; those associated with regional centers, new commercial enterprises, and job-creating entities; attorneys; migration agents; preparers; and promoters may include but are not limited to the following actions:</P>
                    <P>• The applicant, petitioner, or person involved with a regional center engaged in financial fraud or financial crimes, including misappropriation of funds (Ponzi scheme, embezzlement, wire fraud, etc.);</P>
                    <P>• The applicant, petitioner, or person involved with a regional center falsified claims of job creation or economic development or both;</P>
                    <P>• The applicant, petitioner, or person involved with a regional center intentionally misrepresented the information provided or intentionally omitted required information;</P>
                    <P>• The attorney, preparer, promoter, or migration agent intentionally misrepresented the EB-5 program to an alien investor, either current or future, such as guaranteeing that the invested funds will be refunded in full or guaranteeing approval of the EB-5 petition or application;</P>
                    <P>• The attorney, preparer, promoter, or migration agent represented themselves as a registered broker but was not registered with the applicable state or the SEC;</P>
                    <P>• The petitioner, applicant, or person involved with a regional center falsified one or more responses to the bona fides question set under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H);</P>
                    <P>• The applicant falsified information about his or her background on a form (such as his or her credentials, education, employment), or presented altered or counterfeit documents;</P>
                    <P>• The applicant, petitioner, or person involved with a regional center misrepresented or concealed the source of funds or the path of funds;</P>
                    <P>• The petitioner presented derivatives that are not legal family members; or</P>
                    <P>• The petitioner or derivative assumed an alternate identity to attain an immigration benefit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Debar, Suspend, and Terminate</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA provides authority to debar, suspend, and terminate persons participating in the EB-5 program, including regional centers, new commercial enterprises, and job-creating entities for particular violations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II). These authorities extend to investors, promoters, and other persons involved in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K)(ii), (b)(5)(N), (b)(5)(O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(ii), (b)(5)(N), (b)(5)(O). While DHS discusses the specifics of these authorities in section IV.H.8 of this preamble, DHS proposes to separately codify the definitions of these key terms in 8 CFR 204.401. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Debar, Suspend,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Terminate.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        First, the INA now provides for debarment in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(N)(iii), (b)(5)(O)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N)(iii), (b)(5)(O)(ii). DHS proposes that a “debarment” would preclude a person's participation in the EB-5 program without the ability for reapplication, either permanently or during a specified timeframe, as provided under proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(5). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Debar.</E>
                         While the INA generally contemplates permanent debarment, other sanctioning provisions within the INA provide for discretion in imposing sanctions short of permanent debarment, which could include temporary debarments based on considerations such as time-limited orders from relevant regulatory authorities. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II) (authorizing DHS to establish graduated sanctions based on the severity of violations). Since a debarment could be temporary or permanent, this definition would also clarify that a person temporarily debarred would be able to seek to again participate in the EB-5 program after the period of debarment ends, provided the person submits a new application to USCIS to determine his or her eligibility to again participate in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to debarment, the INA provides suspension authority. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv)(I). While debarment could be temporary or permanent, DHS proposes to define “suspension” as a temporary limitation of a person's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40693"/>
                        participation in the EB-5 program as provided under proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Suspend.</E>
                         Suspensions typically last for the period specified in the notice or until USCIS notifies the suspended individuals or entities that they have cured the relevant violation. While suspended, the person suspended would be precluded from certain activities. Upon the end of the suspension period, if applicable, the person may resume participation in the EB-5 program without further application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The INA also authorizes, and in some cases requires, termination of an entity's designation as a regional center in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III) (when termination is required); 
                        <E T="03">see also, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(I)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(I)(iv) (when termination is an option). As it relates to participation in the EB-5 program, DHS proposes that termination be used for regional centers, as termination authority applies differently depending on which entity's participation is being terminated. Since DHS only designates regional centers (and not NCEs or JCEs), DHS interprets its termination authority for regional centers as applying only to the designation of a regional center in line with historic practice and usage of this term. DHS accordingly proposes to define “termination” as the end of a regional center's designation to participate in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Terminate.</E>
                         This definition would also clarify that a terminated regional center would no longer be able to solicit capital from an investor seeking classification as an alien investor in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the authority provided by the INA to terminate an entity's designation as a regional center in the EB-5 program, the INA also provides authority to terminate the participation of NCEs or JCEs in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         INA secs. (b)(5)(N)(iii), (b)(5)(O)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N)(iii), (b)(5)(O)(ii). As an initial matter, DHS does not designate NCEs or JCEs for participation in the program the same as is contemplated for regional centers under the INA or in line with historic practices. Moreover, these provisions of the INA do not distinguish between the more specific usage of termination as it applies to a regional center's designation versus other types of sanctions that could apply to NCEs or JCEs that would similarly end their participation in the EB-5 program, such as debarment. 
                        <E T="03">Cf.</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(III) (authorizing debarment to end the participation of non-regional center persons in the EB-5 program while limiting usage of the term termination specifically just to a regional center's designation). DHS also notes that the investor protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), trigger only upon either the termination of a regional center or debarment of a NCE or JCE. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I) (“in the case of the termination of a regional center”), and INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(II) (“in the case of the debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity”). Consequently, termination of a NCE or JCE that would be distinct from debarment would not trigger these investor protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), which DHS believes would be contrary to the remaining provisions of section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, which provide protections to “good faith investors.” DHS therefore interprets its authority to terminate the participation of NCEs or JCEs in the program the same as debarment, which is reflected in the proposed definitions and accompanying rules.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Direct Jobs and Indirect Jobs</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien investor must create employment for at least 10 U.S. citizens, U.S. nationals, lawful permanent residents of the United States, or other immigrants lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States (not including the investor or his or her spouse or children). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A). Before the creation of the Regional Center Program, this employment creation requirement meant that the new commercial enterprise would need to create full-time employment (or demonstrate job retention in a troubled business) for 10 qualifying employees per alien investor to establish eligibility for an EB-5 immigrant visa. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(j)(4) (Nov. 20, 2019). Upon its creation, the Regional Center Program permitted (and the INA continues to permit) regional center investors to establish job creation using reasonable methodologies for determining the number of jobs created, including such jobs estimated to have been created indirectly through revenues generated from increased exports resulting from the program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 102-395, sec. 610(c), 106 Stat. 1828, 1874 (Oct. 6, 1992); 
                        <E T="03">see also,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv). The new provisions of the INA, however, limit the percentage of indirect jobs that may be used by regional center investors to satisfy the job creation requirements, INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv), and, under certain circumstances, prorates the number of direct jobs estimated to be created in connection with construction activity lasting less than 2 years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(cc), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(cc). In addition, the new provisions of the INA expand direct jobs for regional center investors to include not only employees of the new commercial enterprise but also employees of the job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv)(I). As the statute does not define “direct” or “indirect jobs,” and in light of these new statutory provisions, DHS proposes to define “direct jobs” and “indirect jobs” in this rule for purposes of establishing requisite job creation for regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Direct jobs</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Indirect jobs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted previously, DHS has historically interpreted that “direct jobs” are those jobs where there exists an employer-employee relationship between the new commercial enterprise and the persons it employs, and “indirect jobs” are those held outside of the new commercial enterprise, including employees of a job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 2.D(4), “Measuring job creation.” Under commonly used economic methodologies to estimate job creation, however, employees of a job-creating entity or those involved in the hands-on production of goods or services related to the job-creating project being undertaken by a job-creating entity would be considered “direct jobs” for economic purposes despite being considered “indirect jobs” for purposes of establishing eligibility under pre-RIA requirements. For regional center investors, the INA has expanded what may be considered a “direct job” to explicitly include employees of the job-creating entity as well as employees of the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv)(I). Though not specified in the statute, DHS proposes to align the legal concept of “direct jobs” with how “direct jobs” are treated for economic purposes through commonly used economic methodologies used to estimate job creation because, as explained previously, employees of job-creating entities would be considered indirect jobs for purposes of establishing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40694"/>
                        eligibility under pre-RIA requirements even though they would be viewed as direct jobs under commonly used economic methodologies to estimate job creation. Therefore, for a regional center investor, in addition to an employee of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, “direct jobs” would also include jobs estimated to be created through an economically and statistically valid methodology as being involved in the hands-on production of goods and services or in the construction of facilities that have a necessary role in the relevant capital investment project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Direct jobs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Importantly, for estimated direct jobs, they should be estimated using economically and statistically valid and transparent methodologies to comply with the INA and ensure USCIS is able to validate that the investment has created sufficient employment to satisfy the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(A) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(v)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(v)(I).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that “indirect jobs,” consistent with DHS's existing interpretation, mean jobs estimated to be employed by those supplying goods and services to the source of production, including the construction of facilities that have a necessary role in the relevant capital investment project, as well as those jobs estimated to be induced through additional personal spending by both direct and indirect employees whose jobs were created by the relevant capital investment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Indirect jobs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS has historically interpreted that indirect jobs can include, but are not limited to, those held by employees of the job-creating entity (when the job-creating entity is not the new commercial enterprise) as well as employees of producers of materials, equipment, or services used by the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 2.D(4), “Measuring job creation.” Because employees of the job-creating entity or those involved in the hands-on production of goods or services related to the job-creating project being undertaken by a job-creating entity are now considered direct jobs under the proposed definition of “direct jobs” (as explained above), the proposed definition of “indirect jobs” is being aligned to include just those jobs that are most typically considered indirect jobs for economic purposes in connection with commonly used economic models for estimating job creation. Consistent with DHS's historic interpretation, the definition also continues to include induced jobs, a subset of indirect jobs, which are those created when the new direct and indirect employees spend their earnings on consumer goods and services. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">EB-5 Immigrant Visa Petition</HD>
                    <P>
                        As the statute does not define “EB-5 immigrant visa petition,” DHS proposes to use “EB-5 immigrant visa petition” to refer to a petition submitted by a regional center investor or standalone investor seeking classification as an alien investor under section 203(b)(5) of the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</E>
                         USCIS will consider Form I-526, Petition by Standalone Investor, and Form I-526E, Petition by Regional Center Investor, as an EB-5 immigrant visa petition for purposes of this regulation. However, in line with other DHS regulations and to maintain operational flexibility, DHS avoids the use of form numbers in the regulatory text, where possible, and instead refers in the text to the form designated by USCIS.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Full-Time Employment</HD>
                    <P>
                        As the statute does not define “full-time employment,” DHS proposes to continue to define “full-time employment” to mean a position at the new commercial enterprise that requires a minimum of 35 working hours per week. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Full-time employment; see</E>
                         current 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019), 
                        <E T="03">Full-time employment.</E>
                         This would include direct and indirect jobs, including those estimated to have been created by a regional center investor, provided the economic model estimates “full-time equivalent” employment. The number of full-time equivalent employees in each industry is the product of the total number of employees and the ratio of average weekly hours per employee on full-time schedules.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While DHS considered requiring regional centers and petitioners to demonstrate that the estimated jobs are likely to be at least 35 hours per week, this approach would have required the submission of additional evidence that is separate from the model documentation. Since the INA requires that economic models be statistically valid and transparent,
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS does not believe this additional documentation would be necessary for USCIS to validate the sufficiency of any job creation estimate provided by a statistically valid and transparent economic methodology.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             Bureau of Economic Analysis, “What are full-time equivalent employees?” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bea.gov/help/faq/368</E>
                             (last updated Apr. 24, 2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(v).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In its current regulations, DHS allows “full-time employment” to include job sharing arrangements where two or more qualifying employees share a full-time position provided the hourly requirement was met, while precluding the combination of part-time positions to meet the hourly requirement. 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019), 
                        <E T="03">Full-time employment.</E>
                         DHS proposes to eliminate the job-sharing arrangements from the definition of “full-time employment.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Full-Time Employment.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Few petitions have used such job-sharing arrangements to establish eligibility and those that do frequently are determined, instead of using multiple employees to fill one position, to be combining part-time positions, which was expressly prohibited by the regulations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019), 
                        <E T="03">Full-time employment.</E>
                         Additionally, DHS believes that permitting job-sharing does not further the program's objective of creating full-time employment and is consequently proposing to no longer make such an allowance in this rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">High Employment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        A “high employment area” is part of a metropolitan statistical area (MSA) as designated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) 
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that is not in a TEA, and is experiencing unemployment significantly below the national average rate. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iv). Though the statute has included these areas since the first iteration of the EB-5 program in 1990, legacy Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS) did not define or consider a “high employment area” as a separate area of investment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             One of the long-standing statistical standards maintained by OMB is the core based statistical areas program. There are two types of CBSAs: Metropolitan statistical areas (MSAs) and micropolitan statistical areas (µSAs). Metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas are conceptually similar to each other, but a micropolitan area features a smaller nucleus. OMB periodically reviews these standards, including the MSA. For more information on the MSA, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             United States Census Bureau, “About,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/metro-micro/about.html</E>
                             (last revised July 25, 2023); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             OMB, 2020 Standards for Delineating Core Based Statistical Areas, 86 FR 37770 (July 16, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to define a “high employment area” as a census tract in a metropolitan statistical area where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business, or contiguous census tracts where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business in two or more 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40695"/>
                        contiguous census tracts, and where the national average rate of unemployment is at least 150 percent of the unemployment being experienced in that area where the investment is being made. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">High employment area.</E>
                         Using this calculation to determine whether an area is experiencing high employment would mirror the differential Congress established for high unemployment areas in relation to the national average unemployment rate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         150 percent). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(I)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(I)(bb). DHS believes this definition aligns with the RIA's overall statutory scheme and ensures that the program's objectives of investment being made in areas of true need are effectuated. DHS considered allowing a calculation similar to that used for determining high unemployment areas (to include any directly adjacent census tracts in addition to the census tract(s) where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii). Instead, DHS proposes to limit the definition of a “high employment area” to the census tract(s) where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business. DHS believes that allowing a calculation similar to high unemployment areas with the inclusion of any directly adjacent tracts would only serve to lower the investment amount required for an area already experiencing high employment, which is contrary to the intent of the EB-5 program to incentivize investments into areas of true need.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For any new commercial enterprise principally doing business in an MSA that is not separately submitting evidence to establish that the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business in a high unemployment area, the regional center or standalone investor would have to submit a list of the census tracts where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business and the employment data used to calculate whether the area is experiencing high employment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(g)(3) and 204.421(c)(4).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Infrastructure Project</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA defines an “infrastructure project” as a capital investment project in a designated regional center's filed or approved application for approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise (Form I-956F), which is administered by a governmental entity (such as a Federal, State, or local agency or authority) that also serves as the job-creating entity contracting with a regional center or new commercial enterprise to receive capital investments under the Regional Center Program as financing for maintaining, improving, or constructing a public works project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(iv). DHS proposes to incorporate this definition into the regulations, and, because the statute only offers examples of qualifying governmental entities, to include a tribal agency or authority as a potential job-creating entity whose project may qualify as an infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Infrastructure Project.</E>
                         DHS proposes to extend the definition of qualifying “infrastructure projects” to tribal authorities to ensure that tribal entities can use the EB-5 program to fund qualifying infrastructure projects. DHS discusses the requirements for an investment in an infrastructure project in section IV.F. of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">“Invest” and “Actively in the Process of Investing”</HD>
                    <P>Section 203(b)(5) of the INA allots a number of immigrant visas to qualified immigrants seeking to enter the United States for the purpose of engaging in a new commercial enterprise (including a limited partnership) in which the alien investor has invested or, is actively in the process of investing, the required amount of capital. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A).</P>
                    <P>
                        As the statute does not define “invest,” DHS proposes to define “invest” as the contribution of lawfully obtained capital that is placed at risk in a commercial job-creating activity such that there is a risk of loss and a chance for gain. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Invest.</E>
                         This definition would not include capital used in primarily financial or non-commercial activity, such as the purchase of financial instruments traded on secondary markets or constructing, owning, or operating a personal residence. To qualify as an investment, the regulations have always required the investor to place his or her capital at risk. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(j)(2). The proposed definition also aligns with the expectation that in order to satisfy the parameters for capital redeployment, the capital must “remain at risk” and be “maintain[ed] at risk,” thus implying that it would need to have originally been at risk to begin with. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v)(I). This definition would clarify the capital is invested when it is placed at risk in a commercial job-creating activity. In instances where the new commercial enterprise is pooling investment capital to loan to a job-creating entity (as is typically seen in regional center-based investments), the investment is completed on the date the entirety of an investor's required amount of capital is placed at risk with the job-creating entity. Alternately, if the new commercial enterprise is the job-creating entity (as is typically seen in standalone investments), then the investment is completed on the date the entirety of an investor's required amount of capital is placed at risk with the new commercial enterprise.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 203(b)(5)(A) of the INA (8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(i)) also allows an investor to establish his or her eligibility while actively in the process of investing. As the RIA did not define “actively in the process of investing,” and the plain language definition of “actively” means “characterized by action rather than by contemplation or speculation,” 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to require the investor to show more than a mere intent to invest or the contemplation of investing at some point in the future. Rather, the investor would have to have committed his or her capital to the new commercial enterprise. Moreover, DHS has long required more than evidence of “mere intent to invest, or of prospective investment arrangements entailing no present commitment” in order to demonstrate that an investor was actively in the process of investing the required capital.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, DHS proposes to define “actively in the process of investing” to require the alien seeking classification as an alien investor to have commited his or her lawfully obtained capital to a new commercial enterprise in the United States no later than the date on which the alien obtains conditional permanent resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Actively in the process of investing.</E>
                         Most alien investors typically commit their investment to a new commercial enterprise contingent on the approval of the investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This allows the investor to meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5) of the INA for purposes of his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition, but also provides the investor some level of flexibility to recover his or her investment if his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition is denied or if the investor ultimately decides to no longer pursue alien 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40696"/>
                        investor status in the United States. Consequently, this definition would continue to allow the commitment of capital to include allowing an alien seeking classification as an alien investor to place his or her capital in escrow for release to the new commercial enterprise pending approval of his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition consistent with current USCIS policy.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Merriam-Webster, “active,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/actively</E>
                             (last updated Jan. 16, 2025) (defining “actively” as “characterized by action”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 204.6(j)(2) (Nov. 20, 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                            <E T="03">EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, “Immigrants,” Part G, “Investors,” Chapter 2, “Immigrant Petition Eligibility Requirements,” Section A(2), “Investment,” “Escrow Accounts” heading, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-6-part-g-chapter-2</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Investor, Regional Center Investor, and Standalone Investor</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS uses the terms “investor,” “regional center investor,” and “standalone investor” throughout this proposed rule. Where there are different requirements, DHS relies on the regional center investor and standalone investor terms, as appropriate. However, where a requirement applies to each type of investor equally, DHS relies on the term “investor” and as the statute does not define the term, proposes to define that term to mean a “regional center investor” or “standalone investor.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Investor.</E>
                         Using these terms throughout the proposed rule makes the proposals clearer and helps to differentiate between the two types of investors that may seek classification as an alien investor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to define a “regional center investor,” which is not defined in the statute, as an alien seeking to pool his or her investment with one or more additional aliens seeking, or who have obtained, classification as an alien investor through the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Regional center investor.</E>
                         The INA requires an investor seeking to pool his or her investment with additional investors seeking classification as an alien investor to do so through the Regional Center Program. INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(i). Whereas investors seeking EB-5 immigrant visas previously could pool their investments in a new commercial enterprise that was not necessarily associated with a designated regional center, the RIA now requires that any pooled investments must be made under the purview of a designated regional center. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Consequently, DHS further proposes to define a “standalone investor,” which is also not defined in the statute, as an alien who is not seeking to pool his or her investment with additional investors seeking classification as an alien investor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Standalone investor.</E>
                         Importantly, the definition does not preclude an investor from participating in a new commercial enterprise that has other investors, but those other investors must not be seeking classification as an alien investor to comply with the INA.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Job-Creating Entity and Affiliated Job-Creating Entity</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to include the statutory definitions of “job-creating entity” and “affiliated job-creating entity” in 8 CFR 204.401. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Job-creating entity</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Affiliated job-creating entity.</E>
                         The INA defines a “job-creating entity” as any organization formed in the United States for the ongoing conduct of lawful business, including sole proprietorship, partnership (whether limited or general), corporation, limited liability company, business trust, or other entity, which may be publicly or privately owned, including an entity consisting of a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiaries or affiliates (provided that each subsidiary or affiliate is engaged in an activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business) that receives, or is established to receive, capital investment from alien investors or a new commercial enterprise under the regional center program and is responsible for creating jobs to satisfy the job creation requirements of section 203(b)(5) of the INA. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(v). Further, the INA defines an “affiliated job-creating entity” as any job-creating entity that is controlled, managed, or owned by any person involved with the regional center or new commercial enterprise. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(i). As the RIA did not define “lawful business” and the plain language definitions mean “in harmony with the law” 
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or “allowed by the law,” 
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to clarify that the law most relevant to these entities includes local, State, and Federal law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Job-creating entity.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Merriam-Webster, “lawful,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/lawful</E>
                             (last updated Jan. 13, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Cambridge Dictionary, “lawful,” 
                            <E T="03">https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/lawful</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 30, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">New Commercial Enterprise</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA defines a “new commercial enterprise” as any for-profit organization formed in the United States for the ongoing conduct of lawful business, including sole proprietorship, partnership (whether limited or general), holding company and its wholly owned subsidiaries (provided that each subsidy is engaged in a for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business), joint venture, corporation, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity (which may be publicly or privately owned) that receives, or is established to receive, capital investment from investors under INA sec. 203(b)(5). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(vi), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(vi).
                        <E T="03">s.</E>
                         As the RIA did not define “lawful business” and the plain language definitions mean “in harmony with the law” 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or “allowed by the law,” 
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to clarify that the law most relevant to these entities includes local, State, and Federal law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">New commercial enterprise.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             Merriam-Webster, “lawful,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/lawful</E>
                             (last updated Jan. 13, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             Cambridge Dictionary, “lawful,” 
                            <E T="03">https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/lawful</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 16, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In its prior regulations implementing the creation of the EB-5 program by the Immigration Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-649, sec. 121, 104 Stat. 4978, 4989), legacy INS separately defined the term “new” to ensure that an investor established his or her qualifying commercial enterprise after November 29, 1990, the date Congress first established the EB-5 program. 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 29, 1991); 56 FR 60897 (Nov. 29, 1991). DHS proposes removing the temporal requirement of 8 CFR 204.6(e) (Nov. 20, 2019) and defining “new commercial enterprise” consistent with the definition provided by the INA where no temporal requirement exists. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(vi), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(vi); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">New commercial enterprise.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Person Involved</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA defines a “person 
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         involved” with a regional center, new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity as a person who is, directly or indirectly, in a position of substantive authority to make operational or managerial decisions over the pooling, securitization, investment, release, acceptance, or control or use of any funding procured under the Regional Center Program. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(v); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40697"/>
                        CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person involved.</E>
                         Section 203(b)(5)(H)(v) of the INA provides the definition “unless otherwise determined by the Secretary of Homeland Security.” Accordingly, DHS proposes to codify the statutory definition with minor additions for clarity, such as including “limited partner.” DHS proposes to clarify that a person is in a position of substantive authority if the person serves as an administrator, a board member, a general partner, a limited partner, a manager, an officer, an owner, or in a similar position at the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person involved.</E>
                         This definition would include any alien seeking to obtain alien investor status under the Regional Center Program in his or her role as an owner, including as is often the case, as a limited partner of the new commercial enterprise. In addition, an agent, fiduciary, or representative may be in a position of substantive authority if his or her position in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity authorizes the person to provide input or oversight of the use of any regional center investor capital obtained under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person involved.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             Throughout this proposed rule, the term “person” refers to the term as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, which is “an individual or an organization,” such as a corporation or limited partnership. INA sec. 101(b)(3), 8 U.S.C. 1101(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, a person may be indirectly involved if the person owns, manages, or otherwise oversees an organization that rises to the level of a person involved. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person involved.</E>
                         For instance, if an organization has an ownership interest in the new commercial enterprise, then the owners of that organization, would meet the definition of a “person involved” based on his or her ownership interest in the organization that owns the new commercial enterprise.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Principally Doing Business</HD>
                    <P>
                        As the statute does not define “principally doing business,” this rule proposes a definition in line with current USCIS policy, to emphasize that a new commercial enterprise is “principally doing business” in the location where the job-creating activity is occurring, which may be different from the actual, physical location of the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Principally doing business.</E>
                         DHS proposes to consider, consistent with current policy, factors that include, but are not limited to, the location of jobs directly created by the new commercial enterprise, expenditure of capital related to the creation of jobs, the new commercial enterprise's day-to-day operations, and the new commercial enterprise's assets used to create jobs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 2.A(5), “Targeted Employment Area.”
                    </P>
                    <P>This definition is important because it directly relates to how a regional center or alien investor will establish whether the EB-5 investment is being made into a TEA or a high employment area, as appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Project Application</HD>
                    <P>The INA requires a designated regional center to submit an application for approval of a particular investment offering before any regional center investor in that investment offering submits his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(F), 204(a)(1)(H)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F), 1154(a)(1)(H)(i).</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that a “project application” is an application for approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise submitted by a designated regional center according to the form instructions. DHS proceeds to use the term throughout the proposed regulation when referencing Form I-956F, Application for Approval of an Investment in a Commercial Enterprise, as this term is clearer and is the more colloquial use of terminology for EB-5 investments. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Project application; https://www.uscis.gov/I-956F.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Promoter</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires all direct and third-party promoters (including migration agents) of a regional center, any new commercial enterprise, an affiliated job-creating entity, or an issuer of securities intended to be offered to alien investors in connection with a particular investment project to comply with rules promulgated by DHS, including a requirement to register as a promoter. As section 203(b)(5)(K) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K), does not specifically define the term “promoter,” DHS proposes to define the term in a manner consistent with both statute and DHS current practice. Specifically, DHS proposes to define a “promoter” as any person that is acting on behalf of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity to advertise, publicize, market, endorse, or provide testimonials or solicit indications of interest in connection with a particular investment offering under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Promoter.</E>
                         When USCIS published the Form I-956K, Registration for Direct and Third-Party Promoters for public comments, stakeholders submitted comments asking whether the provisions regarding promoter registration applied to promoters working on behalf of standalone new commercial enterprises that are not seeking investors for the Regional Center Program. 87 FR 54233 (Sept. 2, 2022); 87 FR 79343 (Dec. 27, 2022). This proposed definition would clarify that only promoters working on behalf of an entity participating in the Regional Center Program would be required to register their participation with USCIS, in alignment with the plain language of the statute that section 203(b)(5)(K) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K), applies to direct and third-party promoters of regional center entities to “oversee promotion of any offering of securities related to the EB-5 Program.”
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Promotional Material</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires that any promoter must accurately represent the visa process to alien investors and describe permissible fee arrangements under applicable securities and immigration laws. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(i). The INA further directs promoters to “comply with the rules and standards prescribed by the Secretary” to oversee these requirements. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         DHS expects that regional centers, new commercial enterprises, job-creating entities, and promoters working on their behalf will continue to use promotional materials to seek out investors for their projects. In connection with the new requirements in the INA added by the RIA regarding registration and regulation of promoters and their related promotional activities, DHS proposes to define “promotional materials” to include any advertisement, offering memorandum, endorsement, testimonial, solicitation, direct and indirect communication between investors and promoters, and all other similar materials under applicable Federal and State securities laws related to offerings under the Regional Center Program regardless of the form taken. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Promotional material.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Qualifying Employee</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to update this definition from 8 CFR 204.6(e) to reflect the RIA's addition of “United States nationals” to section 203(b)(5)(A)(ii) of the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Qualifying employee.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Redeploy (Redeployment)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Before the enactment of the RIA, an alien investor was required to maintain his or her investment at risk until his or her sustainment period ended. The sustainment period continued through 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40698"/>
                        the investor's 2 years of conditional permanent resident status. Pre-RIA section 216A(d)(1)(B)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(B)(ii). Due to the length of time some investors had to wait for an immigrant visa, at times it became necessary for a new commercial enterprise to further deploy (redeploy) an investor's capital to maintain eligibility. USCIS developed guidance within the framework of the statutory and regulatory authorities at the time for further deployment of an investor's capital after the job creation requirement was satisfied. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 2.A(2), “Further Deployment After the Job Creation Requirement is Satisfied.”
                    </P>
                    <P>The RIA required DHS to prescribe regulations to allow NCEs to redeploy investment funds when necessary for an investor to maintain the capital at risk for a petition filed on or after the enactment of the RIA. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v). Importantly, since the parameters for redeployment are discussed within the “Business Plans for Regional Center Investments” section of the INA, INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F), DHS proposes to limit redeployment to regional center investors. Historically, regional center investors have had the longest wait for an immigrant visa and have been most impacted by the need to further deploy capital to retain eligibility, so DHS does not believe this proposed restriction would pose any consequences to standalone investors. Consequently, under this proposed rule, to “redeploy” would mean to reinvest an investor's regional center capital for the purpose of maintaining the investor's capital at risk. In addition, due to the changes made by the RIA from requiring the capital to remain invested throughout the conditional residence period in order to remove conditions to requiring that the investment be expected to remain invested for at least two years, DHS believes the likelihood of redeployment becoming a regular occurrence for EB-5 immigrant visa petitions filed on or after March 15, 2022, is highly unlikely.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Regional Center</HD>
                    <P>
                        Current regulations define a “regional center” as any economic unit, public or private, which is involved with the promotion of economic growth, including increased export sales, improved regional productivity, job creation, and increased domestic capital investment. 8 CFR 204.6(e), 
                        <E T="03">Regional Center.</E>
                         This definition aligned with the prior statutory requirement that an entity seeking designation as a regional center submit a general proposal for the promotion of economic growth (Pub. L. 102-395, sec. 610(a) (8 U.S.C. 1153 note), but no longer comports with the more specific changes made to the Regional Center Program by the RIA. An entity seeking designation as a regional center is now required to submit a proposal to DHS consistent with concentrating pooled investment in a defined, contiguous, and limited geographic area that establishes a substantive economic impact on the geographic area.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E), 8 U.S.C. 1153 203(b)(5)(E). Consequently, DHS proposes to update the regulatory definition of a “regional center” to align with the new requirements of the RIA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Regional center.</E>
                         Within this proposed definition, DHS would replace the term “economic unit” with “entity” to use more appropriate terminology in its definition of a “regional center.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         This proposed definition would also clarify that a “regional center” must be formed in the United States (as defined at INA sec. 101(a)(38), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(38)), for the ongoing conduct of lawful business to ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program and that investments are being made in the United States to benefit qualifying employees. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             In accordance with the settlement agreement in 
                            <E T="03">Behring Regional Center LLC and IIUSA</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Mayorkas, et al.,</E>
                             3:22-cv-2487 (N.D. Cal. 2022) and 
                            <E T="03">EB5 Capital, et al.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Dept. of Homeland Security, et al.,</E>
                             3:22-cv-3948 (N.D. Cal. 2022), a regional center designated and in good standing before the enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 retained its designation subject to establishing compliance with the new requirements added by the RIA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Regional Center Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA reauthorized and significantly reformed the Regional Center Program.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 103, 136 Stat. 1070, 1075 (2022). In the EB-5 Modernization Rule, DHS defined the “Regional Center Program” as the program established by Public Law 102-395, sec. 610, as amended. However, because of vacatur of the EB-5 Modernization Rule 
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the codification of new authority for the reformed Regional Center Program into the INA by the RIA, DHS proposes to define the “Regional Center Program” as the program under section 203(b)(5)(E) of the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Regional Center Program.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             Certain regional centers designated prior to enactment of the RIA have sought to enjoin DHS's enforcement of certain new requirements of the Regional Center Program against such regional centers, such as collection of the EB-5 Integrity Fund fee. Following denial of the regional centers' motions for preliminary injunction, U.S. District Courts in the Southern District of Florida (upheld on appeal by the United States Court of Appeals for the 11th Circuit) and District of Columbia subsequently rejected this interpretation advanced by these regional centers and granted DHS's motion to dismiss these lawsuits. 
                            <E T="03">Sunshine State Reg'l Ctr., Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Director, USCIS,</E>
                             143 F.4th 1331 (11th Cir. 2025) (upholding lower court's grant of DHS's motion to dismiss)
                            <E T="03">; EB5 Holdings, Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Jaddou,</E>
                             23-cv-1180 (D.D.C. Feb. 20, 2024) (order granting DHS's motion to dismiss).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Behring Regional Center LLC,</E>
                             544 F. Supp. 3d at 950.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Separate Account</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires each new commercial enterprise and affiliated job-creating entity to keep funds received from alien investors in a separate account that may only be used to receive and deploy capital for use in the capital investment project or to return capital to an alien investor that provided it. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q). DHS proposes to codify the INA's definition of a “separate account” as an insured account maintained by a new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, in the United States at a federally regulated bank or other financial institution as defined in 18 U.S.C. 20. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q)(vi), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(vi); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Separate account.</E>
                         DHS further proposes that the account may only contain the pooled investment funds of regional center investors in a new commercial enterprise with respect to a single capital investment venture that may, in turn, fund one or more individual job-creating entities and that a separate account may not contain funds from any other source, except for interest that may accrue on amounts held in the account. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         This definition would clarify that a new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity is not expected to retain a separate account for each individual regional center investor in the new commercial enterprise, but may pool those investment funds in one separate account. This would not preclude a new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, however, from establishing a separate account for each regional center investor, should the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity prefer to do so.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Targeted Employment Area, Rural Area, and High Unemployment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to codify the INA definitions of a “targeted employment area,” “rural area,” and “high unemployment area.” A “targeted employment area” (“TEA”) is, at the time of investment, a rural area or an area designated by the Secretary as a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40699"/>
                        high unemployment area. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(viii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(viii). DHS proposes to define a “TEA” as a rural area or a high unemployment area, while defining each of those terms separately in the proposed rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Targeted employment area.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The INA separately defines a “rural area” as any area other than an area within a metropolitan statistical area (as designated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget) or within the outer boundary of any city or town having a population of 20,000 or more (based on the most recent decennial census of the United States). INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(vii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(vii). DHS proposes to include this definition of “rural area” in the proposed rule while restating slightly for clarification that a “rural area” is any area that is: (1) not within a standard MSA; and (2) is not within the outer boundary of any city or town having a population of 20,000 or more. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Rural area.</E>
                         DHS believes this would further make clear that any area may qualify as a rural area provided the area does not meet either of these restrictions. In addition, this would clarify that only the population restriction of the second part of the definition is bound by the most recent decennial status at the time of investment, whereas the first part of the definition would be determined by whether the area was within a standard MSA at the date of investment. Determining the “date of investment” is discussed in Section IV.D of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As referenced in the definition of TEA, the INA likewise contains detailed provisions regarding designation of high unemployment areas and limits the designation of these areas to DHS. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii). In line with these statutory provisions, DHS proposes to define a “high unemployment area” as an area designated by USCIS under the requirements for designation found at proposed 8 CFR 204.402. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">High unemployment area.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. National Security and Fraud</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA “codifies a number of [. . .] long-sought reforms designed to enhance the integrity of the Regional Center Program and prevent fraud and abuse that have plagued it for far too long.” 
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It provides vital integrity and national security reforms to the EB-5 program to better guard against abuse and promote program integrity.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The RIA established in the INA new requirements for regional centers, new commercial enterprise owners, job-creating entity owners, and petitioners and provided USCIS additional authorities that will allow USCIS to mitigate the risks the EB-5 program presents.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             168 Cong. Rec. S1105 (daily ed. Mar. 10, 2022) (statement of Sen. Grassley).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             Senator Charles Grassley, “Reauthorizing and Reforming the EB-5 Regional Center Program,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.grassley.senate.gov/imo/media/doc/EB-5%20Reform%20and%20Integrity%20Act%202021%20-%20Summary.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Feb. 15, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             oversight requirements in section 203(b)(5)(F) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F), and additional annual reporting requirements in section 203(b)(5)(G) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G), as well as the bona fide requirements of participants in the Regional Center Program in section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). These new requirements are discussed in greater detail in section IV.G.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The RIA added new discretionary authorities to the INA to deny petitions or applications and revoke prior approvals if DHS determines, in its discretion, that there is a threat to public safety or national security or a benefit request under the EB-5 program is based on fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(N) and (O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O). Previously, without these provisions, USCIS could not directly act on petitions or applications that involved threats to public safety or national security without a related statutory basis for ineligibility or termination that could provide USCIS reason to terminate a regional center's designation or prohibit the involvement of individuals or petitioners with ties to foreign governments hostile to the United States. While the prior statutory authorization gave USCIS the authority to designate regional centers, which in turn provided implicit authority to terminate those designations, the general language regarding the “promotion of economic growth” was the only explicit statutory eligibility requirement for a designation as a regional center. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 610(a) of Public Law 102-395, 106 Stat. 1828, 1874. Due to the lack of explicit statutory authority, USCIS could not always timely terminate a regional center actively engaged in fraud to prevent larger losses to alien investors and bolster the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program. The INA now provides explicit and comprehensive statutory authority for USCIS to act if DHS determines, in its discretion, that any participant in the EB-5 program presents any public safety or national security threat to the United States or is, or has, engaged in fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(N) and (O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O).
                    </P>
                    <P>Under this rule, USCIS would apply the statutory provisions of sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O), generally using applicable practice guidance regarding sections 212(a)(3) or (6)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3) or (6)(C), as a guide, while recognizing that the scope of determinations under sections 212(a)(3) and (6)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3) and (6)(C), are more limited than determinations under sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O). USCIS would also retain discretion under sections 203(b)(5)(N) (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O), to determine that other actions not specified by sections 212(a)(3) or (6)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3) or (6)(C), still nonetheless require USCIS to act to ensure the integrity of the EB-5 program. For example, if USCIS determines that a person is acting on behalf of an authoritarian government or is, or has been, a member of, or affiliated with a Communist or any other totalitarian party (or subdivision or affiliate thereof), foreign or domestic, USCIS would act under section 203(b)(5)(N) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N). Likewise, if USCIS determines, for example, that an alien investor or any other person involved with a regional center who, by fraud or willfully misrepresenting a material fact, seeks to procure, has sought to procure, or has procured, an immigrant visa or other documentation, such as in connection with an application for designation as a regional center, USCIS would act under section 203(b)(5)(O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O).</P>
                    <P>
                        As noted by a USCIS representative in an industry forum: “Fraud and other public safety or national security concerns in the EB-5 program, regardless of when such concerns come to light, adversely affect the EB-5 program and the stakeholder community.” 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O), provide DHS with enforcement authority “if the Secretary determines, in the Secretary's discretion” that there are national security, fraud, misrepresentation, or criminal misuse concerns. To clarify its 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40700"/>
                        discretionary authority in this context, DHS proposes that USCIS would be able to make a determination that any petition, application, or benefit request described in section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), poses a threat to the public safety or national security of the United States, including participation in the EB-5 program itself, or was predicated on or involved fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation or criminal misuse even if the petition, application, or benefit request was filed before the enactment of the RIA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432 and 204.433. Equally important for the integrity of the EB-5 program, USCIS would be able to revoke a prior approval or terminate an investor's conditional permanent resident status if USCIS determines, in its discretion, that a threat to the public safety or national security of the United States exists or the petition, application, or benefit was predicated on or involved fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation or criminal misuse. DHS does not believe this proposal would upset reliance interests because DHS would consider actions or events that occurred prior to enactment of the RIA for the limited purpose of determining whether there is or was an ongoing threat to the national interest or fraud under sections 203(b)(5)(N) or (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(N) and (O) after enactment of the RIA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             2020 IIUSA EB-5 Industry Forum, “USCIS Remarks by Sarah Kendall, Chief, IPO” (Nov. 10, 2020), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/outreach-engagements/IIUSA_2020_Virtual_EB-5_Industry_Forum-IPO_Chief_Sarah_Kendalls_remarks.pdf</E>
                             (last visited Oct.10, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a result of any such determination, USCIS would deny or revoke the approval of any petition, application, or benefit request, terminate the permanent resident status of an alien investor, whether conditional or not, terminate or debar a regional center's designation, and permanently debar from participation in the Regional Center Program any new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity under proposed 8 CFR 204.431. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432(a) and 8 CFR 204.433(a). In addition, USCIS would bar any person associated with a terminated regional center or debarred new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity from participation in the Regional Center Program if the person was a knowing participant in the activities that led USCIS to make the determination under proposed 8 CFR 204.431. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432(b) and 8 CFR 204.433(b). USCIS would base a determination that a person was a knowing participant on actual or constructive knowledge. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Under this proposed rule, USCIS would consider any person that knew, or should have known, of any violation of the INA or these regulations that did not take action to address the violation to have had actual or constructive knowledge and would be subject to debarment from the EB-5 program. Additionally, a person would be considered to have actual or constructive knowledge if the person is directly or indirectly involved in any activity barred by the RIA or these regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Importantly, as noted above, these determinations would apply to any application or petition submitted either before or after the enactment of the RIA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.400(a) and (b). DHS proposes to exercise its discretionary authority under the INA to prevent or end the participation of individuals or organizations that are currently, or were previously, involved in the EB-5 program to preclude their ongoing involvement, where necessary. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 203(b)(5)(N) and (O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5) and (O).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In either case, USCIS would provide notice to the affected individual(s) or entity(ies) with an explanation of the determination, unless the relevant information is classified, or disclosure is otherwise prohibited under law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432(c) and 204.433(c). Except for terminations of conditional permanent resident status obtained under section 216A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b, and denials or revocations of Form I-829 petitions, which are not included among the list of applications, petitions or benefits subject to section 203(b)(5)(P) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(P), and which have also not historically been appealable since they are otherwise reviewable in removal proceedings in accordance with applicable provisions of section 216A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b, an individual or organization denied a benefit or sanctioned under sections 203(b)(5)(N) or (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N)-(O), would be able to appeal the determination to the Administrative Appeals Office. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(P), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(P); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432(d) and 204.433(d).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Alien Investors</HD>
                    <P>Section 203(b)(5)(A) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A), makes immigrant visas available to qualified immigrants seeking to enter the United States for the purpose of engaging in a new commercial enterprise in which the alien has invested, or is actively in the process of investing, the required amount of capital that is expected to remain invested for not less than two years and that will benefit the U.S. economy by creating full-time employment for not fewer than 10 U.S. citizens, U.S. nationals, lawful permanent residents, or other immigrants lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States, not including the investor's spouse or children. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Filing an EB-5 Immigrant Visa Petition</HD>
                    <P>
                        Any alien may file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition on his or her own behalf.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This rule would continue to require any alien seeking classification as either a regional center investor or standalone investor to properly file Form I-526E, Petition by Regional Center Investor, or Form I-526, Petition by Standalone Investor, as appropriate, according to the form instructions with the appropriate fees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404. As with any petition filed with USCIS, a petition would continue to be considered properly filed if the petition is complete, signed by the petitioner (in this case the alien investor), and accompanied by the required initial evidence. 
                        <E T="03">Id; see also</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(a)(7). The petition must include the required evidence along with any additional evidence necessary to establish the petitioner's eligibility by a preponderance of the evidence. 8 CFR 103.2(b)(1). As USCIS has continued to increase its use of electronic filing, USCIS amended the Form I-526E to permit investors to choose to upload their initial evidence in MyUSCIS.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under this proposed rule, any investor choosing to upload his or her initial evidence would have to do so within 30 days of filing the petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404(a). If an investor does not upload his or her evidence in the electronic system within 30 days, USCIS would deny the petition. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Since the RIA establishes a general processing goal of 240 days for regional center investors in general and 120 days for regional centers investing in a TEA,
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS believes that 30 days is a reasonable timeframe to allow for the investor to upload all required initial evidence while also providing USCIS sufficient time to complete the adjudication within the processing goal. Importantly, the investor must establish his or her eligibility at the time of filing and remain eligible through adjudication of the EB-5 immigrant visa 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40701"/>
                        petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(a); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(1).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             USCIS would deny an EB-5 immigrant visa petition submitted by any alien barred from participation in the EB-5 program. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 8 CFR 204.407(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             MyUSCIS is an online service that helps users and account holders navigate the immigration process. 
                            <E T="03">https://my.uscis.gov/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 106(b)(4)-(5), 136 Stat. 1070, 1104, Mar. 22, 2022.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On June 1, 2022, USCIS revised Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Alien Investor,
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to create two separate forms: Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor, and Form I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of this proposed rule, DHS is proposing further modifications to each petition and the corresponding instructions in line with the proposals contained in this rulemaking to ensure that USCIS has all the information necessary to make a determination as to the investor's eligibility and ensure the investor does not pose a threat to the public safety or national security of the United States and is not seeking to obtain an EB-5 immigrant visa fraudulently.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             Form I-526 was named Immigrant Petition by Alien Entrepreneur until November 2019. It was renamed in November 2019 to Immigrant Petition by Alien Investor until 2022 when it was split into the Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor, and Form I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             Each form is available on the USCIS website. USCIS, DHS, “I-526, Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/I-526</E>
                             (last updated Nov. 14, 2024); and USCIS, DHS, “I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/I-526E</E>
                             (last updated Nov. 14, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Regional Center Investors</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires a regional center to submit a project application before any alien investor investing in that project may file his or her petition for classification as a regional center investor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F); INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(i). Under this proposed rule, an alien seeking classification as a regional center investor must properly file Form I-526E, Petition by Regional Center Investor, and include evidence of association with a regional center's pending or approved Form I-956F (or project application). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404(b). Consequently, DHS is proposing to codify its post-RIA practice of USCIS rejecting any Form I-526E filed without evidence of association with a filed project application. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Evidence of association would ideally include a copy of the regional center's project application receipt notice along with evidence of the investor's signed agreements to invest in that particular investment offering to establish that his or her investment is associated with a regional center, but might also include other types of evidence to establish that the regional center submitted its project application, particularly in instances where the receipt notice is delayed or the investor seeks to file his or her petition as soon as possible after the regional center has submitted its project application. As intake processing improves, USCIS would expect a regional center to receive a receipt notice shortly after filing, which would improve the likelihood that the Form I-956F receipt notice could be made available to the investor prior to filing his or her Form I-526E. However, in accordance with the settlement agreement in 
                        <E T="03">Behring Regional Center, LLC and IIUSA</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Mayorkas, et al.,</E>
                         3:22-cv-2487 (N.D. Cal. 2022) 
                        <E T="03">and EB5 Capital, et al.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">DHS, et al.,</E>
                         3:22-cv-3948-VC (N.D. Cal. 2022), DHS proposes to continue accepting other evidence of the regional center having submitted Form I-956F in certain circumstances. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that an approved project application would establish certain eligibility requirements for a regional center investor, including investment in a new commercial enterprise and the expectation of sufficient job creation, for example. Consequently, DHS would continue its post RIA practice of a regional center investor not needing to submit evidence that is available to USCIS for review in the project application. This evidence from the project application establishing certain eligibility requirements for a regional center investor would be incorporated by reference into the regional center investor's petition, per section 203(b)(5)(E)(ii)(III) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(ii)(III). In other words, the investor would attest that he or she invested in the project identified on his or her Form I-526E and would not need to resubmit documentation previously provided to USCIS with that project application. This proposed rule would make clear that a regional center investor would only have to submit evidence to establish his or her eligibility for an EB-5 immigrant visa by submitting the evidence required by paragraphs 8 CFR 204.408(b) through (d). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As a regional center investor may file his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition once the regional center has submitted its project application, and the project application establishes certain grounds of eligibility for the regional center investor, USCIS would not adjudicate the regional center investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition until it has adjudicated the regional center's project application as several aspects of a regional center investor's eligibility rely on the approval of the regional center's project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Standalone Investors</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien seeking classification as a standalone investor must properly file Form I-526, Petition by Standalone Investor. A standalone investor cannot pool his or her investment with any other aliens seeking classification as an alien investor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(i); INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(i). In accordance with this statutory restriction, DHS proposes to clarify its post-RIA interpretation that multiple standalone investors would not be able to invest in the same new commercial enterprise, even if doing so independently. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(a)(2). DHS proposes this additional language because multiple standalone investors in a single new commercial enterprise is contrary to the INA's requirement that any alien seeking to pool his or her investment with other alien investors must do so under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(i).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Priority Dates</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to maintain the current definition that the priority date is the date the investor properly files a completed and signed EB-5 immigrant visa petition with USCIS, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(d), including all initial evidence required by the form instructions and the correct fee.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.406(a). This proposal is also consistent with the priority date assignment for family-based petitions and first through third preference employment-based petitions that do not require a labor certification approved by the Department of Labor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.1(b); 8 CFR 204.5(d). A priority date is important to any alien seeking to immigrate to the United States as it establishes his or her place in the visa queue. As discussed in section III.C. of this proposed rule, the priority date is the determining factor as to when a petitioner can either apply for an immigrant visa abroad or to adjust status in the United States based on the dates published in State's monthly Visa 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40702"/>
                        Bulletin.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         State may not issue a visa, and USCIS may not grant adjustment of status unless the alien's priority date is earlier than the corresponding cut-off date in the “final action date” chart listed in the Visa Bulletin.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             As discussed in Section IV.D.1 of this preamble, investors submitting their initial evidence through the electronic filing system would have to provide all required evidence within 30 days of filing or USCIS would deny the petition and the petition would not establish a priority date. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 8 CFR 204.404(a). If the investor submits the required evidence within 30 days, the priority date will be the date the petition is filed. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 8 CFR 204.406(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Consular Affairs, DOS, “The Visa Bulletin,” 
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/visas/en/law-and-policy/bulletin.html</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 16, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Priority Date Retention</HD>
                    <P>
                        The regulations in effect prior to the effective date of the EB-5 Modernization Final Rule did not permit investors to use the priority date of an approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition for a subsequently filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(d) (Nov. 20, 2019). DHS introduced priority date retention to the EB-5 program in certain circumstances in its “EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program Modernization” Final Rule to bring the EB-5 priority date retention policy into harmony with other employment-based preference categories. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         84 FR 35750, 35751 (July 24, 2019). However, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California vacated the EB-5 Modernization Rule on procedural grounds,
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         thereby removing the priority date retention provisions for alien investors from the regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Behring Regional Center LLC,</E>
                             544 F. Supp. 3d at 950.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS has generally allowed beneficiaries in the employment-based first, second, and third preference categories to retain the priority date of his or her previously approved immigrant visa petitions unless DHS revokes the petition's approval. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.5(e). DHS expanded the ability of beneficiaries in these preference categories to retain their priority dates even when their petitions have been revoked, so long as the approval was not revoked based on fraud, willful misrepresentation of a material fact, material error, or the revocation or invalidation of the labor certification associated with the petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 82398, 82485 (Nov. 18, 2016).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The RIA added new protections 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for certain immigrants to retain their eligibility in connection with an otherwise qualified petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M). DHS proposes to apply these provisions on priority date retention from the RIA for investors whose regional center is terminated or whose new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is barred from participation in the EB-5 program, as well as standalone investors who encounter situations that require a “material change” to their initially-filed petitions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.406 and 204.410. Section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), provides that upon termination or debarment, as applicable, of the investor's regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, the investor may retain his or her eligibility on that petition by taking specific actions to preserve his or her eligibility and filing an amendment with USCIS within 180 days of receiving notification from USCIS of the termination or debarment, as applicable. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M). If the investor properly files an amendment and establishes his or her continued eligibility, then the investor would retain the priority date of his or her earlier filed petition, whether the earlier petition is approved or remains pending at the time the amendment is filed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.406(c).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 103(b)(1), 136 Stat. 1070, 1094 (2022) (creating INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comment on the priority date retention provisions. DHS also welcomes comments on the standards that may be considered when determining whether to allow for priority date retention, including alternative suggestions to those standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Reserved Visa Qualification</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with its post-RIA interpretation and practice,
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes that the new visas reserved by the RIA in the INA only apply to those investors who filed an EB-5 immigrant visa petition on or after the date of enactment, March 15, 2022, and establish eligibility as a “qualified immigrant” based on post-RIA eligibility requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         adjusted investment amounts). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(g).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., Del. Valley Reg'l Ctr., LLC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">DHS,</E>
                             No. 23-cv-119, 2023 WL 3863637 (D.D.C. June 7, 2023), aff'd on other grounds, No. 23-5175, 106 F.4th 1195 (D.C. Cir. Mar. 22, 2024); 
                            <E T="03">Mukkavilli</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Jaddou,</E>
                             No. 22-CV-2289, 2023 WL 4029344 (D.D.C. June 15, 2023), aff'd on other grounds, No. 23-5138, 2024 WL 1231346 (D.C. Cir. Mar. 22, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Biometrics</HD>
                    <P>
                        After an investor files an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, USCIS may schedule the investor to appear for biometrics to confirm the investor's identity, perform background checks, and review a regional center investor's eligibility to be a person involved in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.417(a); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 103.16. While USCIS retains the discretion to schedule an investor for biometrics, most often biometrics would be captured when the investor seeks to obtain an immigrant visa or adjust status. As with all other benefit requests, if an investor is requested to appear for biometrics and does not appear, USCIS will consider the petition to be abandoned and deny the petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(13).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section IV.H.2 for further discussion on the additional requirements of a person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Investment Amounts</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien seeking classification as an alien investor must invest, or be actively in the process of investing, the required amount of capital. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A). The RIA increased the required investment amount from $1 million to $1.05 million. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(i). For investments in a TEA or an infrastructure project, the required investment amount is $800,000. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, DHS would update the investment amounts to the amounts established by the RIA.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b). DHS previously raised the investment amounts in the EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program Modernization Final Rule, setting the minimum investment amount at $1,800,000 U.S. dollars and the investment amount in a TEA at $900,000 U.S. dollars, or 50 percent of the standard minimum investment amount. 84 FR 35750 (July 24, 2019). However, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California vacated the Final Rule on procedural grounds, reverting the amounts to $1 million and $500,000, respectively.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This proposed rule would remove and reserve 8 CFR 204.6, which contained the investment amounts and would provide the new statutory amounts as well as clarify that the investment amount must remain invested on the date the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed, which is explained further in Section IV.D.6 of this preamble. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             These amounts will adjust automatically on January 1, 2027, and every 5 years thereafter, based on the cumulative annual percentage change in the unadjusted All Items Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the U.S. City Average between January 1, 2022, and the date of adjustment as reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iii)(I). DHS will determine when finalizing this rule whether to include the adjusted amounts for petitions filed on or after January 1, 2027.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Behring Regional Center LLC,</E>
                             544 F. Supp. 3d at 950.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40703"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Standard Minimum Investment Amount</HD>
                    <P>
                        For an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, the INA establishes a minimum investment amount of $1,050,000 U.S. dollars. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(i). DHS proposes to codify this minimum investment amount in this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(1). This amount will adjust automatically on January 1, 2027, and every 5 years thereafter, based on the cumulative annual percentage change in the unadjusted All Items Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the U.S. City Average between January 1, 2022, and the date of adjustment as reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iii)(I); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(2). DHS will round down to the nearest $50,000 and update these amounts by publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         USCIS will also update the amounts on its public website to provide the appropriate investment amounts based on the date a petition is filed.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Minimum Investment Amount in a Targeted Employment Area (TEA) or Infrastructure Project</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA established a reduced minimum investment amount of $800,000 U.S. dollars for investments made in a TEA or in an infrastructure project.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(ii). DHS proposes to codify this reduced minimum investment amount for investments made in a TEA or in an infrastructure project in this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(2). This amount will automatically adjust on January 1, 2027, and every 5 years thereafter, to be equal to 75 percent of the standard minimum investment amount provided in proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(1). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iii)(II); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(2). DHS will round down to the nearest $50,000 and update these amounts by publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iii)(II); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(2). USCIS will also update the amounts on its public website to provide the appropriate investment amounts based on the date a petition is filed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             A targeted employment area (TEA) is a rural area or an area designated by the Secretary of Homeland Security under INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii) as a high unemployment area. Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 102(a)(4), 136 Stat. 1070, 1074 (2022). DHS proposes definitions of targeted employment areas (TEAs) and infrastructure projects in proposed 8 CFR 204.401 and further discusses the provisions in sections IV.D and IV.E of this proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Minimum Investment Amount in a High Employment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 203(b)(5)(C)(iv) of the INA permits DHS to establish a higher investment amount of no more than three times the standard minimum investment amount in a high employment area, which is an area within a MSA that is not a TEA and has an unemployment rate significantly below the national average unemployment rate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iv). DHS has not previously defined high employment areas beyond the statutory definition and never raised the investment amount for such an area. With this proposed rule, DHS proposes to define a high employment area as discussed previously in Part IV.B. of this preamble. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">High employment area.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is proposing to set the investment amount for an area of high employment at $1,400,000. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(3). Section 203(b)(5)(C)(iv)(II) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(iv)(II), provides DHS with the discretion to “specify an amount of capital required [. . .] that is greater than (but not greater than 3 times)” the standard minimum investment amount. To calculate this amount, DHS multiplied the minimum standard investment amount ($1,050,000) by 133 percent and rounded up to the nearest $50,000, which means the standard minimum investment amount would be 75 percent of the high employment area investment amount. This is the same differential of a high unemployment area compared to the minimum investment amount. DHS proposes to automatically adjust this amount on January 1, 2027, and every 5 years thereafter, to be equal to 133 percent of the standard minimum investment amount rounded up to the nearest $50,000 and publish the new amount in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(3). Setting the automatic adjustment at 133 percent would keep the minimum standard investment amount at roughly 75 percent of the minimum investment amount in a high employment area, in line with the adjustment between the standard amount and the minimum investment amount for TEA and infrastructure projects. DHS also believes this is reasonable because the INA permits raising this amount to no more than three times the standard minimum investment, which at its maximum would be $3,150,000. DHS notes this proposal is much less than the amount allowed by the INA.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comment on the high employment area investment amount calculation and percentage of employment in relation to the national average unemployment rate to determine if an area is an area of high employment, as well as any alternatives with reasoning to support a different approach.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Source of Capital</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien seeking classification as an alien investor, whether as a regional center investor or a standalone investor, must establish that he or she invested the required amount of capital described above. No matter the type of capital invested, the capital would have to be lawful, meaning the capital invested was derived, whether directly or indirectly, from lawful sources and through lawful means, including any capital used to cover administrative costs and fees in association with the investment. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(L)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(L)(i). USCIS has historically identified unique fraud risks with investor capital, including uncertainties in verifying that the funds invested were obtained lawfully.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consequently, DHS proposes to codify its policies since implementing the RIA to require the investor to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the capital he or she invested, as well as any capital he or she used to pay any administrative costs and fees, derived from lawful sources and through lawful means as well as document the path of those funds from the investor to the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c). This would likely include different investors submitting different documents depending on where and how the investor derived the capital he or she invested, including any capital used to cover administrative costs and fees in association with the investment. For example, the investor may establish that he or she accumulated his or her capital through employment by providing bank records, income certificates, or personal income tax returns. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(d)(1). With respect to documenting the path of accumulated funds, some investors might submit banking statements, wire transfer receipts, or cancelled checks, while other investors that use third parties to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40704"/>
                        facilitate the transfer of capital to the new commercial enterprise on their behalf would need to identify any third party used to meet the investment requirement and submit evidence that the capital provided by the third party was lawful. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(c). USCIS has required this level of information from petitioners seeking to establish the lawfulness of their capital to ensure the EB-5 program is not being used to launder money or otherwise used to support fraudulent or criminal activities. Requiring this information remains necessary to demonstrate the complete path of lawful funds from the investor to the new commercial enterprise and allows USCIS to continue to ensure the integrity of the EB-5 program and that the invested funds are the investor's own funds. In addition, the investor would need to establish that any entity or individual used to provide his or her capital to the new commercial enterprise complies with all U.S. financial requirements and regulations, including anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT) requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(c)(4). USCIS would consider use of a currency exchanger, money service business, or other mechanism that is licensed, regulated, and authorized by an appropriate foreign or U.S. Government authority as evidence to establish that the capital obtained from the intermediary was lawfully derived, unless USCIS has reason to believe that such capital was not lawfully derived. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(3). If USCIS has reason to believe that such capital was not lawfully derived, then the investor would have to submit independent and credible evidence that the capital was lawfully derived.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             GAO, GAO-16-828, “Immigrant Investor Program: Progress Made to Detect and Prevent Fraud, but Additional Actions Could Further Agency Efforts,” (Sept. 13, 2016), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/products/gao-16-828.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The INA also precludes certain types of capital, such as unlawfully acquired assets, capital invested in exchange for a note, bond, convertible debt, obligation, or any other debt arrangement between the alien investor and the new commercial enterprise, capital invested with a guaranteed rate of return, or capital subject to a mandatory redemption provision, with certain exceptions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii). These exceptions allow an investor to include a buy back option that may be exercised solely upon withdrawal or denial of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition or at the discretion of the new commercial enterprise once the capital has been invested for at least two years, provided the capital remained invested at the time of filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition and was used to create the required number of jobs for qualifying employees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(d)(3). In other words, the investor would be able to include provisions in his or her investment agreements that would allow the investor to receive his or her capital back if:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. USCIS denies his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition;</P>
                    <P>2. The investor withdraws his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition; or</P>
                    <P>3. The new commercial enterprise, in its sole discretion, elects to buy back the investment after the capital has remained invested for at least 2 years, the capital remained invested when the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition, and the capital was used to create the required number of jobs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Multiple Investors, Including Investors Not Seeking EB-5 Classification</HD>
                    <P>
                        Investments in the EB-5 program frequently involve multiple investors in the new commercial enterprise, some of whom may not be seeking classification as an alien investor. It is no less important that any capital received from other investors in the new commercial enterprise is likewise lawfully derived to ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program. Consequently, under this proposed rule, if a standalone investor is investing in a new commercial enterprise that is receiving investments from other individuals that are not seeking classification as an alien investor (non-EB-5 capital), then the standalone investor would have to identify all sources of non-EB-5 capital invested in the new commercial enterprise on his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(4). Similarly, a regional center would have to identify all sources of non-EB-5 capital provided, or expected to be provided, to a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity identified in a project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(4). If USCIS has reason to believe that any capital invested in the new commercial enterprise or provided to the job-creating entity, including capital provided by an alien investor, has been derived by unlawful means, then USCIS would be able to request additional evidence from the regional center or standalone investor, as appropriate, to establish that the capital provided to the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is lawful. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(4). These proposals extend provisions in the current regulations that require investors in a new commercial enterprise to identify any additional capital invested in the new commercial enterprise and establish that all additional capital is lawful. 8 CFR 204.6(g)(1) (Nov. 20, 2019). DHS proposes additional clarifications about this provision in the proposed rule; particularly that while the standalone investor or regional center, as appropriate, must continue to identify any capital invested in the new commercial enterprise, USCIS would request additional evidence where there is reason to believe that the capital identified has not been derived by lawful means. USCIS would request such evidence from a standalone investor for his or her own capital or investments made outside of the Regional Center Program; from the regional center directly where there are questions about non-EB-5 capital invested in a new commercial enterprise in the Regional Center Program; or from a regional center investor regarding the lawfulness of his or her own capital. Evidence requested and obtained from a regional center would then be incorporated by reference into the regional center investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition, consistent with how other project level documentation would be handled for regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404(b), 204.408(a), and 204.410(b)(1). In either case, the regional center investor or the standalone investor would have an opportunity to remove (and replace, if necessary) any capital that cannot be established as lawful and respond to USCIS indicating those actions have occurred. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(4). However, if a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity continues to operate with capital that has not been established as lawful or was otherwise attempting to use unlawful capital within the EB-5 program in any manner, USCIS would be able to sanction the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity under proposed 8 CFR 204.431. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c)(4).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Digital Assets</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS has considered whether DHS should specifically include regulatory provisions related to the evidentiary considerations when evaluating digital assets 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as part of the source or path of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40705"/>
                        funds for investment of capital in the EB-5 program. For EB-5 purposes, digital assets that are not tangible assets in accordance with the definition of “capital” under INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(ii), may not be directly invested as “capital” into a new commercial enterprise; however, the use of intangible digital assets as a source of tangible capital (
                        <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                         cash) or in the path of funds used to invest tangible capital into a new commercial enterprise may be permissible. USCIS does not believe that digital assets distinguish themselves as a funding source that is significantly distinct from other funding sources described in this preamble, although they may entail different considerations when assessing the lawfulness of the source. DHS has a practice of permitting digital assets as a valid source of funding and applies the same evidentiary considerations as it applies to other funding sources. As is the case for other sources of funding, an investor has to establish that digital assets used as a source or in the path of funds for capital investment must be lawfully derived to ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program. That is, when assessing digital assets, USCIS typically considers whether digital assets were shown to have been obtained from a lawful source and through lawful means, whether digital assets were shown to have been maintained and not swapped for other digital assets not shown to derive from a lawful source and through lawful means, whether account/digital asset ownership has been shown at all relevant times, whether transaction history has been shown sufficiently, whether tax returns are consistent with claims, whether the purchase/maintenance/movement were lawful and the entities/individuals involved were operating lawfully, and whether any later conversion of the digital assets shows a clear path from lawful source through conversion of digital asset. Additionally, the area of digital assets is rapidly evolving and while USCIS recognizes digital assets as part of a valid EB-5 investor's funding strategy, DHS does not believe that including a regulatory framework specific to digital assets and evidentiary considerations, at this time, would be beneficial. For these reasons, DHS does not believe it is necessary to incorporate specific evidentiary considerations relating to digital assets into this regulation. DHS believes that it is more appropriate to provide necessary details—supplementing evidentiary considerations currently laid out in the proposed regulatory framework—that specifically relate to the assessment of digital assets in sub-regulatory guidance. This approach provides investors and the agency the necessary flexibility to adapt to the evolving world of digital assets, and provide meaningful guidance on the specific types of evidence that may demonstrate the lawfulness of digital assets used in the source and path of funds for capital investment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Digital assets include cryptocurrencies, digital tokens, and stable coins. The term “digital assets” has been defined in statutes, regulations and guidance documents, and may vary depending on the subject matter and purpose. For example, the Internal Revenue Code defines “digital asset” as “any digital representation of value which is recorded on a cryptographically secured distributed 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            ledger or any similar technology as specified by the Secretary.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             26 U.S.C. 6045(g)(3)(D). Implementing regulations at 26 CFR 1.6045-1 (a)(19) further define digital asset as “any digital representation of value that is recorded on a cryptographically secured distributed ledger (or any similar technology), without regard to whether each individual transaction involving that digital asset is actually recorded on that ledger, and that is not cash as defined in paragraph (a)(12) of this section.” Executive Order 14178, Strengthening American Leadership in Digital Financial Technology,” 90 FR 8647 (Jan. 23, 2025) has defined digital assets as “any digital representation of value that is recorded on a distributed ledger, including cryptocurrencies, digital tokens, and stablecoins.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition to seeking comments on all aspects outlined in this preamble, DHS invites the public to comment on (1) whether the regulation should specifically address evidentiary considerations related to digital assets; (2) whether, if USCIS were to incorporate specific provisions into regulation, the above outlined considerations sufficiently address digital assets or whether additional aspects should be considered; and (3) whether other aspects related to digital assets as a source of funds should be considered or addressed in sub-regulatory guidance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Duration of Investment</HD>
                    <P>
                        Prior to the RIA's enactment, under INA sec. 216A(d)(1)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(A)(ii), an alien investor was required to sustain his or her investment throughout the period of his or her residence in the United States to be eligible to remove the conditions on his or her permanent resident status. USCIS historically interpreted this sustainment period to mean the two years of the investor's conditional permanent resident status in the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 7.A(2), “Sustainment of the Investment,” n. 4.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The RIA removed from section 216A(d)(1)(A)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(A)(ii), the clause regarding how long the investment must be sustained to remove the conditions on residence. The RIA likewise revised section 203(b)(5)(A)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii), to require that the investor must expect his or her capital to remain invested for no less than two years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii). In line with the plain language of these statutory changes, DHS interprets these changes to modify the time in which an investor must maintain his or her investment to be eligible for an EB-5 immigrant visa and the subsequent removal of conditions on his or her permanent resident status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The statutory changes to sections 203(b)(5)(A) and 216A(d)(1)(A) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(A), provide that an investor may invest, or be in the process of investing, any time prior to filing his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition, provided the investment is expected to remain invested in accordance with applicable requirements for at least two years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii). Though the statute did not explicitly specify what particular actions in connection with an investment must happen (
                        <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                         contribution, placement at risk, etc.) for the 2-year period under section 203(b)(5)(A)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(i), to begin, since the RIA's effective date, DHS has interpreted the start date to be the date that the full amount of qualifying investment is contributed to the new commercial enterprise and placed at risk under applicable requirements, including being made available to the job-creating entity, as appropriate.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, DHS is concerned by a scenario where an investor has made and concluded his or her investment before ever filing an EB-5 immigrant visa petition as it would be difficult for an investor to establish, and for USCIS to verify, the duration of the investment, particularly if USCIS is reviewing potentially dated evidence during the adjudication of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition and the subsequent petition to remove the conditions on residence, or the investor is unable to obtain the necessary evidence to establish his or her eligibility with USCIS. Consequently, DHS proposes that an investor may invest in accordance with all applicable requirements any time prior to filing his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition and the requirement to remain invested for at least two years begins on that date of investment. However, to be eligible for an EB-5 immigrant visa and to address these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40706"/>
                        concerns regarding the validity and verifiability of associated evidence in the related adjudication, DHS proposes to modify its post-RIA policy to require (rather than suggest) that the investment would also have to remain at risk and available to the job-creating entity on the date the investor files his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(b)(1)-(3).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             USCIS, DHS, “EB-5 Questions and Answers,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/working-in-the-united-states/permanent-workers/employment-based-immigration-fifth-preference-eb-5/eb-5-questions-and-answers-updated-dec-2023#:~:text=An%20investor%20filing%20an%20EB,creation%20requirements%20have%20been%20met</E>
                             (last updated July 16, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS believes these proposed changes best align with the plain language of the INA as amended by the RIA and would lessen the burden on the investor to keep his or her investment in place for an extended period due to circumstances beyond the investor's or the new commercial enterprise's control, such as visa backlogs or other circumstances, while also mitigating the challenges USCIS would face reviewing an investment that has already concluded, potentially long before the investor files an EB-5 immigrant visa petition. Additionally, DHS believes these proposed changes would provide the greatest level of flexibility for stakeholders to create investment strategies that work for them, rather than having to make continual adjustments based on unknown (and often changing) immigrant visa issuance timelines, and would further limit the need for new commercial enterprises to redeploy investor capital after sufficient jobs have been created, solely to keep the investor's capital at risk over a potentially lengthy period. This would likewise minimize the risk of a new commercial enterprise not meeting the redeployment requirements of the INA, which requires USCIS to terminate the designation of any regional center associated with a new commercial enterprise that improperly redeploys an investor's capital. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v)(II). Importantly, the INA creates a minimum investment timeframe but does not preclude an investor and a commercial enterprise establishing an agreement for a longer period of investment. Further, DHS believes that investors are generally going to file their EB-5 immigrant visa petition shortly after investing the required amount of capital, both to secure a priority date and to lock in protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), in the event of future sanctions, so having to maintain the investment as of the date of filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition should not generally be a burden on the investor. Lastly, DHS believes this interpretation would provide the investor and the commercial enterprise with a significant degree of control over the required length of the investment since any need to maintain the investment beyond two years would be based on the investors' decision to file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition and personal investment objectives as well as the financial requirements of the commercial enterprise.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that many investors place their capital in escrow pending approval of their EB-5 immigrant visa petition. As discussed in section IV.B of this preamble, an investor would continue to be able to establish that he or she is actively in the process of investing by placing his or her capital in escrow pending approval of his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. For purposes of determining the duration of the investment, after the approval of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition and the investor's capital is released from escrow to the commercial job-creating activity, if an escrow agreement is in place, then the investor must expect to maintain that investment within that commercial job-creating activity for no less than 2 years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(i). If the new commercial enterprise is providing the investor's capital to a separate job-creating entity, the investment capital must remain with the job-creating entity or in use by the job-creating entity for the job-creating activity for no less than 2 years, except where the new commercial enterprise must redeploy the capital, after sufficient job creation, to another commercial activity within the same 2 years to keep the investor's capital at risk. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(d)(2)(ii). While this 2-year timeframe may not align perfectly with the investor's period of conditional permanent residence, USCIS would review the investment when the investor seeks to remove the conditions on his or her residence and determine whether the investment was maintained at risk for at least 2 years from the date it was placed at risk and provided to the job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Job Creation Requirements and Bridge Financing</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alien seeking classification as an alien investor must establish that his or her investment into a new commercial enterprise benefits the U.S. economy by creating full-time employment for not fewer than 10 qualified employees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A), 8 U.S.C.1153(b)(5)(A). DHS proposes to clarify that the job creation must be tied to the investment capital of the alien investor, meaning that the jobs would not have been created but for the investment capital. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(1). DHS also proposes to clarify that the investment capital of the alien investor must be provided to the entity(ies) most closely responsible for creating the employment upon which the investment is based and used in connection with the job-creating activity undertaken by such entity(ies). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(1). These clarifications align with current policy stated in the USCIS Policy Manual and USCIS precedent decisions and would further tie the alien investor's capital to the job creation.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, “Immigrants,” Part G, “Investors,” Chapter 2, “Immigrant Petition Eligibility Requirements,” Section A, “Investment of Capital,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-6-part-g-chapter-2</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025) (“This benefit is greatest when capital . . . invested in a new commercial enterprise . . . because of the investment, creates at least 10 full-time jobs . . .”); USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, “Immigrants,” Part G, “Investors,” Chapter 2, “Immigrant Petition Eligibility Requirements,” Section A(2), “Investment,” “Made Available” heading, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-6-part-g-chapter-2</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025); 
                            <E T="03">See also Matter of Izummi,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 169, 179, 189 (Assoc. Comm. 1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regional center investors may meet the job creation requirement by relying on economically and statistically valid methodologies for determining the number of jobs created. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv). However, for regional center investors, the regional center would have to establish on their behalf that the investment offering identified in the project application will satisfy the job creation requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(3). The regional center investor would not have to submit any additional evidence with his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition to meet the job creation requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Only up to 90 percent of the job creation requirement may rely on jobs that are estimated to be created indirectly. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iv). The remaining 10 percent of the job creation requirement must be established using direct jobs, which may also be established through job creation estimates, provided the estimates are established using economically and statistically valid and transparent methodologies. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(3)(i). USCIS would generally accept direct job outputs of any acceptable methodology, regardless of whether the parameters of the estimate potentially include employees outside of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. Further, if jobs estimated to be created are created by construction activity lasting less than 2 years, the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40707"/>
                        investor may satisfy up to 75 percent of the job creation requirement with jobs that are estimated to be created indirectly and any jobs estimated to be created directly will be prorated based on the length of job-creating activity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(3)(ii). Under this proposed rule, the regional center would have to establish that their particular investment offering will create a sufficient amount of qualifying jobs for the total number of investors sought for that particular investment offering by submitting an economic impact analysis (EIA) that estimates the job creation tied to the job-creating activity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(b). The EIA would have to be economically and statistically valid and transparent so that USCIS could validate the information provided. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, regional center investors may rely on an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology to establish the job creation requirements using jobs estimated to be created by prospective tenants occupying commercial real estate created or improved by capital investments if the jobs are not existing jobs that have been or will be relocated. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(aa), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(aa). USCIS previously allowed these types of jobs to establish sufficient job creation where the investor was investing in a new commercial enterprise associated with a regional center.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         USCIS subsequently rescinded this policy in 2018 and updated its Policy Manual to reflect the change because USCIS determined that tenant-occupancy methodologies resulted in a connection or nexus between the investment and jobs that was too tenuous.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The INA now explicitly permits, and DHS proposes including in this rule, that a regional center may rely on these methodologies as sufficient to establish job creation, provided the jobs are not existing jobs that have been or will be relocated. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e). A regional center would include such a methodology in their project application for USCIS to review before any regional center investors would be able to rely on the job creation estimates to obtain approval of their EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(b).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS Guidance Memorandum, GM-602-0001, “Operational Guidance for EB-5 Cases Involving Tenant-Occupancy” (Dec. 20, 2012), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/memos/EB-5_Tenant-Occupancy_Guidance_Memorandum.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, “Immigrants,” Part G, “Investors,” Chapter 2, “Immigrant Petition Eligibility Requirements,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-6-part-g-chapter-2</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             USCIS Policy Alert, PA-2018-03, “Rescission of Guidance Regarding Tenant-Occupancy Methodology” (May 15, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/policy-manual-updates/20180515-EB5TenantOccupancyMethodology.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While the INA allows a regional center to establish sufficient job creation in its project by using economically and statistically valid methodologies, DHS proposes that a regional center would not be able to rely on an economic model that uses visitor spending as an input to demonstrate qualifying jobs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(3)(iv). Visitor spending purports to calculate jobs based on increased ancillary spending by visitors and tourists because of the underlying EB-5 project. An example is the increased off-site spending at restaurants, entertainment, and transportation venues purportedly arising from construction of a new hotel. DHS believes that causal linkage between visitor spending and an EB-5 project cannot be demonstrated through economic modeling. Modeling techniques, such as traditional input-output models and regression, cannot delineate the portion of visitor spending increase attributable to an EB-5 project as opposed to other sources or causes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, DHS is proposing in this rule to eliminate the use of bridge financing repaid from EB-5 investment capital as a basis to demonstrate job creation in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.407(e)(1) (“Jobs attributable to any financing repaid with EB-5 investment capital may not be claimed as jobs created by such EB-5 investment capital.”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As explained above, pursuant to INA section 203(b)(5), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), an immigrant investor must invest capital into a new commercial enterprise which will benefit the United States economy by creating qualifying jobs. DHS has historically permitted investors and their associated new commercial enterprises to claim credit for jobs created by interim, temporary, or bridge financing 
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that is later replaced by EB-5 capital. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual Part G, Vol. 6, Ch. 2; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         USCIS EB-5 Adjudications Policy Memorandum, May 30, 2013, PM-602-0082 (superseded by the publication of consolidated EB-5 policy in the USCIS Policy Manual on November 30, 2016).
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “bridge loan,” Black's Law Dictionary (12th ed. 2024): “bridge loan (1975) A short-term loan that is used to cover costs until more permanent financing is arranged or to cover a portion of costs that are expected to be covered by an imminent sale.—Also termed bridge financing; swing loan.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Employment-Based Fifth Preference Immigrants: Investors, USCIS Policy Alert, November 30, 2016, PA-2016-08, available at 
                            <E T="03">www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/policy-manual-updates/20161130-Investors.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The RIA did not explicitly address the use of bridge financing in the EB-5 program. However, the RIA amended the INA's job-creation requirement to now provide that an investor must demonstrate the new commercial enterprise into which they invested not just benefit the United States economy “and” create qualifying employment but that it must benefit the United States economy “by” creating such employment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(ii). Though not directly addressed in any related legislative history, DHS interprets this statutory amendment to indicate that Congress wanted to ensure a closer nexus between the alien's investment into the new commercial enterprise and resulting jobs. DHS believes, therefore, that its historical administration of bridge financing no longer best implements the statutory provision as amended by the RIA.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, DHS has encountered difficulties in the past in consistently adjudicating petitions and applications seeking to utilize bridge financing because of its variability in usage and lack of defined standards. For example, applicants have sought to characterize loans with maturity up to 10 years or more as bridge financing because it was subsequently replaced by EB-5 capital.</P>
                    <P>
                        While DHS is proposing in this rule to eliminate the use of bridge financing repaid from EB-5 investment capital as a basis to demonstrate job creation in the EB-5 program, DHS is also soliciting comments on alternative options to eliminating the use of bridge financing in recognition that there may be credible uses of bridge financing in the EB-5 program. More recently, DHS has found that Form I-956F project applications filed after enactment of the RIA generally present more credible and realistic uses of bridge financing, which in turn present more credible projects that have a higher likelihood of success. For example, projects that have already broken ground and obtained permits to continue construction based on bridge financing are generally more credible in terms of being to attract additional investment in order complete the project and create qualifying employment. DHS therefore considered alternatives to address these adjudicative difficulties it has faced in the past with respect to bridge financing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40708"/>
                        while also considering the usage of bridge financing in light of this statutory amendment. Specifically, DHS is soliciting public comment to address the use of bridge financing in the EB-5 program through one of these options: (1) eliminate the use of bridge financing in the EB-5 program by no longer permitting any jobs created by bridge financing to be credited to EB-5 investors whose capital investments are used to repay and replace that bridge financing, or (2) restrict the use of bridge financing in the EB-5 program to sufficiently demonstrate a nexus between the jobs created by any bridge financing and the EB-5 capital used to repay the bridge financing such as by requiring that any bridge financing have a limited maturity date 
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and limiting the amount permitted for bridge financing up to a certain percentage of total project costs.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In particular, DHS is interested in comments from the public regarding these specific proposals to support limitations on the period for maturity and limitations on amount of bridge financing.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             Typical maturity dates for bridge financing range from 12-36 months depending on the purpose for the bridge loan. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.pnc.com/insights/personal-finance/borrow/what-is-a-bridge-loan.html</E>
                             (last visited September 5, 2025), describing typical bridge loan maturity of up to one year; 
                            <E T="03">https://www.integracommercial.com/loan-types/commercial-bridge-loans/</E>
                             (last visited September 5, 2025), offering bridge loans for commercial real estate transactions between 12-36 months. DHS also notes that various provisions within INA sec. 203(b)(5) and INA sec. 216A contemplate investment and job creation within potentially shorter periods of time, such as requiring investment to be expected to remain invested for at least 2 years under INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(i), providing for 2 years of conditional residency under INA sec. 216A and limiting job creation in circumstances in which construction activities last less than 2 years under INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iv)(ii). DHS would seek to limit maturity for any bridge loan to ensure compliance with applicable statutory requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.investopedia.com/terms/l/loan-to-cost-ratio-ltc.asp</E>
                             (last visited September 5, 2025). In general, many lenders limit bridge financing amounts to around 80% of total project costs. Because of the unique structure of the EB-5 program to provide immigration benefits to investors based on jobs resulting from their investment in a new commercial enterprise, DHS may seek to further limit the amount permitted to be repaid by EB-5 capital in order to ensure a closer and more articulable nexus between the investment of EB-5 capital and resulting job creation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Initial Evidence</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes to clarify and update the regulatory provisions regarding the required initial evidence to accompany an EB-5 immigrant visa petition. The current provisions at 8 CFR 204.6(j) (Nov. 20, 2019) contain, in addition to the evidentiary requirements, certain substantive eligibility provisions that are better suited as standalone provisions apart from the evidentiary requirements. In this rule, DHS would move these eligibility provisions to 8 CFR 204.407 and has discussed them in the sections above.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule would then provide the evidentiary requirements in 8 CFR 204.408. Standalone investors would be required to submit all of the initial evidence identified in proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b) through (g), while regional center investors would be required to submit the initial evidence identified in proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b) through (d) and would meet the remaining evidentiary requirements through their association with the regional center's project application for the project in which they have invested. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408. Importantly, a regional center investor would not have to submit any of the initial evidence that USCIS would already have reviewed with the regional center's project application. Prior to the RIA's establishment of a project application process, each regional center investor in a new commercial enterprise had to submit project-level documentation to establish his or her eligibility, which led to USCIS having to review the same evidence multiple times. If USCIS determined the evidence was insufficient, USCIS would request additional evidence from each regional center investor. Since the evidence was at the project level, the investor likely had to coordinate with the regional center to provide a response. DHS proposes to codify its post-RIA practice that, with the establishment of a project application, USCIS will review project-level evidence during the project application adjudication and communicate directly with the regional center if any evidence is determined to be insufficient. Once any issues are resolved at the project level and USCIS adjudicates the project application, USCIS would then rely on that adjudication to determine a regional center investor's eligibility related to the project level-requirements, such as job creation and whether the investment is in a high unemployment area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to eliminate the current requirements at 8 CFR 204.6(h) (Nov. 20, 2019) and 8 CFR 204.6(j)(1) (Nov. 20, 2019), which require evidence to show that the immigrant investor has established the new commercial enterprise in the United States, and at 8 CFR 204.6(j)(5) (Nov. 20, 2019), which require evidence to show that the immigrant investor is or will be engaged in the new commercial enterprise through the exercise of day-to-day managerial control or through policy formulation. The original basis for these provisions was the statutory requirement that the immigrant investor establish and engage in a new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section 121(b)(5)(A)-(B)(i) of IMMACT90, Public Law 101-649, 104 Stat. 4978, 4989-90 (Nov. 29, 1990). In 2002, Congress eliminated the requirement that an immigrant investor establish the new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section 11036 of the 21st Century Department of Justice Appropriations Authorization Act, Public Law 107-273, 116 Stat. 1758, 1846 (Nov. 2, 2002). DHS believes the RIA, in its overall structure and composition, envisions and permits a largely passive investment into the new commercial enterprise by the immigrant investor. Considering these statutory changes, DHS proposes to eliminate the provisions cited above regarding evidentiary requirements for establishment of, and engagement in, a new commercial enterprise by the immigrant investor, and to clarify that the immigrant investor must submit initial evidence that the immigrant investor has invested capital in an established new commercial enterprise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(c) and (e); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 204.421(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that this rule would remove Form I-9, Employment Eligibility Verification, from the list of evidence provided in the regulations and replace it with “employment eligibility verification forms.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(f)(2)(i). However, DHS would still expect Form I-9 to be the primary form used for employment eligibility verification but is modifying the terminology used in the regulatory text to continue to update USCIS regulations from relying on form numbers that are subject to change.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comment on the types of evidence that may be provided to establish eligibility for any of the particular eligibility grounds.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Amending an EB-5 Immigrant Visa Petition</HD>
                    <P>The INA, as amended by the RIA, permits immigrant investors to amend their pending or approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition in certain circumstances. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M). This proposed rule would permit immigrant investors to amend their EB-5 immigrant visa petition when:</P>
                    <P>1. There is a material change that affects the immigrant investor's eligibility;</P>
                    <P>2. USCIS terminates the immigrant investor's associated regional center; or</P>
                    <P>
                        3. USCIS debars the immigrant investor's associated new commercial 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40709"/>
                        enterprise or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Importantly, in line with the INA, an immigrant investor would not be able to amend his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition if the amendment is an attempt to correct a deficiency that existed at the time of filing (for example, USCIS denies the regional center's project application on which the investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition is based, and the investor seeks out another investment). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(ii); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(a). Likewise, an amendment could not be used to amend a denied petition or amend a petition where USCIS revoked the approval. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Material Changes</HD>
                    <P>
                        USCIS generally considers a change to be material “if the changed circumstances would have a natural tendency to influence or are predictably capable of affecting the decision.” 
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with the INA, material changes to a project are now likely to be covered by an amendment to the regional center's project application and subsequently incorporated into an investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(iii); INA sec. 204(a)(1)(H)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(ii); proposed 8 CFR 204.410(b)(1). A standalone investor would also be able to amend his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition to modify aspects of the business plan, provided the business plan was credible when filed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(b)(2). In the event the investor must invest any additional capital to retain his or her eligibility, then the investor would need to file an amendment to establish that any additional investment capital is lawful under proposed 8 CFR 204.407(c). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(b)(1) and (2). Any change to the investor's source of capital would remain a material change and would result in USCIS denying the amendment request. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         In such a situation, the investor would not be precluded from filing a new EB-5 immigrant visa petition, unless the investor is barred from participation in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         In addition, if a standalone investor has not yet invested the full amount of capital when the designation of a high unemployment area expires, the standalone investor would have to file an amendment to seek an extension or modification of the high unemployment designation because the designation expires or because the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business in a new location. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(b)(2). Since an extension would not be necessary as long as the standalone investor invests the full amount of required capital during the period of designation, DHS does not expect this situation to arise very frequently for standalone investors, but is providing for the possibility in this proposed rule to ensure clarity about a standalone investor's responsibility should such a situation come about.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Kungys</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             485 U.S. 759, 770 (1988). 
                            <E T="03">See Matter of Izummi,</E>
                             22 I&amp;N Dec. 169, 176 (Assoc. Comm. 1998). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 103.2(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Suspensions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA amended the INA to provide the Secretary with specific authority to suspend regional centers and associated parties in certain circumstances. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II)(bb); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(I)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(I)(iv); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(ii). DHS is codifying when USCIS may suspend a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431. Under this proposed rule, USCIS would be able to suspend an entity from participation in the EB-5 program entirely or limited to certain EB-5 related activities and would prescribe the particulars of any suspension under proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3). Since a suspension would not equate to a termination of a regional center's designation or debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity's participation, an investor would not necessarily need to amend his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition if the suspension does not impact his or her eligibility for an EB-5 immigrant visa. Consequently, a suspension would not by itself trigger the protections provided by section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, which are predicated on the termination of a regional center's designation or debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity's participation in the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Terminations and Debarments</HD>
                    <P>The RIA established new protections for immigrant investors who invested in a regional center or new commercial enterprise in good faith and their regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity is terminated or debarred, as appropriate, from participation in the Regional Center Program. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M). This new provision provides immigrant investors the opportunity to retain their eligibility for both their EB-5 immigrant visa petition and their petition to remove conditions on their residence, even if their regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity is terminated or debarred at any time from the filing of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition throughout their conditional permanent resident status. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(i).</P>
                    <P>
                        To remain eligible, in the case of termination of the investor's regional center, the investor's new commercial enterprise would have to associate with an approved regional center, or the investor would have to make a qualifying investment in another new commercial enterprise in good standing within 180 days of the regional center's termination. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I). In the case of debarment of the investor's new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, as appropriate, the investor would have to associate with a new commercial enterprise in good standing and invest any additional capital needed to satisfy any remaining job creation requirements. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(II). In either case, USCIS would notify affected investors of the termination of their regional center's designation or the debarment of their new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(c) and (d). Within 180 days of receiving notification of the regional center's termination or the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity's debarment, an affected investor would have to submit an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition, whether pending or approved. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(e)(2). Consistent with related statutory requirements at sections 203(b)(5)(E) and 204(a)(1)(H)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E) and 1154(a)(1)(H)(i), DHS proposes that a regional center investor seeking to move or reassociate his or her investment with a different new commercial enterprise would need to seek out a new commercial enterprise participating in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(c) and (d). DHS considered allowing a regional center investor to seek out any new commercial enterprise regardless of its association with a designated regional center, but the regional center investor would then become a standalone investor and there would not be a statutory basis to claim any indirect jobs previously created as provided 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40710"/>
                        under section 203(b)(5)(E) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E), nor would such an allowance align with the related requirement under section 204(a)(1)(H)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(H)(i), specifying that petitions for classification based on pooled investment filed on or after enactment of the RIA be filed in accordance with section 203(b)(5)(E) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E). As a result, such an allowance would not only be misaligned with other applicable statutory authorities, but it would also make establishing eligibility much more difficult and costly for a regional center investor even if it were statutorily permissible. In addition, remaining within the Regional Center Program helps to ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program and implement the objectives of the RIA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For investors whose regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity is terminated or debarred, DHS proposes that, at the time of notice to the investor of the termination or debarment, if the investor's required amount of capital remained invested for at least two years and the new commercial enterprise created the required number of jobs, it is not necessary for the investor to reassociate or make a new qualifying investment under section 203(b)(5)(M)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii), in order to maintain eligibility for classification under section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), or removal of conditions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(e)(3). If, however, at the time of notice to the investor of the termination or debarment, the investor's required amount of capital had not yet remained invested for at least two years or the new commercial enterprise had not yet created the required number of jobs, the investor would nevertheless still be able to seek to retain his or her eligibility through the protections of section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), and may reassociate or make a new qualifying investment consistent with the procedures established by this rule for doing so in order to demonstrate continued eligibility.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Targeted Employment Areas</HD>
                    <P>The INA reduces the required investment amount for investment in a TEA, which includes a rural area and a high unemployment area. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(C)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(ii). In addition to the reduced investment amount, the RIA added new provisions to the INA that reserve 20 percent of EB-5 visas available annually (or around 1,988 in a typical year) for investments in rural areas and 10 percent of EB-5 visas available annually (or around 994 in a typical year) for investments in high unemployment areas. Any visas reserved for each area that remain unused at the end of the fiscal year are reserved for the same area for an additional fiscal year. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(aa), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(aa). Any reserved visas unused for a second year are released in the third fiscal year to the total amount of unreserved EB-5 visas available for investors not investing in a rural area or area of high unemployment or infrastructure project (discussed below). INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(bb).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Identifying a Rural Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        To establish investment in a rural area, a regional center or standalone investor, as appropriate, would have to submit a map of the proposed area along with the population counts of that area to ensure that the area identified meets the definition of a rural area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(g). As discussed in Section IV.B. of this preamble, a rural area is any area that is both outside a standard MSA as designated by the Office of Management and Budget and also outside the boundary of any city or town with a population of 20,000 or more based on the most recent decennial census of the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Rural area.</E>
                         Regional center investors would not have to submit evidence of their investment being within a rural area other than verifying their investment in a new commercial enterprise for which a regional center has filed a project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Constructing a High Unemployment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        Previously, DHS permitted State government entities to designate certain high unemployment areas and provide applicable evidence to an immigrant investor for submission to USCIS that the area qualified as a high unemployment area under section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5). In 2019, DHS revised 8 CFR 204.6 in the EB-5 Modernization Rule to make changes to the definition of a high unemployment area while removing State government entities' determinations from the designation process and instead limiting the authority to make a determination of a high unemployment area with USCIS based on the definition provided in the regulation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         84 FR 35750, 35808 (July 24, 2019). On March 26, 2021, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California vacated the EB-5 Modernization Final Rule on procedural grounds, removing the effect of the changes made to 8 CFR 204.6.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The INA, as amended by the RIA, now exclusively vests the TEA determination with DHS. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(II). DHS proposes that USCIS would designate an area as a high unemployment area during the adjudication of the regional center's project application, or the adjudication of a standalone investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(c). Regional center investors would not have to submit evidence of their investment being within a high unemployment area other than verifying their investment in a new commercial enterprise for which a regional center has filed a project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Behring Regional Center LLC,</E>
                             544 F. Supp. 3d at 950.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The INA provides that a high unemployment area may consist of a census tract or contiguous census tracts in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business (the “project tract(s)”) if the weighted average of the unemployment rate 
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for the tract or tracts is at least 150 percent above the national average. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(I)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(I)(bb). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(a). If the project tract(s) do not independently qualify under this analysis, a high unemployment TEA may also consist of the project tract(s), along with any or all additional tracts that are directly adjacent to the project tract(s), as long as the weighted average of the unemployment rate for all of the tracts in the identified area is at least 150 percent of the national average when compared using the same labor force employment measure for the census tract(s) and the national average rate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(a) and (b).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             The weighted average is obtained utilizing the total actual labor force population of each tract.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Figure 1 illustrates how to apply the limitations. The tract with the star (6) and surrounded by the dashed line represents the project tract where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business. The area outlined by the solid black line contains all the tracts that are directly adjacent to the project tract. Under the new statutory definition, the tract with the star (6) may independently qualify for designation as a high unemployment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40711"/>
                        area. If it does not, that tract combined with any or all of the additional tracts within the solid black line (4, 5, 7, 10, 11, and 30) may be able to qualify for designation as a high unemployment area if the weighted average unemployment rate of the entire proposed area is not less than 150 percent of the national average rate when compared using the same labor force employment measure for the census tract(s) and the national average rate.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             73 U.S. Census Bureau, “2020 Census—Census Tract Reference Map: Charleston County, SC” (Jan. 8, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www2.census.gov/geo/maps/DC2020/PL20/st45_sc/censustract_maps/c45019_charleston/DC20CT_C45019.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="298">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.026</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As illustrated in Figure 1, tracts may be considered directly adjacent to the project tract if the boundaries are touching at a corner, such as number 4 in relation to number 6. Additionally, the census tract boundaries may meet in a waterway, such as number 30 in relation to number 6. If the census tract boundaries meet in that waterway, the tracts are considered directly adjacent. However, if the waterway is itself a census tract, then the tract on the opposite side of that waterway is not directly adjacent to the project tract. For instance, in Figure 2 showing two of the Hawaiian Islands in Kauai County, tract 412 (on the left and surrounded by tract 9902) is not directly adjacent to tract 409 (on the right and surrounded by tract 9901). Recognizing that each of these particular census tracts would independently qualify as a rural area based on the 5-year American Community Survey (ACS) data from 2021, Figure 2 is being used for illustrative purposes for when a census tract separated by a body of water that has its own census tract number would not be directly adjacent to another tract.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="304">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40712"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.027</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Providing Sufficient Data To Establish a High Unemployment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that standalone investors and regional centers seeking designation of their investment or project as principally doing business in a high unemployment area must submit with their EB-5 immigrant visa petition or project application, respectively, a list of the census tract(s) comprising the proposed area and the unemployment statistics for the area for which designation is sought, along with the method(s) by which the unemployment statistics were obtained. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(g)(2) and proposed 8 CFR 204.421(c)(2). DHS further proposes that the unemployment statistics used to perform the calculation must be statistically valid for the census tracts, use unbiased estimates calculated at the census-tract level, be updated periodically, be provided by a Federal agency, and the survey methodology, if any, must use publicly available data along with a description of the applicable weights and estimation of error and bias in the estimates. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(b). DHS expects that under this standard most investors and regional centers would be able to rely on the Census Bureau's ACS 
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to perform the necessary calculations and determine prior to USCIS adjudication whether an area would qualify as a high unemployment area. While DHS does not restrict investors and regional centers to only using the ACS data, DHS believes that establishing these standards for the data will increase transparency and allow investors and regional centers to independently calculate, even before submission of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition or project application, that the area they have identified for investment would likely qualify as a high unemployment area.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, “2020 Census—Census Tract Reference Map: Kauai County, HI” (Jan. 6, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www2.census.gov/geo/maps/DC2020/PL20/st15_hi/censustract_maps/c15007_kauai/DC20CT_C15007.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, American Community Survey, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/acs/</E>
                             (last revised December 23, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        When comparing the area identified to the national average rate, the petitioner or regional center, as appropriate, must use consistent data sources between the two areas. Therefore, if the unemployment rate of the area identified is calculated using, for example, data from the ACS from the past year, then the national unemployment rate must also be calculated using data from the ACS from the past year. USCIS previously allowed a combination of U.S. Department of Labor Local Area Unemployment Statistics (LAUS) and ACS data, commonly referred to as a “Census Share Methodology.” This methodology does not generally produce statistically valid unbiased estimates at the census-tract level. Consequently, the combination of LAUS and ACS data would not be accepted under proposed program requirements with regard to consistency between the unemployment rate and the census-tract-level data. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(b). Therefore, this methodology would not be accepted under the proposed requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Calculating the Weighted Average Unemployment Rate</HD>
                    <P>
                        To calculate the weighted average unemployment rate of an area using EB-5 immigrant visa petition or project application required data (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a list of the census tract(s) comprising the proposed area, the unemployment statistics for the area, and the method by which the unemployment statistics were obtained), first divide the labor force of each census tract by the labor force of the entire area sought for designation. Then, multiply this figure by the unemployment rate of that specific census tract. The resulting figure is the weighted unemployment rate for each individual census tract. The total weighted unemployment rate is the sum of the weighted unemployment rates for each census tract in the area sought for designation. If the total weighted 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40713"/>
                        unemployment rate is at least 150 percent of the national unemployment rate when compared using the same labor force employment measure for the census tract(s) and the national average rate, then the project area would qualify as a high unemployment TEA.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. USCIS Review of the High Unemployment Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, USCIS would not proactively designate or identify areas that may qualify as a high unemployment area. USCIS would rely on the standalone investor or regional center, as appropriate, to provide data to support the claim of an investment in a high unemployment area. The data provided to establish a high unemployment area would vary based on the type of investor seeking the designation. For a standalone investor seeking to invest in a high unemployment area, USCIS would review all the data provided when the investor files his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition to determine whether the area identified meets the requirements of a high unemployment area. For a regional center investor seeking to invest in a high unemployment area, USCIS would review all the data provided by the regional center when the regional center submits its project application. In either case, designation of a high unemployment area could not be requested from USCIS except through the adjudication of a project application or EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(c). Though USCIS is not currently positioned to proactively designate areas as a high unemployment area or provide guidance to the public on areas that would qualify as a high unemployment area, USCIS may, in its discretion, publish additional guidance or maps to assist a regional center or standalone investor seeking out an investment in a high unemployment area. Importantly, DHS believes that the standards prescribed in the INA and this proposed rule provide a regional center or standalone investor clear guidelines allowing anyone seeking an investment in a high unemployment area to be able to reliably determine if his or her investment would be within a high unemployment area.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Validity Period of a High Unemployment Area Designation</HD>
                    <P>
                        If USCIS approves a standalone investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition for investment in a high unemployment area, the area identified is considered a high unemployment area for 2 years from the date the standalone investor made his or her investment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(d). Upon approval, USCIS would then extend the initial designation for 2 years from the date of the approval notice. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(e)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If USCIS approves a project application, then the area identified is considered a high unemployment area for associated regional center investors for 2 years from the date of the project application filing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(d). Upon approval, if USCIS determines the area continues to qualify as an area of high unemployment, USCIS would then extend the initial designation for 2 years from the date of the approval notice. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(e)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS believes providing initial 2-year extensions on the date of adjudication is important to ensure that the 2-year validity period is effectuated and to allow investments to continue without the need for an immediate renewal request. While DHS anticipates USCIS will adjudicate these filings as quickly as possible, this extension would provide a level of certainty that the area identified will be considered a high unemployment area for at least two years rather than two years minus the time the adjudication remained pending.</P>
                    <P>A regional center investor that has invested the full amount of his or her lawful capital in the new commercial enterprise identified in the project application and files his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition within the 2 years from the date of the regional center receiving the approval notice would be considered to have invested in a high unemployment TEA and would not need to increase his or her investment should the designation expire or should the area no longer qualify as a high unemployment area after those two years. Likewise, a standalone investor that has invested the full amount of his or her lawful capital in the new commercial enterprise within two years from the EB-5 immigrant visa petition approval and automatic renewal would not need to increase his or her investment should the designation expire or should the area no longer qualify as a high unemployment area after those two years.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Renewal of a High Unemployment Area Designation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Within the 90 days prior to the end of the 2-year designation period, a designated regional center or standalone investor, as appropriate, may seek to extend the designation if the regional center will continue to seek new investors beyond those two years or if the regional center investor or standalone investor has not yet invested the full amount of capital prior to the designation's expiration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(e)(2). If either a regional center investor or standalone investor has not invested the full amount of required capital within the 2-year designation period and the designation of a high unemployment area expires and cannot be renewed because, for example, the area where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business no longer qualifies as a high unemployment area, then the regional center investor or standalone investor would need to increase his or her investment to meet the minimum investment amount under section 203(b)(5)(C)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(i), and submit an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition to establish that any additional capital invested is lawful. If an extension is properly requested, then the area's designation would extend during the pendency of the request. This would allow a regional center to continue to solicit investors while USCIS reviews the extension request. If USCIS were to deny the extension request, investors solicited during the pendency would have to increase their investment to meet the minimum capital requirements. Therefore, a regional center should seek to ensure that any particular project remains in an area of high unemployment when continuing to seek investments at the lower investment amount beyond the designation period and if it is, to seek to file an extension request as early in the 90-day period as possible.
                    </P>
                    <P>Importantly, a regional center investor or standalone investor that invested the full amount of required capital in a new commercial enterprise with a valid high unemployment area designation at the time of the investment would not need to increase his or her capital investment solely because the designation expires.</P>
                    <P>
                        If a new commercial enterprise moves the location in which it is primarily doing business, then the designated regional center or standalone investor would not be able to submit a renewal request and would instead have to submit an amendment to the project application or EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(e)(3) and Section IV.D.9 of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Infrastructure Projects</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA provides a reduced required investment amount if an investor invests his or her capital in an infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40714"/>
                        203(b)(5)(C)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(C)(ii). In addition to the reduced investment amount, the INA reserves two percent of EB-5 visas available annually (or approximately 198) for investments in qualifying infrastructure projects. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(I)(cc), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i)(I)(cc). Any visas reserved for infrastructure projects that remain unused at the end of the fiscal year are reserved for infrastructure projects for an additional fiscal year. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(aa), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(aa). Any visas reserved for infrastructure projects that remain unused for a second year are released in the third fiscal year to the total amount of EB-5 visas generally available for all EB-5 investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(i)(II)(bb).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Only DHS may determine whether a project qualifies as an infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(iii). In accordance with post-RIA practice, DHS proposes that USCIS would make this determination when adjudicating the regional center's project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.403(a). Importantly, a standalone investor is not eligible to receive a visa reserved for investment in an infrastructure project. The definition of an infrastructure project in the INA requires the investment project to be administered by a governmental entity that is the job-creating entity contracting with a regional center or new commercial enterprise to receive capital investment under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(D)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(iv).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While any sector whose utility to the public can be established may qualify as an infrastructure project, DHS generally expects qualifying infrastructure projects to involve the maintenance, improvement, or construction of any physical assets that are designed to provide or support services to the general public through projects in sectors such as those generally identified by relevant statutes, regulations, and executive orders, including aviation, broadband internet, drinking water infrastructure, electricity transmission, energy production and generation, pipelines, ports (including navigational channels), stormwater and sewer infrastructure, surface transportation (including roadways, bridges, railroads, and transit), and water resources projects.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             As part of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Public Law 117-58 (Nov. 15, 2021), Congress demonstrated a similar understanding of “infrastructure.” In section 70912(5) of the Act, Congress defined “infrastructure” to include, at a minimum, the structures, facilities and equipment for, in the United States, roads, highways, bridges; public transportation; dams, ports, harbors and other maritime facilities; intercity passenger and freight railroads, freight and intermodal facilities; airports; water systems, including drinking water and wastewater systems; electrical transmission facilities and systems; utilities; broadband infrastructure; and buildings and real property. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section 70912(5) of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to Congress now providing an immigration benefit for foreign investment in certain infrastructure projects in the United States, DHS must continue to ensure that any foreign investment through the EB-5 program aligns with DHS's obligation to ensure the ongoing security of the nation's most critical infrastructure.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, DHS proposes to preclude a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity from divulging critical project specifics to a regional center investor, unless such disclosure is explicitly authorized by the government agency administering the infrastructure project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.434.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS has identified 16 critical infrastructure sectors whose assets, systems, and networks, whether physical or virtual, are considered so vital to the United States that their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating effect on security, national economic security, national public health or safety, or any combination thereof.
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As many of the projects that would qualify as an infrastructure project fall within these 16 critical sectors, DHS believes this preclusion is critical to the continued security of the United States because the divulgence of any critical information to a foreign investor may result in adverse consequences to the ongoing security of such infrastructure. A regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity that does divulge any such information may be subject to termination or debarment, as applicable, from the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431, 8 CFR 204.432 and 8 CFR 204.434 and section IV.H of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Foreign Investment Risk Review Modernization Act of 2018, Subtitle A of Title XVII of Public Law 115-232 (Aug. 13, 2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             This proposal is not specific to infrastructure projects as defined under section 203(b)(5)(D)(iv) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(D)(iv). DHS proposes extending the same restriction to any project to ensure critical project specifics or proprietary information are not disclosed to investors that may be a threat to the public safety or national security of the United States. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 8 CFR 204.434.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), DHS, “Critical Infrastructure Sectors,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/critical-infrastructure-sectors</E>
                             (last visited Oct. 28, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comment on the definition of an infrastructure project as well as the types of documents that entities would likely be able to provide to establish that their project meets the definition of an infrastructure project.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Troubled Businesses</HD>
                    <P>
                        The current regulations allow an investor to invest in a troubled business and maintain current employment at the business at no less than the pre-investment level for a period of at least two years to meet the statutory employment creation requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 204.6(j)(4)(ii) (Nov. 20, 2019). While the RIA neither specifically included nor excluded this provision, DHS is proposing to remove the troubled business provisions from its regulations. Historically, less than one percent of petitions received by USCIS sought to qualify through investment in a troubled business, and these provisions typically were not used by regional center investors. Further, the troubled business provisions do not further job creation in the sense that an immigrant investor's infusion of capital is not actually used to create new employment in the United States. Finally, the current definition looks at net loss as a percentage of net worth, which is unworkable for a business with a negative net worth.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS considered retaining this provision in these proposed regulations. Specifically, DHS considered incorporating accounting ratios that the financial industry uses to evaluate the health of a business by defining troubled business to mean a business that has been in existence for at least two years and whose most recent tax returns or audited financial statements show: (1) a quick ratio of less than one calculated as current assets less inventory divided by current liabilities; (2) a current ratio of less than two of current assets divided by current liabilities; or (3) a current liabilities to net worth ratio calculated as current liabilities×100 divided by net worth above 60 percent. For purposes of determining whether the troubled business had been in existence for two years, successors in interest to the troubled business would have been deemed to have been in existence for the same period as the business they succeeded.</P>
                    <P>
                        Ultimately, DHS decided that the limited use of this provision and the difficulty in an investor establishing that his or her new commercial enterprise qualifies outweighed the utility in retaining this provision. Importantly, removing this provision 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40715"/>
                        would not impact any investor that filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition before the effective date of this rule, if finalized, seeking to qualify with an investment in a troubled business; USCIS would continue to adjudicate such EB-5 immigrant visa petition based on the statute and regulations in place at the time the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.400. Likewise, any investor that seeks to remove his or her conditions based on the troubled business provisions would continue to be able to do so, as long as the investor can establish his or her eligibility to remove conditions through job preservation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(d).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Regional Center Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA repealed the former authorizing statute, codified a significantly reformed Regional Center Program in the INA, and authorized the issuance of immigrant visas to investors participating in the program through September 30, 2027. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 103 (2022); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(i).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Originally created as a pilot program in 1992, over time the Regional Center Program has become the primary way for alien investors to seek an EB-5 immigrant visa. Over 90 percent of EB-5 immigrant visa petitions seek to establish eligibility based on an investment through a designated regional center. In fact, since its inception, the Regional Center Program accounts for over 90 percent of investment capital received from alien investors seeking an EB-5 immigrant visa and almost 95 percent of the jobs created by these investments.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, neither DHS, nor legacy INS before it, ever comprehensively revised the regulations implementing the Regional Center Program since publishing the first regulations in 1993. After years of administering the program and several Government Accountability Office (GAO) audits 
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         identifying concerns with fraud within the EB-5 program, DHS recognized the need to reform and modernize the Regional Center Program to address ongoing concerns of fraudulent and nefarious activity occurring within the Regional Center Program. Consequently, DHS published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) on January 11, 2017, seeking public input on a range of issues related to the Regional Center Program administered under the authorization provided by section 610 of Public Law 102-395. While the RIA directly addresses many of the questions for which DHS previously sought public feedback, DHS reviewed comments received on that notice to inform several of the proposals included in this proposed rule for the Regional Center Program under the new provisions of the INA added by the RIA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             Based on information from internal USCIS systems, there have been approximately $74.97 billion (95 percent) in EB-5 investments creating 239,580 jobs (95 percent) made within a designated regional center compared to $3.57 billion (5 percent) in EB-5 investments creating 12,360 jobs (5 percent) outside of designated regional centers since 1994.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             GAO, GAO-15-696, “Immigrant Investor Program: Additional Actions Needed to Better Assess Fraud Risks and Report Economic Benefits” (Aug. 12, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/products/gao-15-696. See also</E>
                             GAO, GAO-16-828, “Immigrant Investor Program: Progress Made to Detect and Prevent Fraud, but Additional Actions Could Further Agency Efforts” (Sept. 13, 2016), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/products/gao-16-828. See also</E>
                             GAO, GAO-23-106452, “Immigrant Investor Program: Opportunities Exist to Improve Fraud and National Security Risk Monitoring” (Mar. 28, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/products/gao-23-106452.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Regional Center Designation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, any entity seeking designation as a regional center would have to submit Form I-956, Application for Regional Center Designation, according to the form instructions and with the appropriate fees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.411. The application would have to include a proposal consistent with the purpose of concentrating pooled investment within a defined, contiguous, and limited geographic area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a). If the proposal does not establish a contiguous and limited area, as discussed in greater detail later in this section, or is not likely to successfully concentrate pooled investments, USCIS would deny the application. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         If the entity establishes eligibility for designation, USCIS would approve the application, and the designation would remain valid until the regional center's withdrawal from the program under 8 CFR 204.416 or USCIS terminates the designation under 8 CFR 204.431(d)(4). 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Violations that may result in the termination of a regional center's designation are discussed in Section IV.G.8 of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Contiguous and Limited Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        Although the RIA does not define “contiguous,” Black's Law Dictionary defines the term as “in close proximity; in actual close contact; Touching; bounded or traversed by.” 
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes to add more specificity to the definition for purposes of the EB-5 program, to clarify that a regional center's geographic area would be contiguous if the areas identified share a common boundary or at least one common point, when using legal boundaries recognized or established by the U.S. Census Bureau. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a)(1). This would include the boundaries of a State, territory, county, and census tract. It would not, however, include census reporting areas that exist outside of the confines of a physical geographic boundary, which DHS believes is consistent with the plain language of “contiguous, and limited geographic area” at section 203(b)(5)(E)(iii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iii). DHS believes this clarification is necessary as stakeholders have asked whether a regional center can connect areas that do not share a common boundary but may be economically linked; for example, the states of California and Hawaii. This clarification would preclude this situation as the economic connection required within a regional center's designated area is too attenuated where the two areas are separated by more than 2,000 miles of ocean.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS considered precluding contiguity where the areas identified are only connected by international waters. However, this definition would have precluded an entity from establishing a regional center consisting of the State of Hawaii, for instance, where clearly the economic connection between the islands of the State is not limited by the distance between each island, though they are separated by international waters. Consequently, DHS proposes using legal boundaries recognized or established by the U.S. Census Bureau, which includes states and territories.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS recognizes that this definition precludes a regional center from connecting, for example, Puerto Rico to Florida or Puerto Rico to the U.S. Virgin Islands, but believes this definition provides the greatest clarity, in alignment with the plain statutory text, to entities seeking designation as a regional center as to what USCIS would consider contiguous.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             Black's Law Dictionary, “contiguous,” 
                            <E T="03">https://thelawdictionary.org/contiguous</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 11, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             Los Angeles, CA and Hilo, HI are separated by 2,137 nautical miles. By comparison, this same distance directly east from Los Angeles would go beyond Charleston, SC. DistanceFromTo, “Distance Between Cities on Map,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.distancefromto.net</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             United States Census Bureau, “2020 Geographic Boundaries,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/acs/geography-acs/geography-boundaries-by-year/2020.html</E>
                             (last updated June 13, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Contiguity is not the only prerequisite to determining an area of designation for a regional center. The INA requires that an entity seeking designation as a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40716"/>
                        regional center must operate “within a defined, contiguous, and limited geographic area” (emphasis added). INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iii). Therefore, the entity seeking designation would also have to establish that the geographic area of the regional center is limited. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a). An area would be considered limited if the regional center establishes that the proposed economic activity will have a substantive economic impact on the entirety of the proposed area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a)(2). The regional center would have to include reasonable predictions, supported by economically and statistically valid and transparent forecasting tools, concerning the amount of investment that will be pooled, the kinds of commercial enterprises that will receive such investments, details of the jobs that will be created directly or indirectly as a result of such investments, and other positive economic effects the investments will have. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To meet the requirement for an area to be limited, DHS proposes that the entity must demonstrate that its proposed economic activity will have a substantive impact on the area for which designation is sought. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(a)(2). A regional center may establish substantive impacts by showing that the proposed economic activity would impact the area for which designation is sought through, for example, a(n):
                    </P>
                    <P>• Increase in aggregate gross domestic product (GDP);</P>
                    <P>• Reduction of poverty;</P>
                    <P>• Increase in aggregate employment;</P>
                    <P>• Increase in international exports;</P>
                    <P>• Encouragement of further investments; or</P>
                    <P>• Encouragement of the development of associated businesses (suppliers, subcontractors, and distributors).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Management and Oversight Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA also requires an entity seeking designation as a regional center to include with its proposal a description of the policies and procedures that are in place and reasonably designed to monitor its new commercial enterprises and any associated job-creating entity, affiliated or otherwise, to ensure ongoing compliance with all applicable laws, regulations, and executive orders of the United States, including all immigration, criminal, labor and securities laws, as well as all securities laws of the State where any securities offerings will be conducted, investment advice will be given, or the offerors or offerees reside. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(E)(iii)(II) and (IV), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iii)(II) and (IV); INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(i)(VII), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(i)(VII). DHS proposes that an entity seeking designation must submit evidence of these policies and procedures. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.413(g).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In its 2017 ANPRM, DHS asked for public comment on monitoring and oversight requirements that should be considered for rulemaking. Specifically, DHS sought data and information on potential methods for ensuring an appropriate level of monitoring and oversight, including through regional center attestations, the submission of detailed information about the regional center's oversight efforts of its new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities, and other compliance and enforcement mechanisms. 82 FR 3211, 3215 (Jan. 11, 2017). One commenter to that ANPRM suggested that regional centers should provide a description of their monitoring and oversight mechanisms when applying for an initial designation and to attest to having fulfilled their monitoring commitments as part of an annual filing.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter to that ANPRM suggested that the regional center provide its written supervisory procedures when applying for initial designation that would address how the regional center would provide due diligence, fund administration, and financial reporting on each project and then certify annually that the regional center has followed its written policies and procedures with respect to each project it has sponsored for which investor funds are still invested during each calendar year.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             Comments of EB-5 Securities Roundtable, USCIS-2016-0008-0020, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/USCIS-2016-0008-0020</E>
                             (posted Apr. 10, 2017).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             Comments of Klasko Immigration Law Partners, LLP, USCIS-2016-0008-0031, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/USCIS-2016-0008-0031</E>
                             (posted Apr. 12, 2017).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS appreciates the commenters' suggestions and proposes that evidence to establish sufficient oversight of the new commercial enterprises and any associated job-creating entities would include documentation of programs of internal controls by the regional center that provide regular reviews of individual projects and examination of financial records and any planned use of independent reviews by local third-party accountants or auditors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(b) and 204.413(h). This evidence could include standard operating procedures developed by the regional center, ongoing audits of the new commercial enterprises and any associated job-creating entities, or requiring regular reporting and updates from the new commercial enterprises and any associated job-creating entities with which the regional center is offering EB-5 investments. DHS does not want to limit how a regional center can best determine how to oversee and monitor its projects. With the increased compliance requirements specified by the INA, DHS believes there is sufficient incentive for regional centers to establish their own best practices to ensure monitoring and oversight necessary to ensure project success and a continuing designation as a regional center. DHS welcomes comments on any additional requirements that should be incorporated for a regional center to establish sufficient oversight and monitoring of its projects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Not only would a regional center need to provide a monitoring and oversight plan as part of the designation application, as explained above, but following designation, the regional center must continue to engage in and certify compliance of its monitoring and oversight obligations for the investment offerings, business activities, and job creation of associated new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(a). This continued monitoring and oversight requirement would ensure that the regional center is continuing to perform its due diligence with respect to capital investments under its auspices and that pooled capital investments at its new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities will have a substantive economic impact.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Amending a Regional Center Designation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires a regional center to file an amendment to its designation at least 120 days prior to implementing significant proposed changes to its organizational structure, ownership, or administration, including the sale of the regional center, or any other arrangement that would result in individuals not previously subject to the requirements in INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H), becoming involved with the regional center. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vi), 8 U.S.C. 1153 203(b)(5)(E)(vi). DHS proposes incorporating these requirements into the regulation as well as clarifying that significant changes include not only the sale of the regional center but also any changes to the regional center's policies and procedures for monitoring and oversight. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(a)(2). DHS further proposes 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40717"/>
                        requiring a regional center to file an amendment if a person that held a significant role in the management and oversight of the regional center departs the regional center as well as providing information about the person that will fill the position vacated by the departure. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(a)(3). This would generally include changes at the executive or senior management level of the regional center and not necessarily any change to lower-level employees of the regional center. To submit an amendment, the regional center would be required to submit a Form I-956, indicating that the filing is an amendment to its designation and providing all the relevant information to amend the designation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Prior to the RIA, a regional center was allowed, but not required, to amend its designation where: (1) there was a change to the industries of focus of the regional center; (2) the regional center sought to add a new commercial enterprise associated with the regional center or seek a preliminary determination of EB-5 compliance for an exemplar Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Alien Investor, for investment into that new commercial enterprise, before individual investors filed their petitions; or (3) notify USCIS of changes in the name, organizational structure or administration, capital investment instruments, or offering memoranda (including changes in the economic analysis and underlying business plan used to estimate job creation) for a previously added new commercial enterprise associated with the regional center.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS proposes capturing these types of amendments on the Form I-956F, Application for Approval of an Investment in a Commercial Enterprise, or project application 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-924, “Instructions for Application for Regional Center Designation under the Immigrant Investor Program.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For more discussion on those proposals, see section IV.H.4 of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        Where a regional center is unable to submit an amendment within 120 days of a proposed change because exigent circumstances are present, the INA requires a regional center to file a required amendment within 5 business days of the change. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vi)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153 203(b)(5)(E)(vi)(bb). For purposes of establishing that exigent circumstances are present, DHS proposes that qualifying exigent circumstances would include significant, unanticipated disruptions to the operations of the regional center that are outside the control of the regional center making prior notice improbable or impractical. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(b). DHS would generally consider such circumstances to include situations where, for example, an owner of the regional center dies, or there is an unexpected event, such as a natural disaster or other massive disruption, that impacts the regional center's operations. DHS recognizes that certain changes following an exigent circumstance may only be temporary in nature and that more permanent changes are likely to follow. To avoid numerous notification and amendment filings for temporary changes where exigent circumstances are present, the regional center would only have to notify USCIS within the 5 days of the exigent circumstance along with identifying information for any persons temporarily involved during such time and then file an amendment within 30 days of the change to identify any ongoing aspects of the change. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(b). Rather than submit a full amendment with a temporary change (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         lasting less than 30 days), DHS expects that a regional center would notify USCIS through its Immigrant Investor Program email address to describe the exigent circumstances and relevant changes, including providing identifying information such as name and date of birth for any persons temporarily involved with the regional center as a result of such circumstances. DHS believes 30 days in these circumstances would be sufficient time for a regional center to take commercially reasonable steps to overcome such a situation, particularly since this change has already occurred and USCIS would have to be able to ensure that the regional center is maintaining its compliance with applicable requirements under the INA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Within 30 days of the exigent circumstance, the regional center must file an amendment reflecting all relevant aspects of the change and include the necessary attestation (Form I-956H, Bona Fides of Persons Involved with Regional Center Program) for any persons who remain involved with the regional center at such time with the amendment filing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, regional centers that fail to file relevant amendments would result in the regional center being in violation of applicable requirements and potentially subject the regional center to appropriate sanction. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(7)(iii). By requiring such amendments to be filed in a timely manner, DHS would better ensure compliance by regional centers, associated new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities, and investors relying on the regional center's designation. Each of these requirements is important to ensure the regional center continues to comply with the program and mitigate the potential for fraudulent activity to occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, an amendment filing may impact the adjudication of pending project applications and pending EB-5 immigrant visa petitions, depending on the nature of the amendment. DHS proposes to clarify that USCIS will hold the adjudication of any project application and any EB-5 immigrant visa petitions where the amendment is filed to report any change in ownership of the regional center resulting in a change in control of the regional center (including changes in ownership among existing owners) or changes in ownership that result in someone becoming involved with the regional center who was not previously subject to section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(c)(1). The regional center would not be able to submit new project applications until USCIS has adjudicated the amendment. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         USCIS would continue to adjudicate project applications and EB-5 immigrant visa petitions for other amendment requests, such as a request to expand the regional center's geographic area, except where information in the amendment negatively impacts program eligibility, in which case USCIS would hold adjudication of project applications and EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until the amendment is adjudicated. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(c)(2).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Bona Fides of Persons Involved With the Regional Center Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        Each person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise and affiliated job-creating entity must provide information and attest that they meet applicable requirements to be involved in the Regional Center Program. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iii)(I). A person is an individual or an organization. INA sec. 101(b)(3), 8 U.S.C. 1101(b)(3). DHS must perform background and database checks with respect to a regional center, a new commercial enterprise, any affiliated job-creating entity, and persons involved with such entities as needed to determine compliance with the RIA. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iii)(II), 8 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40718"/>
                        U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iii)(II). In addition, DHS may require information and attestations and perform these checks for persons involved with a job-creating entity that is not an affiliated job-creating entity in its discretion if there is a reasonable basis to believe such entity or person is not in compliance with applicable requirements. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iii)(III).
                    </P>
                    <P>To ensure sufficient information is available to conduct the necessary background checks, USCIS created Form I-956H, Bona Fides of Persons Involved with Regional Center Program, to capture all the necessary information to determine whether a person involved is prohibited from doing so by the INA. In addition, the INA authorizes USCIS to evaluate public safety and national security threats, and USCIS interprets this to permit adding information collections or modifying current information collections, as needed, to effectuate the RIA.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule would codify the statutory requirement and post-RIA practice that an entity seeking designation as a regional center would have to include a Form I-956H with the application for designation for every person (whether an individual or organization) that is involved with the regional center. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(iii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(iii)(III); proposed 8 CFR 204.413(i) and 8 CFR 204.417(a). Failure to include a Form I-956H for every person involved with the regional center with an application for designation will result in denial of the application for designation. In addition, USCIS will deny an application for designation if any persons involved with the regional center do not meet the requirements of INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(c).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If a designated regional center undergoes any changes that necessitate an amendment and there are new persons involved with the regional center, then those new persons would need to include Form I-956H with the I-956 amendment filing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.416(a)(2) and (3). If a regional center does not include Form I-956H for all individuals for whom the filing is required, or if the regional center knowingly involves an individual with the regional center that does not meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H), then USCIS may deny the Form I-956 amendment and suspend or terminate the designation of the regional center. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>Upon submission of Form I-956H and payment of the appropriate fee by an individual, USCIS schedules the individual for biometrics, either at a USCIS Application Support Center within the United States or at a facility designated to collect biometrics outside the United States. The filing of Form I-956H and submission of biometrics provides USCIS the ability to conduct background checks and ensure that all persons involved with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity are complying with section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). USCIS is, however, unable to collect biometrics from an organization submitting Form I-956H. In such a case, USCIS runs all the necessary checks and uses open-source information to determine whether the organization is prohibited from participating in the Regional Center Program under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). In addition, any individual within an organization involved with a regional center may also need to submit Form I-956H if that individual meets the definition of a person involved through his or her position within the organization submitting the Form I-956H.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Persons Involved</HD>
                    <P>
                        A person is involved with a regional center if that person is, directly or indirectly, in a position of substantive authority to make operational or managerial decisions over the pooling, securitization, investment, release, acceptance, or control or use of any funding procured under the Regional Center Program. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(v); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person Involved.</E>
                         DHS proposes to clarify that a person is in a position of substantive authority if the person serves as an administrator, a board member, a general partner, a manager, an officer, an owner, or in a similar position at the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person Involved.</E>
                         This definition would include any individual seeking to obtain immigrant investor status under the Regional Center Program in his or her role as an owner, including as is often the case, as a limited partner, of the new commercial enterprise. In addition, an agent, fiduciary, or representative may be in a position of substantive authority if his or her position in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity authorizes him or her to provide input or oversight of the use of any regional center investor capital obtained under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person Involved.</E>
                         To streamline the submission of the required information from regional center investors, USCIS incorporated the questions asked on Form I-956H into Form I-526E, Petition by Regional Center Investor, so each individual regional center investor can provide responses to the necessary questions without requiring a regional center to submit an amendment every time a new regional center investor becomes involved. DHS would not expect the regional center to include a Form I-956H for any current or future regional center investors with their project application solely based on the regional center investor's investment and ownership of an associated new commercial enterprise and instead would expect each regional center investor to provide certification of his or her ability to become a person involved.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When DHS published Form I-956H,
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         many commenters suggested that this definition of a person involved, to include regional center investors, is too broad as the INA provides that a person involved is in a position of substantive authority and regional center investors, typically in the role of a limited partner, often will not meet this threshold in their view. DHS believes, however, that any owner, including a limited partner, has sufficient authority over the direction of the new commercial enterprise through his or her ability to vote or otherwise influence the new commercial enterprise such that a regional center investor would be a person involved, and therefore need to submit the required attestation of his or her eligibility to become a person involved.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             87 FR 54233; DHS Docket No. USCIS-2022-0010.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, any person indirectly involved would also need to submit the necessary attestation. See proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Person involved,</E>
                         8 CFR 204.417(a). A person (whether an individual or organization) may be indirectly involved if he or she owns or manages an organization that rises to the level of a person involved. For instance, if an organization has an ownership interest in the new commercial enterprise, then the owners of that organization would meet the definition of a person involved based on their ownership interest in the organization that owns the new commercial enterprise. Consequently, each owner of an organization with an ownership 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40719"/>
                        interest in the new commercial enterprise would likewise need to submit a Form I-956H.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If USCIS determines, as a result of its background checks or at any time after reviewing a submitted Form I-956H, that any person involved with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity is ineligible to do so, USCIS would notify the affected entity(ies). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.417(d). Upon receiving notification, the affected entity(ies) would have 14 days from the date of the notice to take commercially reasonable efforts to remove the person from his or her involvement with the affected entity(ies) and provide USCIS information on the removal of that person. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.417(d). Similarly, it would be incumbent upon the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity to notify USCIS if they determine that any person involved is ineligible under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). If the affected entity(ies) learn of any ineligibility before receiving notification from USCIS, the entity(ies) must notify USCIS within 14 days of acquiring such knowledge and provide information about the steps being taken to remove the person from his or her involvement in the affected entity(ies). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.417(c) and (d).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If there are issues with any persons involved during review of an application for regional center designation, USCIS would generally issue a Notice of Intent to Deny providing the applying entity the opportunity to remove any ineligible person in line with these provisions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.412(c) and 204.417(d). If the regional center did not take commercially reasonable efforts to remove the person from his or her involvement, then USCIS would generally deny the application for designation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Regional Center Annual Statements</HD>
                    <P>
                        To continue participation in the Regional Center Program, regional centers must provide updated information annually to demonstrate ongoing compliance with applicable statutory requirements. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G). The annual statement must include, among other things, certifications (completed by an individual that meets the definition of a certifier as discussed in Section IV.B. of this preamble) that the regional center remains in compliance with various provisions of the Regional Center Program, including those provisions covering bona fides of persons involved and the use of promoters. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Under this proposed rule, a designated regional center would be required to file Form I-956G, Regional Center Annual Statement, with USCIS according to the form instructions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(a). Prior to the RIA, a designated regional center had to submit Form I-924A, Annual Certification of Regional Center, on or before December 29 of the calendar year in which the Federal fiscal year ended. When USCIS created Form I-956G, it maintained this filing window. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Form I-956G Instructions. Therefore, any regional center designated on or before September 30 of any given year, the end of the Federal fiscal year, must submit Form I-956G on or before December 29 of the same calendar year. Conversely, any regional center designated on or after October 1, the start of the Federal fiscal year, does not have to submit an annual statement until on or before December 29 of the following calendar year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS incorporated the required certifications on the Form I-956G. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Part 4 of Form I-956G. This proposed rule would codify the requirements on the post-RIA annual statement and also include certification that the regional center is in compliance with its ongoing obligation to monitor and oversee its associated new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(a). Specifically, in addition to providing such certifications, the regional center would have to submit documentation with its annual statement providing an accounting of all individual regional center investor capital invested in the regional center, new commercial enterprises, and job-creating entities.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>89</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(b)(1). Additionally, for each new commercial enterprise with investors who have a pending and approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition or who have obtained conditional permanent resident status but not yet filed a petition to remove conditions, the regional center would be required to submit an accounting of all individual regional center investor capital invested in those new commercial enterprises, an accounting of the aggregate jobs created or preserved,
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         detailed evidence of the progress made toward completion of each capital investment project, and the reporting of any changes to documents submitted for any ongoing capital investment project that do not otherwise require an amendment to the project application under proposed 8 CFR 204.423. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(b)(3). Once a project concludes and the new commercial enterprise no longer has any active immigrant investors, meaning the immigrant investors in the project have all submitted their petition to remove conditions, the regional center would no longer have to submit information about that new commercial enterprise, unless it recruits new immigrant investors in the future that file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition that triggers reporting requirements under proposed 8 CFR 204.418(b)(3). However, the conclusion of a project would not absolve a regional center from being required to submit the rest of the documentation for any ongoing new commercial enterprises or for the regional center itself, as long as the regional center seeks to maintain its designation. A regional center that does not submit Form I-956G would be subject to termination of its designation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(7)(iv).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             Under INA 203(b)(5)(G)(i), each designated regional center must submit an annual statement, and this annual statement must include “an accounting” of all individual alien investor capital invested in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, and job creating entity, but this statute does not define “an accounting.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             While DHS proposes removing the troubled business provisions from the regulations for any petitions or projects filed on or after the enactment of this proposed rule, DHS may still need to report any job preservation statistics to Congress or otherwise make such information available. Consequently, DHS proposes retaining jobs retained as a reportable field on the Form I-956G, even though such jobs would no longer be able to be used to establish sufficient job creation for eligibility as an immigrant investor.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Also under this proposed rule, USCIS would be able to require a regional center to submit any additional information to support its annual statement if USCIS determines the regional center's annual statement is insufficient. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.418(c). A regional center's annual statement may be insufficient if the documentation provided omits any relevant information about the ongoing progress of any capital investment project under the purview of the regional center or where USCIS determines additional information is necessary to support the certifications made by the regional center. If a designated regional center does not submit an annual statement in any year or is otherwise not complying with the requirements to retain its designation, USCIS would be able to sanction the regional center under proposed 8 CFR 204.431, which could include termination of the regional center's designation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Regional Center Project Application Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the previously authorized Regional Center Program, a regional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40720"/>
                        center could submit an exemplar Form I-526 with its Form I-924 designation or amendment request to obtain approval of certain aspects of an investment project for the limited purpose of providing deference in associated adjudications. If approved, the documents provided to comply with job creation and investment eligibility requirements were accorded deference in subsequent, related Form I-526 and Form I-829 filings, absent material change, fraud, willful misrepresentation, or a determination of legal deficiency.
                    </P>
                    <P>Under the INA, as amended by the RIA, a designated regional center must submit a project application for each particular investment offering through an associated new commercial enterprise before any regional center investor can file his or her individual petition. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F). If approved, the evidence submitted with the project application is then incorporated by reference into the EB-5 immigrant visa petition for regional center investors in that particular offering, alleviating the need for each individual regional center investor in that particular offering to submit the same documentation to USCIS already submitted with the project application. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(ii).</P>
                    <P>
                        As part of the implementation of the RIA, USCIS created Form I-956F, Application for Approval of Investment in a Commercial Enterprise (project application), on June 1, 2022. Under this proposed rule, a designated regional center, including those designated before the RIA that will continue to seek regional center investors on or after May 14, 2022, would have to submit a project application for each particular investment offering under the regional center's purview. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.419. Each project application may only contain one new commercial enterprise, which may then involve multiple job-creating entities to which the new commercial enterprise will provide the regional center investors' capital. Under proposed 8 CFR 204.420, the regional center would have to establish that:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. The project is realistic and credible;</P>
                    <P>2. The investment offering and project are compliant with applicable eligibility requirements for classification of regional center investors (including investment of the required amount of capital and sufficient job creation for all regional center investors in the project);</P>
                    <P>3. The project will be monitored and overseen by the regional center for compliance with applicable immigration and Federal and State securities laws;</P>
                    <P>4. All persons involved with the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entities are not precluded from being involved under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H); and</P>
                    <P>5. The new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity or both have established a separate account and retained a fund administrator as required by proposed 8 CFR 204.425.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regardless of the type of project submitted by the regional center, the regional center would have to submit evidence that the new commercial enterprise is established in the United States, which must include, as appropriate, complete formation documents, such as articles of incorporation, organization, association, certificate of merger or consolidation or other similar formation documents, together with all amendments to such documents; complete copies of all other organizational documents, such as a partnership agreement, operating agreement, bylaws, or other similar organization documents for the new commercial enterprise, together with all amendments to such documents; and certificates evidencing the new commercial enterprise's authority to do business in the State, municipality, or other applicable jurisdiction of the United States in which the new commercial enterprise has created or is seeking to create jobs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(a). DHS would expect the regional center to submit documentation of the new commercial enterprise's authority to do business in any location where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business under proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Principally doing business.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, the regional center would also have to submit evidence of sufficient job creation for each regional center investor that will be investing in the new commercial enterprise. This would typically be provided in an EIA showing that the project will create full-time employment for at least 10 qualifying employees per regional center investor within the timeline identified in the comprehensive business plan. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(b). Since regional center investors may rely on indirect job creation to establish up to 90 percent of the requirement and may rely on economic models to establish the remaining 10 percent of direct job creation, DHS proposes requiring a regional center to rely on an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology in which model outputs are reproducible and all the inputs and any adjustments to the model are fully explained in the project application. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         While DHS currently expects regional centers to submit the Bureau of Economic Analysis' Regional Input-Output Modeling System to establish job creation, DHS proposes this language to allow a regional center to submit other economic methodologies that may work better for the regional center, because, for example, the job estimates are based on a tenant occupancy methodology. USCIS, however, must be able to independently verify the inputs and outputs to the model, while also accounting for any new or modified economic models that may be developed in the future that might also meet the “economically and statistically valid and transparent” requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The location where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business would determine the level of investment required by regional center investors in the new commercial enterprise. If the new commercial enterprise identified in the project application is principally doing business in a high unemployment area, the regional center would have to submit a list of the census tracts comprising the proposed project area and the unemployment statistics for that area, along with the methods by which the unemployment statistics were obtained, as well as the national unemployment rate used to calculate whether the area meets the definition of a high unemployment area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(c)(2); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402. Similarly, if the new commercial enterprise identified in the project application is principally doing business in a rural area, the regional center would have to submit a map of the area where the new commercial enterprise will principally be doing business, including the population counts of that area to establish that the area meets the definition of a rural area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(c)(1); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Rural area.</E>
                         For projects where the regional center is offering an investment opportunity in an infrastructure project, the regional center would have to submit evidence of a contract with a Federal, State, local, or tribal agency or authority to provide investment capital to a public works project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(c)(3).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The regional center would also have to retain a copy of any agreements between any investor in the new commercial enterprise and the regional center or its related entities, or agreements between the regional center 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40721"/>
                        and its related entities that relate to the transfer of any capital described in the project application, including, but not limited to, offering memoranda, subscription agreements, escrow agreements, organizational documents, term sheets, side letters, documentation of oral agreements, and any other marketing materials used or to be used in connection with the offering, including the identification of any social media outlets that are or will be used to market or promote the EB-5 immigrant visa program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(d). DHS proposes this provision for the regional center to retain such information for submission in connection with a USCIS audit and to provide evidence of any potential conflicts of interest that may exist between the regional center and its associated entities, particularly as related to the transfer and use of regional center investor capital.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The INA precludes the use of immigrant investor capital to purchase municipal, or any other bonds, if they are available to the general public, either as part of a primary offering or from a secondary market. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(bb), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(v)(II)(bb). DHS proposes to clarify that this prohibition applies to an initial investment, capital held in escrow, use of capital, redeployment of capital, and any ongoing use of capital to retain the capital at risk. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.427.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The regional center would also have to submit attestations and information from persons involved with the new commercial enterprise and affiliated job-creating entities as required by proposed 8 CFR 204.417(a). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(e).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The application would also have to include evidence to show that the separate account required under proposed 8 CFR 204.425 has been established by the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity and an appropriate fund administrator has been retained, including bank statements for such accounts. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, the regional center would need to provide additional information, either as additional documentation or included within documents submitted to establish the requirements above. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.421(g). DHS proposes that this list of required additional information and documentation include biographies for management, officers, directors, and any person with similar responsibilities at the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies); risks associated with the investment; any investment and offering documents provided to potential investors; any documents related to the investment filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or securities regulator of any State; conflicts of interest that currently exist or may arise; and any pending investigations, litigation, bankruptcy, or adverse judgments or bankruptcy orders issued during the most recent 10-year period, in the United States or abroad, involving the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies), or its owners, officers, managers, directors, or other persons acting in a similar capacity, or any other enterprise in which such persons held majority ownership. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         DHS believes this information and documentation captures all the requirements identified by the RIA for a regional center's project application to be used as an investment offering for regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(i)(III) and (IV), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(i)(III) and (IV).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Once a regional center establishes that its investment offering meets the requirements and provides all the required documentation to USCIS, USCIS would approve the application. If approved, the elements of the project application related to the regional center's investment offering, including sufficient job creation and minimum amount to be invested (where the investment offering is in a TEA or infrastructure project), will be incorporated by reference into the adjudication of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition of a regional center investor that has provided evidence of association with the regional center's project application, meaning the regional center investor will not separately have to submit the same project-level documentation already provided and reviewed with the project application. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(ii). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(a). If USCIS denies the project application, then USCIS would provide a notice explaining the reasons for the decision and providing the regional center information on its right to appeal. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.422.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Amending a Project Application</HD>
                    <P>
                        If approved, there are certain circumstances in which a regional center must submit an amendment to its project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(b) and (c). DHS proposes requiring a regional center to submit an amendment to its project application within at least 90 days prior to the first regional center investor in that particular investment offering becoming eligible to file a petition to remove conditions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(b)(1). As part of that amendment filing, the regional center would have to submit the following updated documents: business plan, EIA, and reasonable and transparent methodologies to establish sufficient job creation for the regional center investors in that investment offering. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(b)(2). A regional center investor would then be able to rely on the project application amendment's approval to establish that his or her investment created enough jobs to establish eligibility to remove the conditions on his or her residence under proposed 8 CFR 216.6(e)(2)(ii). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(e)(4). If the regional center does not submit a project application amendment as required, USCIS would be able to sanction the regional center for failing to file a required amendment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(7)(iii).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, DHS proposes that a regional center must amend its project application within 30 days of the change where there may be an impact to the eligibility of any regional center investors that have already filed their EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as well as any regional center investors that may seek to file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition based on the particular investment offering identified in the project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(c). Where the regional center would have to file an amendment due to a change in ownership or location of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies), USCIS would hold adjudication of all associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until USCIS adjudicates the amendment because the nature of the change must be reviewed to determine the ongoing eligibility of regional center investors in the project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(e)(2). Other changes necessitating an amendment would not necessarily require USCIS to hold adjudication of the associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions, unless review of the amendment would lead USCIS to determine that there is a negative impact on the associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(e)(3).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also proposes that a regional center would have to file an amendment if there are changes to the expenditure of capital or capital structure reflected in any business plan submitted in connection with the previously approved project application in response to or otherwise materially impacting the credibility or viability of such plans or successful execution of projects that in turn could adversely 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40722"/>
                        impact eligibility for associated investors, including, but not limited to, payments to parties related to the business plan and the loss of financing or addition of outside financing from sources not previously identified in the approved project application or otherwise obtained from any source other than a federally regulated bank or other financial institution (as defined in 18 U.S.C. 20). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(c)(5). DHS intends that this would primarily affect regional centers making a change that impacts the number of jobs reflected in the approved project application. For example, an amendment would be required when there is a reduction in expenditures that decreases the number of jobs created, but would not be required for an increase of an existing commercial loan that may create additional jobs that are unnecessary for investor eligibility. An amendment would also be required to identify new sources of funding that may be non-traditional or less regulated, such as a new equity investment from a previously unaffiliated individual or business.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Once approved, a high unemployment area designation is initially valid for two years from the date on which the project application is filed. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(IV)(aa)(AA), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(IV)(aa)(AA). As discussed in section IV.E of this preamble, once USCIS approves the high unemployment area designation, USCIS would extend the initial designation for 2 years from the date of the approval notice. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(e)(1). In addition to certain changes that take place in the due course of business, DHS proposes that a regional center would have to amend its project application to seek an extension of a high unemployment area designation if the regional center continues to seek investors in the project after the initial designation of a high unemployment area is otherwise due to expire. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(c)(6). DHS expects that certain projects will extend well beyond 2 years from the date the regional center submits its project application and beyond the project approval which extends the high unemployment area designation two years from that date, necessitating an extension of the high unemployment area designation. For projects that seek new investors after the initial high unemployment area designation period (as extended by the project approval), DHS would also expect that there may be additional changes to the project application that a regional center should submit for USCIS review. Consequently, DHS proposes that a regional center may seek to extend a high unemployment designation by submitting an amendment to its project application to establish the area continues to meet the requirements of a high unemployment area. Importantly, regional center investors that provided the full amount of capital to the new commercial enterprise that was subsequently provided to the job-creating entity before the high unemployment area designation expires do not have to make any additional investments if the area no longer qualifies as a high unemployment area. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.402(g). However, if the regional center investor did not provide the full amount of capital to the new commercial enterprise that was subsequently provided to the job-creating entity before the initial high unemployment designation will otherwise expire may be required to increase his or her investment if the area no longer qualifies as a high unemployment area. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In order to discourage skeletal, hypothetical or otherwise ineligible filings that are not filed in good faith (for example, amendments filed solely to meet applicable deadlines or initial applications that are purely hypothetical with no intention to undertake the actual project filed solely to permit the filing of associated investor petitions), any amendment to a project application (including the initial filing) must be submitted in good faith. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(d). In determining whether a project application or amendment was submitted in good faith, USCIS would examine both the subjective intent of the applicant to undertake the project and whether objectively the applicant had a realistic prospect of undertaking the project. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         59 FR 1318 (Jan. 10, 1994). A regional center that files an amendment must also notify any investors who have filed an immigrant visa petition associated with the particular investment offering of the change. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(a).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Regional Center Investors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, once a designated regional center has filed a project application, a regional center investor investing in that particular offering would be able to submit his or her Form I-526E. To be considered properly filed, a regional center investor would have to submit evidence of association with a regional center's pending or approved project application with his or her Form I-526E. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404(b). Such evidence could include a copy of the Form I-956F receipt notice issued to the regional center or evidence the regional center submitted Form I-956F to USCIS. To otherwise establish his or her eligibility, a regional center investor would also have to submit sufficient documentation to establish that he or she has invested the required amount of capital, and that the capital used for the investment is lawful. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408(b) and (c). Whereas each individual regional center investor previously had to submit project documentation, even where the regional center submitted an exemplar Form I-526 with a Form I-924 application for initial designation or amendment, USCIS would now review those documents as part of the Form I-956F project application adjudication. The regional center investor would have to attest to being subject to those agreements included with the project application by signing a statement on the Form I-526E that incorporates all the project documentation provided by the regional center by reference into the petitioner's Form I-526E, but would not otherwise be expected to provide the documentation submitted in support of the project application that establishes those elements of the regional center investor's eligibility. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.404(b).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Revocation of Project Application Approval</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that USCIS would have certain reasons to revoke the approval of a project application, including the denial of an amendment to an approved project application, the regional center's failure to submit a required amendment to an approved project application, the discovery of any evidence affecting program eligibility not disclosed by the regional center, or a material mistake of law or fact in the adjudication of the project application. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.424(a). USCIS would provide a notice of its intent to revoke the approval for any of these stated reasons. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.424(b). Within 30 days of the issuance of a notice of the revocation of the approval of a project application, a regional center may file an appeal with the Administrative Appeals Office under part 103 of this chapter. USCIS would hold the adjudication of any associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until the revocation decision is finalized and, if the approval of the project application is revoked, USCIS will notify associated investors as and in a manner USCIS determines to be appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         DHS believes these provisions are necessary to provide USCIS the ability to correct 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40723"/>
                        an error or hold the regional center to account for not continuing to keep USCIS updated on its project's ongoing eligibility.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, under this proposed rule, the termination of the regional center's participation in the Regional Center Program results in the automatic revocation of a project application upon the adjudication of any appeal of the termination or, if no appeal is filed, the expiration of the appellate period. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.424(c). Automatic revocations would not be appealable under section 203(b)(5)(P) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(P), because DHS believes that it is not a distinct determination separate from the determination resulting in automatic revocation (termination of the regional center), which would be separately appealable. Any new commercial enterprise previously covered by a project application submitted by a regional center that has since been terminated may be able to reassociate itself with another designated regional center. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         To associate with another regional center, the new regional center would have to submit a project application on behalf of the new commercial enterprise, indicating its sponsorship of that particular investment offering and its plan to conduct monitoring and oversight of the new commercial enterprise. Affected regional center investors would retain their eligibility if the new commercial enterprise associates with another designated regional center and they file an amendment to their EB-5 immigrant visa petition within 180 days of notice of the termination. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.424(c) and 8 CFR 204.410(c). Alternatively, the regional center investor would also be able to make a new investment in another new commercial enterprise participating in the Regional Center Program within 180 days of notification of the revocation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.410(c). Any regional center investor whose new commercial enterprise does not associate with another designated regional center or otherwise takes no action to make another investment would have his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition denied, or revoked if the petition was previously approved, except that the investor may continue to be eligible notwithstanding the revocation of the project application approval where sufficient jobs were already created and the investor's capital was invested for at least 2 years under applicable requirements before the revocation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.424(d). No EB-5 immigrant visa petition may rely on a revoked project application to establish eligibility. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Denial of Project Application Approval</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that USCIS may deny any project application that does not establish eligibility under proposed 8 CFR 204.420 or does not include the evidence required under proposed 8 CFR 204.421. USCIS would notify the regional center in writing of the denial decision and specify the reasons for the denial in compliance with 8 CFR 103.3(a)(1)(i). The regional center may appeal the denial to the Administrative Appeals Office according to 8 CFR 103.3. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.422(a). USCIS would hold the adjudication of any associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until the denial decision is finalized. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.422(b). As proposed, once the denial decision is finalized, a regional center investor will not be able to rely on the denied project application to demonstrate eligibility and any pending visa petitions associated with the denied project application will be denied. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Redeployment</HD>
                    <P>
                        Current regulations do not address the situation of a new commercial enterprise completing its project and returning the investor's capital before the end of the period during which the investor is required to maintain the investment at risk. USCIS previously addressed the requirements for the investor to maintain eligibility in these circumstances through the USCIS Policy Manual. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, Part G, Chapter 2.A(2), “Investment,” (July 22, 2021, historical version).
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Historical versions of the USCIS Policy Manual are available at: USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6, “Immigrants,” Part G, “Investors,” Chapter 2, “Immigrant Petition Eligibility Requirements,” “History” tab, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-6-part-g-chapter-2#,</E>
                             (current as of Jan. 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The RIA specifically directs USCIS to prescribe regulations to implement certain statutory parameters for redeployment of investor capital by the new commercial enterprise. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v). Those parameters state that the new commercial enterprise will be allowed to redeploy investment funds anywhere within the United States or its territories for the purpose of maintaining the investors' capital at risk if:</P>
                    <P>1. The new commercial enterprise has executed the business plan for a capital investment project in good faith without a material change;</P>
                    <P>2. The new commercial enterprise has created a sufficient number of new full-time positions to satisfy the job creation requirements of the program for all investors in the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                    <P>3. The job-creating entity has repaid the capital initially deployed in conformity with the initial investment contemplated by the business plan; and</P>
                    <P>
                        4. The capital, after repayment by the job-creating entity, remains at risk and it is not redeployed in passive investments, such as stocks or bonds. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS must terminate a regional center if one of its associated new commercial enterprises violates any of the statutory requirements regarding the redeployment of investor funds. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426(c).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to implement these statutory parameters for redeployment of investor capital by the new commercial enterprise in this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426. DHS proposes to clarify that the execution of the business plan for a capital investment project in good faith includes properly filing and receiving approval for amendments, and that repayment of the initial investment by the job-creating entity can likewise be changed from that contemplated by the business plan by a properly filed and approved amendment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426(a). DHS further proposes that any redeployment of investor capital must be made within 3 months of the return of the capital to the new commercial enterprise, except that USCIS will consider evidence showing that a longer period was reasonable for a specific type of commercial enterprise or into a specific commercial activity under the totality of the circumstances. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426(b). DHS believes that this period of time provides sufficient flexibility for a new commercial enterprise to identify and execute an investment for the redeployment of investor capital while maintaining the intent of the statute that the investment remains at risk for at least two years. For purposes of the statutory restriction on passive investments, such as stocks and bonds, DHS proposes to codify the statutory prohibition, and align it with existing practice to clarify that this applies to all secondary market securities and to primary market securities that are unrelated to use in any commercial activity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         where the purchase of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40724"/>
                        securities is primarily financial rather than commercial in nature).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS will terminate a regional center's designation and may debar or otherwise sanction the new commercial enterprise from participation in the Regional Center Program under proposed 8 CFR 204.431 if the new commercial enterprise does not comply with the parameters of redeployment provided in 8 CFR 204.426. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.426(c).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Direct and Third-Party Promoters</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires any direct or third-party promoter of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity, or issuer of securities intended to be offered to immigrant investors in connection with a particular capital investment project to register his or her participation as a promoter with USCIS. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K). This proposed rule would codify the registration requirements and process. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Registration Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        Every promoter must register his or her participation in the Regional Center Program with USCIS. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(a). If the promoter is an entity, then all promoters working for that entity in a role that meets the definition of promoter described in proposed 8 CFR 204.401 would also have to submit Form I-956K to USCIS. Conversely, employees of an organization required to register with USCIS who are not involved in the actual promotion of a particular investment offering would not be required to submit Form I-956K. This would include, for example, administrative staff of the organization.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS published Form I-956K, Registration for Direct and Third-Party Promoters, to allow promoters participating in the Regional Center Program to provide all the necessary information to USCIS. Similar to current practice, under the proposed rule, with his or her form, a promoter would have to include identifying information, including providing biometrics, if applicable, for USCIS to properly confirm the identity of the registrant, provide certifications that he or she is eligible to participate in the Regional Center Program under section 203(b)(5)(H) of INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H); certify his or her familiarity with the rules and standards for registration; and confirm the existence of a written agreement for each entity with which the promoter has entered into agreement and include a copy of the written agreement(s) with his or her registration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(b). If the promoter is an organization and all employees of that organization are covered by the written agreements provided with the Form I-956K, those employees would not have to submit a copy of the same written agreements, provided the organization already provided a copy of any such written agreements to USCIS with its Form I-956K. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(f). Further, each promoter must provide a copy of the relevant written agreement to any regional center investors it seeks for investment in the particular investment offering. The written agreement would have to provide a full disclosure of any fees, ongoing interest, and other compensation that have been, or will be, received by a promoter in connection with an investment in an offering under the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(d)(1). Regional center investors must certify on their Form I-526E that they received a copy of the written agreement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Each promoter would also have to certify on his or her Form I-956K that he or she is familiar with and will accurately represent the Regional Center Program and the U.S. immigrant visa process to prospective investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(c). DHS considered requiring promoters to complete a testing requirement to establish that they sufficiently understand the Regional Center Program and the U.S. immigrant visa process. However, DHS believes the administration of any such requirement would not be practical for the proper administration of the promoter registration process. Rather, DHS is proposing to require the promoter to certify his or her own knowledge and to utilize its authority under the INA to suspend or bar a promoter from participating in the Regional Center Program if he or she is not providing accurate information to immigrant investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(c) and (g). The certification requirement would include providing investors with accurate information about the steps involved in obtaining an immigrant visa or permanent resident status, including the length of time the process may take, to the best of the promoter's knowledge based on information made publicly available by USCIS and State.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>92</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(c).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             USCIS provides current processing timeframes by form type on its website. USCIS, DHS, “Check Case Processing Times,” 
                            <E T="03">https://egov.uscis.gov/processing-times</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 6, 2023). State publishes a monthly visa bulletin that indicates the priority date required to seek an immigrant visa or adjustment of status based on the petitioner's country of birth and filing category. Bureau of Consular Affairs, Department of State, “The Visa Bulletin,” 
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/legal/visa-law0/visa-bulletin.html</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the promoter would not be able to use manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent claims in any promotional materials, which could include false or materially misleading statements, failing to discuss any material factors that make the offering speculative or risky, providing predictions of financial or immigration success, or stating that USCIS or any U.S. Government agency has reviewed or approved an offering's calculations or performance results. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(e)(1). A promoter, or his or her promotional materials, would be able to state generally that a project application submitted by the regional center is approved, where the regional center has received an approval notice from USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(e)(1)(v). Under this proposed rule, it would be the promoter's responsibility to ensure that any promotional materials used do not contain any manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent claims and comply with all applicable immigration and securities laws. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(e)(3). In addition, the promoter would have to retain all promotional materials, and provide them to USCIS upon request, including a translation when necessary. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(e)(4). And the promoter must comply with all applicable Federal and State securities laws. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(e)(5).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When a promoter files Form I-956K, USCIS would issue a receipt notice to the promoter indicating the promoter properly filed Form I-956K. After performing certain background checks to verify compliance with program requirements, USCIS would then issue the promoter a notice of registration. Alternatively, if USCIS finds that the Form I-956K does not meet program requirements (such as by not acknowledging a written agreement), USCIS would generally first issue a notice of non-registration and provide the promoter an opportunity to respond before issuing a final notice of non-registration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(a).
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40725"/>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, USCIS would generally accept the Form I-956K, except where the promoter is suspended or permanently barred 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         from participation in the Regional Center Program or the form otherwise does not meet filing requirements, such as missing name and/or contact information of the promoter or missing or unsigned certifications. As such, a promoter can begin promoting under the Regional Center Program once he or she submits Form I-956K. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         However, if a promoter receives a final notice of non-registration, then that promoter must cease any promotion activities of the EB-5 program. Once a promoter completes the registration process, the registration would remain in place until such time as the promoter seeks to withdraw his or her registration or USCIS suspends or bars the promoter from participating in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(g); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 204.431(b)(10). DHS proposes reasons that USCIS may seek to suspend or bar a promoter, including any failure to follow the rules and standards for promoters and violations of any applicable Federal and State securities laws. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         If USCIS determines a promoter should be suspended or barred from participation in the Regional Center Program, USCIS would send a notice to the promoter explaining the reasons for the suspension or bar. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(g), 8 CFR 204.431(b)(10), (e) and (h). The promoter would generally have an opportunity to rebut the reasons provided. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         A suspension would not necessarily preclude a promoter's future involvement in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3)(iv). However, if USCIS permanently bars a promoter's participation, the promoter would not be able to participate in the Regional Center Program again. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(5)(i).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             Section 203(b)(5)(K)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(ii), provides only for either suspension or permanent debarment if USCIS determines that a direct or third-party promoter has violated section 203(b)(5)(K)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A promoter's suspension or debarment may also impact the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity that utilized the promoter, if any of those entities knowingly associated with a promoter that does not meet the requirements to be a promoter or does not take any action to discontinue use of a suspended or barred promoter within 14 days of learning of the suspension or bar. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.428(g)(3). If USCIS suspends or bars a promoter from participation in the Regional Center Program and USCIS can determine from its records those entities that used that promoter, USCIS may notify the affected entities of the promoter's suspension or bar. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comment on the registration process for direct and third-party promoters. DHS also welcomes comment on the standards that may be considered for registration, suspension of a promoter and debarment of a promoter, including alternative suggestions to those standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Fund Administrators</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires each new commercial enterprise and affiliated job-creating entity to keep funds received from immigrant investors in a separate account that may only be used to receive and deploy capital for use in the capital investment project or to return capital to an immigrant investor that provided it. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q). The new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity must also use a fund administrator that meets certain requirements to oversee and track any transfer of EB-5 investor capital to and from the separate account. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(iv). DHS may waive this requirement if the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity is controlled by or under common control of an investment adviser or broker-dealer that is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission if, in DHS's discretion, the SEC provides comparable protections and transparency for immigrant investors as that required by section 203(b)(5)(Q)(iv) of the INA. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q)(v)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(v)(I). Further, DHS must waive the requirement for any new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity that commissions an annual independent financial audit of such new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity and provides the audit to USCIS, as well as all investors in the new commercial enterprise. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q)(v)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(v)(II). DHS proposes to incorporate these provisions into the regulations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.425.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For the mandatory waiver of the fund administrator requirement under section 203(b)(5)(Q)(v)(II) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(v)(II), DHS proposes to clarify that the annual independent audit would have to cover the new commercial enterprise and any job-creating entity to which the new commercial enterprise has disbursed investment funds received from regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.425(b). For the discretionary waiver available under section 203(b)(5)(Q)(v)(I) of the INA, DHS proposes that a regional center may request such a waiver when it files the project application for the new commercial enterprise seeking such a waiver, or by submitting an amendment to a previous project application seeking a waiver of the fund administrator requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.425(c). In either case, the fund administrator requirement would only impact new commercial enterprises participating in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.425(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Whether a new commercial enterprise employs a fund administrator or obtains a waiver of such requirement, the new commercial enterprise may only use regional center investor capital in certain manners. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(Q)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(Q)(ii). DHS proposes to capture these disbursement requirements in this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.425(d).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Enforcement: Monetary Penalties, Suspensions, Terminations, and Debarments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Various provisions of the INA provide DHS the authority to sanction or take other actions against a designated regional center, its new commercial enterprises, its job-creating entities, affiliated or otherwise, and issuers of securities offered or intended to be offered to regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III), INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v)(II), INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii), INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv), INA sec. 203(b)(5)(I)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(I)(iv) and INA sec. 203(b)(5)(J)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(J)(iv). Other provisions provide DHS the authority to suspend or bar the participation of such entities or other individuals participating in the Regional Center Program, such as promoters of such entities. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(K)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(K)(ii), INA sec. 203(b)(5)(N), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N), and INA sec. 203(b)(5)(O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(O). For ease of reference and application, DHS proposes to consolidate these statutory sanction provisions into proposed 8 CFR 204.431. Specifically, DHS proposes regulatory provisions providing for the imposition of various 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40726"/>
                        sanctions, including suspensions, terminations, and debarments, against a regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, issuer of securities offered or intended to be offered to investors seeking classification under section 203(b)(5) of the INA and associated parties, including owners, promoters and others involved with such entities for violations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431. DHS proposes a list of violations that would warrant sanctions or other authorized actions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>The INA directs DHS to establish a graduated set of sanctions based on the severity of the violation for regional centers and certain associated parties that includes fines, suspension, debarment and termination. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii). Therefore, DHS proposes that sanctions would be issued based on the severity of the violations of the INA and could include:</P>
                    <P>1. A Finding of Violation Notice that will provide notification of a violation of law or regulation, such as a cease-and-desist letter, and be included in the relevant USCIS record of proceeding;</P>
                    <P>2. Monetary penalties equal to not more than 10 percent of the total capital invested by immigrant investors in the regional center's new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities directly involved in such violations;</P>
                    <P>3. Suspension from participation in the EB-5 program, which may be in whole or in part;</P>
                    <P>4. Termination of a regional center's designation;</P>
                    <P>5. Debarment from participation in the EB-5 program for the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity; and</P>
                    <P>6. Debarment from participation in the EB-5 program for one or more persons associated with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, USCIS may take reasonable actions to collect information regarding a potential or suspected violation, to pursue remedial action, to deter future violations, and to ensure ongoing compliance with the EB-5 program before issuing a sanction. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(e). For example, USCIS may issue warning letters when it becomes aware of evidence of false statements, the involvement of ineligible individuals, impending actions taken by securities regulators, or the failure to pay required fees to avert or correct compliance concerns. The letter would also include any proposed sanction if the person or entity does not remedy the violation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS may also issue notices of violation or pre-sanction notices, such as cease and desist letters, when it finds or otherwise believes that a regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, or promoter is engaging or has engaged in the violation of a law, rule, or regulation in proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b) or other prohibited activity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)-(e). For example, these notices or letters could be used to inform regional centers or promoters to cease marketing activities prohibited by the rules and standards in proposed 8 CFR 204.428 and proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(10) or to cease the misuse of the DHS or USCIS seal. These pre-sanction notices, including cease-and-desist letters, would generally also include any further proposed sanction if the person or entity does not remedy the violation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.231(e).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regardless of whether USCIS sends a warning letter or other type of notice, USCIS would generally first issue a notice identifying the actions that initiated the sanctions process as well as the sanction USCIS is imposing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(f)(2). Each sanction would be issued based on a consideration of certain factors, such as the manner, nature, magnitude, culpability, and harm, when determining the severity of a sanction to issue. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(c). DHS notes that under the proposed rule, USCIS would be able to issue more than one sanction for any violation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d). For example, if USCIS determines that a regional center is engaging in conduct inconsistent with its designation by failing to adhere to its policies and procedures adopted to monitor and oversee associated new commercial enterprises, such as failing to adequately screen or knowingly permitting a person to be involved with one of its new commercial enterprises who is ineligible to participate in the Regional Center Program under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H), USCIS could issue a monetary penalty to the regional center. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(2). If the regional center does not ensure that its new commercial enterprise takes commercially reasonable steps to remove the person from participating in the Regional Center Program, then USCIS would be able to issue additional sanctions for the ongoing violation to either or both the regional center and its associated new commercial enterprise. Additionally, if the regional center does not pay the monetary penalty, nonpayment would constitute an additional sanctionable offense. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(9).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Upon receipt of a sanction notice, the affected party could take action to comply with the sanction notice or file a motion to reopen or reconsider or appeal any final determination to the Administrative Appeals Office. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(g) and (h). If an affected party is the subject of multiple sanctions, a separate motion or appeal must be timely filed for each sanction the affected party seeks to have reviewed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.231(f)(1). For example, if an affected party received both a fine and a suspension and the affected party wished to have both sanctions reviewed by the Administrative Appeals Office, then he or she would be required to file two separate appeals. This requirement serves to clearly identify the sanctions for which an affected party has sought administrative appellate review for exhaustion purposes under section 203(b)(5)(P)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(P)(ii). Furthermore, this requirement provides USCIS with the necessary flexibility to efficiently oversee the integrity of the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Monetary Penalties</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, USCIS could impose monetary penalties (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         fines) on regional centers based on particular violations of applicable requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II)(aa), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II)(aa) (“fines equal to not more than 10 percent of the total capital invested by alien investors in the regional center's new commercial enterprises . . .”); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(2). To streamline the process for imposing monetary penalties for certain common violations under section 203(b)(5)(G)(iii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii) (such as failure to file an annual statement), DHS considered prescribing set amounts for monetary penalties rather than making individualized determinations for the amount of the monetary penalty based on the severity of each violation up to the statutory limit of 10 percent of the total capital invested by EB-5 investors in the regional center's new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities directly involved in such violations. For example, under that approach, DHS would impose a set monetary penalty of $10,000 on a regional center with one or more investors in its new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities that does not file its annual statement (with required information for each of its new commercial enterprises and job-creating 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40727"/>
                        entities) by the required due date. DHS is seeking public input and feedback on whether to prescribe set monetary penalties for certain common violations, particularly the amount for such penalties and the types of violations that may be covered.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Suspensions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, USCIS could suspend any person from participating in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3). DHS proposes that suspension means temporarily disallowing some or all forms of participation in the EB-5 program by the suspended person. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Suspend.</E>
                         Suspensions may be time or violation-limited sanctions to address and contain problematic behaviors in a generally constructive manner. During a period of suspension and depending on the scope of suspension imposed, the person may not be able to continue to solicit investors, generate or promote further investments, or otherwise participate in the EB-5 program, either in part or with restrictions. For example, a regional center could be suspended from filing project applications or accepting new regional center investors. Any suspension would take effect as of the date of the determination and last for the period specified by USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3). The proposed rule would generally codify existing policy on holding the adjudication of certain applications and petitions during the period of suspension but would provide more uniform parameters for holding, rejecting, or denying applications associated with suspended regional centers or NCEs or JCEs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(3)(ii-iii).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Debarments</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes that debarments preclude a person's participation in the EB-5 program without the ability for reapplication either permanently or temporarily as determined by USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Debar.</E>
                         Debarments could be temporary or permanent, but in either case would result in the end of the person's participation in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(5). All debarments would include or be preceded by ending the person's participation in the EB-5 program and would occur under circumstances requiring longer term solutions to safeguard program integrity, including temporary or permanent removal from the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A temporary debarment would end the person's participation while permitting reapplication after a timeframe specified by USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(5)(iii). USCIS would remove temporarily debarred persons from any list of approved regional centers or registered promoters for the specified timeframe. If the debarment is temporary, USCIS would provide the length of the bar in its sanctions notice to the affected party. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(f)(1). For example, DHS may impose a temporary debarment based on a related time-limited injunction due to noncompliance with Federal and State securities laws. The range of associated parties that could be sanctioned for securities noncompliance is quite broad, including any persons involved in the regional center's or new commercial enterprise's activities, as determined by the Secretary. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(G) and (I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G) and (I). Further, potential violations subject to sanction for noncompliance with Federal and State securities laws include temporary or permanent orders, judgements, or decrees of any court, final orders issued by the SEC or State securities regulator. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(I)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(I)(iv). Due to the number of possible parties affected and varied time horizons of orders and judgements issued by other State and Federal regulators, and due to the RIA requirement for the establishment of graduated sanctions, DHS believes that temporary debarments may be an appropriate sanctions tool short of imposing a permanent bar in these and other similar circumstances. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>The INA requires the permanent debarment of any individual or organization from participating in the EB-5 program where USCIS determines, in its discretion, that the individual or organization was a knowing participant in any conduct that led to the termination of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity for reasons relating to public safety, national security, fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse. INA secs. 203(b)(5)(N) and (O), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O). USCIS would remove permanently debarred entities from any list of approved regional centers or registered promoters indefinitely.</P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS would base a determination that a person was a knowing participant on actual or constructive knowledge and either direct or indirect participation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.432(b) and 204.433(b). Consequently, USCIS would consider any person to being a knowing participant if that person knew that his or her participation in the prohibited conduct was unlawful or if that person should have known that his or her participation in the prohibited conduct was unlawful (for example, based on their position or relationship with the relevant entity). Moreover, USCIS would consider a person to be a knowing participant if that person participated directly in the prohibited conduct or indirectly in the prohibited conduct such as through an intermediary or representative or by having actual or constructive knowledge of the prohibited conduct and failing to exercise his or her authority to prevent the prohibited conduct from occurring. For example, USCIS would debar an executive of an EB-5 entity with actual or constructive knowledge who fails to terminate an employee or other agent that is engaging in fraud on behalf of the EB-5 entity in connection with the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Terminations</HD>
                    <P>
                        As discussed above in connection with relevant definitions, DHS interprets its termination authority differently depending on which entity's participation is being terminated. Since DHS only designates regional centers (and not NCEs or JCEs), DHS interprets its termination authority for regional centers as applying only to end the designation of a regional center in line with historic practice and usage of this term, and DHS accordingly proposes to impose terminations as a sanction only on regional centers. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(4). DHS proposes that a terminated regional center may not solicit capital from an investor seeking classification as an immigrant investor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Terminate.</E>
                         On the other hand, the INA also provides authority to terminate the participation of NCEs or JCEs in the EB-5 program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 203(b)(5)(H)(iv), (N)(iii), and (O)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(iv), (N)(iii), (O)(ii). As an initial matter, DHS does not designate NCEs or JCEs for participation in the program the same as is contemplated for regional centers under the INA or in line with historic practices. Moreover, these provisions of the INA do not distinguish between the more specific usage of termination as it applies to a regional center's designation versus other types of sanctions that could apply to NCEs or JCEs that would similarly end their participation in the EB-5 program, such as debarment. 
                        <E T="03">Cf.</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(G)(iii)(II) (authorizing debarment to end the participation of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40728"/>
                        non-regional center persons in the EB-5 program while limiting usage of the term termination specifically just to a regional center's designation). DHS also notes that the investor protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M) trigger only upon either the termination of a regional center or debarment of a NCE or JCE. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I) (“in the case of the termination of a regional center”), and INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii)(I) (“in the case of the debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity”). Consequently, termination of a NCE or JCE that would be distinct from debarment would not trigger these investor protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), which DHS believes would be contrary to the remaining provisions of section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), which provide protections to “good faith investors.” DHS therefore interprets its authority to terminate the participation of NCEs or JCEs in the program as tantamount to debarment, which is reflected in the proposed definitions and accompanying rules discussed previously. Accordingly, under this proposed rule, USCIS would have the ability to terminate a regional center from participation in the Regional Center Program for any of the violations in proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b). The RIA requires termination of the regional center's designation where the new commercial enterprise violates any of the requirements of redeployment of EB-5 capital (INA sec. 203(b)(5)(F)(v)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(F)(v)(II)), if the regional center does not consent to or deliberately attempts to impede a DHS audit (INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(vii)(III), 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(3)), or if the regional center does not make the required Integrity Fund Fee payment within 90 days of its due date (INA sec. 203(b)(5)(J)(iv)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(J)(iv)(II); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(9)).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Sanctions Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under this proposed rule, any sanction could be appealed to the Administrative Appeals Office. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(h). DHS considered how to provide maximum effect to a sanction, while also allowing a sanctioned person the opportunity to exhaust all administrative remedies. Particularly, as related to monetary penalties, DHS considered whether any such penalty would be due immediately or should be delayed pending the filing (or subsequent outcome) of an appeal. DHS also considered requiring any sanctioned person to pay a percentage of any monetary penalty upon receipt of a sanction notice, with the balance coming due if any appeal is dismissed, to deter frivolous appeal filings solely to delay the effective date of a sanction, while also preserving the right of the sanctioned person to file an appeal. Similarly, DHS considered borrowing an approach used by the Internal Revenue Service where, if an appeal is filed, interest accrues from the date any monetary penalty comes due, which would then be payable at the conclusion of an appeal, if such appeal is dismissed.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the appeal is sustained, then the monetary penalty and accrued interest would be dismissed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             IRS, Publication 4576 (Rev. 10-2020), “Penalty Appeals,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p4576.pdf</E>
                             (last visited May 29, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS is seeking public input on the process USCIS should implement as it relates to sanctions and the right of appeal, particularly how DHS can balance the right of appeal with ensuring the effectiveness of the sanctions proposed under 8 CFR 204.431.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Audits</HD>
                    <P>
                        The INA requires DHS to audit each regional center at least once every 5 years. INA sec. 203(b)(5)(E)(vii)(II), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E)(vii)(II). DHS proposes that USCIS conduct these audits, and USCIS is currently doing so according to the Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards (GAGAS) to the extent practicable as determined by USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.430(a) and (b). DHS considered using Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS), but GAAS would only provide an opinion on the reliability of the annual financial statements prepared by the regional center and would not provide the opinion needed on the performance of the regional center.
                    </P>
                    <P>Audits permit USCIS the ability to reach a conclusion on the performance of the regional center, including reviews of the regional center's financial and program performance, as well as determining whether the regional center is effectively managing its operations under the Regional Center Program and properly pooling regional center investor capital to create jobs.</P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS would use the results of an audit to evaluate whether the regional center is continuing to operate consistent with its designation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.430(b). To do so, USCIS would not only review all records the regional center previously submitted to USCIS, but also have the ability to request information from or conduct interviews or site visits to any new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies) associated with the regional center. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Auditors would potentially contact new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities to obtain sufficient evidence, such as confirmation from outside parties, to corroborate representations made by the regional center. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Audits require auditors to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to support an audit opinion, and therefore, auditors may determine that independent verification with the new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities is necessary for obtaining such evidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To properly prepare for an audit, a regional center would have to maintain all documents submitted with its designation application, all of its project applications, and all annual statements for five years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.430(c)(1). In addition, the regional center would have to make and preserve any books, ledgers, records, and other documentation from the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity used to support any claims, evidence, or certifications contained in the regional center's annual statements. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Lastly, the regional center would be required to maintain records of each immigrant investor in each new commercial enterprise under the purview of the regional center, his or her current filing status with USCIS, total capital received from each investor, and the disbursement and flow of each investor's capital to the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, as appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         Any records required to be maintained must be preserved by the regional center for a 5-year period beginning on the last day of the Federal fiscal year in which any transactions occurred. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When a regional center is selected for an audit, USCIS would issue an audit notification to the regional center, to which the regional center would have 30 days to respond and coordinate the scheduling of the audit with USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.430(d). Under the proposed rule, USCIS would schedule the audit at an agreed upon time and date at the location where the regional center is conducting its operations. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The audit may also include site assessments of any new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity under the regional center's purview during the period being audited to confirm the documents retained by the regional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40729"/>
                        center or otherwise validate information reviewed during the audit. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         USCIS would issue a notice of intent to terminate the regional center's designation if the regional center does not respond to the notice or in any other way attempts to impede a USCIS audit. 
                        <E T="03">Id.; see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(d)(4).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After the conclusion of the audit, USCIS would document the results and add them to the regional center's record. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.430(e). If the audit provides any indication of fraud by the regional center, its new commercial enterprises, or job-creating entities, or the regional center is not continuing to operate consistent with its designation, USCIS may take appropriate action under proposed 8 CFR 204.431, which could include sanctions, up to and including termination or debarment from participation in the Regional Center Program. 
                        <E T="03">Id; see also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Removal of Conditions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Whether obtained pursuant to issuance of an immigrant visa or adjustment of status, permanent resident status based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition is granted on a conditional basis. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(a)(1). Within the 90-day period preceding the second anniversary of the date the immigrant investor obtains conditional permanent resident status, the immigrant investor must file a petition to remove the conditions on his or her residence (Form I-829, Petition by Investor to Remove Conditions on Permanent Resident Status). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 216A(c) and (d), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c) and (d). Failure to timely file Form I-829 results in automatic termination of the immigrant investor's conditional permanent resident status and the initiation of removal proceedings. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(c), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c). In support of the petition to remove conditions, the immigrant investor must show that he or she invested the required amount of capital for at least 2 years and created at least 10 jobs for qualifying employees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1). If approved, the conditions on the immigrant investor's permanent residence are removed as of the second anniversary of the date the investor obtained conditional permanent resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(g)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The RIA altered the requirements for an immigrant investor to remove the conditions on his or her permanent resident status. Where the immigrant investor previously had to show that he or she invested or were actively in the process of investing the required amount of capital, the INA now requires that the investment was made in its entirety prior to submitting a petition to remove conditions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 104(a)(6)(A), 136 Stat. 1070, 1101 (2022); INA sec. 216A(d)(1)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(A). In accordance with the RIA's statutory effectiveness provisions, DHS proposes that these new requirements apply to petitions to remove conditions that are filed based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, and proposes differentiating the requirements under prior section 216A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b, and the requirements of the RIA in section 216A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b, as amended. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 104(b), 136 Stat. 1070, 1102-3 (2022); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(d)(1) and (2). Importantly, this change would mean the immigrant investor must have invested the full amount of capital in the new commercial enterprise before filing the petition to remove conditions and the investment would have to have been maintained for at least 2 years from the date the investment was placed at risk with the new commercial enterprise, including being provided to any job-creating entity(ies) as applicable, to align with the requirement that the investor must expect his or her requisite amount of capital to remain invested for not less than 2 years, provided that the investment remained at risk with the new commercial enterprise on the date the investor filed his or her immigrant visa petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(A)(i), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(A)(i); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 216.6(d)(2)(ii). In addition, the immigrant investor must have created the required number of jobs prior to filing his or her petition to remove conditions, or in the event the immigrant investor is actively in the process of creating the required number of jobs and expects to create any remaining jobs within a year of filing his or her petition to remove conditions, the immigrant investor may request a 1-year extension of his or her conditional permanent resident status to create the required number of jobs, provided his or her capital would remain invested during such time. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(1)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(B); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 216.6(g)(3). In such a case, USCIS may grant an extension and, at the end of the third year, the immigrant investor would then have to file another petition to remove conditions no later than 30 days after the expiration of the 1-year extension. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(1)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(1)(B)(ii); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         8 CFR 216.6(g)(3).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The INA contains protections for good faith investors following program noncompliance of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M). One of those protections is the option for an investor to make a subsequent investment into another new commercial enterprise if the regional center is terminated or the initial new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is debarred. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(ii). The INA further provides that if an investor utilizes this protection and makes a subsequent investment, the date of eligibility for the investor to have the conditions on his or her permanent residency removed becomes two years after the date of the subsequent investment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(M)(iv), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M)(iv). DHS is proposing to implement these new provisions in this rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(a)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is proposing that an investor may utilize the protections under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), and provide evidence to establish continued eligibility as described in any notice of termination or debarment or in accordance with applicable form instructions for the purpose of amending his or her pending petition to remove conditions on his or her permanent resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(g)(4). DHS believes that the most efficient and least burdensome method of receiving the investor's evidence to establish continued eligibility and amend his or her pending petition will generally be through the response to any notice of termination or debarment without any associated filing fee, though DHS also anticipates retaining flexibility to require a different process through applicable form instructions which may include a filing fee in the future. This process utilizes the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(M), that DHS notify the investor of the termination or debarment and that the investor take certain actions, such as reinvesting in another new commercial enterprise, and amend his or her petition within 180 days of the notice in order to demonstrate continued eligibility. USCIS would review the amended petition, including any evidence submitted in response to any notice of termination or debarment, to determine whether the investor has demonstrated eligibility under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40730"/>
                        CFR 216.6(g)(4). If USCIS approves the amended petition, the conditions on the investor's permanent resident status would not be removed and USCIS would extend the investor's conditional permanent resident status for 2 years from the date of his or her subsequent investment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(g)(4). If USCIS denies the petition, then the standard denial process would apply (which may include issuance of a notice to appear following termination of the investor's conditional permanent resident status).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To remove conditions, an immigrant investor must have invested the full amount of capital before filing his or her petition to remove conditions. In addition, where the immigrant invested in a high unemployment area, the full amount of capital would have to have been provided to the job-creating entity while the area was designated as a high unemployment area. If the investor did not provide the full amount of capital to the job-creating entity and the high unemployment area cannot be extended because the new commercial enterprise is no longer principally doing business in a high unemployment area, then the immigrant investor must provide additional capital to the new commercial enterprise to meet the standard minimum investment amount. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 203(b)(5)(B)(ii)(V), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(B)(ii)(V). As a result, it would be in the investor's interest to ensure that his or her full amount of capital is placed at risk with the new commercial enterprise, including being provided to the job-creating entity as applicable, no later than the date the high unemployment area designation in place at the time he or she begins the process of investing would expire.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to amend the current regulations relating to the required evidence to accompany the petition to remove conditions. The purpose of these proposed changes is to require a more specific list of evidentiary items that, based on the adjudications experience of USCIS, is more likely to be probative in establishing whether the investor has met the eligibility requirements to have the conditions on his or her permanent residence removed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(e). DHS also proposes to specify separate required items of evidence for standalone investors than regional center investors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(e)(1)(iii) and (2)(ii). The differences between regional center projects and standalone ones, in particular the ability for regional center investors to meet the job creation requirement through estimated jobs using reasonable economic methodologies, mean that generally the types of evidence that will be probative for establishing eligibility will be different for each. DHS further proposes two mirrored evidentiary sections, one for petitions based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed before March 15, 2022, and one for those based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 216.6(e)(1) and (2). The differences between the two reflect changes brought about by the RIA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As part of the evidentiary requirements for regional center investors to remove the conditions on their residence, DHS proposes requiring a regional center to submit an amendment to its project application at least 90 days prior to the first regional center investor in that particular investment offering becoming eligible to file a petition to remove conditions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(b)(1). As part of that amendment filing, the regional center would have to submit an updated business plan, an updated EIA, and updated reasonable and transparent methodologies to establish sufficient job creation for the regional center investors in that investment offering. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.423(b)(2). A regional center investor would then be able to rely on the project application amendment's approval to establish that his or her investment created enough jobs to establish eligibility to remove the conditions on his or her residence. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(e)(2)(ii). If the regional center does not submit a project application amendment as required, USCIS may sanction the regional center for failing to file a required amendment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(b)(7)(iii). Additionally, the regional center investor would then have to establish that his or her investment created sufficient employment, which may include evidence the investor reassociated his or her investment with another regional center or new commercial enterprise in the event his or her regional center is terminated. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(e)(2)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Site Visits</HD>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, USCIS must conduct a site visit to the relevant new commercial enterprise or business location identified in the regional center's project application before adjudicating any associated petition to remove conditions based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022. Public Law 117-103, Division BB, sec. 104(a)(5), 136 Stat. 1070, 1101 (2022). DHS proposes that, for purposes of the RIA, such a site visit may include in-person visits or, at USCIS' discretion, utilize web or teleconferencing communications in coordination with the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies). For purposes of RIA, site visits may include a review of open-source, commercial, or proprietary databases to verify evidence submitted to USCIS by the petitioner. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(f) and 8 CFR 204.429. While USCIS must provide a regional center 24-hour notice prior to any site visit, USCIS may conduct a site visit to a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity at any time, without notice to ensure that USCIS can verify that the necessary job creation upon which an investor is seeking to establish lawful permanent residence has actually occurred. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.429. This would also allow USCIS to continue to conduct necessary investigations in response to concerns of fraud or that the new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities are not acting in the manner they claim. For these reasons, making unannounced visits is a critical tool to ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program and the eligibility of investors to remove the conditions on their residence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed regulation also states that if USCIS is unable to verify facts related to an investment or particular investment offering (project), including due to the failure or refusal of an entity participating in the Regional Center Program to cooperate in a site visit, then the lack of verification of pertinent facts, including from failure or refusal to cooperate, may result in termination of a designated regional center or debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity that is the subject of a site visit. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.429. A determination that a petitioner or employer failed or refused to cooperate would be case-specific but could include situations where one or more USCIS officers arrived at a job-creating entity's office, made contact with the owner or other person involved with the job-creating entity and properly identified themselves, and the owner or person involved refused to speak to the officers or the officers were refused entry into the premises or refused permission to review business records pertaining to the particular investment offering and job creation. Failure or refusal to cooperate could also include situations where a person involved agreed to speak but did not provide the information requested within the time period specified, or did not respond to a written request for information within the time period specified. Before denying a petition to remove conditions for issues related to an unsuccessful site 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40731"/>
                        visit, USCIS would provide the petitioner an opportunity to rebut adverse information and present information on his or her own behalf in compliance with 8 CFR 103.2(b)(16).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Miscellaneous Changes</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes clarifying changes to several paragraphs of 8 CFR 216.6. These changes bring the regulatory language into line with existing practice in several areas where the current language is ambiguous or does not address certain situations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(a) (a petition is properly filed if signed by petitioner and accompanied by appropriate fees and evidence, and USCIS may reject a petition not properly filed); proposed 8 CFR 216.6(d)(3) (derivatives may inherit an investor's interest upon the investor's death and remove conditions if the investor meets the applicable requirement for maintaining the investment); proposed 8 CFR 216.6(h) (USCIS will terminate the investor's permanent resident status as of the second anniversary of the date the investor obtained it if the investor does not submit a petition to remove conditions); and proposed 8 CFR 216.6(c)(3) (discussing failure to appear for required interview and the procedure for requesting and granting reschedule or waiver of the interview).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, DHS proposes to improve the adjudication process for removing conditions by providing flexibility in interview locations and update the regulations to conform to the current process for issuing permanent resident cards. Section 216A(c)(1)(B) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1186b(c)(1)(B), generally requires Form I-829 petitioners to be interviewed prior to final adjudication of the petition, though DHS may waive the interview requirement in its discretion. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(3)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1186(d)(3)(B). The statute also provides that the interview may be held at a location that “is convenient to the parties involved.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(3)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1186(d)(3)(A). Importantly, the INA precludes USCIS from waiving the interview requirement on any Form I-829 filed based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, if the investor invested in a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity that was sanctioned under section 203(b)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5), or has been determined to be a threat to public safety or national security. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 216A(d)(3)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1186b(d)(3)(B), and proposed 8 CFR 216.6(c)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under this rule, DHS is proposing to give stakeholders greater flexibility in the interview location by clarifying USCIS' discretion under the INA to determine the appropriate location for Form I-829 petition interviews. Specifically, the proposed amendment would allow USCIS to schedule an interview at the USCIS office holding jurisdiction over the adjudication of the petition, the location of the investor's new commercial enterprise, or the investor's residence in the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(c)(2). Interview location flexibility was previously provided in the subsequently vacated EB-5 Modernization Rule (84 FR 35750, 35801, July 24, 2019), and DHS believes this change is still warranted and will benefit the agency by making the interview process more effective and benefit immigrant investors by reducing the need to travel long distances to participate in Form I-829 petition interviews.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also proposes to amend regulations governing the process by which immigrant investors obtain their new permanent resident cards after the approval of their Form I-829 petition. After an immigrant investor's Form I-829 petition is approved, the immigrant investor and each included derivative will be issued a permanent resident card. This card documents that the conditions on the immigrant investor's status have been removed. Current regulations include an outdated description of the process for obtaining such permanent resident cards. Specifically, the current regulation requires the immigrant investor and his or her derivatives to report to a district office for processing of their permanent resident cards after approval of the Form I-829 petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 216.6(d)(1) (Nov. 20, 2019). This process is no longer necessary in light of intervening improvements in USCIS' biometric data collection program.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         USCIS mails the permanent resident card directly to the immigrant investor by U.S. Postal Service registered mail after approving the Form I-829 petition. Therefore, there is no need for each immigrant investor or any derivatives to report to a district office for processing of their permanent resident cards after petition approval.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             DHS already has authority to collect this information under 8 CFR part 103.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS is thus proposing to remove the mandatory reporting requirement from the regulatory text, and to replace that requirement with the discretionary authority to require an immigrant investor to provide biometrics when needed to complete card production. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 216.6(g)(1). This discretionary authority is intended to address circumstances in which an in-person meeting is necessary, such as when the biometrics captured during the Form I-829 background process may not be suitable for issuing a permanent resident card.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, DHS proposes to make minor technical changes to other parts of 8 CFR, namely to content in newly proposed part 204, and current parts 216 and 235 to align with terminology found in the INA and to align with other regulations published after the creation of DHS and USCIS; specifically, DHS proposes to modify “the Service” and “the director” to “USCIS,” update the use of the word “entrepreneur” to “investor” or “investment,” as appropriate, and remove references to specific form numbers. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.408, 216.2, 216.3 and 235.11.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Withdrawal Requests and Petition Revocations</HD>
                    <P>
                        An applicant or petitioner may withdraw a benefit request at any time until a decision is issued by USCIS or, in the case of an approved petition, until the person is admitted or granted adjustment or change of status, based on the petition. 8 CFR 103.2(b)(6). A request to withdraw a pending petition routinely results in USCIS acknowledging the request and processing the withdrawal of the pending petition. If a petitioner seeks to withdraw a previously approved petition, the approved petition is generally automatically revoked. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 205.1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        On November 18, 2016, DHS published its “Retention of EB-1, EB-2, and EB-3 Immigrant Workers and Program Improvements Affecting High-Skilled Nonimmigrant Workers” Final Rule, which became effective on January 17, 2017. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 82398 (Nov. 18, 2016). This rule revised 8 CFR 205.1 to clarify that a Form I-140, Immigrant Petition for Alien Workers, will remain approved if a request to withdraw the petition is received or the petitioner terminates his or her business 180 days or more after either the date of the petition's approval or the date of filing of an associated application for adjustment of status. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 82402. While this rule did not intend to apply to EB-5 immigrant visa petitions since immigrant investors self-petition rather than needing an employer to petition on their behalf, as is the case with the Form I-140 petition, the plain language of the regulatory text made no such distinction. As a result, USCIS experienced challenges in accepting and resolving requests from immigrant 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40732"/>
                        investors to withdraw their EB-5 immigrant visa petition. Therefore, DHS is proposing modifications to 8 CFR 205.1 to clarify that the changes made by the 2017 Final Rule do not include EB-5 immigrant visa petitions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 205.1(a)(3)(iii)(C). DHS further proposes to make clear that an immigrant investor may seek to withdraw his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition at any time by submitting a request to USCIS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 205.1(a)(3)(iii)(E). If an immigrant investor submits a withdrawal request after the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is approved, these revisions would clarify that the approved petition is automatically revoked, as had previously been the practice until the 2017 Final Rule. This regulatory fix is important to immigrant investors because the investor's ability to recover his or her investment may be predicated on USCIS resolving his or her withdrawal request and concluding action on his or her petition. In addition, these changes would allow USCIS to remove a petition from the immigrant visa process if the petitioner has no intention of pursuing an immigrant visa, which would help to ensure that immigrant visa processing is not delayed by expending effort on petitions that will not be used to obtain an immigrant visa.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Along with these technical changes regarding automatic revocation of approved EB-5 petitions, DHS further proposes to clarify that automatic revocation of any previously approved petition does not prevent USCIS from revoking the approval on other grounds at any time. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 205.1(c). This accords with statutory authority regarding revocation of petition approvals, including the new authorities in the INA added by the RIA, and is an important clarification in order to preserve the integrity of agency decision-making to correct errors and address instances of fraud or threats to the national interest whether in EB-5 or other applicable areas.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Severability</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS proposes to include language that would allow stakeholders to continue to rely on a provision in this proposed rule if the provision is held invalid or unenforceable against a person or circumstance to continue to give maximum effect to the provisions permitted by the INA, unless a determination is made that a provision of the subpart is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which case the provision would be severed from the remainder of the subpart. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.435. DHS believes this would preserve the provisions of this rule to the fullest extent possible and ensure the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Orders 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review), and 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation)</HD>
                    <P>E.O. 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) and 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation) directs agencies to significantly reduce the private expenditures required to comply with Federal regulations and provides that “any new incremental costs associated with the new regulations shall, to the extent permitted by law be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least 10 prior regulations.”</P>
                    <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has designated this rule a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, although not economically significant under section 3(f)(1). Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                    <P>This rule is not an Executive Order 14192 regulatory action because it is being issued with respect to an immigration-related function of the United States. The rule's primary direct purpose is to implement or interpret the immigration laws of the United States (as described in INA sec. 101(a)(17), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(17)) or any other function performed by the U.S. Federal Government with respect to aliens. See OMB Memorandum M-25-20, “Guidance Implementing Section 3 of Executive Order 14192, titled “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation” (Mar. 26, 2025).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Summary</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes to update and align its regulations governing EB-5 alien investors and the Regional Center Program to reflect new requirements provided in the RIA. The proposed rule would apply to business entities involved in EB-5 program investment activity; regional centers (RCs), New Commercial Enterprises (NCEs), and Job Creating Entities (JCEs). It would thereby apply to investors and some individuals associated with the business entities. The proposed rule proposes numerous technical changes, codifications, clarifications, guidance, and procedural and operational adjustments to the EB-5 program. Most of the changes are codifying post RIA practices, or expanding on existing guidance, and are not expected to incur measurable impacts. For provisions that are expected to generate impacts, DHS has made estimates of some, but not all potential impacts due to data and information constraints.</P>
                    <P>EB-5 investment activity can be influenced by local, regional, and national factors relevant to economic growth, employment, demand for types of investment, and availability of capital. It can also be influenced by factors such as capital mobility in particular regions and countries outside the United States. The variation in past program investments and intensity within certain project areas (types of projects and geographical areas) could have been and may be influenced by multiple factors that are exogenous to the regulatory framework. It is not possible to sort out or identify all the possible factors that can influence the program to determine exactly how the investment activity and related business entities would be impacted, and further, what the effects from and responses to the impacts could be. The multiple provisions being proposed are intended to align the practice of the program with the provisions of the RIA, which includes stimulating domestic capital investment and job creation while rooting out problems the program has historically encountered. Second, most of the impacts are expected to accrue to time-related, administrative, documentary, evidentiary, and organizational efforts needed to meet the requirements of the provisions, and this is not something that can be quantified.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule seeks to implement RIA's provisions to improve the program along five pathways. First, it provides clear and thorough guidance to program participants and the public concerning practices, responsibilities, and requirements of the program under the RIA.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Second, it provides DHS with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40733"/>
                        a set of tools to implement provisions under the RIA to protect the EB-5 program from fraud and threats to national security, including sanctions that also act as incentives for EB-5 entities to engage in appropriate practices to avoid sanctions. Third, it supports RIA's stringent oversight and evidentiary requirements to provide more assurance that program activities and investments meet compliance standards. Fourth, it increases the reasonableness and appropriateness of methods utilized to estimate economic impacts and job creation while removing or modifying some outdated practices. Fifth, it provides some flexibilities for investors to deal with changes in business conditions pertinent to them.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Participants in EB-5 programs may also need to consider the extent to which their activities or a particular project may raise issues or impose obligations under the Federal securities laws, including whether there is an offering or sale of any “security” under those laws. A description of these laws is available at: 
                            <E T="03">
                                https://www.sec.gov/rules-
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                regulations/statutes-regulations.
                            </E>
                             Activities subject to Federal securities laws may lead to liability under the statutes and rules administered by the SEC, separately from any requirements of the EB-5 programs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As is noted above, it is not possible to determine how specific entities would be impacted by specific provisions and what the resulting effects of such impacts would be. However, DHS can draw on some information and data to make partial quantified estimates applicable to some of the provisions. For the impacts that could be estimated and quantified, at a three percent discount rate the annualized impacts over ten years could range from $39.90 million to $87.36 million, with a midpoint of $63.59 million. At a seven percent discount rate, annualized impacts could range from $38.80 million to $85.39 million, with a midpoint of $62.06 million.</P>
                    <P>Table 3 presents the main provisions in the proposed rule, beginning with the monetized estimates (or the quantified impacts) (Table 3A), followed by the unquantified impacts (Table 3B), whereas monetized figures reflect the annualized amount for the midpoint of a range, at a seven percent discount rate. The population figures reflect annual averages unless otherwise stated. The information in Table 3 is presented as a broad outline with greater detail provided in the ensuing analysis.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
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                    <P>
                        In addition to the summary of potential impacts elucidated in Table 3, DHS offers the OMB A-4 accounting statement in Table 4.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             97 U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, “Approved EB-5 Immigration Investor Regional Centers” as of February 12, 2025. There are now 547 approved regional centers. See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/working-in-the-united-states/permanent-workers/employment-based-immigration-fifth-preference-eb-5/eb-5-immigrant-investor-regional-centers/approved-eb-5-immigrant-investor-regional-centers</E>
                             (last accessed June 2, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
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                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>The ensuing impact assessment is organized as follows. Section 2 presents background data and some estimates for investment volumes going forward. Section 3 discusses the impacts, first as pertinent to monetized estimates and followed by unquantified impacts and collates the total impacts of the proposed rule. Section 4 discusses the clarifying changes to definitions and procedural updates, followed by a summary and concluding Section 5. Finally, a small entity analysis is presented in Section 6 appropriate to the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Background and Investment Baseline</HD>
                    <P>DHS is proposing this rulemaking to align its regulations with the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 (“RIA”) signed by the President on March 15, 2022. The preamble reviewed historical and procedural aspects of the EB-5 program and detailed specific justifications for the provisions being proposed along with their legal references. A summary of the parts of the program subject to provisions proposed in the rule are provided in Table 5.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="416">
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                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>This regulatory impact analysis focuses on data and points of examination that are pertinent to developing quantitative and qualitative potential impacts applicable to this rulemaking (the extensive applicable legal references laid out in the preamble are generally omitted for purpose of brevity).</P>
                    <P>A person wishing to immigrate to the United States under the EB-5 program files either a Form I-526, Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor, or a Form I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor, as described in section D.1 of the preamble. Each individual immigrant investor files a Form I-526/526E petition containing information about his or her investment. The investment must be made into either a NCE within a designated regional center in accordance with the Regional Center Program or a “standalone” NCE independent of a regional center. The NCE may create jobs directly (required for non-regional center investments) or serve as a source of funding for separate JCEs (allowable for regional centers).</P>
                    <P>
                        Under the Regional Center Program, following a USCIS designation, affiliated investors could submit investment petitions in the concurrent year and in future years, provided the regional center maintains its designation with USCIS. Each year, the stock of approved regional centers represents the previous year's approved total, plus new regional centers designated during the current year, minus those that exit the program either through their own volition or by termination by USCIS in the concurrent year.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Between FY 2018 and 2022, USCIS terminated 388 regional centers. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS List of EB-5 Terminated Regional Centers, “Regional Center Terminations,”
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/working-in-the-united-states/permanent-workers/employment-based-immigration-fifth-preference-eb-5/eb-5-immigrant-investor-regional-centers/regional-center-terminations</E>
                             (last updated Feb. 1, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In general, DHS databases tracked the NCE associated with each individual investment. Any given NCE could fund more than one investment project. DHS emphasizes that in the years leading up to the RIA, and in FY 2022 when the RIA was implemented, there was a sharp decrease in petitions submitted to the program. However, since FY 2023 there has been a recovery in volumes. Table 6 presents data showing the clear slowdown in filing volumes applicable to EB-5 form types that had predecessors prior to FY 2022 and the recent recovery.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="411">
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                        <GID>EP02JY26.039</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        As is shown in Table 6, receipts for regional center designation (Form I-924) declined consistently from FY 2018 to FY 2022, and then recovered (Form I-956) in FY 2023 and FY 2024 (Form I-956) before declining in FY 2025. Investor petitions (Form I-526) petitions also declined from FY 2018 to FY 2022, and then recovered its 2018 level fully in FY 2025.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         There are two mutually related reasons that explain why Form I-956 filings declined leading into FY 2022. First, there was a lapse in the statutory authorization for the EB-5 Regional Center Program from June 2021 until March 2022, so that regional centers were discouraged from filing. Second, during a portion of the lapse duration EB-5 database and system changes did not record some filings.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             In the USCIS data, I-526 filings prior to FY 2022 are recorded as “legacy” filings. In FY 2022 the Form was broken out between legacy filings, standalones, and the new form I-526E. In that year, some regional center investor petitions appear to be captured under both the legacy and I-526E designation, and hence the volume that year may vary from the figure shown.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 7 provides data regarding investments reflected by approved Form I-526 petitions during the six-year period FY 2016 through FY 2021. By “investment” here we gauge an approved NCE filing in which DHS has evidence that the full investment was made, and the associated project conducted. But to avoid conflating the term “investment,” in Table 7 the number of individual investors is shown as well as the dollar quantity of investment.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
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                        <GID>EP02JY26.040</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        In Table 7
                        <FTREF/>
                         the investment amount figures reflect only the EB-5 portion of total capital involved. If associated non-program capital was included, then the total investment associated with the program would be higher. As is shown, the estimated program-sourced investment was approximately $20.43 billion over the 6-year timeframe. Overall, a total of 39,600 investors, comprising 98.4 percent of investments, were made into target employment areas (TEAs) and thus qualified for the reduced investment amount ($500,000). The shares of the [number of] investments/projects are generally close to the respective shares of capital for regional centers, but this is not the case for standalones. For the latter, the non-TEA and TEA share of investors was 29.1 percent and 70.9 percent, respectively, which is notably different than their respective investment amounts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             DHS recognizes that the data provided in Table 7 is dated. However, since volumes have only picked up in the last two years, DHS would only be able to present and evaluate a small window of data. DHS will consider a potential update at the final rule stage.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        There can be a good deal of variation in program volumes, which can be driven by U.S. economic conditions, global economic conditions and those in certain regions or countries, international capital availability and constraints, and multiple other factors. Technically, all entities (individuals and businesses) associated directly with the program would be covered by the proposed rule. Hence, we report in Table 8 the Forms' titles with the first respective “sub-column” denoting the past form number and the second reporting the current form number. USCIS Forms I-526, I-526E, I-956, I-956F, I-956G, I-956H, and I-956K took effect in FY 2022, under an exemption 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40746"/>
                        from the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) provided by the RIA.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of the process to obtain approval from OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), USCIS published a 60-Day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice 
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 30-Day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice 
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for USCIS Forms: I-526, I-526E, I-956, I-956F, I-956G, I-956H, I-956K.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             Section 106 of the RIA provided a one-year exemption from the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 35). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 117-103, Division BB, Sec. 106(d) (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             87 FR 54233 (Sept. 2, 2022); DHS Docket No. USCIS-2022-0010.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             87 FR 79343 (Dec. 27, 2022); DHS Docket No. USCIS-2022-0010.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="214">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.041</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As is reported
                        <FTREF/>
                         in Table 8, there are four new forms for which no predecessor form type existed. Table 8 also includes the average annualized receipts for the period FY 2023 through FY 2025, to start with the most recent full FY in which the new forms were effective. The total figures (sum last column) is 12,600, which is the total number of form submissions impacted, although future volumes could vary from those reported as the average of FY 2023 through FY 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             The Form I-527 is not currently in use and is being promulgated in a published notice of proposed rulemaking titled “U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services Employment-Based Immigrant Visa, Fifth Preference (EB-5) Fee Rule.” 90 FR 48516 (Oct. 23, 2025).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             Volume includes amendments and initial filings. Currently, the VPC forecast covers the period through FY 2032. For the FY 2033 value, we extended the previous year value out to cover the final year in the ten-year span.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Impacts of the Major Rule Provisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Impacts by Provision</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Staffing Allocation Model</HD>
                    <P>Public sector impacts are expected to accrue to resource costs associated with implementing the RIA, and the intended increases in monitoring, inspections, and compliance. We will account for these as two separate line items. We will first describe the “inputs” for the expenses and then how we estimate them for each year over the 10-year period FY 2024 through FY 2033.</P>
                    <P>
                        The USCIS IPO Staffing Allocation Model (SAM) to implement this rule has a requirement of 229 new personnel; 97 new positions have been authorized, and IPO is seeking approval of 132 more. The exact timing of the hires and paygrades are not fully committed yet, but they have been initialized in FY 2024, take place over four years, and the average paygrade would be a Federal general service (GS) level thirteen (GS-13). We will utilize the following accounting conventions for the expected resource costs. The current (CY 2024) basic salary for a GS-13 Federal civil servant ranges from $88,250 to $115,079.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, many DHS employees work in offices outside the National Capital Region, there are 58 Federal locality regions that supplement the basic pay. Analysis of the locality adjustments data from the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) reveals that they follow a positive-right skewed distribution with a median value of 21.6 percent and a mean of 23.5 percent. This type of situation occurs when most of the observations cluster at relatively low values but in which a small number of large values exert disproportionate weight on the mean.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             There would likely be some supervisory hires at the GS-14 or GS-15 level and possibly some GS-12 hires, but GS-13 is expected to be the average and most common level. The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) Federal salary tables are found at: U.S. Office of Personnel Management, “Salaries &amp; Wages: General Schedule,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/salaries-wages/2024/general-schedule</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 2, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Onboarding new employees generates recruiting and hiring costs. These can include, but are not limited to, job postings, candidate screening, background checks, training, equipment and credential issuance, and other human resource requirements. There can be substantial variation in the cost per hire (based on different skill levels and job titles) but a 2024 report from the employment services firm 
                        <E T="03">Indeed</E>
                         reports that the cost of hiring for most employers ranged from about $4,000 to $20,000.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             See Indeed, “What Is the Cost of Hiring New Employees?,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.indeed.com/hire/c/info/cost-of-hiring-employees?gad_source=1&amp;gclid=EAIaIQobChMIrdip1OfChgMVgtIWBR0SGgcLEAAYASAAEgLr1vD_BwE&amp;hl=en&amp;aceid=&amp;co=US&amp;gclsrc=aw.ds</E>
                             (last updated Oct. 31, 2024). Indeed is a web-based subsidiary for the multinational human resources firm, Recruit Holdings Co. Ltd. DHS recognizes that the cost to hire federal employees could vary from the reported amounts, and it is possible that the costs could be lower for some of the positions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS accounts for employee benefits by calculating a benefits-burden applicable to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data detailing the average employer costs for employee compensation for all civilian workers in major occupational groups and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40747"/>
                        industries. Based on the BLS data relied on, the cost of employee benefits is approximately 42 percent of the cost of wages and salaries for private industry workers, and we augment this multiple to account for higher benefits for federal workers.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS analysis of data provided by the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) indicates that for workers with bachelor's degrees and higher the average difference between federal and private benefits was 24.3 percent. Therefore, DHS scales the BLS private multiplier by 1.24 to arrive at a federal worker benefits scalar of 1.76.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS will rely on this burden to estimate the full costs incurred by new federal employees, including employee wages and salaries and the full cost of benefits such as paid leave, insurance, retirement, and other benefits.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             The benefits-to-wage multiplier is calculated as follows: for private industry workers = Total Employee Compensation per hour)/(Wages and Salaries per hour) ($45.65 Total Employer Compensation per hour)/($32.07 Wages and Salaries per hour = 1.4234 ≉ 1.42 (rounded). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, Economic News Release, “Employer Cost for Employee Compensation—June 2025,” Table 1. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation by ownership (Sep. 12, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_09122025.htm.</E>
                             The ECEC measures the average cost to employers for wages and salaries and benefits per employee hour worked.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             See “Comparing the Compensation of Federal and Private-Sector Employees in 2022,” CBO (April 2024); chapter 2, “Comparison of Wages, Benefits, and Total Compensation in the Federal Government and the Private Sector,” Table 2.2: “Federal and Private-Sector Benefits, by Workers' Educational Attainment, 2022.” The figure of 1.24 is obtained by taking the average of the ratio of federal to private worker benefits for three college degree levels, Bachelor's, Master's, and Professional or Doctorate, in order. The relevant figures are: 31.7, 33.5, 35.1, and 22.0, 26.2, and 35.0, in order. Sourced to: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cbo.gov/publication/60235#_idTextAnchor024</E>
                             (Nov. 5, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The human resource costs will involve both the costs of hiring plus the payment in salaries, thereby comprising a flow and stock set up. There is likely to be variation in the inputs, and therefore we provided an estimated range for the SAM costs based on a lower and upper bound. There is, of course, some subjectivity in this estimation, but we believe the approach we developed is transparent and tractable, and its parameters are fully documented. For employment, we base the estimates on the full requirement (229). Based on the pace of hiring, we allocate the hires equally across FY 2025 through FY 2027. For the salary levels described above, we rely on the high and low bound and for hiring costs we utilize the range reported above.</P>
                    <P>
                        Since 2014, the largest Federal pay raise was 4.6 percent (2023) that comprised a 4.1 percent general salary increase, and a 0.5 percent locality pay adjustment. The smallest Federal pay raise in the same period was 1.0 percent.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We rely on these values as the range and assign a uniform locality rate adjustment of 0.5 percent across the board. Since we do not have information on the distribution of USCIS employees with respect to localities, we cannot assign a weighting system to develop appropriate values. Given this constraint, we will rely on the lower and upper quartile values of 18.6 percent and 28.6 percent, in order.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             FederalPay, “General Schedule (GS) Pay Raise History,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalpay.org/gs/raises</E>
                             (last visited Jan. 23, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Utilizing the information presented above, DHS sets up a stock and flow accounting system that operates as follows. In each year the total personnel costs are the sum of two parts. First are the hiring costs, calculated as the number of new hires made in a year multiplied by the hiring cost, which is kept consistent each year for the period between FY 2024 and FY 2027 (in years 5 through 10, as hiring is completed, this first sum component will be zero). The second component is the salaries of all hires to date, in which the base salary is adjusted to account for the locality pay, the benefits burden, and the growth rate of salary. The inputs to the estimation technique are summarized in Table 9.</P>
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                    <P>
                        The results
                        <FTREF/>
                         are presented in Table 10 which shows the two components for each year as well as the totals. We do not actually estimate the mean and rather derive it directly as the mid-point of the low and high estimates.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             As of Nov. 3, 2025, USCIS has filled about half the allocated positions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="440">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40749"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.043</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>To provide transparency on how the information in Table 10 is obtained, consider year 1 for the low-end bound. With an exact hiring number of 57.25 employees and a hiring cost of $4,000, the hiring costs for that year would be $229,000. The low-end salary ($88,520) is scaled by a factor of 1.946, which includes the sum of the federal benefits multiplier (.76) and the locality adjustment (.186). The resulting salary per person is $172,260, and at 57.3 hires, year 1 salary costs could be $9.86 million. In year 2 the hiring costs would be the same, but the salary costs per person would be higher, at $174,844, to reflect the salary growth rate of 1.5%. As in year 2 there would be 114.5 personnel, total salary costs would be $20.02 million. The same logic and approach applies to the high-end results, pursuant to the applicable parameters.</P>
                    <P>As is shown in Table 10, the 10-year undiscounted costs to hire and maintain new employees to administer the program based on the changes in the RIA and the concomitant changes proposed herein could range from $363.35 million to $589.91 million, with a midpoint of $476.63 million.</P>
                    <P>At present, DHS is not anticipating there to be other direct resource costs. While some training time for current personnel is expected, this training will be ensconced in regular allocated training time. The same holds true for infrastructure and information technology typology. No new buildings, plants, or equipment are currently planned. While some modifications and changes to existing data and reporting programs and systems could be expected, these can largely be absorbed in regular refresher and systems updates allocation. DHS will update any changes in such projections as necessary in the final rule and welcomes public comments concerning public sector impacts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Submission of Biometrics</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS has routinely collected biometrics applicable to the former Form I-829, but not for the Form I-526/I-526E or the retired Form I-924/924A as they pertain to regional centers. Therefore, in the past immigrant investors routinely submitted biometrics when they applied for the removal of the conditions on their residence. Under this proposed rule, DHS would still require the submission of biometrics by investors at the removal of conditions stage, though in cases in which DHS 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40750"/>
                        determines additional verification of identity is needed, biometrics could be requested more than once.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS will apply routine biometrics submission from persons involved with a regional center, an NCE, and any affiliated JCE, as applicable and as described in the preamble. DHS is not currently planning to require the submission of biometrics from all employees of the regional center-affiliated entities. DHS is planning to routinely include the submission of biometrics with Form I-956H.</P>
                    <P>
                        The submission of biometrics involves travel to an Application Support Center (ASC) for the biometric services appointment. In past rulemakings, DHS estimated that the average round-trip distance to an ASC is 50 miles, and that the average travel time for the trip is 2.5 hours. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         78 FR 536, 572 (Jan. 3, 2013). The cost of travel also includes a mileage charge based on the estimated 50-mile round trip at the CY 2025 General Services Administration (GSA) rate of $0.70 per mile.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The travel cost is $35.0, which is the per mileage reimbursement rate multiplied by 50-mile travel distance. We estimate that individuals typically spend an average of 1 hour and 10 minutes (1.17 hours) at an ASC to submit biometrics.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adding the ASC time and travel time yields 3.67 hours.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             GSA, “Privately Owned Vehicle (POV) Mileage Reimbursement Rates Effective January 1, 2025,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gsa.gov/plan-book/transportation-airfare-pov-etc/privately-owned-vehicle-pov-mileage-reimbursement</E>
                             (last updated January 20, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-765, “Instructions for Application for Employment Authorization,” p. 25, OMB No. 1615-0040 (expires Sept. 30, 2027), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/forms/i-765instr.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To estimate the time-associated opportunity costs, we need to rely on a wage bound. This is difficult because EB-5 entities can involve complex business activities. However, we assess that generally the entities involved in biometrics submissions are primarily involved in the business of finance and management of their investments.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, we selected twenty occupations from the Standard Occupational Classification (SOC) system that we think reasonably capture the individuals involved in biometrics. These SOC titles and associated BLS mean hourly wages for the detailed occupations are reported in Table 11.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             INA sec. 203(b)(5)(H)(v), 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H)(v) (“a person is involved with a regional center, a new commercial enterprise, any affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, if the person is, directly or indirectly, in a position of substantive authority to make operational or managerial decisions over pooling, securitization, investment, release, acceptance, or control or use of any funding that was procured under the program”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40751"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.044</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="71">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40752"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.045</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        The minimum, average, and maximum of the above range are $41.58, $61.91, and $87.86, in order. DHS accounts for worker benefits when estimating the opportunity cost of time by calculating a benefits-to-wage multiplier using the most recent BLS report detailing average total employee compensation for all civilian U.S. workers. DHS estimates the benefits-to-wage multiplier to be 1.46, which incorporates employee wages and salaries and the full cost of benefits, such as paid leave, insurance, and retirement.
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, using the benefits-to-wage multiplier, the loaded hourly wage rates are $60.71 $90.39 and $128.28, in order.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             The benefits-to-wage multiplier is calculated as follows: (civilian) Total Employee Compensation per hour)/(Wages and Salaries per hour) ($48.05 Total Employer Compensation per hour)/($33.02 Wages and Salaries per hour =  1.4551 ≉ 1.46 (rounded). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, Economic News Release, “Employer Cost for Employee Compensation—June 2025,” Table 1. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation by ownership (Sep. 12, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_09122025.htm.</E>
                             The ECEC measures the average cost to employers for wages and salaries and benefits per employee hour worked.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        At the burdened wage levels advanced in the preceding module, the opportunity costs of time are $222.79, $331.74, and $470.77 in order of low, mid, and high. Adding the direct travel cost ($35.00 yields a per-submission total cost of $257.79, $366.74, and 505.77, in order.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Multiplying these total costs by the annual projected volumes (2,488) yields the accountancy for biometrics, as is presented in Table 12. Since the annualized amounts are the same for each FY, for purpose of brevity the single value terms are presented.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             For many form types, there are statutory or discretionary waivers to the biometrics services fee. In this case, such waivers are not likely and therefore the estimates assume all persons associated with the Form I-956H that will submit biometrics will also incur the service fee.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="139">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.046</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As reported, under the current volume projections, the costs to submitters involving the EB-5 program could range about $641,000 to $1.26 million annually, with a midpoint of $912,000.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             The increase in biometrics collection pertinent to the Form I-956H is not expected to generate substantial public sector burdens. The ASC contract and concomitant pricing structure is designed to be flexible in processing of varying benefit request volumes. Specifically, the ASC contract is aggregated by USCIS District, and each USCIS District has five volume bands within its pricing mechanism. (A USCIS district is a geographical area in which a district or field office provides immigration services in that area.) The pricing strategy takes advantage of economies of scale in that larger biometric processing volumes have smaller corresponding biometric processing prices. Prices could only rise on average if the volume of biometrics reaches a certain level, and the projections for additional biometrics made herein is nowhere close to reaching the band ceiling.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) Priority Date Retention</HD>
                    <P>DHS is proposing priority date retention to address situations in which petitioners may become ineligible through circumstances beyond their control (such as the termination of a regional center) as they wait for their immigrant visa priority date to become current; this provides investors with greater flexibility to deal with changes to business conditions. DHS proposes to allow certain immigrant investors to retain the priority date of an approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition for use in connection with any subsequent filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition on or after March 15, 2022.</P>
                    <P>Some investors might need to file new petitions due to circumstances beyond their control. For example, DHS might have terminated a regional center associated with the original petition and the regional center is unable or unwilling to take the necessary actions to remain eligible. DHS cannot predict at this time how many investors would refile—either under their own volition or reasons outside their control—but we can provide a proxy metric. There are 1,500 pending legacy Form I-526 petitions as of May 1, 2025 (by comparison, on March 15, 2022, the figure was 13,759). DHS will rely on this figure as a maximum population although the provision will not be limited to legacy filings. DHS believes this figure is reasonable because the population subject to the provision will remain relatively limited, especially as legacy Form I-526 petitions continue to move from pending to closed. DHS will evaluate this figure again at the final rule stage and welcomes public input concerning it.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS cannot assess exactly how many investors might be subject to the priority date provision, but for transparency and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40753"/>
                        completeness it will provide a range of monetized cost impacts. DHS will bound the population at zero and the maximum of 1,500, presented above. While a figure benchmarked to zero is not informative, it allows DHS to calculate a midpoint, which may be more realistic.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The filing fee for Form I-526/526E is currently $3,675. Additionally, a separate payment of $1,000 is required via the RIA for aliens filing the I-526E.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The time-related burden is 1.65 hours.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At the hourly wages developed in the above module, the opportunity costs of time range from $100.17 to $211.65. Adding the maximum (applicable to the Form I-526E) filing fees of $4,675 yields costs per submission that could range from $4,775.17 to $4,886.65. At the maximum population (1,500) the high-end cost per submission yields a monetized estimate of $7.33 million, and the midpoint of this maximum and zero is $3.66 million. As stated, DHS cannot predict how many investors might be impacted by the retention provision and invites public input on the subject.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             See G-1055, USCIS Fee Schedule, Form I-526E, Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor, at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/g-1055?form=i-526e.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             See Form I-526E form instructions at: USCIS, Form I-526E, “Instructions for Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor” OMB No. 1615-0026 
                            <E T="03">(expires Mar. 31, 2027), https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/forms/i-526einstr.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS assumes that most of the priority date retention cases would be incurred in the first year of the rule, but since it is possible for investors to utilize this provision in the future, we extend the impact to all years to provide a maximum annual estimate and invite public input on this provision.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) Rule Familiarization</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS expects that there will be familiarization costs associated with reading and reviewing this rule. While DHS cannot make precise estimates of such costs, we will provide a possible range based on several factors. For a wage range, DHS assumes that the rule would be reviewed by human resource assistants within a company or attorneys. The mean wage for a Human Resources Assistant (non-payroll and time keeping) is $24.50 and the fully loaded wage rate is $35.77. On the high end, the average hourly wage for lawyers is $87.86, and for outsourced attorneys, we utilize a higher multiplier of 2.5, which yields an hourly rate of $219.65.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             See Final Small Entity Impact Analysis, ICE “Safe-Harbor Procedures for Employers Who Receive a No-Match Letter” for the basis of the multiplier of 2.5 to convert in-house attorney wages to the cost of outsourced attorney based on information received in public comment to that rule: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/ICEB-2006-0004-0922,</E>
                             page G-4.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             The average hourly wage for Lawyers, $87.86 The wage reflects the May 2024 data published by the U.S. Department of Labor, BLS National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates Release at: May 2024 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates (
                            <E T="03">bls.gov</E>
                            ). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ocwage_04022025.htm</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        According to the research entity 
                        <E T="03">Wordsrated,</E>
                         adults read between 200 and 300 words per minute on average.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The current draft comprises approximately 107,340 words, which would generate readings times of between 357.8 and 536.7 minutes, which translate to 5.96 and 8.95 hours. At the low-end time (5.96 hours) and low-end wage ($35.77 for a Human Resource Assistant), the familiarization cost per case could be $213.31 and at the high-end wage ($219.65 for an outsourced attorney) and time (8.95 hours), the familiarization cost could be $1,964.77. To monetize the impact DHS assumes that in the first effective year of the rule, existing and new entities would review the rule, while in subsequent years, only new entities would review it. There are currently 589 designated regional centers, 3,040 NCEs, and 1,948 JCE, for a total of 5,577 current businesses. For future entities, we can rely on the annual volume of regional centers (160, Table 8) and NCEs proxied by the Form 1-526 and I-526E (4,772, Table 8, derived). DHS cannot predict the volume of JCEs, and there is not a one-to-one mapping between any two of regional centers, investors, NCEs, and JCEs; however, if we rely on the current ratio of JCEs to NCEs (1,948/3,040 = 1,948 = .641), we can extrapolate to projected NCEs to obtain a figure of estimated of 3,059. Drawing on the above figures, in the first year of rule 13,568 entities would incur familiarization costs while in other years 7,991 would incur such costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             See Wordsrated, “Reading Speed Statistics,” by Dimitrije Curcic (Nov. 8, 2021), at: 
                            <E T="03">https://wordsrated.com/reading-speed-statistics/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Based on the volumes and range for the per-entity costs, in the first-year monetized rule familiarization costs could range from $2.89 million to $26.66 million, with a midpoint of $14.78 million. In other years the costs could range from $1.70 million to $15.70 million, with a midpoint of $8.70 million. DHS recognizes that the range provided is large, but presents it based on likely variation in the factors utilized and solicits public input on rule familiarization costs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(5) Audits and Site Visits</HD>
                    <P>
                        With the increased requirements specified by the RIA, DHS is proposing numerous criteria to create sufficient incentives for EB-5 business entities to meet compliance standards. While the Department believes that regional centers are best equipped to establish their own best practices to ensure monitoring and oversight necessary to ensure project success and a continuing designation as a regional center, DHS is planning an expansion of audits and site visits in both number, frequency, and scope. The proposed rule would allow USCIS to perform a site visit to any designated regional center after providing at least 24 hours of notice and to any new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity at any time. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.429. In addition, on or after March 15, 2024, USCIS must conduct a site visit to the relevant new commercial enterprise or business location identified in the regional center application before adjudicating any associated petition to remove conditions (where the petition to remove conditions is based on an underlying petition for classification filed on or after enactment of the RIA). 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS proposes that such a site visit may be conducted in-person, or, at USCIS' discretion, through web or teleconferencing means in coordination with the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity. For purposes of RIA, site visits may include a review of open-source, commercial or proprietary databases to verify evidence submitted to USCIS by the petitioner. The proposed regulation also states that if USCIS is unable to verify facts related to an investment or particular investment offering (project), including due to the failure or refusal of an entity participating in the EB-5 Program to cooperate in a site visit, then the lack of verification of pertinent facts, including from failure or refusal to cooperate, may result in termination of a designated regional center or debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity that is the subject of a site visit. DHS believes that the expansion of site visits would create incentives to meet compliance and there are costs expected to the public sector.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS cannot predict with accuracy the scope of the costs applicable to increased regional center audits and site visits of project locations. However, we can provide some limited data and qualitative discussion to inform situational awareness for the public based on existing information from the Administrative Site Visit and Verification Program that began in 2009. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40754"/>
                        From FY 2016 through FY 2021, we analyzed site visit records for 438 physical site visits to entities associated with regional centers and stand-alone entities (the standalones comprised both NCEs and JCEs but are not uniquely parsed out in our data). The visits were conducted by officers assigned to the USCIS Field Operations Directorate. Review of evidence and related administrative effort is conducted by IPO office staff as well as USCIS Fraud Detection and National Security Directorate personnel. Most of the visits were performed by one officer, but a little less than a third (31.8 percent) involved two officers and a small share (2.7 percent) were conducted by three officers. The time spent during each visit involves the commute time to and from the site, plus the time spent on-site conducting the visit. The average time spent was 14.8 hours (in total, for all officers involved) and the median time was a little lower at 12.6 hours and ranged substantially from about 2.0 to 68.0 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>It is important for DHS to emphasize that all site visits were based on a random process—in no case was there a predication sourced to evidence, data, or the outcome of adjudications applicable to the visited entities. In the records analyzed, the data captured the general outcome of the visit in terms of whether the entity was “operating as expected” or “not operating as expected.” Table 13 presents the breakdown of the two entity types and broad outcome.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="119">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.047</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Generally, a determination of “operating as expected” sources initial compliance based on the site visit. As is shown, a little less than three-quarters (71.9 percent) of NCEs associated with regional centers were compliant while a smaller share of those associated with stand-alone entities were, at just over half (54.4 percent). Overall, about two-thirds were deemed initially compliant.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             One regional center visit was marked as “no contact,” which we included not operating as expected.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Once the visit is completed, the findings, which can involve interview notes and transcripts, photographs, document retrieval or copies of documents, and officer input, are reviewed by a supervisory immigration services officer who may share the findings with additional management for decisions on courses of action to take, if any. On average, it took 73 days for the total process—from the date of the visit to a supervisory determination concerning the potential need for further action. We do not have metrics of the total time spanning the visit to when actions, if taken, were completed.</P>
                    <P>In the future, DHS expects to conduct at least 1,000 site visits to NCEs and JCEs annually to include more virtual visits and direct participation from IPO staff in physical project site visits. Approximately half of these visits to NCEs are currently being done virtually. In FY 2021, DHS began a process of virtual checks and audits of program entities. In that year, 183 virtual checks of NCEs were conducted of which 70, or about 38.0 percent, resulted in a determination of compliance. While the virtual screenings were also random, those determined to be compliant were deemed to not need a physical site visit. In FY 2024, 965 site visits were conducted at NCEs, 599 (62%) of which were completed virtually. Going forward, DHS will still rely on a randomized process for some site visits but will expand its use of virtual initial checks to screen for initial compliance that can be utilized to determine that a physical site visit is generally not required.</P>
                    <P>
                        As it relates to the expanded use of audit and site visits, there will be public sector costs and costs to EB-5 businesses. DHS does not have sufficient data and information to make definitive estimates of the impacts but can provide a potential range for some of them. Foremost, the expansion will create the need for more personnel and training (such as interview techniques), and additional costs applicable to records keeping and review. We do not account for these separately because they would be generally embodied in the staffing model costs estimated in an above section. However, it is reasonable to account for the time and travel of DHS personnel as an impact. Based on the data DHS analyzed we will utilize a high-low range from several inputs and derive a midpoint directly from it. From the data, DHS believes it is reasonable to utilize the lower and upper quartile figures for the commuting time and onsite time for officers. The total commuting time is 1.0 and 3.5 hours, in order, and the average commuting speed is 25.51 miles per hour,
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which generates mileage of 25.51 and 89.29, in order. At the GSA POV rate of .70 per mile, direct travel costs are $17.86 and $62.50 in order.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Highway Administration, National Household Travel Survey (2022). Source: Table 7-4, “Commute Patterns by Mode of Transportation,” report dated Jan. 2024, available at the following portal: 
                            <E T="03">https://nhts.ornl.gov/.</E>
                             The figure utilized applies to CY 2022 and reflects all modes of transportation for both rural and urban areas.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The range of total officer hours per visit is 2 to 7.2. Based on the pay range for a GS-13 officer at the higher federal benefits multiplier, loaded annual earnings of $172,260 and $223,926 yield hourly rates of $82.82 and $107.66, in order at 2080 annual hours.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The resulting costs of time could range from $165.63 to $775.13, which when added to the direct travel costs yield public sector costs per inspection that could range from $183.49 to $837.63. As DHS plans more virtual inspections, we bound the number of site visits from 500 to 750. At this range the public sector costs applicable to physical site visits 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40755"/>
                        could range from $91,746 to $628,222 annually, with a midpoint of $359,984.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             The low-end salary was developed in the above staffing model; to recapture, it is the low-end GS-13 salary ($88,250) scaled by a factor of 1.946 to account jointly for federal worker benefits and locality pay.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For the entities visited, there are likely to be impacts as well. Foremost, there could be time and resources expended to prepare and organize documents for the visits. There could be an impact to income and productivity if operations receive a notice of noncompliance as a result of the site visit. DHS utilizes the PRA response burden for site inspections of 16.0 hours, which at 1,000 annual inspections at the wage range of $60.71 to $128.28, yields cost of $971,309 to $2,052,410. Adding the public and private costs yield a range from $1,063,055 to $2,680,631, with a midpoint of $1,871,843.</P>
                    <P>Based on the PRA response for the Form I-956G audit, at 24 hours, we estimate a cost to a regional center for the audit. At 589 approved regional centers, under the assumption that all regional centers could be audited each year, the low-end cost of audits could be $858,151, which is the number of audits (589) multiplied by the low-end wage ($60.71) and multiplied by the burden (24 hours). The high-end figure calculated along the same lines could be $1,813,304, with a midpoint of $1,335,728. DHS notes these costs could be higher if a regional center hires an auditor. USCIS requests comments on the costs of a site visit to a regional center.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Unquantified Impacts</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Infrastructure and Rural Projects</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RIA reserves two percent of EB-5 visas available annually for investments in qualifying infrastructure projects. DHS generally expects qualifying infrastructure projects to involve the maintenance, improvement, or construction of any physical assets that are designed to provide or support services to the general public through projects in sectors generally identified by relevant laws, regulations, and executive orders, including aviation, broadband internet, drinking water infrastructure, electricity transmission, energy production and generation, pipelines, ports (including navigational channels), stormwater and sewer infrastructure, surface transportation (including roadways, bridges, railroads, and transit), and water resources projects. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.401, 
                        <E T="03">Infrastructure Project.</E>
                         DHS cannot predict how many investments will involve infrastructure projects. There may be some additional costs incurred by applicants in gathering and preparing documentation to support the evidentiary requirements appropriate to the criteria set forth in the preamble.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, 20 percent of the EB-5 immigrant visas otherwise available in any given fiscal year are reserved for investors in a rural area. The set asides may create incentives that could stimulate investment into rural and infrastructure projects, which would benefit areas that may be lacking capital investment. Currently DHS has no way of estimating the scope of such impacts and welcomes public input on the subject.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) High Unemployment Areas</HD>
                    <P>
                        Before the RIA, DHS had historically relied on State government entities to identify a high unemployment area and provide certification to an immigrant investor for submission to USCIS that the area qualified as a high unemployment area. The RIA now limits the high unemployment area designation determination to DHS. DHS proposes that USCIS would designate an area as a high unemployment area during the adjudication of the regional center's project application, or the adjudication of a standalone investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as appropriate. The RIA provides that a high unemployment area may consist of a census tract or contiguous census tracts in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business (the “project tract(s)”) if the weighted average of the unemployment rate 
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for the tract or tracts is at least 150 percent above the national average. If the project tract(s) do not independently qualify under this analysis, a high unemployment area may also consist of the project tract(s), along with any or all additional tracts that are directly adjacent to the project tract(s), as long as the weighted average of the unemployment rate for all of the tracts in the identified area is at least 150 percent of the national average when compared using the same labor force employment measure for the census tract(s) and the national average rate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             The weighted average is obtained utilizing the total actual labor force population of each tract.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS cannot determine the proportion or number of projects concomitant to high unemployment areas that would not have met the proposed requirements. Such data or information is not currently available in a manner that can be queried for a valid statistical analysis. If a project could not meet the proposed criteria, several possibilities exist. Foremost, the project may not be undertaken. Second, the project might be relocated to a different location that does qualify as a high unemployment area. Third, the project may be allocated to a non-high unemployment area and be subject to the standard investment amount as opposed to the reduced one. Fourth, the project might be allocated to a different type of area or project-type—rural or infrastructure—that would qualify for the reduced investment amount. DHS notes that at present, it has begun seeing a shift into infrastructure projects and a slight shift out of high unemployment area projects, though it cannot provide data specific to these effects at present.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) Sanctions</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes regulatory provisions providing for the imposition of various sanctions, including suspensions, terminations, and debarments, against a regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, issuer of securities offered or intended to be offered to investors seeking classification under section 203(b)(5) of the INA and associated parties, including owners, promoters and others involved with such entities for violations (as discussed in section IV.H.8).</P>
                    <P>Therefore, DHS proposes that sanctions would be issued based on the severity of the violations of the INA and could include:</P>
                    <P>1. A Finding of Violation Notice that will provide notification of a violation of law or regulation, such as a cease-and-desist letter, and be included in the relevant USCIS record of proceeding;</P>
                    <P>2. Monetary penalties equal to not more than 10 percent of the total capital invested by immigrant investors in the regional center's new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities directly involved in such violations;</P>
                    <P>3. Suspension from participation in the EB-5 program, which may be in whole or in part;</P>
                    <P>4. Termination of a regional center's designation;</P>
                    <P>5. Debarment from participation in the EB-5 program for the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity; and</P>
                    <P>6. Debarment from participation in the EB-5 program for one or more persons associated with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, USCIS may take reasonable actions to collect information regarding a potential or suspected violation, to pursue remedial action, to deter future violations, and to ensure ongoing compliance with the EB-5 program before issuing a sanction. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed 8 CFR 204.431(e). For example, USCIS may issue warning letters when it becomes aware of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40756"/>
                        evidence of false statements, the involvement of ineligible individuals, impending actions taken by securities regulators, or the failure to pay required fees to avert or correct compliance concerns. The letter would also include any proposed sanction if the person or entity does not remedy the violation. Upon receipt of a sanction notice, the affected party could take action to comply with the sanction notice or file a motion to reopen or reconsider or appeal any final determination to the Administrative Appeals Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>Sanctions would generate costs to EB-5 entities, and there could be public sector costs involved in preparing, developing notices, and carrying out sanctions against EB-5 entities. The impact to EB-5 entities could sustain a direct and indirect component. Monetary sanction could pose a direct cost, while other sanctions could result in projects and investments being deferred or forgone. In addition, appeals of sanctions would incur time related preparation and administrative costs. DHS cannot predict how many EB-5 business entities are likely to incur sanctions, and the extent of any such sanctions. On the one hand, DHS cannot utilize compliance, audit, and site visit data to estimate sanctions; a finding of noncompliance or a problem of some type does not automatically generate a sanction, as entities could have time to remedy the infraction. Second, the potential for sanctions may provide an incentive for compliance.</P>
                    <P>DHS is seeking public input on the sanctions as it relates to costs, other impacts, and the appeal process.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) National Security and Fraud</HD>
                    <P>The RIA codifies reforms designed to enhance the integrity of the Regional Center Program and prevent fraud and abuse that have plagued the program. It provides vital integrity and national security reforms to the EB-5 program to better guard against abuse and promote program integrity. The RIA establishes new requirements of regional centers, NCEs, JCEs, and petitioners, and provides USCIS additional authorities that will allow USCIS to mitigate the risks the EB-5 program has encountered.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, the RIA provides new discretionary authorities to deny petitions, applications or benefits and revoke prior approvals if there is a threat to public safety or national security or a benefit request under the EB-5 program is based on or involves fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse. These authorities provide more tools for DHS to act on petitions or applications that involved threats to public safety or national security. Before the RIA, USCIS could not always timely terminate a regional center actively engaged in fraud to prevent larger losses to immigrant investors and bolster the ongoing integrity of the EB-5 program. The RIA now provides statutory authority for USCIS to deny or revoke applications, petitions or benefits under the EB-5 program (including termination or debarment), as applicable, if any participant in the EB-5 program presents any public safety or national security threat to the United States or is, or has, engaged in fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse.</P>
                    <P>Under this rule, for example, if USCIS determines that a person is acting on behalf of an authoritarian government or is, or has been, a member of, or affiliated with a Communist or any other totalitarian party (or subdivision or affiliate thereof), foreign or domestic, USCIS could deny, revoke, terminate or debar as applicable under the INA. Likewise, if USCIS determines, for example, that an immigrant investor or any other person involved with a regional center who, by fraud or willfully misrepresenting a material fact, seeks to procure, has sought to procure, or has procured, an immigrant visa or other documentation, such as in connection with an application for designation as a regional center, USCIS could deny, revoke, terminate or debar as applicable under the INA. With the new authorities provided by the RIA, DHS is proposing that USCIS may make a determination that a petition, application, or benefit request poses a threat to the public safety or national security of the United States with respect to any petition, application or benefit under the EB-5 program including those filed before the enactment of the RIA.</P>
                    <P>As a result of any such determination, USCIS would deny or revoke the approval of any petition, application, or benefit request, terminate the permanent resident status of an immigrant investor, whether conditional or not, and terminate and permanently debar any regional center, NCE, or JCE from participation in the Regional Center Program. In addition, USCIS would bar any person associated with these entities terminated from participation in the Regional Center Program if the person was a knowing participant in the activities that led USCIS to make the determination. Importantly, these determinations would apply to any application or petition submitted either before or after the enactment of the RIA. DHS believes the RIA provides USCIS the ability to remove individuals or organizations that are currently, or were previously, involved in the EB-5 program to preclude their ongoing involvement, where necessary. DHS believes the RIA allows USCIS to act when it is in the interest of national security, or the integrity of the EB-5 program to do so.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(5) Monitoring and Oversight</HD>
                    <P>The RIA requires an entity seeking designation as a regional center to include with its proposal a description of the policies and procedures that are in place and reasonably designed to monitor its NCEs and any associated JCEs, affiliated or otherwise, to ensure ongoing compliance with all applicable laws, regulations, and Executive Orders of the United States, including all immigration, criminal, and securities laws, as well as all securities laws of the State where any securities offerings will be conducted, investment advice will be given, or the offerors or offerees reside. DHS proposes that an entity seeking designation must submit evidence of these policies and procedures, and that evidence to establish sufficient oversight of the NCEs and any associated JCEs would include documentation of the regional center's internal controls that provide regular review of individual projects and the examination of financial records and any planned use of independent reviews by local third-party accountants or auditors. This evidence could include standard operating procedures developed by the regional center, ongoing audits of the NCEs and associated JCEs or requiring regular reporting and updates from the NCEs and any associated JCEs with which the regional center is offering EB-5 investments. DHS does not want to limit how a regional center can best determine how to oversee and monitor its projects. With the increased compliance requirements specified by the RIA, DHS believes there is sufficient incentive for regional centers to establish their own best practices to ensure monitoring and oversight necessary to ensure project success and a continuing designation with USCIS.</P>
                    <P>
                        Not only would a regional center need to provide a monitoring and oversight plan as part of the designation application, as explained above, but following designation, the regional center must continue to engage in monitoring and oversight of the investment offerings, business activities, and job creation of associated NCEs and JCEs. This continued monitoring and oversight requirement would ensure that the regional center is continuing to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40757"/>
                        perform its due diligence with respect to capital investments under its auspices and that pooled capital investments will have a substantive economic impact.
                    </P>
                    <P>As part of these oversight requirements, DHS proposes that a regional center would be required to establish its own ongoing internal controls to maintain effective control over capital received from regional center investors that provides reasonable assurance that the ongoing use of the capital complies with all applicable immigration laws, Federal and State securities laws, and the terms and conditions of the investments under the purview of the regional center. The regional center would need to submit documentation of any programs of internal controls that provide the regional center with regular reviews of individual projects and examination of financial records and any planned use of independent reviews by local third-party accountants or auditors.</P>
                    <P>DHS assesses that regional centers would need to devote time and resources preparing, organizing, and operationalizing a monitoring and oversight protocol for its affiliated businesses and investments. As part of such plans, costs may also be incurred from utilization of third-party accountants or auditors. However, DHS believes that the stringent evidentiary and monitoring requirements, along with punitive actions, would provide incentives for regional centers to establish and conduct thorough monitoring of affiliated businesses. DHS has partially quantified impacts associated with compliance, as pertinent to regional center audits, which is one part of the general increase in compliance requirements. DHS solicits public input regarding additional impacts related to monitoring and compliance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Total Impacts of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Monetized Total Impacts</HD>
                    <P>DHS has been able to make monetized estimates of the impacts applicable to several proposed actions, which are accounted for as costs. These are presented in Table 14, which first presents undiscounted impacts (Table 14A) followed by the impacts discounted at three and seven percent, in order. (Table 14B). The impacts are presented at a low-end, mid-range, and high-end bound and those applicable impacts to the public sector and to private program entities are parsed out.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40758"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.048</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40759"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.049</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40760"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.050</GID>
                    </GPH>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="40761"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.051</GID>
                    </GPH>
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                        <GID>EP02JY26.052</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>As is reported in Table 14, on an undiscounted basis, 10-year average monetized impacts could range from about $40.72 million to $88.87 million, with a mid-range estimate of $64.76 over the 10-year period of FY 2024 through FY 2033. At a three percent discount rate the annualized impacts could range from approximately $39.90 million to $87.36 million, with a midpoint of $63.59 million. At a seven percent discount rate, the annualized impacts could range from approximately $38.80 million to $85.39 million, with a midpoint of $62.06 million. Table 15 also reports total ten-year monetized impacts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Other Unquantified Impacts</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes that a regional center would not be able to rely on an economic model that uses visitor spending as an input to demonstrate qualifying jobs. Visitor spending purports to calculate jobs based on increased ancillary spending by visitors and tourists because of the underlying EB-5 project. An example is the increased off-site spending at restaurants, entertainment, and transportation venues purportedly arising from construction of a new hotel. DHS believes that causal linkage between visitor spending and an EB-5 project cannot be demonstrated through economic modeling. Modeling techniques, such as traditional input-output models and regression, cannot delineate the portion of visitor spending increase attributable to an EB-5 project as opposed to other sources or causes. The economic impact of visitor spending cannot be definitively attributed to the EB-5 project, as those resources might have been directed toward other activities or projects that could have generated similar spending increases.</P>
                    <P>DHS is proposing to remove the troubled business provisions from its regulations. Historically, less than one percent of petitions received by USCIS sought to qualify through investment in a troubled business, and these provisions typically were not used by regional center investors. Further, the troubled business provisions do not further job creation in the sense that an immigrant investor's infusion of capital is not actually used to create new employment in the United States; rather it is contributed to an existing troubled business with existing employment for which investors may claim credit for preserved jobs. Finally, the current definition looks at net loss as a percentage of net worth (requiring a net loss of at least 20% compared to net worth), which is unworkable for a business with a negative net worth (where liabilities exceed assets) as the calculation of a positive net loss compared to negative net worth would result in a negative percentage and would not meet the requirement in the regulatory definition despite a negative net worth by itself being a potentially independent and relevant indicator of the troubled nature of the business.</P>
                    <P>DHS also proposes to eliminate the job-sharing arrangements from the definition of full-time employment. Few petitions have used such job-sharing arrangements to establish eligibility and those that do frequently are determined to be combining part-time positions rather than using multiple employees to fill one position. Additionally, DHS believes this provision does not further the program's objective of creating full-time employment.</P>
                    <P>A cost-savings would likely accrue to regional center investors in new commercial enterprises not having to submit multiple project-level documentation to establish his or her eligibility. If USCIS determined the evidence was insufficient, USCIS would request additional evidence from each regional center investor. Since the evidence was at the project level, the investor likely had to coordinate with the regional center to provide a response. DHS proposes to codify its post-RIA practice that, with the establishment of a project application, USCIS will review project-level evidence during the project application adjudication and communicate directly with the regional center if any evidence is determined to be insufficient. Once any issues are resolved at the project level and USCIS adjudicates the project application, USCIS would then rely on that adjudication to determine a regional center investor's eligibility related to the project level-requirements, such as job creation and whether the investment is in a high unemployment area. Since USCIS would not be reviewing multiple, duplicitous documents, there could be a public sector cost-savings as well. DHS invites public input on these types of savings, as the Department cannot currently quantify them.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Clarifying Definitions and Procedural Updates</HD>
                    <P>In addition to the proposals that DHS has presented and for which DHS has discussed potential impacts thus far, there are an extensive number of proposals that focus on procedural and technical adjustments to various aspects of the program in order to support the implementation of the RIA. Generally, there are four types of technical modifications. First, there are numerous technical amendments and miscellaneous adjustments to specific words that DHS believes would improve readability of the provisions. Second, there are modifications to references applicable to forms with some updated terminology. These two types of changes are non-substantive and pose no changes to eligibility or evidentiary requirements. While DHS does not believe there will be economic impacts sustained by them, it invites public input concerning any possible impacts</P>
                    <P>A third type of change applies to codifying, updating, and clarifying definitions and requirements in order to align DHS regulations with specific language and intent in the RIA. DHS believes that impacts will accrue to reading and understanding these codifications but does not account for them separately because they are likely to be ensconced in the already accounted-for (quantified) rule familiarization costs. DHS does not rule out that there may be some time and effort required by EB-5 entities to make changes to documentation to align with the modified definitions but does not expect substantial impacts to investments or job creation from them. DHS cannot estimate these potential time-related efforts and seeks public comment regarding them. A list of the areas subject to definitional updates are provided in Table 15.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="567">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40763"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.053</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>The fourth type of technical change changes involves DHS proposing specific requirements and amendments to support actions promulgated in the RIA. It is noted that any of the topic areas listed in Table 16 can incur any or all of the four types of technical adjustments, but this fourth type covers increased reporting or evidentiary requirements (these requirements are outside the scope of monitoring and compliance, as those requirements have been elucidated in their respective section). DHS does not detail all of them, as is done in the preamble, but summarizes them below.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Extend provisions in the current regulations that require investors in a new commercial enterprise to identify any additional capital invested in the new commercial enterprise and establish that all additional capital is lawful; USCIS would request additional evidence where there is reason to believe that the capital identified has not been derived by lawful means.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40764"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• DHS proposes to modify its post-RIA policy to require (rather than suggest) that the investment would also have to remain at risk and available to the job-creating entity on the date the investor files his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition</P>
                    <P>• USCIS would be able to require a regional center to submit any additional information to support its annual statement if USCIS determines the regional center's annual statement is insufficient.</P>
                    <P>• The regional center would also have to submit evidence of sufficient job creation for each regional center investor that will be investing in the new commercial enterprise. This would typically be provided in an EIA showing that the project will create full-time employment for at least 10 qualifying employees per regional center investor within the timeline identified in the comprehensive business plan.</P>
                    <P>• DHS proposes requiring a regional center to rely on an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology in which model outputs are reproducible and all the inputs and any adjustments to the model are fully explained in the project application.</P>
                    <P>• DHS proposes requiring a regional center to submit an amendment to its project application within at least 90 days prior to the first regional center investor in that particular investment offering becoming eligible to file a petition to remove conditions; a regional center must amend its project application within 30 days of the change where there may be an impact to the eligibility of any regional center investors that have already filed their EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as well as any regional center investors that may seek to file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition based on the particular investment offering identified in the project application.</P>
                    <P>• DHS proposes that a regional center would have to file an amendment if there are changes to the expenditure of capital or capital structure reflected in any business plan submitted in connection with the previously approved project application in response to or otherwise materially impacting the credibility or viability of such plans or successful execution of projects that in turn could adversely impact eligibility for associated investors, including, but not limited to, payments to parties related to the business plan and the loss of financing or addition of outside financing from sources not previously identified in the approved project application or otherwise obtained from any source other than a federally regulated bank or other financial institution.</P>
                    <P>• DHS proposes to amend the current regulations relating to the required evidence to accompany the petition to remove conditions. The purpose of these proposed changes is to require a more specific list of evidentiary items that, based on the adjudications experience of USCIS, is more likely to be probative in establishing whether the investor has met the eligibility requirements to have the conditions on his or her permanent residence removed</P>
                    <P>• As part of the evidentiary requirements for regional center investors to remove the conditions on their residence, DHS proposes requiring a regional center to submit an amendment to its project application at least 90 days prior to the first regional center investor in that particular investment offering becoming eligible to file a petition to remove conditions.</P>
                    <P>• In addition to the above proposal, DHS is requiring more thorough evidence and documentation applicable to sources and lawfulness of capital, geographic scope of economic activity, high-unemployment areas, and job creation estimation methods.</P>
                    <P>There would likely be time-related and organizational costs that could accrue to updating business plans, economic models, and other activities to align practice with the changes; practitioners would need to expend time and possibly resources to generate and submit documents; there may also be timing changes with respect to when certain petitions or documentation is submitted to DHS; DHS cannot estimate these costs but at present does not expect them to be large; DHS does not expect a change in investment volume due to changes in these areas.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Benefits of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>DHS believes that the proposed rule will generate benefits. It will provide key operational and procedural practices to implement the RIA and enact key and needed changes to the EB-5 program. By including extensive clarifying definitions, technical adjustments, new and stringent evidentiary standards, DHS provides a cohesive, reasonable, and transparent approach towards implementation of the amendments the RIA made to the EB-5 program through this proposed rule and current operational and policy guidance for regional centers, regional center investors, standalone investors, as well as the public and other stakeholders.</P>
                    <P>The biometrics submission requirement operationalizes a requirement of the RIA and equips DHS with identity verification and management. The increase in USCIS staffing would allow DHS to meet the operational changes needed to support the RIA and concomitant requirements proposed in this proposed rule. Expanded site visits and audits would increase assurance that regional centers and other program businesses are engaged in appropriate practices; increased virtual checks would create efficiency in determining if initial screening compliance is met, in some cases a physical inspection might not be necessary. Proposed changes to the High Unemployment Target Area Configuration will stand to provide a more reasonable methodology and protocol to accurately gauge job creation estimates to the actual investment project activity.</P>
                    <P>The proposed increase in regional center monitoring and oversight of the investment offerings, business activities, and job creation of associated new commercial enterprises and job creating activities would provide increased assurance that the ongoing use of the capital complies with all applicable immigration laws, Federal and State securities laws, and the terms and conditions of the investments under the regional center. Regional Centers would be directed to develop a screening and monitoring and oversight plan as part of the designation application, whereby the regional center must engage in monitoring and oversight of the investment offerings, business activities, and job creation of associated NCEs and JCEs. The continued monitoring and oversight requirement will ensure that the regional center is continuing to perform its due diligence with respect to capital investments under its auspices and that pooled capital investments will have a substantive economic impact. As part of the oversight requirements, regional centers will be required to establish their own ongoing internal controls to maintain effective control over capital received from investors.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule also reforms key economic methodologies applicable to the geographic scope of economic activity and high unemployment areas that increase the reasonableness of how these areas are configured in terms of job creating activity. It also removes outdated and unnecessary approaches to estimating and measuring job creation. DHS cannot currently estimate impacts effects determine if there will be impacts due to these changes but welcomes public comment on how job creation estimates could be affected.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule also provides flexibility to investors. It addresses situations in which petitioners may 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40765"/>
                        become ineligible through circumstances beyond their control (for example, the termination of a regional center) as they wait for their EB-5 immigrant visa priority date to become current. Further, the proposed rule also provides investors with greater flexibility to deal with changes to business conditions. Similarly, ensuring the termination of a regional center would not impact the individual's petition date and would allow them to submit a new petition. This would give the potential investors additional security.
                    </P>
                    <P>As it pertains to national security and fraud, the proposed rule equips DHS with a suite of detection and actionable tools to combat national security threats and fraud pertinent to areas of concern that the EB-5 program has encountered; potential sanctions should act as an incentive for compliance to reduce threats and stand to increase the program effectiveness in creating domestic jobs and increase assurance that the activities of the program align with its true intent. It is also possible that by reducing fraud and malfeasance, this proposed rule may have the potential to encourage more investors by lowering their risk of financial loss.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Summary and Conclusion</HD>
                    <P>In concluding this analysis, DHS notes that it cannot predict if this proposed rule will change the volume of EB-5 investments, the total capital associated with such investments, the types of industries and activities that the investment is geared toward, or the geographic focus of investment, and welcomes public comment on all impacts and degree of such impacts. Furthermore, DHS does not know if there will be impacts to domestic capital investment and job creation. EB-5 investment activity can be influenced by domestic and international economic conditions, international capital availability (and constraints), and business trends, as well as immigration-related factors. These “exogenous” factors and their influence on the EB-5 program are not possible to predict with accuracy, and it would not be possible to parse them out from any “endogenous” factors due to this proposed rule. Additionally, DHS cannot use the volume projections to make inferences concerning job creation. DHS evaluates submitted evidence to determine the reasonableness of estimated job creation from regional centers and investors at the time of filing, and then again at the removal of conditions stage. DHS does not conduct its own parallel modelling to attempt to estimate or measure job creation and compare them to submitted projections.</P>
                    <P>Foremost, the increased monitoring, oversight, and stringent evidentiary requirements should provide incentives for practitioners to adhere to the true intent and purpose of the program and, along with the suite of punitive actions explained herein, to avoid such detrimental actions explained herein. Second, the rule does not regulate capital or restrict program investment. Rather, it increases judiciousness and evidentiary requirements to provide assurance the program activity is aligned with its true intent in a legal, transparent, and reasonable manner.</P>
                    <P>As was described in the analysis, in addition to the monetized impacts accruing to the filing of new forms, biometrics submissions, and integrity fund fees, we believe that most of the impacts to EB-5 businesses and involved individuals would accrue to time and effort in two broad ways. Foremost such impacts would be required to satisfy the proposed evidentiary requirements as well as increased compliance and oversight. Second, there could be impacts incurred due to procedural adjustments and methodologies that could require modifications to business plans and economic forecasts. We fully acknowledge that some previous TEA geographical configurations would potentially not meet the proposed changes to the geography, but this is not alone sufficient to suggest investments will decline, as there could be substitution into a different location or into one of the other reduced-threshold categories of projects.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA) (Pub. L. 104-121, tit. II, 110 Stat. 847 (5 U.S.C. 601 note), requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small businesses, small governmental jurisdictions, and small organizations during the development of their rules. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             A small business is defined as any independently owned and operated business not dominant in its field that qualifies as a small business per the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS has reviewed this proposed regulation in accordance with the RFA. As is explained in the regulatory impact analysis, DHS has monetized certain types of impacts and qualitatively discussed others in which monetized estimates were not possible. In addition, there are an extensive number of proposals involving clarifying definitions, procedural requirements, and technical amendments for which DHS cannot determine how EB-5 entities will be impacted.</P>
                    <P>There are four types of entities that we evaluated in terms of the RFA as it pertains to the EB-5 program and the proposed rule: (1) regional centers; (2) NCEs; (3) JCEs; and (4) investors. DHS determined that the investors in the program are individuals who willingly choose to invest their capital in the program and are not considered small entities for purposes of the RFA. An “individual” is not defined by the RFA as a small entity and costs to an individual from a rule are not considered for RFA purposes. As a result of this determination, individuals are not covered in this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), and we focus this on the business components pertinent to the EB-5 program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Description of the Reasons Why the Action by the Agency Is Being Considered</HD>
                    <P>The changes being proposed are necessary to implement the provisions of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 (referred to as the “RIA” in the preceding economic analysis), signed by the President on March 15, 2022, which substantially reforms and adds significant integrity provisions to the EB-5 program for immigrant investors and the associated Regional Center Program. The proposed rule is necessary to clarify and codify how DHS will implement and make operational the changes provided by the RIA and provides additional guidance to the public and stakeholders regarding specific requirements for the EB-5 program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Succinct Statement of the Objectives and Legal Basis of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The objective of this proposed rule is for DHS to revise its regulations such that they align with the RIA and address the vacatur of the EB-5 Modernization Final Rule, as is discussed more fully in the preamble. To effectively and clearly revise the regulations based on the provisions of the RIA, DHS proposes to remove and reserve section 204.6 of title 8 of the CFR and create a new Subpart 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40766"/>
                        D to section 204 of title 8 of the CFR.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This new subpart will not only provide a clear distinction between the requirements for an EB-5 immigrant visa before and after the RIA, but will also provide DHS with an opportunity to clearly establish regulations for the EB-5 program going forward, including the Regional Center Program, such that stakeholders can determine the eligibility and filing requirements for all aspects of the EB-5 program. The changes being proposed stand to add integrity and transparency to the EB-5 program by providing DHS a suite of tools to combat fraud, to reform key areas of the EB-5 program, and by providing clear guidance to immigrant investors and the associated business entities concerning various aspects of the EB-5 program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             To review the appropriate version of the regulations, readers should refer to section 204.6 prior to November 21, 2019, the effective date of the EB-5 Modernization Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Secretary of Homeland Security's authority for the regulatory amendments is found in various provisions of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         Act of October 6, 1992, Public Law 102-395, 106 Stat. 1828, Act of November 2, 2002, Public Law 107-274, 116 Stat. 1923, and the HSA, Public Law 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135, 6 U.S.C. 101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         General authority for issuing this proposed rule is found in section 103(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103(a), which authorizes the Secretary to administer and enforce the immigration and nationality laws, including establishing regulations deemed necessary to carry out that authority, as well as section 102 of the HSA, 6 U.S.C. 112, which vests all the functions of DHS in the Secretary and authorizes the Secretary to issue regulations. Specific authority applicable for the proposed regulatory amendments are provided in Section II.B of the preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rule Will Apply</HD>
                    <P>A person wishing to immigrate to the United States under the EB-5 program files an Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor (Form I-526) or Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor (Form I-526E), containing information about his or her investment. The investment must be made into either a NCE within a designated regional center in accordance with the Regional Center Program or a “standalone” NCE outside of the Regional Center Program. A regional center is a business entity in the United States designated by DHS based on a proposal for the promotion of economic growth in a particular geographic area, including prospective job creation and increased domestic capital investment. A regional center will pool the capital of multiple investors together and arrange them typically as investments in NCEs under the purview of the regional center. The NCE may create jobs directly (required for non-regional center investments) or serve as a source of funding for separate JCEs (allowable for regional center investments).</P>
                    <P>
                        We cannot provide a precise assessment of the number of small entities that could be impacted by the proposed changes; nor can the Department determine what such impacts might be to small entities involved in the program or how they might respond to them. EB-5 investment and business structures tend to be complex and involve multiple layers of business and financial activity. The Department has limited information and data to support a small entity analysis. However, based on data that is available, we can provide some criteria for an initial assessment. As noted above, we are not considering investors under the purvey of the RFA. Further, neither the amount of a typical individual investment itself—which is the reduced required minimum investment amount of $800,000—nor the pool of total investment capital, is appropriate to consider as income for this assessment.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         With these two caveats, we first assess the regional centers and then proceed to other, non-regional center EB-5 businesses.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             DHS is operating under the assumption most investment projects will accrue to the reduced amount of $800,000. As is discussed in the preceding economic analysis, from FY 2016 through FY 2021, 97.4 percent of investments were made at the reduced level. While there is no guarantee that the same percentage will apply to the future, at this time the Department does not have evidence to suggest it would be substantially smaller. As is discussed in the accompanying analysis, the proposed changes to high-unemployment geographies may mean that some projects might not qualify for the high-unemployment threshold, but this does not necessarily mean that they would not qualify for the reduced amount, as they could potentially substitute into a rural or infrastructure project. DHS welcomes public input on this subject.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Regional Centers</HD>
                    <P>
                        It is the assessment of the Department that regional centers will generally earn income through three primary mechanisms. First, they charge investors an administrative fee earmarked to expenses for marketing and operations pertinent to the investment offering. It may also cover expenses related to document preparation, legal oversight, and the economic analysis utilized to model and estimate impacts and job creation. This administrative fee has in the past been standard across regional centers at 10 percent of the individual investment amount; hence we rely on the typical percentage applied to most expected investments of $800,000 to gain an amount of $80,000 per investor as a baseline.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This reliance is justified on grounds that almost all EB-5 program activity has historically accrued to investments at the reduced threshold—which qualify for the current reduced investment requirement of $800,000 as opposed to the standard mount of $1,050,000.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For the period FY 2016 through FY 2021, there were 38,250 investments made under regional centers of which 38,197, or 99.8 percent, were made at the reduced amount (which was $500,000 over that period).
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             In the past the amount has been standard at 10 percent. There is the possibility that this could change, as administrative fees are now required to be paid from lawful funds, but at present, DHS does not have sufficient information on such changes and will update at the final rule stage if such data is available and purports a difference. The Department also invites public input on this topic.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             Target employment areas (TEA) that qualify for the reduced amount apply to either rural areas or to areas with unemployment rates at least 150 percent of the national average. DHS makes the determination that an investment qualifies for the reduced amount when the Investor files the I-526 form. Investor petitions therefore need to contain sufficient evidence that the location of the actual job creation project meets the standards for the reduced investment threshold. Additional information can be found at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/working-in-the-united-states/permanent-workers/employment-based-immigration-fifth-preference-eb-5/about-the-eb-5-visa-classification</E>
                             (last updated July 28, 2022). As a result of the 2022 Reform Act, the reduced investment threshold also applies to infrastructure investments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             Data source: USCIS C3, ELIS, Infact Database (Aug. 2, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Second, regional centers may also collect marketing, sales fees and other charges and income owed to arrangements with their affiliated NCEs and JCEs. Some regional centers provide information concerning these activities in their business plans or amendments submitted to DHS, but it is not required, and DHS does not have sufficient official data on this source of income to support an analysis. Third, they may earn residual income. They may capture income accruing to differential on the terms of the loans they bundle and what is returned to investors. There may be return on investment in the forms of profit from the end-state economic activity being promulgated by the loans through the JCE. Some of this return on investment may be split with other business entities involved, but DHS does not have an adequate amount of data involving interest or profit accruing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40767"/>
                        to regional centers to assess this type of income.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             Another reason that is difficult to assess income to RCs that may accrue to the downstream projects, is that the affiliated NCE could be set up as limited partnership, and the RC loan income accrues to a general partner that may not be the RC itself. Stated differently, there can be a degree of separation in linking the RC and its residual income.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To conduct the IRFA analysis, DHS utilized the 640 
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         currently approved regional centers by running their respective names in subscription based open-source business data providers to obtain income information on them. The search yielded 339 record matches that included an income figure and a North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code. The income data point provided is deemed “sales revenue” and it is our assessment that the income reported in these data are most likely revenue attributed to sales fees, marketing, and other related charges involved, and neither the administrative fees charged to investors or profits on loans or investment. While the sample size of 339 is more than sufficient to satisfy a 95 percent level of confidence pursuant to the population size (640), the results pose a constraint. The NAICS codes are provided at the six-digit detailed industry level, but half the entities (173, or 51.0 percent) reported code 999990, which benchmarks “Non-Classifiable Establishments.” There is thus no Small Business Administration (SBA) size standard to weigh against to ascertain small entity status.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result, there would only be 166 entities to support an analysis. To attempt to mitigate this shortcoming, DHS extended the search query for regional centers s approved from FY 2020 through FY 2022. From the matches, we culled the results to remove duplicates from the initial search result batch (the 339 of the 640 current regional center s), plus records that did not include both or either of a NAICS code (including non-classifiable) or a sales figure. This cleansing process yielded 32 additional entities, which when added to the 166 initial valid matches, resulted in 198 entities. This figure is still below the optimal sample size of 241, but the charge to precision is not overly debilitating, as the margin of error is 5.8 percent instead of the desired 5.0 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, “Approved EB-5 Immigration Investor Regional Centers” as of February 12, 2025. There are now 547 approved regional centers. See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/working-in-the-united-states/permanent-workers/employment-based-immigration-fifth-preference-eb-5/eb-5-immigrant-investor-regional-centers/approved-eb-5-immigrant-investor-regional-centers</E>
                             (last accessed June 2, 2025). Data received at the time of drafting the economic analysis reflected in the Administrative Record, USCIS used 640 annually approved regional centers. USCIS will update the numbers, for the economic and small entity analysis, in the final rule stage.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             In addition to the NAICS code and concomitant industry, the data providers also can provide a “business description” based on their assessment of the business. For the non-classifiable entities, there were no additional information provided that could be useful in making an industry inference.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As we will discuss, out of necessity of the constraints faced, we will conduct the assessment along several different and unconventional paths. Hence, Table 16 presents metrics for both the “full” sample group (339 currently approved regional centers that are both classifiable and non-classifiable plus the 32 records obtained in the ancillary search) as well as the “restricted” (classifiable-only) group.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="165">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.054</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40768"/>
                    <P>
                        The differences captured as the medians being below the means are indicative of non-normal, positively skewed data structures in which a small number of large values exert disproportionate weight on the means, as is further indicated by the extreme ranges. As is seen in Table 16, there are also differences between the means and the medians across the two sample-groups.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             There is a caveat to relying on the number of Form I-526 filings as a proxy for RC investors. Some individual investors may file more than on Form I-526, which could arise when an initial investment filing is denied for some reason or is not undertaken and a new investment under the RC is promulgated. DHS does not know if the RC would collect an additional administrative fee under this scenario, so it is possible that the basing such fee revenue on the number of investor petitions under their purview may overstate this revenue.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Having tractable data on sales revenue, we turn to the next income source, administrative fees charged to investors. To conduct this module of the assessment, we queried internal DHS EB-5 data repositories to obtain the number of investors the regional centers acquired during the same timeframe as the above module. To obtain the number of investors, we proxy the number of investors via the number of Form-I-526 filings submitted under the purview of the regional center.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                         Key statistics applicable to investors are provided in Table 17:
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="173">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.055</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As was the case with regional center sales revenue, the substantial differences between the means and medians, as well as the extreme range, demonstrate that the number of investors per-regional center is also a non-normal distribution that is positively skewed.</P>
                    <P>
                        We multiply the number of investors by a standard $80,000 fee to capture an estimate of total administrative fees by regional center. We add this figure to sales revenue found in the subscription-based data. In addition, USCIS announced, and is collecting currently, the required collection of integrity fund payments, which will resource fraud, misuse, and criminal activity investigations.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS cannot rule out the possibility that regional centers will pass the integrity fund fees onto the investors as well. For regional centers with 20 or fewer investors, we included the $10,000 fee and for those with more than 20 investors, we added a $20,000 fee. By combining these components, we were able to make a revenue estimate for the sample of regional centers. Of the full sample, we found that 48.5 percent would pay the $10,000 fee and that 51.5 percent would pay $20,000, which based on the annual population of 640, would be 310 and 330 regional centers in order.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             The integrity fund was established via the RIA and the Notice of EB-5 Regional Center Integrity Fund Fee. 88 FR 13141 (Mar. 2, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Given the data constraints discussed thus far, for robustness we will assess the entities' small entity status along three different methodological approaches. While we have the listed NAICS codes for the 198 classifiable entities, DHS extensively reviewed various NAICS codes and determined that the six-digit, detailed industry NAICS code 522310, Mortgage and Nonmortgage Loan Brokers, defined as an “industry [that] comprises establishments primarily engaged in arranging loans by bringing borrowers and lenders together on a commission or fee basis,” is an appropriate NAICS under which regional centers operate.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By this we mean that whilst the NAICS code provided in the data often apply to the types of downstream projects that the regional centers gear loans towards, the regional centers are usually not involved directly in those activities, and are rather involved in bundling the investors' funds into loans. The year 2022 SBA size standard for the NAICS category chosen is based on revenue of $15.0 million. Of the actual NAICS codes provided for classifiable industries, half accrued to several six-digit codes under the three-digit subsector 523, “Securities, Commodity Contracts, and Other Financial Investments and Related Activities.” The data providers describe these entities as “investment services” in the “business description” tab and all the individual industries in NAICS subsector 523 ensconce a size standard of $47.0 million. The difference between the size standards ($15.0 million and $47.0 million) is large, and therefore for purposes of robustness we will evaluate the full sample of entities under each of the respective amounts. We will also evaluate the restricted sample based on the actual NAICS code listed in the data. The results are presented in Table 18.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Where NAICs codes for RCs were provided in the data, some were different than 522310, but we believe that this singular code is appropriate. Whilst the RC loans apply to different types of projects under different industries as a general matter the RC itself is not involved in those activities and is responsible for arranging and structuring the loans for the involved parties. The description can be found at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/naics/</E>
                             (last updated: Jan. 16, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="311">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40769"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.056</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As can be seen from Table 18, the median and means for the restricted sample group are smaller than that for the full sample group. As would be expected, the percentage of regional centers that are small is larger at the higher size standard of $47.0 million under general investment services. However, still the large majority is small at the lower size standard. Based on these data we can determine that a majority—at a minimum, 87.1 percent—of EB-5 regional centers are small entities in the context of the RFA.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             USCIS acknowledges that we stated in the 2022/2023 Fee Rule, our analysis found that we could not determine if RCs were large or small. That statement remains accurate. Nevertheless, since then, and for the purposes of transparency, the different determination in this IRFA (based on the data and analysis, and considering the caveat noted above) is driven by two factors: foremost, when the broad fee rule analysis was conducted, very few regional centers were found in the databases utilized to assess income (which was also the case going back to the FY 2020 EB-5 Modernization rule, at 84 FR 35750). In the current databases there are many more listed and there is more data on the ones that are provided in the data; second, USCIS economists reviewed an internal USCIS-IPO database that captures much data on regional centers and affiliated businesses/activities. This database provided more data and information to analyze for impacts, enabled better searches and matching, and allowed us to root out both false positives and false negatives. The resulting analysis is thus more robust.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>There are two important caveats to the determination made above, however, which taken together could have a net effect of reducing or increasing the number and percentage of regional centers that are small entities. As was noted earlier, this determination did not consider income accruing to interest income on loans or end-user derived profit that regional centers could collect, as DHS does not have sufficient data to support an analysis concerning such income. Such loan differential or profit income could be substantial and could reduce the true small entity share. But a limitation of this analysis that could have a countervailing effect owes to the timing of investments and administrative fees. In practice the administrative fees need not be collected in one year, as investments and fees could be collected over multiple years. However, we abridged all the income to one year. It would be extremely difficult given the data structures we queried for this analysis to attempt to incorporate a time dimension to the income stream as it pertains to administrative fees.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is unable to conduct a distributional analysis of the potential impacts to regional center small entities. Specifically, for the set of 173 found small entities with matched revenue data, it is conceptually possible to divide into the income for each entity, the impacts from the rule, to derive a percentage of income the impact could embody. DHS estimates the impacts that could accrue to EB-5 entities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not those involving the public sector costs applicable to new personnel) could be about $30.24 million annually (high-end, 7 percent discount rate). In practice, the costs would be higher, but DHS cannot estimate costs applicable to some of the provisions being proposed. DHS does not have an exact way of distributing the quantified costs across regional centers, but under the assumption of an equal distribution, the cost mapped to 640 regional centers would accrue approximately $47,000 per regional center. DHS requests comment on this assumption.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Other EB-5 Businesses</HD>
                    <P>
                        For non-regional center businesses involved in investment activity, which we attribute to NCEs and JCEs, we employed out of necessity an unconventional, multi-step approach to the small entity analysis. First, we were able to obtain about 5,000 unique NCE names and about 3,000 JCE names that were approved between FY 2018 through FY 2022 from the internal EB-5 program data and tracking databases. We pooled the names of the entities and then randomly selected them. We next ran searches in the subscription-based, open-source business information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40770"/>
                        providers on 400 of them, to attempt to satisfy a 95 percent level of confidence.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The searches yielded only 111 results that could reasonably be validated as matches. One of the challenges is that it can be difficult to match syntax in the entity names between DHS records and those in the other sources. The data providers relied upon match queries to results with close-fitting precision, but because there can be minor syntax differences in the names of the businesses in these providers and DHS record systems, there is a strong likelihood a match would not result.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             The annual average for NCEs was 5,672 (Table 3). NCEs do not map one-to-one to JCEs, but since there are at least as many of the latter as the former, we consider the population to be 11,344, for which the sample size required to satisfy a confidence level of 95 percent is 372.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             The converse—false positives—can occur as well, such as in a case where the provider matches a named entity to a DHS-recorded entity when in fact the true name is slightly different.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition to the low match-rate, we encountered two additional challenges. Foremost, we faced the same issue as we did for regional centers; over a third of the entities (42, or 37.8 percent) were non-classifiable and therefore incompatible to evaluate against an SBA size standard for status. Second, of the classifiable businesses, almost a fifth (13, or 18.8 percent) were missing either or both of a NAICS code or a revenue figure. These limitations rendered the sample size down to a mere 56 entities.</P>
                    <P>Given the challenges elucidated above, we relied on an unconventional second-step approach. We simply ran queries against perturbations of the term “EB5” separately, which yielded 885 returns. We engaged a filtering process that first removed records with missing data (either or both of sales revenue or NAICS codes) and removed non-classifiable establishments. We then backed out likely regional centers by first culling any results that contained the conjoined terms “regional” and “center.” We next bolstered this filtering process by further manually eliminating any regional center names either captured in our sample of regional centers, from that above module of this IRFA, or that were otherwise approved in the past but are not currently active. Finally, we manually appraised each remaining entity and removed those that reasonably appeared to be businesses not directly involved with program investment activity. These ancillary activities would primarily ensconce law firms, business advisories, or analytical consultancies that provide services to program business, but are themselves not directly involved in the investment activity of the program. The filtering schema is summarized in Table 19, which shows the stepwise method.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="346">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.057</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As
                        <FTREF/>
                         was mentioned above, the JCEs and NCEs were pooled in the first-step query, and for the 433 additional entities resulting from the second-step query, we assume that most or all of them are JCEs and NCEs, though we cannot distinguish which are specifically NCEs and which are JCEs. It is ultimately unimportant to distinguish them, because, unlike the approach to regional centers in which we relied on several evaluation methods—including 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40771"/>
                        imputing a NAICS codes based (twice) on the single industry description we believe best fits—for these businesses we base the NAICS codes solely on a single trial benchmarked to the reported NAICS code.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             The searches included the variations: “EB5,” “EB-5,” and “EB 5.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Based on the income data applicable to these businesses, the analysis in this Regulatory Flexibility Act, section 6.C.1 through 6.C.2 and the small entity determination is provided in Table 20 below.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="185">
                        <GID>EP02JY26.058</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>While there is an extreme range for the income, only 1 entity (the maximum) exceeded the applicable SBA size standard, which essentially means that 100 percent are small. However, as was the case with regional centers, we do not know if the income applicable to these businesses is limited to the reported sales revenue. If they receive some income from lending activity, or some other form of return in profits, the results could be quite different as potentially not all would be small entities.</P>
                    <P>DHS is unable to conduct a distributional analysis of the potential impacts to small entities. Conceptually it is possible, for the set of 488 small entities with matched revenue data, to take the monetized impacts that have been estimated, and divide them by the reported income for each entity, to derive a percentage of income the impact could embody. However, as was the case with regional centers, it is not possible to conduct this currently, and therefore DHS cannot say if and how these impacts would impact the related businesses involved. As a result, we cannot determine what the impact to small entities would be.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Concluding Remarks</HD>
                    <P>
                        The IRFA that DHS has prepared to support this proposed rule suggests that the large majority, at least 87 percent of regional centers and essentially all other directly involved business entities (which to the best of our assessment would comprise NCEs and JCEs) involved in EB-5 program investment activity could be small entities. However, we emphasize that this determination is made on incomplete information, as we do not have data on certain types of income that could accrue to such entities. To pen some context to this caveat, we evaluated 1,402 EB-5 projects in which an investment was conducted through a JCE between FY 2018 through FY 2022, for which we could extract viable data on the amount of capital invested. The median, average, and maximum amount of program-specific capital was $7.0 million, $67.2 million, and $11,070.0 million, in order. A little less than a quarter (22.2 percent) blended non-program capital. For the blended capital projects, the figures, in order again, are $52.2 million, $327.5 million, and $12,585.7 million. From the size of these figures alone, it is reasonable to conjecture that if even a small portion of the loan amount or invested capital is renumerated as residual income, the number and share of entities that are small would be lower than that found in our analysis. For example, the large financial services and advisory company, Deloitte, found that the general average rate of return on investments in 2021 was about 6.1 percent.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applied to the average and maximum blended capital investments above, the return could be between $6.5 million and $767 million. If some or all this potential return is captured by regional centers or other businesses, the share that would be small would almost certainly stand to be lower.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See,</E>
                             Deloitte, “2021 Study of Economic Assumptions,” pp. 8-9, 
                            <E T="03">https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/us/Documents/human-capital/us-2021-study-of-economic-assumptions.pdf</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 20, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A second caveat to the determinations made in this IRFA is that we relied on alternative methodologies. As such, the findings are based on samples that are only partially random because the randomized procedures did not yield sufficient sample sizes to conduct the analysis. While we have no reason to assume that there is any reporting or selection bias in the non-sampled portions, we also cannot rule it out completely either. Finally, although the limited data and unconventional approach we have taken supports the determination that most entities impacted by this proposed rule would be small, we cannot speculate on how the regional centers and other businesses entities would be impacted, and if any such impacts would benefit or degrade program investment intensity overall, or its focus on geographic reasons or types of projects. As is described in the associated economic analysis, the impacts of the proposed fee increases will accrue to transfers from requestors to DHS, and the integrity fund fees and potential penalties are accounted for as costs. As was noted in section 6. A of this small entity analysis, we treated integrity fund fees as income to regional centers, even though it is a cost to them, on grounds that they may attempt to pass some of those costs through to investors or other businesses. We note here that from an accounting perspective, an income flow earmarked to a cost could be considered a net zero-value transaction. But when examined in the context of the RFA, such an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40772"/>
                        income flow would still be considered an income credit against the applicable SBA size standard (this is the case with the administrative fees—the regional center pays for the services embodied, but then passes all or some of it to investors, and it is therefore income). Therefore, any such costs and transfers that regional centers or other businesses incur from the proposed changes that are transferred or passed through to other entities could also affect the small entity determinations for all EB-5 businesses. For example, we have no evidence to suggest, but cannot rule out, that for some entities the applicable fee increases might be large enough that they might be passed to investors or other entities. DHS welcomes public input on EB-5 small entities and the impacts that the proposals could have on such entities, as well as the methodology and determination presented herein.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. A Description of the Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements of the Proposed Rule, Including an Estimate of the Classes of Small Entities That Will Be Subject to the Requirement and the Type of Professional Skills</HD>
                    <P>As is detailed in the preamble and regulatory analysis, in order to implement and operationalize the RIA, DHS is proposing numerous reporting, documentary, and evidentiary requirements applicable to business plans, sources and use of capital, job creation estimation, target employment areas, geographic area, and removal of conditions. These requirements could apply to all regional centers, new commercial entities, and job creating entities. In order to make operational key aspects of the RIA, there are will likely be substantial record-keeping and compliance requirements imposed on private sector EB-5 entities.</P>
                    <P>In addition, audits, site visits, and monitoring and compliance requirements will also likely increase recordkeeping, document initialization and preservation, and time-related impacts applicable to these requirements. DHS has made estimates of some of the impacts applicable to these requirements, such as site visits and regional center audits.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Identification, to the Extent Practicable, of All Relevant Federal Rules That May Duplicate, Overlap, or Conflict With the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>DHS does not believe that there are Federal rules that may duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed rule. As was explained in the preamble, the RIA provides greater oversight requirements and broader authority for USCIS to take actions against regional centers, including the permanent debarment of individuals from their involvement in the EB-5 program. The RIA also provides new requirements of regional centers that will allow USCIS to act much earlier to mitigate the risks the EB-5 program has encountered, including threat to public safety, national security, fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, and criminal misuse.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, each benefit request submitted under this proposed rule in connection with the EB-5 program would be required to demonstrate, as applicable, compliance with the Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States and the Foreign Investment Risk Modernization Act of 2018 (FIRRMA) regulations. The proposed changes are intended to align the EB-5 program with applicable financial, legal, securities, compliance, and national security safeguards as warranted by other State and Federal rules, regulations, and procedures. However, such alignment is not considered overlapping or duplicative in terms of the Federal regulatory framework.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Description of Any Significant Alternatives to the Proposed Rule Which Accomplish the Stated Objectives of Applicable Statutes and Which Minimize Any Significant Economic Impact of the Proposed Rule on Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>The proposed rule seeks to align the Department's regulations with the RIA. The RIA made numerous changes to the EB-5 program. The purpose of this proposed rule is to specify the operational requirements needed to align DHS regulations and practices with the RIA. DHS did not have discretion in those changes, and therefore the implementation of alternatives for those statutory requirements is outside of the Department's purview. Where the rule is proposing changes to current and new procedural requirements not specifically stated in the RIA, the Department believes those proposed changes stand to provide the appropriate and necessary tools to achieve the level of integrity, appropriateness, security, and reform for the program that DHS is seeking.</P>
                    <P>Because of the specific requirements of the RIA and the self-enacting aspects of the changes to the EB-5 program made by the RIA DHS believes that the specific requirements it is proposing comprise operational and actional approaches that are most likely to effectively allow it to carry out the RIA with maximum effectiveness. This does not mean that DHS did not consider alternatives in specific areas. For example, as it relates to geographic scope, TEA configurations, and unemployment calculation, DHS evaluated a number of alternative criteria and economic approaches based on how these could be scoped. These included various ways petitioners could possibly (and have in the past) calculated high unemployment and combined census tracts together to form a high unemployment area.</P>
                    <P>In addition, DHS considered conducting only remote audits as an alternative, but given the objective to evaluate and determine the financial and program performance, the ability to request information or conduct interviews DHS found that in some instances site visits provide a more accurate picture. The specific requirements that DHS is proposing are believed to be the most practical, reasonable and transparent. While DHS did evaluate alternatives, as outlined above, it is not possible to determine a quantified and monetized estimate of the alternatives relative to the proposals stated. The reason is that DHS does not have information or data from regional centers and other EB-5 related businesses concerning the time and resources expended on their economic models and business plans to develop job creation and economic impact estimates, and therefore cannot determine how alternatives might affect such resourcing and expenditure. Although DHS has no information to indicate there would be an increase in burdens, the Department realizes that for some businesses, and on the average, resources might increase as time and effort may be necessary to adapt to the new methods proposed. For example, some entities may require new software or modelling platforms to fulfill the proposed changes.</P>
                    <P>
                        As is pertinent to increased recordkeeping, compliance, evidence, and monitoring and oversight, including the collection of biometrics, DHS believes the proposals are reasonable and that proposals (alternatives) that reduced the requirements (from a current baseline or those proposed) would pose risks and that the current proposals stand to provide the necessary tools to assure that the program is aligned with its intent of promoting investment and job creation, whilst reducing fraud, malfeasance, and malignance. DHS recognizes that the proposals will have an impact on small entities and that some alternatives could alleviate some of the impacts, but that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40773"/>
                        the benefit of the proposals will outweigh the costs. DHS invites and will evaluate public comment concerning alternatives to the proposals herein.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA)</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) is intended, among other things, to curb the practice of imposing unfunded Federal mandates on State, local, and tribal governments.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Title II of UMRA requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed rule, or final rule for which the agency published a proposed rule, which includes any Federal mandate that may result in a $100 million or more expenditure (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         2 U.S.C. 1532(a). The inflation adjusted value of $100 million in 1995 is approximately $206 million in 2024 based on the CPI-U.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             The term “Federal mandate” means a Federal intergovernmental mandate or a Federal private sector mandate. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2 U.S.C. 1502(1), 658(5), (6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             BLS, “Historical Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U): U.S. city average, all items, by month,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/cpi/tables/supplemental-files/historical-cpi-u-202412.pdf</E>
                             (last visited Feb. 4, 2025). Calculation of inflation: (1) Calculate the average monthly CPI-U for the reference year (1995) and the current year (2024); (2) Subtract reference year CPI-U from current year CPI-U; (3) Divide the difference of the reference year CPI-U and current year CPI-U by the reference year CPI-U; (4) Multiply by 100 = [(Average monthly CPI-U for 2024−Average monthly CPI-U for 1995) ÷ (Average monthly CPI-U for 1995)]×100 = [(313.689−152.383) ÷152.383] =(161.306/152.383) = 1.059 ×100 = 105.86%percent = 106 percent (rounded). Calculation of inflation-adjusted value: $100 million in 1995 dollars × 2.06 = $206 million in 2024 dollars.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This proposed rule does not contain such a mandate, because it would not impose any enforceable duty upon any other level of government or private sector entity. Rather, there may be some private-public partnership investment projects and beneficial downstream effects to State or local governments because the rule would codify the set aside for infrastructure projects. Any downstream effects on such entities would arise solely due to their voluntary choices, and the voluntary choices of others, and would not be a consequence of an enforceable duty imposed by this rule. Similarly, any costs or transfer effects on State and local governments would not result from a Federal mandate as that term is defined under UMRA. The requirements of title II of UMRA; therefore, do not apply, and DHS has not prepared a statement under UMRA. DHS has, however, analyzed many of the potential effects of this proposed action in the RIA above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                    <P>E.O. 13132 was issued to ensure the appropriate division of policymaking authority between the States and the Federal Government and to further the policies of the Unfunded Mandates Act. This proposed rule would not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. DHS does not expect that this rule would impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of E.O. 13132, this proposed rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</HD>
                    <P>This proposed rule was drafted and reviewed in accordance with E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This proposed rule was written to provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct and was carefully reviewed to eliminate drafting errors and ambiguities, so as to minimize litigation and undue burden on the Federal court system. DHS has determined that this proposed rule meets the applicable standards provided in section 3 of E.O. 12988.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Family Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS has reviewed this proposed rule in line with the requirements of section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 601 note), enacted as part of the Omnibus Consolidated and Emergency Supplemental Appropriations Act, 1999. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (1998). After review of the criteria specified in section 654(c)(1) of that act, DHS determined that the implementation of this proposed rule would not negatively affect family well-being, because the rule would implement the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act, which would not cause the impacts listed in section 654(c)(1).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments)</HD>
                    <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. E.O. 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with Tribes on a Government-to-Government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes. DHS has assessed the impact of this proposed rule and determined that this proposed rule does not have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under E.O. 13175.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and its components analyze proposed regulatory actions to determine whether the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         applies and, if so, what degree of analysis is required. DHS Directive 023-01 Rev. 01 “Implementing the National Environmental Policy Act” (Dir. 023-01 Rev. 01) and Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01 Rev. 01 (Instruction Manual) 
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         establish the policies and procedures that DHS and its components use to comply with NEPA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             The Instruction Manual contains DHS's procedures for implementing NEPA and was issued November 6, 2014, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/ocrso/eed/epb/nepa</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        NEPA allows Federal agencies to establish, in their NEPA implementing procedures, categories of actions (“categorical exclusions”) that experience has shown do not, individually or cumulatively, have a significant effect on the human environment and, therefore, do not require an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Instruction Manual, Appendix A lists the DHS Categorical Exclusions.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             42 U.S.C. 4336(a)(2), 4336e(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Instruction Manual, Appendix A, Table 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under DHS NEPA implementing procedures, for an action to be categorically excluded, it must satisfy each of the following three conditions: (1) The entire action clearly fits within one or more of the categorical exclusions; (2) the action is not a piece of a larger action; and (3) no extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             Instruction Manual at V.B(2)(a) through (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule is limited to amending the regulatory criteria to implement the EB-5 Program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40774"/>
                        requirements authorized by the RIA. This proposed rule is strictly administrative and procedural because it is only amending DHS's existing regulations for aliens seeking to establish eligibility for an EB-5 immigrant visa and to implement the reformed Regional Center Program.
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed throughout this preamble, this rulemaking includes a number of proposed regulatory changes affecting immigrant investors, regional centers, and affiliated individuals and entities. If finalized, this proposed rule is intended to reform and improve the integrity of the EB-5 program by: (1) adding new definitions; (2) implementing sections 203(b)(5)(N) and (O) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(N) and (O), to protect the EB-5 program from fraud and threats to national security; (3) implementing statutory eligibility requirements, including new capital investment amounts, duration of investment, job creation requirements, and evidentiary requirements; (4) removing troubled businesses as an avenue to establish eligibility; (5) codifying enforcement provisions, including monetary penalties, suspensions, debarments, and terminations; (6) implementing a process to audit regional centers; (7) implementing the RIA's Regional Center Program requirements, including those affecting the designation of a regional center, project applications, redeployment, and bona fides of persons involved with the Regional Center Program; (8) codifying the registration process for direct and third-party promoters; and (9) amending certain processes, such as those for the removal of conditions and withdrawing pending petitions or applications.</P>
                    <P>DHS has reviewed this proposed rule and finds that no significant impact on the environment, or any change in environmental effect will result from the amendments being promulgated in this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, DHS finds that the promulgation of this proposed rule's amendments to current regulations clearly fits within categorical exclusion A3 established in DHS's NEPA implementing procedures as an administrative change with no change in environmental effect, is not part of a larger Federal action, and does not present extraordinary circumstances that create the potential for a significant environmental effect. Therefore, these regulatory amendments are categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        On March 14, 2025, the Department of State published a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         indicating that “all efforts, conducted by any agency of the federal government, to control the status, entry, and exit of people, and the transfer of goods, services, data, technology, and other items across the borders of the United States, constitute a foreign affairs function of the United States under the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553, 554.” 
                        <E T="03">See Determination: Foreign Affairs Functions of the United States</E>
                         (Feb. 21, 2025), 90 FR 12,200 (Mar. 14, 2025). The APA excepts from all of the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553 agency rules that involve “a military or foreign affairs function of the United States.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1). While DHS believes this rulemaking would fit within the efforts described in this notice such that it would constitute a foreign affairs function of the United States, it is nevertheless publishing this as a proposed rule and seeking public comment under the Administrative Procedure Act.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             Agencies are not obligated to assert the exception with respect to any particular rule and it is within the agency's discretion to determine whether using notice and comment rulemaking would be beneficial, as it is in this case. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., Indep. Living Res.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Or. Arena Corp.,</E>
                             982 F. Supp. 698, 744 n.62 (D. Or. 1997) (observing that agencies may voluntarily elect notice-and-comment procedures for a variety of reasons even though not required); 
                            <E T="03">Hoctor</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Agric.,</E>
                             82 F.3d 165, 171-72 (7th Cir. 1996) (observing that there is nothing in the APA to forbid an agency to use notice-and-comment procedures even if not required under the APA); 
                            <E T="03">cf. Perez</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Mortg. Bankers Ass'n,</E>
                             575 U.S. 92, 101-02 (2015) (holding that agencies may “grant additional procedural rights in the exercise of their discretion,” including “the right to notice and an opportunity to comment” when not otherwise required by the APA, but also noting that “reviewing courts are generally not free to impose them if the agencies have not chosen to grant them” (quotation marks omitted)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501-12, DHS must submit to OMB, for review and approval, any reporting requirements inherent in a rule unless they are exempt. Please see the accompanying PRA documentation for the full analysis. The Information Collection table below shows the summary of forms that are part of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="336">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40775"/>
                        <GID>EP02JY26.059</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. USCIS Forms I-526; I-526E</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and USCIS invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the impact to the proposed collection of information. In accordance with the PRA, the information collection notice is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments regarding the proposed edits to the information collection instrument.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted if submitted on or before August 31, 2026. All submissions received must include the 0MB Control Number 1615-0026 in the body of the letter and the agency name. Comments on this information collection should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                    <P>(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                    <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                    <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                    <P>(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                         Revision ofa Currently Approved Collection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                         Immigrant Petition by Standalone Investor; Immigrant Petition by Regional Center Investor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the DHS sponsoring the collection:</E>
                         1-526; I-526E; USCIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                         Primary: Individuals or households. The form 1-526 is used by a standalone investor to petition USCIS for status as an immigrant to the United States under section 203(b)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), as amended. The Form 1-526E is used by an investor pooling his or her investment with one or more qualified immigrants participating in the Regional Center Program to petition users forstatus as an immigrant to the United Stated under section 203(b)(5) of the Immigration Nationality Act (INA), as amended. A regional center investor may also use Form l-526E to report any amendments necessary to establish ongoing eligibility if the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity in which the investor has invested is terminated or debarred from patticipation in the Regional Center Program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate bf the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                         The estimated total number of respondents for the information collection Form r-526 is 504 and the estimated hour burden per response is 2.40 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-526E is 4,000 and the estimated hour burden per response is 2.27 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The total estimated annual hour burden associated with this collection of information is l 0,290 hours.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40776"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in cost) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The estimated total annual cost burden associated with this collection of information is $4,954,400.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. USCIS Form 1-829</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and USCIS invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the impact to the proposed collection of information. In accordance with the PRA, the information collection notice is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments regarding the proposed edits to the information collection instrument.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted if submitted on or before August 31, 2026. All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0045 in the body of the letter and the agency name. Comments on this information collection should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                    <P>(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                    <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                    <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         permitting electronic submission of responses).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Overview of information collection:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                         Revision of a Currently Approved Collection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                         Petition by Investor to Remove Conditions on Permanent Resident Status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the DHS sponsoring the collection:</E>
                         I-829; USCIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                         Primary: Individuals or households; Business or other for-profit. This form is used by a conditional permanent resident who obtained such status through a qualifying investment to apply to remove conditions on his or her conditional residence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                         The estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-829 is 1,010 and the estimated hour burden per response is 4.09 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection of Biometrics is 1,010 and the estimated hour burden per response is 1.17 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The total estimated annual hour burden associated with this collection of information is 5,313 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in cost) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The estimated total annual cost burden associated with this collection of information is $437,330.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. USCIS Forms I-956; I-956F; I-956G; I-956H; I-956K</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and USCIS invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the impact to the proposed collection of information. In accordance with the PRA, the information collection notice is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments regarding the proposed edits to the information collection instrument.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted if submitted on or before August 31, 2026. All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0159 in the body of the letter and the agency name. Comments on this information collection should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                    <P>(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                    <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                    <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         permitting electronic submission of responses).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Overview of information collection:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                         Revision of a Currently Approved Collection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                         Application for Regional Center Designation; Application for Approval of an Investment in a Commercial Enterprise; Regional Center Annual Statement; Bona Fides of Persons Involved with Regional Center Program; Registration for Direct and Third-Party Promoters.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the DHS sponsoring the collection:</E>
                         I-956; I-956F; I-956G; I-956H; I-956K; USCIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                         Primary: Individuals or households. The Form I-956 is used to request U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) designation as a regional center under Immigration and Nationality Act (INA) sec. 203(b)(5)(E), or to request an amendment to an approved regional center designated under section 203(b)(5)(E) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(E). The Form I-956F is used by a designated regional center to request approval of each particular investment offering through an associated new commercial enterprise. The Form I-956G is used by regional centers to provide required information, certifications, and evidence to support their continued eligibility for regional center designation. Each approved regional center must file Form I-956G for each Federal fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) on or before December 29 of the calendar year in which the Federal fiscal year ended. The Form I-956H must be completed by each person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity and submitted as a supplement to Form I-956, Application for Regional Center Designation, or other forms where persons are required to attest to their eligibility to be involved with the EB-5 entity and compliance with section 203(b)(5)(H) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(5)(H). The Form I-956K must be completed by each person acting as a direct or third-party promoter (including migration agents) of a regional center, any new commercial enterprise, an affiliated job-creating entity, or an issuer of securities intended to be offered to alien investors in connection with a particular capital investment project.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                         The estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-956 is 400 and the estimated hour burden per response is 23.29 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-956F is 1,000 and the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40777"/>
                        estimated hour burden per response is 25 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-956G is 643 and the estimated hour burden per response is 16.18 hours; for the audit requirement associated with the I-956G, the estimated total number of respondents for Compliance Review is 40 and the estimated hour burden per response is 24 hours and the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection during the Site Visit is 40 and the estimated hour burden per response is 16 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-956H is 3,643 and the estimated hour burden per response is 1.47 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection of Biometrics Processing for Form I-956H is 3,643 and the estimated hour burden per response is 1.17 hours; the estimated total number of respondents for the information collection I-956K is 632 and the estimated hour burden per response is 2.07 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The total estimated annual hour burden associated with this collection of information is 57,246 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in cost) associated with the collection:</E>
                         The estimated total annual cost burden associated with this collection of information is $2,907,788.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Subjects and Proposed Regulatory Amendments</HD>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>8 CFR Part 204</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Adoption and foster care, Immigration, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>8 CFR Part 205</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Immigration.</P>
                        <CFR>8 CFR Part 216</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens.</P>
                        <CFR>8 CFR Part 235</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Immigration, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Regulatory Amendments</HD>
                    <P>Accordingly, for the reasons outlined in this preamble, DHS proposes to amend chapter I of title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 204—IMMIGRANT PETITIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 204 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>8 U.S.C. 1101, 1103, 1151, 1153, 1154, 1182, 1184, 1186a, 1255, 1324a, 1641, 8 CFR part 2.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Remove and reserve § 204.6.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Add subpart D, consisting of §§ 204.400 through 204.435, to read to as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Immigrant Investors and the Regional Center Program.</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>204.400 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope of this subpart.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.401 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.402 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>High unemployment areas.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.403 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Infrastructure projects.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.404 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Filing an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.405 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Including a spouse and children on the EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.406 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Establishing and retaining a priority date.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.407 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for approval of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.408 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.409 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.410 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.411 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applying for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.412 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.413 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany application for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.414 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.415 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Duration of regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.416 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending or withdrawing a regional center designation</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.417 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Bona fides of persons involved with the Regional Center Program.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.418 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Regional center annual statements.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.419 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Submitting a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.420 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.421 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.422 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.423 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.424 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Revocation of a project application approval.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.425 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Separate accounts and fund administrators for regional center investor capital.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.426 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Redeployment of immigrant investor capital.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.427 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibition on purchase of publicly available bonds.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.428 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Direct and third-party promoters.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.429 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Site visits.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.430 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Audits.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.431 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Enforcement.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.432 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Threats to public safety or national security.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.433 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Determinations of fraud, misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.434 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Compliance with FIRRMA.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>204.435 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Severability.</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.400</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope of this subpart.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Alien investors.</E>
                             This subpart governs the adjudication of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, by a regional center investor or standalone investor. An EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed before March 15, 2022, is governed by § 204.6, as in effect on November 20, 2019, except where expressly stated in this subpart or where USCIS determines that approval of the petition is contrary to the national interest for reasons relating to threats to public safety or national security of the United States under § 204.432, or where the petition was predicated on or involved fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse under § 204.433.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Regional centers.</E>
                             This subpart governs the provisions of the Regional Center Program in effect as of May 14, 2022. On or after May 14, 2022, any entity seeking designation as a regional center must file an application for regional center designation on the form designated by USCIS according to § 204.411. All designated regional centers, regardless of designation date, must demonstrate eligibility to participate in the program in compliance with the requirements of § 204.412, either through an application for designation under § 204.411 or through amendment under § 204.416, and comply with all requirements applicable to continuing participation in the Regional Center Program, including submission of an annual statement on the form designated by USCIS according to § 204.418, paying the annual EB-5 Integrity Fund Fee under section 203(b)(5)(J) of the Act, audit requirements under § 204.430, enforcement requirements under § 204.431, public safety, national security, and fraud requirements under §§ 204.432 and 204.433, and FIRRMA requirements under § 204.434.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.401</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>For the purposes of this subpart D, the following definitions apply:</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Actively in the process of investing</E>
                             means an actual commitment to invest the required amount of lawfully obtained capital no later than the date on which the investor obtains conditional permanent resident status. Such capital may be held in escrow for release to the new commercial enterprise no later than the date on which the investor obtains conditional permanent resident status. This definition does not include mere intent to invest, prospective investment arrangements with no present 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40778"/>
                            commitment, or any investment arrangements that contemplate investment of the required amount of capital into the new commercial enterprise after the investor obtains conditional permanent resident status.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Affiliated job-creating entity</E>
                             means any job-creating entity that is controlled, managed, or owned by any person involved with the regional center or new commercial enterprise as defined in this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Capital</E>
                             means cash and all real, personal, or mix of tangible assets (which may include equipment, inventory, or other tangible property) owned and controlled by the investor or held in a revocable living trust of which the investor is the settlor and beneficiary and to which the investor has unrestricted access. All capital is valued at fair market value in U.S. dollars when it is invested, in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or other standard accounting practice adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission. Capital does not include loans secured by the assets of the new commercial enterprise or a personal guarantee of the business debt of the new commercial enterprise.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Certifier</E>
                             means a person in a position of substantive authority for the management or operations of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity, issuer of securities, or direct or third-party promoter, such as a principal executive officer or principal financial officer, with knowledge of such entities' policies and procedures related to compliance with the requirements of the EB-5 program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Comprehensive business plan</E>
                             means a credible business plan that describes the nature, timeline, and projected size of the activities being undertaken by the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, and the use of capital from alien investors to create full-time employment for not fewer than 10 qualifying employees per immigrant investor. A comprehensive business plan must contain, at a minimum, a description of the business and its objectives, its products and services, detailed capital requirements including sources and uses of funds, and sales, cost, and income projections supported by relevant evidence. It must also include, as applicable, a marketing plan, a market and competitive analysis, a list of the required and obtained permits and licenses, the timetable for hiring, the construction schedule of the project, and a detailed overview of the organizational structure, including the relevant experience and expertise of the owners and managers of the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Criminal misuse</E>
                             means, with respect to a person related to a petition, application, or benefit under the EB-5 program, the improper use of the EB-5 program or capital obtained through the EB-5 program in connection with or in furtherance of a crime.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Debar</E>
                             means to preclude a person's participation in the EB-5 program without the ability for reapplication either permanently or during a specified timeframe as provided under § 204.431(d)(5). Temporarily debarred persons may seek to participate in the EB-5 program again after the period of debarment has ended, such as through the submission of a new application for designation for previously debarred regional centers.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Deceit</E>
                             means, with respect to a person related to a petition, application, or benefit under the EB-5 program, to intentionally lead another person to believe something that is not true.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Direct jobs</E>
                             means employees of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, or, for purposes of job creation under the Regional Center Program in the case of jobs estimated to be created through an economically and statistically valid methodology as being involved in the hands-on production of goods and services or in the construction of facilities that have a necessary role in the relevant capital investment project.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">EB-5 immigrant visa petition</E>
                             means a petition on the form designated by USCIS that is submitted by a regional center investor or a standalone investor seeking classification as an immigrant investor under section 203(b)(5)(E) or section 203(b)(5) of the Act, respectively.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Fraud</E>
                             means, with respect to a person related to a petition, application, or benefit under the EB-5 program, to knowingly make a false representation or knowingly conceal a material fact with intent to induce action or deceive.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Full-time employment</E>
                             means employment of a qualifying employee by the new commercial enterprise in a position that requires a minimum of 35 working hours per week. In the case of the Regional Center Program, “full-time employment” also means employment of a qualifying employee in a position that has been created either directly or indirectly that is estimated using economically and statistically valid methodologies that estimate full-time equivalent employment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">High employment area</E>
                             means a census tract, or contiguous census tracts, in a metropolitan statistical area where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business where the national average rate of unemployment is at least 150 percent of the unemployment being experienced in such area when using the same data source and same timeframe to make the comparison.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">High unemployment area</E>
                             means an area designated as such by USCIS under § 204.402.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Indirect jobs</E>
                             means, for purposes of jobs estimated to be created through an economically and statistically valid methodology under the Regional Center Program, those jobs estimated to be employed by those supplying goods and services to the source of production, including for the construction of facilities that have a necessary role in the relevant capital investment project, and those estimated to be induced through additional personal spending by both direct and indirect employees whose jobs were created by the relevant capital investment project.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Infrastructure project</E>
                             means a capital investment project in a designated regional center's filed or approved project application, which is administered by a governmental entity (such as a Federal, State, local, or tribal agency or authority) that is the job-creating entity contracting with a regional center or new commercial enterprise to receive capital investment under the Regional Center Program from regional center investors or the new commercial enterprise as financing for maintaining, improving, or constructing a public works project.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Intentional material misrepresentation</E>
                             means, with respect to a person related to a petition, application, or benefit under the EB-5 program, a false or misleading assertion about a material fact with the intent to deceive.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Invest</E>
                             means to contribute lawfully obtained capital that is placed at risk in a commercial job-creating activity such that there is a risk of loss and a chance for gain. This definition does not include capital used in primarily passive or non-commercial activity such as the purchase of financial instruments traded on secondary markets, primary market securities that are unrelated to use in commercial activities, or constructing, owning, or operating a personal residence.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Investor</E>
                             means a regional center investor or a standalone investor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Job-creating entity</E>
                             means any organization formed in the United States for the ongoing conduct of lawful business under local, State, and Federal law, including sole proprietorship, partnership (whether limited or 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40779"/>
                            general), corporation, limited liability company, business trust, or other entity, which may be publicly or privately owned, including an entity consisting of a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiaries or affiliates (provided that each subsidiary or affiliate is engaged in an activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business) that receives, or is established to receive, capital investment from immigrant investors or a new commercial enterprise under the Regional Center Program and is responsible for creating jobs to satisfy the job creation requirements of § 204.407(e).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">New commercial enterprise</E>
                             means any for-profit organization formed in the United States for the ongoing conduct of lawful business under local, State, and Federal law, including sole proprietorship, partnership (whether limited or general), holding company, and its wholly owned subsidiaries (provided that each subsidiary is engaged in a for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business), joint venture, corporation, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity (which may be publicly or privately owned) that receives, or is established to receive, capital investment from immigrant investors.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Person involved</E>
                             means any person that is, directly or indirectly, in a position of substantive authority to make operational or managerial decisions for a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity over the pooling, securitization, investment, release, acceptance, or control or use of any funding that was procured under the Regional Center Program. A person is in a position of substantive authority if the person serves as an administrator, a board member, a general partner, a limited partner, a manager, an officer, an owner, or in a similar position at the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, respectively. An agent, fiduciary, or representative may be in a position of substantive authority if his or her position in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity authorizes him or her to provide input or oversight of the use of any regional center investor capital obtained under the Regional Center Program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Principally doing business</E>
                             means the commercial activities most significantly related to the job creation required under section 203(b)(5) of the Act. An entity is principally doing business in the location where those activities occur.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Project application</E>
                             means an application for approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise submitted by a designated regional center according to the form instructions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Promoter</E>
                             means a person acting on behalf of the regional center, any new commercial enterprise, an affiliated job-creating entity, or an issuer of securities intended to be offered to investors under the EB-5 program, to advertise, publicize, market, endorse, provide testimonials, or solicit indications of interest in connection with a particular capital investment project under the Regional Center Program. A person may be acting on behalf of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity or issuer of securities as a promoter through contract, sub-contract, or by virtue of employment or other type of agency relationship with such entities or another promoter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Promotional material</E>
                             means an advertisement, offering memorandum, endorsement, testimonial, solicitation, direct and indirect communication between investors and promoters, and all other similar materials under applicable securities laws related to offerings under the Regional Center Program. Promotional material may be in any form, including generally accessible websites, newspapers, magazines, print media advertisements, online, television or radio commercials, audio recordings, or any other audio or visual display.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Qualifying employee</E>
                             means a United States citizen, a United States national, a lawfully admitted permanent resident of the United States, or other immigrant lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States including, but not limited to, a conditional resident, a temporary resident, an asylee, a refugee, or an alien remaining in the United States under suspension of deportation. This definition does not include the investor, the investor's spouse or children, or any nonimmigrant.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Redeploy</E>
                             means to reinvest regional center investor capital for the purpose of maintaining the investor's capital at risk under § 204.426.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Regional center</E>
                             means any entity, public or private, formed in the United States for the ongoing conduct of lawful business that has established eligibility for designation by USCIS under § 204.412.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Regional center investor</E>
                             means an alien seeking to pool his or her investment with one or more additional aliens seeking, or who have obtained, classification as an immigrant investor under section 203(b)(5) of the Act in accordance with section 203(b)(5)(E) of the Act.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Regional Center Program</E>
                             means the program under section 203(b)(5)(E) of the Act.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Rural area</E>
                             means any area that is:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Not within a standard metropolitan statistical area (as designated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget); and</P>
                        <P>(2) Not within the outer boundary of any city or town having a population of 20,000 or more (based on the most recent decennial census of the United States available at time of filing).</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Separate account</E>
                             means an insured account maintained by a new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, in the United States at a federally regulated bank or other financial institution as defined in 18 U.S.C. 20. The account may only contain the pooled investment funds of regional center investors in a new commercial enterprise with respect to a single capital investment project that may, in turn, fund one or more individual job-creating entities. A separate account may not contain funds from any other source, except for interest that may accrue on amounts held in the account.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Standalone investor</E>
                             means an alien who is not seeking to pool his or her investment with one or more additional aliens seeking, or who have obtained, classification as an immigrant investor under section 203(b)(5) of the Act.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Suspend</E>
                             means to temporarily limit a person's participation in the EB-5 program as provided under § 204.431(d)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Targeted employment area</E>
                             means a rural area or a high unemployment area.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Terminate</E>
                             means to end a regional center's designation to participate in the Regional Center Program as provided under § 204.431(d)(4). A terminated regional center is no longer authorized to participate in the Regional Center Program and may not solicit capital from an investor seeking classification as an immigrant investor.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.402</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>High unemployment areas.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Composition.</E>
                             A high unemployment area is:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Comprised of a census tract or contiguous census tracts in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business and may include in the calculation any census tracts directly adjacent to the census tract(s) where the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Experiencing a weighted unemployment rate of at least 150 percent of the national average 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40780"/>
                            unemployment rate, based on the labor force employment measure for each census tract.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Unemployment calculation.</E>
                             The labor force employment measure used for each census tract in the calculation must be the same labor force employment measure used for the national average unemployment rate. The labor force employment measure used to perform the calculation must:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Be statistically valid for the requested census tracts;</P>
                        <P>(2) Use unbiased estimates calculated at the census tract level;</P>
                        <P>(3) Be updated periodically;</P>
                        <P>(4) Be provided by a Federal agency. If Federal estimates are not available or are not updated periodically, estimates from the State, territory, or other local agency responsible for estimating unemployment, such as the State's Department of Labor, are acceptable; and</P>
                        <P>(5) Use publicly available data along with a description of the applicable weights and the estimation of error and bias in the estimates for purposes of any survey methodology.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Determination and designation.</E>
                             Only USCIS may determine if an area qualifies as an area of high unemployment. USCIS will determine whether a proposed area qualifies for designation as a high unemployment area as part of the adjudication of a project application for regional center investors or of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition for standalone investors. Designation of a high unemployment area cannot be requested except as part of the adjudication of a project application or standalone EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as applicable.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Duration.</E>
                             A qualified area will be designated as a high unemployment area for two years from either:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) For regional center investors, the date of filing of a project application by a designated regional center; or</P>
                        <P>(2) For standalone investors, the date of investment.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Renewal.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) If USCIS approves a standalone investor's immigrant visa petition or regional center's project application and determines an area continues to qualify as an area of high unemployment under paragraph (c) of this section, USCIS will automatically renew the initial high unemployment area designation for two years from the date of the approval of the standalone investor's immigrant visa petition or regional center's project application.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within 90 days of the expiration of a designation of a high unemployment area, a designated regional center or standalone investor may request a renewal of the designation as a high unemployment area for additional two-year periods if the designated high unemployment area continues to meet the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section by submitting a renewal request on the form designated by USCIS. A renewal request for the designation of a high unemployment area may be comprised of the same census tract(s) for the area initially designated or a combination of other qualifying census tract(s), provided that the project location remains consistent, as provided under paragraph (a) of this section. The period of designation for a high unemployment area will temporarily extend upon the timely filing of a request for renewal through the time a determination on such renewal request is made. The approval of a renewal request for a high unemployment area designation will extend the period of designation for the high unemployment area for two years from the date of the prior designation's expiration.</P>
                        <P>(3) If a new commercial enterprise relocates such that it is principally doing business in another location, the designation of a high unemployment area may not be renewed and a designated regional center or standalone investor, as appropriate, must file an amendment to the applicable project application or EB-5 immigrant visa petition as provided in §§ 204.410 and 204.423.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of designation.</E>
                             Investors investing in a designated high unemployment area during its period of designation must invest at least the amount specified in § 204.407(b) and may qualify for a reserved visa under section 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(I)(bb) of the Act.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of expiration.</E>
                             An investor who has invested the required amount of capital in a high unemployment area during its period of designation does not need to invest additional capital due to the expiration of the designation and may continue to qualify for a reserved visa under section 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(I)(bb) of the Act even after the expiration of the designation. In the event an investor remains in the process of investing and has not invested the required amount of capital in a high unemployment area when the period of designation expires and the area no longer qualifies as a high unemployment area, the investor must invest any additional capital necessary to meet the amount required by § 204.407(b) and submit an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition to establish the lawful path and source of additional capital.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.403</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Infrastructure projects.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Determination.</E>
                             USCIS will determine whether a proposed project qualifies as an infrastructure project as part of the adjudication of a project application for regional center investors. USCIS will not separately determine if a project may qualify as an infrastructure project except as part of the adjudication of a project application.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of determination.</E>
                             Any regional center investor investing in an infrastructure project must invest lawful capital of at least the amount specified in § 204.407(b) and may qualify for a reserved visa under section 203(b)(5)(B)(i)(I)(cc) of the Act.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.404</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Filing an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Any alien seeking classification as an alien investor must properly file an EB-5 immigrant visa petition on his or her own behalf on the form designated by USCIS according to § 103.2 of this chapter. USCIS will reject a petition that is not properly filed. USCIS will deny a petition if the petitioner chooses to upload his or her required initial evidence in the designated USCIS electronic system and does not submit such evidence within 30 days of filing the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Regional center investor.</E>
                             A regional center investor must include the evidence required by § 204.408(b) through (d) and may include any other supporting documentation necessary to establish eligibility. A regional center investor must also include evidence of association with a regional center's pending or approved project application and certify that all records associated with such application are incorporated by reference into the investor's petition. If the petition does not include sufficient evidence of association with a pending or approved project application at the time of filing, USCIS will consider the petition improperly filed and will reject the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Standalone investor.</E>
                             A standalone investor must include the evidence required by § 204.408 and may include any other supporting documentation necessary to establish eligibility.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.405 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Including a spouse and children on the EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             An investor may include his or her spouse and his or her children on the EB-5 immigrant visa petition if his or her spouse or children are accompanying or following to join the investor in the United States.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the investor must file an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition and his or her child turns 21 years of age.</E>
                             A child of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40781"/>
                            an investor who was included on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition and turns 21 years of age prior to obtaining conditional permanent resident status will continue to be considered a child of the investor on an amended EB-5 immigrant visa petition if:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The child was included as a derivative beneficiary of the investor on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition for which the investor properly filed an amendment under § 204.410; and</P>
                        <P>(2) The investor filed an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition due to the termination or debarment, as applicable, of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the investor's conditional permanent resident status has been terminated and the investor seeks to file a new EB-5 immigrant visa petition and include his or her child.</E>
                             An unmarried child who is 21 years of age or older and whose conditional permanent resident status based on his or her relationship as the child of an investor has been terminated may be included as a child of the investor on one subsequently filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition, provided the subsequent EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed no later than one year from the date USCIS terminated the conditional permanent resident status.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.406</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Establishing and retaining a priority date.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The priority date of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition is the date the completed and signed petition is properly filed, in accordance with § 103.2 of this chapter, provided the required evidence is submitted with the petition or is submitted electronically within 30 days of filing. A priority date is not transferable to another alien. A denied petition will not establish a priority date. An investor with multiple EB-5 immigrant visa petitions is entitled to the earliest qualifying priority date.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Priority date retention for pending petitions.</E>
                             The priority date of a properly filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition for which the investor was eligible at the time of filing will continue to apply if an amendment to such petition is required and is properly filed under § 204.410.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Priority date retention for approved petitions.</E>
                             The priority date of an approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition will apply to any properly filed amendment to such petition under § 204.410.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.407</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for approval of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             An alien seeking classification as an alien investor must invest the required amount of capital under paragraph (b) of this section to create the required amount of employment under paragraph (e) of this section, and expect to maintain that investment for at least two years from the time it was placed at risk in a new commercial enterprise in the United States. An investor must establish his or her eligibility for the classification at the time of filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition according to § 204.404 and must continue to be eligible through adjudication. Any investor that is debarred from participation in the EB-5 Program under § 204.431 cannot establish eligibility for classification as an immigrant investor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Regional center investors.</E>
                             A regional center investor eligible at the time of filing will be deemed eligible at the time of adjudication subject to the continuing approval of the investor's associated project application, including approval of any properly filed amendments to the project application, and the filing of any amendments to the investor's petition under § 204.410.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Standalone investors.</E>
                             A standalone investor eligible at the time of filing will be deemed eligible at the time of adjudication subject to the filing of any amendments to such investor's petition under § 204.410. A standalone investor may not pool his or her investment with any other investors seeking classification as an immigrant investor. Multiple standalone investors may not invest in the same new commercial enterprise, even if such investments are made independently.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Required amounts of investment.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Standard minimum investment amount.</E>
                             Unless otherwise specified, for an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, the investor must invest one million, fifty thousand United States dollars ($1,050,000) in capital in a new commercial enterprise in the United States, which must remain invested on the date the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed. Beginning on January 1, 2027, and every five years thereafter, this amount will automatically adjust for petitions filed on or after each adjustment's effective date, based on the cumulative annual percentage change in the unadjusted All Items Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the U.S City Average reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics between January 1, 2022, and the date of adjustment. The qualifying investment amounts will be rounded down to the nearest $50,000. DHS will update this figure by publication in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Targeted employment area and infrastructure projects.</E>
                             Unless otherwise specified, for an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022, based on an investment in a targeted employment area or in an infrastructure project, the investor must invest eight hundred thousand United States dollars ($800,000) in capital in a new commercial enterprise in the United States, which must remain invested on the date the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed. Beginning on January 1, 2027, and every five years thereafter, this amount will automatically adjust for petitions filed on or after each adjustment's effective date, to be equal to 75 percent of the standard minimum investment amount described in paragraph(b)(1) of this section. DHS will update this figure by publication in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">High employment area.</E>
                             Unless otherwise specified, for an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after [DATE 60 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE 
                            <E T="03">IN THE</E>
                              
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ] based on an investment in a high employment area, the investor must invest one million and four hundred thousand United States dollars ($1,400,000) in capital in a new commercial enterprise in the United States, which must remain invested on the date the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed. Beginning on January 1, 2027, and every five years thereafter, this amount will automatically adjust for petitions filed on or after each adjustment's effective date, to be equal to 133 percent of the standard minimum investment amount described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, rounded up to the nearest $50,000. DHS will update this figure by publication in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Valuation of non-cash capital.</E>
                             For non-cash capital that is actively in the process of being invested, an investor must establish the fair market value of such capital at the time of filing his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. For non-cash capital that has already been invested, an investor must establish the fair market value of such capital at the time of investment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Source and path of invested capital.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             An investor must establish that his or her investment capital derives, directly and indirectly, from a lawful source and through lawful means, including any capital used to pay administrative costs and fees to the regional center in association with the investment, by submitting the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40782"/>
                            documentation required by § 204.408(b) and (c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Legal ownership of invested capital.</E>
                             An investor must establish that he or she was the legal owner of the invested capital. Bank statements and other financial documents do not meet this requirement if the documents show someone else as the legal owner of the capital.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">When using intermediaries to transfer capital or exchange currencies.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>An investor that uses currency exchangers, money service businesses, or any other mechanism to exchange or swap currencies to obtain capital that is then invested in the new commercial enterprise must establish that any capital provided by the currency exchanger, money service business, or other mechanism to or on behalf of the investor was derived, directly and indirectly, from a lawful source. USCIS will consider the use of a currency exchanger, money service business, or other mechanism that is licensed, regulated and authorized by a foreign or U.S. Government authority responsible for detecting, deterring and disrupting criminal abuse of the financial system to conduct business in accordance with applicable law as evidence to establish that such capital was lawfully derived, unless USCIS has reason to believe that such capital was not lawfully derived.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Multiple investors.</E>
                             A new commercial enterprise may be used as the basis for classification as an alien investor even though there are several owners of the new commercial enterprise, including persons who are not seeking classification as an immigrant investor and non-natural persons, both foreign (subject to § 204.417) and domestic, provided that the source(s) of all capital invested into the new commercial enterprise or provided to the job-creating entity is identified and has been derived by lawful means. If USCIS has reason to believe that capital invested in the new commercial enterprise or provided to the job-creating entity(ies) has been derived by unlawful means, USCIS may request additional evidence to establish the capital has been derived by lawful means. If an immigrant investor cannot establish that a particular source of capital invested into the new commercial enterprise or provided to the job-creating entity, as applicable, has been derived by lawful means, the alien investor must establish that such capital has been removed from the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, which may also include a demonstration that such capital was replaced with other, lawfully derived capital. USCIS may sanction a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity under § 204.431 if the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity continues to operate with capital that has not been established as lawful. USCIS may sanction a regional center overseeing a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity under § 204.431 if a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity under the purview of that regional center continues to operate with capital that has not been established as lawful.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Restrictions on invested capital.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Gifts and loans.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) A regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity participating in the Regional Center Program, or any person involved with such entities as defined in § 204.401, cannot directly or indirectly gift or loan capital to an investor seeking classification as an immigrant investor.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any commercial loan used to establish a qualified investment must not prohibit the use of loaned funds for investment purposes.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Debt arrangements, guaranteed returns and redemptions.</E>
                             An investor may not invest capital:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In exchange for a note, bond, convertible debt, obligation, or any other debt arrangement between the investor and the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(ii) With a guaranteed rate of return on the amount invested by the investor; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) Subject to any agreement entered into between the investor and the new commercial enterprise prior to such investor's capital being invested for at least two years that provides the investor with a contractual right to repayment, such as a mandatory redemption at a certain time or upon the occurrence of a certain event, or a put or sell-back option held by the investor, even if such contractual right is contingent on the success of the new commercial enterprise, such as having sufficient available cash flow.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                             An investor may invest capital that is subject to a buy back option that may be exercised solely upon withdrawal or denial of the petition or at the discretion of the new commercial enterprise after such capital has been invested for at least two years, provided the capital remained invested at the time of filing the EB-5 immigrant visa petition, and was used to create the required number of jobs for qualifying employees.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Job creation requirements.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             An investor must establish that his or her investment has created or will create at least ten (10) jobs for qualifying employees. The job creation claimed must be tied to the investment capital, meaning that the jobs would not have been created but for the investment capital provided by the investor. Jobs attributable to any financing repaid with EB-5 investment capital may not be claimed as jobs created by such EB-5 investment capital. All of the investment capital must be provided to the entity(ies) most closely responsible for creating the employment upon which the petition is based and used in connection with the job-creating activity undertaken by such entity(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Employment creation allocation.</E>
                             The total number of full-time positions created for qualifying employees will be allocated solely to investors who have used the new commercial enterprise as the basis for an EB-5 immigrant visa petition. No allocation will be made among persons not seeking classification as an immigrant investor or among any non-natural persons, either foreign (subject to § 204.417) or domestic. USCIS will recognize any reasonable agreement made among the investors regarding the identification and allocation of such qualifying positions. If no such agreement exists, USCIS will allocate job creation based on the filing date of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Regional center investors.</E>
                             A regional center, on behalf of the regional center investors in its particular investment offering, must establish that the investment offering identified in its project application will create full-time employment for at least ten (10) qualifying employees per regional center investor in the investment offering. A regional center's project application may establish that the investment will create the required amount of full-time employment for qualifying employees per regional center investor using jobs that are estimated to be created directly or indirectly through the investment in the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, as appropriate. The regional center must include the economically and statistically valid forecasting tools used in its application and the model output must be transparent and reproducible by USCIS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, up to 90 percent of the job creation requirement for regional center investors may be established by indirect job estimates using economically and statistically valid and transparent methodologies. At least 10 percent of the job creation requirement must be established using direct jobs, which may be employees of the new commercial enterprise or job-
                            <PRTPAGE P="40783"/>
                            creating entity or may be estimated using an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology. Estimated direct jobs using an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology based on the job-creating activity of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity are not limited solely to employees of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. Any jobs estimated as direct jobs may not also be estimated as indirect jobs and vice versa.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Regional center investors may satisfy up to 75 percent of the job creation requirement using jobs estimated to be created indirectly by construction activity lasting less than 2 years. If the regional center is relying on model-derived, direct jobs from construction activity lasting less than 2 years, the number of those jobs that may be counted as direct jobs must be calculated by multiplying the total number of model-derived, direct jobs estimated to be created by the fraction of the 2-year period that the construction activity lasts.</P>
                        <P>(iii) A regional center may rely on an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology to establish the job creation requirements using jobs estimated to be created by prospective tenants occupying commercial real estate created or improved by capital investments if the estimated jobs are not existing jobs that have been or will be relocated.</P>
                        <P>(iv) A regional center may not rely on an economic model that uses visitor spending as an input to demonstrate job creation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Adjudication of petitions on merits.</E>
                             USCIS will not pre-adjudicate EB-5 immigrant visa petitions. Each petition will be adjudicated on its own merits.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Reserved visa qualification.</E>
                             To qualify for a reserved visa under section 203(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Act, an investor must submit an EB-5 immigrant visa petition on or after March 15, 2022, and demonstrate eligibility as a qualified investor, including investment of the required minimum amount of lawful capital under § 204.407(b).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.408</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence required.</E>
                             A standalone investor must submit all the required evidence in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section. A regional center investor must submit all the required evidence in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section along with evidence of association with a regional center's pending or approved project application and certify that all records associated with such application are incorporated by reference into the investor's petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of investment.</E>
                             To establish the investor has invested, or is in the process of investing, the amount of capital required by § 204.407(b), the investor must submit:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Evidence that the investment remains invested in the new commercial enterprise on the date the EB-5 immigrant visa petition is filed.</P>
                        <P>(2) For all investments into a new commercial enterprise other than a sole proprietorship:</P>
                        <P>(i) Executed investment, organizational, and other offering agreements including executed subscription agreements and operating or partnership agreements (which may include only executed signature pages for regional center investors where the full agreement is contained in their associated project application and incorporated into the regional center investor's petition for classification); and</P>
                        <P>(ii) As applicable, equity certificates, equity ledgers, capitalization tables, or other records of the new commercial enterprise showing the investor has invested into the new commercial enterprise.</P>
                        <P>(3) When investing cash:</P>
                        <P>(i) Bank statement(s) showing amount(s) transferred from or on behalf of the investor and deposited in United States bank account(s) for the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence from the escrow agent showing the deposit of the investor's capital; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Evidence from the new commercial enterprise showing the receipt of the investor's capital.</P>
                        <P>(4) When investing other forms of capital:</P>
                        <P>(i) Evidence of assets that have been purchased for use in the new commercial enterprise, including invoices, sales receipts, and purchase contracts containing sufficient information to identify such assets, their purchase costs, date(s) of purchase, and purchasing entity;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence of property transferred from abroad for use in the new commercial enterprise, including U.S. Customs and Border Protection commercial entry documents and transit insurance policies containing ownership information and sufficient information to identify the property; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Evidence to indicate the fair market value of any capital other than cash, the methodology used to determine the fair market value of that capital, and the date of such determination.</P>
                        <P>(5) When using a promissory note as evidence of commitment to invest, evidence that the investor is required to complete payments on the promissory note prior to obtaining conditional permanent resident status and that:</P>
                        <P>(i) Assets securing the note are owned by the investor;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The security interests are perfected;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The assets are amenable to seizure; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) The assets have an adequate fair market value.</P>
                        <P>(6) Evidence that the new commercial enterprise has undertaken meaningful concrete business activity, such that the investor's capital is or will be at risk. De minimis actions such as formulating an idea for a future business, forming a business entity, depositing funds in a business account over which the investor exercises control, and executing a lease are generally not meaningful concrete business activities.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence tracing the path of capital invested in the new commercial enterprise.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>The investor must trace the path of capital back to its origination and provide sufficient evidence the capital remained lawful from the time the capital was derived through the time of investment in the new commercial enterprise. The investor must submit the following evidence:</P>
                        <P>(1) Bank statements or other third-party statements that establish where the capital originated;</P>
                        <P>(2) A complete transaction history of the investment capital;</P>
                        <P>(3) Transfer documents showing movement of the investment capital from the time the investor acquired the capital to the date of investment;</P>
                        <P>(4) Evidence the investor provided his or her capital to the new commercial enterprise utilizing an authorized money or value transfer services (MVTS) or money services business (MSB) compliant with the laws of the United States and those of relevant regulatory authorities of the host country. These laws and regulations include financial requirements and regulations, to include anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT) requirements;</P>
                        <P>(5) The identity of all persons, who transferred or will transfer any capital or funds into the United States on behalf of the investor that are used to meet the capital requirement under § 204.407(b) or pay administrative costs and fees associated with the investor's investment; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (6) Any other additional documentation necessary to establish the lawful path of the capital.
                            <PRTPAGE P="40784"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of lawful source of investment funds and administrative costs and fees.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>To establish that the petitioner has invested, or is actively in the process of investing, capital and used funds to pay administrative costs and fees associated with the petitioner's investment that were obtained from a lawful source and through lawful means, the petitioner must submit, as applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) If any part of the capital is accumulated by the investor:</P>
                        <P>(i) Bank records demonstrating the accumulation of capital;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Income certificates issued by the investor's employer;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Personal income tax returns for the period when capital was accumulated;</P>
                        <P>(2) If any part of the investor's capital is obtained from the sale or mortgage of property:</P>
                        <P>(i) Appraisal or property value;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence the investor owns the property from which capital was obtained;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Mortgage contract;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Purchase or sales contract;</P>
                        <P>(v) Sales tax or transfer tax payment receipts;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Evidence of how the funds used to purchase any property were accumulated as described under paragraph (d)(1) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(3) If any part of the investor's capital is derived from the investor's ownership in a business:</P>
                        <P>(i) Capital verification reports;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Company bank statements;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Financial audit reports;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Foreign business registration records;</P>
                        <P>(v) Loan contracts between the investor and the business;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Shareholder or similar resolutions authorizing the investor to take a loan or receive a distribution;</P>
                        <P>(vii) Relevant tax returns;</P>
                        <P>(viii) Evidence of how the funds used to purchase any business ownership was accumulated as described under paragraph (d)(1) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(4) Certified copies of any judgments or evidence of all pending governmental civil or criminal actions, governmental administrative proceedings, and any private civil actions (pending or otherwise) involving monetary judgments against the petitioner from any court in or outside the United States or an attestation that the investor is not subject to any such judgments, actions, or proceedings;</P>
                        <P>(5) If any part of the capital is gifted or loaned to the investor:</P>
                        <P>(i) Identification of the person or entity that supplied the gift or loan;</P>
                        <P>(ii) A letter from the donor acknowledging the gift and confirming the gift has no expectation of repayment;</P>
                        <P>(iii) A copy of the loan agreement;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Evidence that the source of any funds provided by a donor or non-bank lender, as applicable, is lawful, including all relevant evidence under this paragraph (d) from such donor or non-bank lender; and</P>
                        <P>(6) Evidence identifying any other source(s) of capital or funds used to pay administrative costs and fees associated with the investor's investment.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of investment in an established new commercial enterprise.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>To establish that the investor is investing in an established new commercial enterprise authorized to do business in the United States, a standalone investor must submit:</P>
                        <P>(1) Complete formation documents, such as articles of incorporation, organization, association, certificate of merger or consolidation or other similar formation documents, together with all amendments to such document(s);</P>
                        <P>(2) Complete copies of all other organizational documents, such as a partnership agreement, operating agreement, bylaws, or other similar organizational documents for the new commercial enterprise, together with all amendments to such document(s); and</P>
                        <P>(3) Certificate(s) evidencing authority to do business in the State, municipality, or other applicable jurisdiction of the United States in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of sufficient job creation.</E>
                             To establish that a new commercial enterprise will create not fewer than 10 full-time positions for qualifying employees, a standalone investor must submit:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Evidence of full-time employment, which may consist of the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) Documentation consisting of photocopies of quarterly State tax records, or equivalent tax records in a U.S. territory, if such employees have already been hired following the investment of the petitioner's capital; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) A comprehensive business plan showing that such employees will be hired within two years of the date the investor has invested the required amount of capital.</P>
                        <P>(2) Evidence that employees are qualifying employees, which may consist of the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) Employment eligibility verification forms for the relevant employees;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence the new commercial enterprise is using, or commits to use, e-Verify, or successor system, to validate the employees' eligibility to work in the United States; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) Any other documentation to establish that the claimed employees are or will be qualifying employees.</P>
                        <P>(3) Evidence that an investor engaging in the reorganization or restructuring of a pre-existing business, as applicable, has not caused and will not cause a net loss of employment.</P>
                        <P>(4) Evidence that establishes the pre-acquisition level of employment, as applicable, for the new commercial enterprise and shows that the investment created the required number of full-time positions for qualified workers in addition to those that existed before the acquisition.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of investment in a targeted employment area or high employment area.</E>
                             To establish that the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business in a targeted employment area or high employment area, a standalone investor must submit:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) In the case of a rural area, a map of the proposed area with the population counts of that area that establish the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business outside any standard metropolitan statistical area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget, and outside the boundary of any city or town with a population of 20,000 or more as based on the most recent decennial census of the United States;</P>
                        <P>(2) In the case of a high unemployment area, a list of the census tract(s) comprising the proposed area and the unemployment statistics for the area as set forth in § 204.402, and the method or methods by which the unemployment statistics were obtained, as well as the national unemployment rate used to calculate whether the area meets the definition of a high unemployment area; or</P>
                        <P>(3) In the case of investment in a metropolitan statistical area that is not a targeted employment area, a list of the census tract(s) in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business and employment data showing the unemployment statistics for such census tract(s) as compared to the national average unemployment rate and the method or methods by which the unemployment statistics were obtained.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.409</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            USCIS will notify the investor of the decision on his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition. If the petition is denied, USCIS will provide the reasons for denial in compliance with § 103.3(a)(1)(i) of this chapter. The investor may appeal a denial to the Administrative Appeals Office under 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40785"/>
                            part 103 of this chapter. If USCIS determines a regional center investor's capital did not meet the lawful source requirements of § 204.407(c), USCIS will notify the regional center.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.410</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             An investor who was eligible for classification at the time of filing an EB-5 immigrant visa petition may file an amendment to a pending or approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition on the form designated by USCIS with the appropriate fee. An investor may not file an amendment to correct a deficiency that existed as of the date of filing, amend a denied petition, or amend an approved petition that has had its approval revoked by USCIS. An investor may submit an amendment only to demonstrate continued eligibility because:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) There was a material change that affects the immigrant investor's eligibility;</P>
                        <P>(2) USCIS terminated the immigrant investor's associated regional center; or</P>
                        <P>(3) USCIS debarred the immigrant investor's associated new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Material changes.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) USCIS will generally incorporate a material change to a particular investment offering into the EB-5 immigrant visa petitions of impacted investors after the regional center files an amendment to the project application and USCIS approves the amendment. A regional center investor must file an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition if he or she must invest additional capital for any reason to maintain eligibility, supported by evidence that the source of any additional investment capital is lawful under § 204.407(c). USCIS will deny any amendment to modify or change the source of the regional center investor's capital. Any such change would be an impermissible material change. In such a case, a regional center investor may file a new EB-5 immigrant visa petition, except where the regional center investor is barred from seeking an EB-5 immigrant visa under § 204.431.</P>
                        <P>(2) A standalone investor may encounter situations that require changes to his or her business plan that constitute a material change to the originally filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition. A standalone investor may file an amendment to his or her previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition where the change does not affect the standalone investor's eligibility at time of filing, such as where business circumstances require the standalone investor to modify a particular aspect of his or her business plan, provided the business plan was credible when filed. A standalone investor must submit an amendment to his or her previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition if he or she must seek to extend or modify a designation of a high unemployment area because of the designation's expiration while the standalone investor was in the process of investing or because the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business in a new location. A standalone investor must file an amendment if the investor must invest additional capital for any reason to maintain eligibility, supported by evidence that the source of any additional investment capital is lawful under § 204.407(c). USCIS will deny any amendment to modify or change the source of the investor's original capital. In such a case, a standalone investor may file a new EB-5 immigrant visa petition, except where the standalone investor is barred from seeking an EB-5 immigrant visa under § 204.431.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">In the case of termination of the regional center designation or withdrawal of the regional center designation.</E>
                             USCIS will notify an investor if his or her regional center is terminated and may include any job creation credited prior to the termination. To maintain eligibility on the previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition, the regional center investor's new commercial enterprise may either associate with another designated regional center in good standing, regardless of the approved geographical boundaries of that regional center, or the regional center investor may make a qualifying investment in another new commercial enterprise associated with a designated regional center.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">In the case of debarment of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>USCIS will notify an investor if his or her new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is debarred and may include any job creation credited prior to the debarment. To maintain eligibility on the previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition, the regional center investor must associate his or her investment with a new commercial enterprise in good standing and invest additional capital as necessary to satisfy any remaining job creation requirements. The new commercial enterprise with which the regional center investor associates does not need to remain in the same regional center but must be associated with a designated regional center. To associate with a new commercial enterprise in good standing, the regional center investor must provide evidence of the transfer of his or her capital to the new commercial enterprise and establish any remaining job creation to meet the requirements of this section. A regional center investor associating with a subsequent new commercial enterprise must keep the required amount of investment at risk, which may require the investor to supplement the original investment if the investor has not yet received his or her original investment funds back from the debarred new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity and the investor has not yet met the job creation requirements.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">When to file an amendment to an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) An investor must file an amendment to a previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition within 30 days after any material change identified in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(2) If an amendment is necessary to demonstrate continued eligibility, an investor must file an amendment to a previously filed EB-5 immigrant visa petition within 180 days of the date USCIS issues notification to the investor that the investor's regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, as applicable, has been terminated or debarred, unless the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity appeals the termination or debarment. If the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity appeals the termination or debarment decision, the 180-day timeframe for the filing of an amendment will be extended to 180 days beyond the date of the final determination on the appeal. A motion to reopen or reconsider on either the initial termination or debarment determination or the appeal determination does not stay the 180-day timeframe.</P>
                        <P>(3) An amendment to an EB-5 immigrant visa petition is not required if, at the time of notice to the investor of termination or debarment of the regional center, new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, the investor's required amount of capital remained invested in the new commercial enterprise for at least two years and the new commercial enterprise created the required amount of jobs in accordance with § 204.407.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                             An investor that USCIS has reason to believe was a knowing participant in any activity that led to the termination or debarment of the regional center, the new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity cannot qualify for the provisions of this section. Such determination may be based on actual or constructive knowledge and direct or 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40786"/>
                            indirect participation. USCIS will notify the investor of its intent to determine that the investor was a knowing participant in such activity with a notice of intent to deny or revoke the approval of the EB-5 immigrant visa petition, as appropriate.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.411</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applying for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Any entity seeking designation as a regional center must properly file, in accordance with § 103.2 of this chapter, the form designated by USCIS. Any entity designated as a regional center prior to the enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 must properly file, in accordance with § 103.2 of this chapter, the form designated by USCIS to indicate compliance with the requirements of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022. USCIS may reject or deny an application that is not properly filed in accordance with § 103.2 of this chapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.412</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Geographic area and economic impact.</E>
                             An entity seeking designation as a regional center must submit, with its application, a proposal consistent with the purpose of concentrating pooled investment within a defined, contiguous, and limited geographic area. USCIS will deny an application for regional center designation where the applicant does not establish that the area identified is contiguous and limited or is not likely to successfully concentrate pooled investments.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Contiguous.</E>
                             An area is contiguous where the areas identified share a common boundary or at least one common point, when using legal boundaries recognized or established by the U.S. Census Bureau.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Limited.</E>
                             An area is limited if the entity establishes that the proposed economic activity will have a substantive economic impact on the proposed area by credibly demonstrating the extent of those impacts through net positive job creation and capital investment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Monitoring and oversight requirements.</E>
                             An entity seeking designation as a regional center must establish policies and procedures to ensure its compliance with, and to monitor and oversee the new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities with which it will seek investment from regional center investors to ensure such entities' compliance with, this subpart and all applicable laws, regulations and Executive Orders of the United States, including immigration laws, criminal laws, securities laws, and labor laws. Such policies and procedures must include the establishment and maintenance of effective internal controls by the regional center and every new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity associated with the regional center, including non-affiliated job-creating entities, over capital received from regional center investors, that provide reasonable assurance that the ongoing use of the capital complies with all applicable immigration laws, securities laws, labor laws, and the terms and conditions of the investments under the purview of the regional center.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Information and Attestations.</E>
                             An entity seeking designation as a regional center must identify all individuals involved in the regional center and submit attestations and information confirming that all persons (including individuals and organizations) involved with the regional center meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act as provided by § 204.417(a). USCIS will deny an application for regional center designation where a person has failed to submit a required attestation or information to confirm compliance with section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act or where a person is precluded from participating in the Regional Center Program under section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act but remains involved with the entity seeking designation as a regional center.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.413</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany application for regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The application for regional center designation must:</P>
                        <P>(a) Identify the contiguous and limited geographic area of the United States where the regional center will focus its job-creating activities;</P>
                        <P>(b) Include reasonable and credible predictions, supported by economically and statistically valid and transparent methodologies, concerning the amount of investment that will be pooled, the kinds of commercial enterprises that will receive such investments, details of the jobs that will be created directly or indirectly as a result of such investments, and other positive economic effects such investments will have;</P>
                        <P>(c) Include a general market analysis of the proposed job creating activities and explanation regarding how the proposed project activities are likely to promote economic growth and create jobs;</P>
                        <P>(d) Describe the promotional efforts taken and planned by the regional center to recruit regional center investors, including any planned use of social media platforms and web-based communications tools to advertise, promote, sell, or market the EB-5 visa program and any engagement of direct or third-party promoters;</P>
                        <P>(e) Provide a detailed statement regarding the direct and indirect ownership and management of the regional center, including biographies for management, officers, directors, and any person with similar responsibilities;</P>
                        <P>(f) Describe the relevant experience and expertise of the persons involved with the regional center that would demonstrate the likelihood of the regional center's success in creating jobs and increasing capital investment;</P>
                        <P>(g) Describe, in writing, the specific policies and procedures reasonably designed to cause associated parties to comply, as applicable, with the immigration laws, criminal laws, labor laws, and securities laws of the United States and the laws of the applicable States in connection with the offer, purchase, or sale of securities of the regional center and its associated new commercial enterprises or job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, which may be further documented in:</P>
                        <P>(1) The business plan;</P>
                        <P>(2) Policy documents;</P>
                        <P>(3) Standard operating procedures; or</P>
                        <P>(4) Written supervisory procedures;</P>
                        <P>(h) Describe how the regional center will monitor and oversee all investment offerings and business activities associated with, through, or under the sponsorship of the regional center, including those occurring at any associated new commercial enterprise or associated job-creating entity(ies) to ensure compliance with sections 203(b)(5) and 216A of the Act, which must include documentation of programs of internal controls by the regional center that provide regular reviews of individual projects and examination of financial records and any planned use of independent reviews by local third-party accountants or auditors; and</P>
                        <P>(i) Include an attestation under § 204.417(a) for each person involved with the regional center.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.414</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>USCIS will notify the applicant of the decision, and, if the application is denied, of the reasons for the denial in compliance with § 103.3(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, except where reasons for the denial are exempted, including by sections 203(b)(5)(H) and 203(b)(5)(N) of the Act or otherwise. The applicant may appeal a denial to the Administrative Appeals Office under part 103 of this chapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40787"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.415</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Duration of regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Regional centers designated to participate in the Regional Center Program will remain designated unless the regional center withdraws its designation under § 204.416 or has its designation terminated under § 204.431.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.416</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending or withdrawing a regional center designation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Changes requiring an amendment.</E>
                             A regional center must file an amendment to its designation based on:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Any change to the name of the regional center;</P>
                        <P>(2) Any significant proposed changes to the regional center's organizational structure, ownership, or administration, including the sale of the regional center or changes to the regional center's policies and procedures to monitor and oversee associated new commercial enterprises and job-creating entities under § 204.412(b);</P>
                        <P>(3) Any other change resulting in a person becoming involved with the regional center that was not previously subject to the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act;</P>
                        <P>(4) The departure of a person previously involved with the regional center that held a significant role in the management or oversight of the regional center, which must also include information about the person now filling the position vacated; or</P>
                        <P>(5) Any proposed change to the geographic area of the regional center.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Filing an amendment.</E>
                             A designated regional center must file the form designated by USCIS with the appropriate fees to amend its designation for the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section at least 120 days prior to implementation. Any amendment must include an attestation required under § 204.417 for any person that becomes involved with the regional center. In exigent circumstances, the regional center must notify USCIS within 5 business days of the change along with a description of the temporary aspects of such change, including identifying information for any persons temporarily involved with the regional center, and file an amendment within 30 days of the change identifying all relevant aspects of the change, including attestations required under § 204.417 for any persons who continue to be involved with the regional center at such time that were not previously subject to section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act based on their involvement with the regional center. Exigent circumstances must be based on significant, unanticipated disruptions to the operations of the regional center that are outside the control of the regional center and make prior notice impossible or impractical.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Impact on associated project applications and associated immigrant visa petitions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) USCIS will hold the adjudication of any pending project applications or EB-5 immigrant visa petitions where an amendment is submitted to report any change in ownership of a regional center resulting in a change in control of the regional center or change in ownership that results in someone becoming involved with the regional center who was not previously subject to section 203(b)(5)(H) based on his or her involvement with the regional center. USCIS will resume adjudication of the project applications and EB-5 immigrant visa petitions after adjudication of the amendment. The regional center may not submit new project applications until after USCIS has adjudicated the amendment.</P>
                        <P>(2) USCIS will continue to adjudicate any project application submitted by the regional center and any EB-5 immigrant visa petitions associated with the regional center while USCIS reviews the regional center's amendment. If any information in the amendment filing negatively impacts program eligibility of the regional center, its projects, or associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions, USCIS will hold the adjudication of any pending project applications or EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until the amendment is adjudicated.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Withdrawal From Regional Center Program.</E>
                             A regional center may elect to withdraw from the Regional Center Program and request a termination of its designation. The regional center must notify USCIS of such election in the form of a letter or as otherwise requested by USCIS. USCIS will notify the regional center of its acknowledgement of the withdrawal request and termination of the regional center's designation in writing.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.417</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Bona fides of persons involved with the Regional Center Program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Information and Attestation.</E>
                             Any person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity must submit information and an attestation to establish that he or she is not precluded by section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act from participating in the Regional Center Program by submitting the form designated by USCIS according to the form instructions, including the required biometrics. Persons involved with a job-creating entity that is not an affiliated job-creating entity may be required to submit such information and attestation. Any person that becomes involved with an entity that has not previously submitted the required information and attestation for his or her involvement with that entity must submit the attestation within 14 days of becoming a person involved.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Notice to regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies).</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>USCIS will notify an affected regional center, new commercial enterprise, and job-creating entity(ies), as appropriate, if USCIS becomes aware that any person involved in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies) does not meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act for participation in the Regional Center Program. USCIS will provide such notice to the last known address of the affected entity(ies).</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Notice to USCIS.</E>
                             The regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, as applicable, must notify USCIS if any person involved with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies) does not meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act, within 14 days of acquiring such knowledge, unless the entity acquired such knowledge from a notice issued by USCIS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Remedial action.</E>
                             If any person identified in an application for designation or amendment to a regional center designation as involved with the regional center is ineligible to participate in the Regional Center Program, USCIS will issue a notice under paragraph (b) and provide the entity seeking designation an opportunity to remove the person from involvement with the entity. Within 14 days of the date USCIS issued a notice under paragraph (b) of this section or within 14 days of the date that an entity acquired knowledge on its own that a person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, does not meet the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act for participation in the Regional Center Program, the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, must take commercially reasonable efforts to remove the person from his or her involvement and provide information to USCIS on the steps taken to remove the person from his or her involvement with the affected entity(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Penalties.</E>
                             USCIS may suspend or terminate a regional center or suspend or bar a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity under § 204.431 if 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40788"/>
                            any person involved with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies):
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Fails to submit the form under paragraph (c) of this section or appear for biometrics under § 103.2(b)(9) of this chapter;</P>
                        <P>(2) Knowingly submits false information, or omits relevant information on the form;</P>
                        <P>(3) Does not provide notice to USCIS as required under paragraph (c) of this section; or</P>
                        <P>(4) Does not discontinue the involvement of a prohibited person within 14 days of acquiring knowledge of the person not meeting the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.418 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Regional center annual statements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Filing.</E>
                             Each designated regional center must file an annual statement on the form designated by USCIS according to the form instructions with the appropriate fees. A certifier for the regional center must complete the required certifications on the annual statement, including, to the best of the certifier's knowledge after a due diligence investigation, the regional center's compliance with section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act, the regional center's compliance with securities laws of the United States and the securities laws of any State, the regional center's compliance with section 203(b)(5)(K) of the Act, and the regional center's compliance with its ongoing monitoring and oversight obligations under § 204.412(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Required information and documentation.</E>
                             The regional center must submit the following information and documentation with the annual statement:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) An accounting of all individual regional center investor capital invested in the regional center, new commercial enterprise, and job-creating entity(ies), which must include an annual financial statement;</P>
                        <P>(2) Any litigation or bankruptcy proceedings involving the regional center, new commercial enterprise(s), or job-creating entity(ies) initiated or resolved in the prior year; and</P>
                        <P>(3) For each new commercial enterprise with any investors who have a pending or approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition or who have obtained conditional permanent resident status but not yet filed a petition to remove conditions prior to the reporting period of the annual statement:</P>
                        <P>(i) A list of all regional center investors who have committed capital to the new commercial enterprise and the job-creating entities to which that capital was provided;</P>
                        <P>(ii) An accounting of the aggregate capital invested in the new commercial enterprise and any job-creating entity(ies) by regional center investors for each capital investment project undertaken by the new commercial enterprise, including a description of how the capital is being used to execute each capital investment project and evidence that 100 percent of the capital has been committed to each capital investment project;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Detailed evidence of the progress made toward the completion of each capital investment project, which must include, as applicable, photographs, expenditure reports, invoices, permits, certificates of occupancy, or other evidence that describe or show the progress of each capital investment project;</P>
                        <P>(iv) A statement describing the amount and purpose of the fees and accounting of all fees collected from regional center investors by the regional center, the new commercial enterprise, any affiliated job-creating entity(ies), any affiliated issuer of securities, or any promoter, finder, broker-dealer, or other entity employed by such entities;</P>
                        <P>(v) An accounting of the aggregate direct jobs created or preserved, which may include a summary update to the economic impact analysis;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Material changes to the documents submitted with the associated project application made during the preceding fiscal year; and</P>
                        <P>(vii) Information regarding the separate account required to be maintained by the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, under § 204.425, which must include a bank statement to document the separate account.</P>
                        <P>(4) Any additional information or documentation requested by USCIS, when necessary to determine the regional center's ongoing eligibility for designation under § 204.412.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Amendments.</E>
                             USCIS may require a regional center to amend or supplement its annual filing if USCIS determines the statement is insufficient or that an amendment or supplement is necessary.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.419 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Submitting a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>For any regional center investor to submit an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, a designated regional center must first properly file a project application on the form designated by USCIS according to the form instructions with the appropriate fees and required documentation. Any designated regional center suspended from participation in the EB-5 program may not file a new project application during any period of suspension. Any regional center designated before May 14, 2022, that had previously submitted an exemplar Form I-526 or had previously had an immigrant investor's EB-5 immigrant visa petition adjudicated must file a project application before any new regional center investors in the particular investment offering may submit an EB-5 immigrant visa petition.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.420 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Eligibility for a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>A designated regional center seeking approval of a particular investment offering must establish that:</P>
                        <P>(a) The proposed project to be undertaken in connection with the particular investment offering is realistic and credible;</P>
                        <P>(b) The particular investment offering complies with applicable eligibility requirements for classification of regional center investors into such offering under section 203(b)(5) of the Act, including investment of the requisite amount of capital and that the project to be undertaken in connection with such offering will create a sufficient number of jobs per regional center investor;</P>
                        <P>(c) The regional center will maintain sufficient oversight of the particular investment offering for compliance with all applicable immigration and securities laws;</P>
                        <P>(d) All persons involved with the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies) are eligible to be persons involved with that particular entity under the Regional Center Program, including appearing for biometrics when requested; and</P>
                        <P>(e) The new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, identified in the project application have established a separate account and fund administrator as required by § 204.425.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.421 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Initial evidence to accompany a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of investment in an established new commercial enterprise.</E>
                             To establish the particular investment offering described in the project application is in an established new commercial enterprise, the regional center must submit:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Complete formation documents, such as articles of incorporation, organization, association, certificate of merger or consolidation, or other similar formation documents, together with all amendments to such document(s);</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Complete copies of all other organizational documents, such as a 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40789"/>
                            partnership agreement, operating agreement, bylaws, or other similar organizational documents for the new commercial enterprise, together with all amendments to such document(s); and
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Certificate(s) evidencing authority to do business in the State, municipality, or other applicable jurisdiction of the United States in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of sufficient job creation.</E>
                             To establish sufficient job creation in the project application, the regional center must submit a comprehensive business plan for the specific capital investment project along with an economic impact analysis estimating job creation related to the job-creating activity showing that the project will create full-time employment for not fewer than ten qualifying employees per regional center investor within the timeline identified in the comprehensive business plan. The economic impact analysis must be based on an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology in which model outputs are reproducible and all the inputs and any adjustments to the model are fully explained. At least one job per regional center investor must be a direct job, which may be established using an economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of investment in a targeted employment area, infrastructure project, or high employment area.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>To establish that a particular investment offering in a targeted employment area, infrastructure project or high employment area, the regional center must submit:</P>
                        <P>(1) In the case of a rural area, a map of the area where the new commercial enterprise will principally be doing business with the population counts of that area that establish the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business:</P>
                        <P>(i) Outside any standard metropolitan statistical area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Outside the boundary of any city or town with a population of 20,000 or more as based on the most recent decennial census of the United States;</P>
                        <P>(2) In the case of a high unemployment area, a list of the census tract(s) comprising the proposed area and the unemployment statistics for the area as set forth in § 204.402, and the method or methods by which the unemployment statistics were obtained, as well as the national unemployment rate used to calculate whether the area meets the definition of a high unemployment area; or</P>
                        <P>(3) In the case of an infrastructure project, evidence of a contract with a Federal, State, local, or tribal agency or authority to provide EB-5 investment capital to a public works project; or</P>
                        <P>(4) In the case of investment in a metropolitan statistical area that is not a targeted employment area, a list of the census tract(s) in which the new commercial enterprise is principally doing business and employment data showing the unemployment statistics for such census tract(s) as compared to the national average unemployment rate and the method or methods by which the unemployment statistics were obtained.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence of documentation required to be submitted and maintained by the regional center.</E>
                             The regional center must submit a copy of any agreements between any investor in the particular investment offering and the regional center or its related entities, or agreements between the regional center and its related entities that relate to the transfer of any capital described in the project application, including, but not limited to, offering memoranda, subscription agreements, escrow agreements, organizational documents, term sheets, side letters, documentation of oral agreements, and any other marketing materials used or to be used in connection with the offering, including the identification of any social media platforms and web-based communications tools to advertise, promote, sell, or market EB-5 visas or related businesses.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Attestations from persons involved with the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity.</E>
                             The regional center must include an attestation required under § 204.417 for any person involved with the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity. USCIS may waive the submission of the attestation under § 204.417, in its discretion, for an entity identified in the project application that is involved with the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Separate account documentation.</E>
                             The regional center must include documentation to show that the new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity, as applicable, identified in the project application has established a separate account and retained a fund administrator as required by § 204.425. Such documentation must include bank statements for the separate account(s) required to be established.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Additional documentation.</E>
                             The regional center must include a description of the following, which may be included as appropriate in the documents in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Where this information has not been addressed in other documents submitted with the project application, the regional center must include:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Biographies for management, officers, directors, and any person with similar responsibilities at the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies);</P>
                        <P>(2) Risks associated with the new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies);</P>
                        <P>(3) Any investment and offering documents provided to potential investors related to the particular investment offering described in the project application;</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) Any documents related to the investment offering filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Act of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 77a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            ) or with the securities regulator of any State, as required by law;
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) Conflicts of interest that currently exist or may arise among the regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity(ies), or the attorneys, owners, officers, managers, directors, or other persons acting in a similar capacity of these entities; and</P>
                        <P>(6) Pending investigations, litigation, bankruptcy, or adverse judgments or bankruptcy orders issued during the most recent 10-year period, in the United States or abroad, involving the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies), or its owners, officers, managers, directors, or other persons acting in a similar capacity, or any other enterprise in which such persons held majority ownership.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.422 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Decision on a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             USCIS will notify the regional center, in writing, of the decision on the project application and on any subsequent amendment. USCIS may deny any project application that does not establish eligibility under § 204.420 or does not include the evidence required under § 204.421. If denied, USCIS will specify the reasons for the denial in compliance with § 103.3(a)(1)(i) of this chapter. The regional center may appeal the denial to the Administrative Appeals Office according to § 103.3 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of denial of project application on regional center investors.</E>
                             A regional center investor cannot rely on a denied project application approval to demonstrate eligibility for an EB-5 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40790"/>
                            immigrant visa. Pending visa petitions associated with a denied project application will be denied. USCIS will hold adjudication of any pending visa petitions associated with a denied project application until the time for appeal has lapsed or a decision on the appeal has been rendered.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.423 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amending a project application.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The regional center must file an amendment to an approved project application on the form designated by USCIS according to the form instructions, with the appropriate fee and required documentation. The regional center must notify any regional center investors who have filed an EB-5 immigrant visa petition associated with the particular investment offering of the change.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Amendment required for regional center investors to remove conditions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) At least 90 days prior to the first regional center investor in a particular investment offering becoming eligible to file a petition to remove conditions on his or her residence, a designated regional center must submit an amendment to its project application to provide updated information regarding the progress and job creation of the investment offering.</P>
                        <P>(2) With this amendment, the regional center must submit:</P>
                        <P>(i) An updated comprehensive business plan;</P>
                        <P>(ii) An updated economic impact analysis; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Updated reasonable and transparent methodologies to establish job creation.</P>
                        <P>(3) In adjudicating the amendment, USCIS will determine the amount of job creation that has been established.</P>
                        <P>(i) If the amendment is approved with a determination that sufficient job creation has been established to satisfy the job creation requirement for all associated regional center investors, the amendment approval will satisfy the regional center investors' evidentiary burden to establish sufficient job creation under § 216.6(e) of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(ii) If USCIS determines that job creation has been established, but the amount of job creation established is less than the amount needed to satisfy the job creation requirement for all associated regional center investors, USCIS will allocate established job creation as described in § 204.407(e)(2). USCIS will issue a notice of partial approval of the amendment in these circumstances, which will identify the amount of job creation that has been established. This partial approval will satisfy the evidentiary burden to establish sufficient job creation under § 216.6(e) of this chapter for those regional center investors eligible to be allocated credit for the job creation pursuant to § 204.407(e)(2). The regional center must submit an additional amendment under this paragraph (b) to establish any remaining job creation for any regional center investors that receive a one-year extension under § 216.6(g)(3) of this chapter or have not yet filed to remove the conditions on their permanent residence at least 90 days prior to such an investor filing a petition to remove conditions on his or her residence. A regional center may appeal this decision.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Changes requiring an amendment within 30 days.</E>
                             Within 30 days of the change, the regional center must file an amendment to an approved project application based on any of the following:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Change of location of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies);</P>
                        <P>(2) Change in the manner capital is contributed by a regional center investor to the new commercial enterprise or the subsequent disbursement of such capital to any job-creating entity(ies), including changes to the separate account or other escrow arrangements;</P>
                        <P>(3) Change to the evidence required in § 204.421(b) such that any investors seeking classification as a regional center investor will be relying on a different economically and statistically valid and transparent methodology than reflected in the previously approved project application;</P>
                        <P>(4) Change in the substantive rights or obligations associated with the regional center investor's ownership of the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(5) Changes to the expenditure of capital or capital structure reflected in any business plan submitted in connection with the previously approved project application in response to or otherwise materially impacting the credibility or viability of such plans that could adversely impact eligibility for associated investors including, but not limited to, increases in the maximum number of investors identified in the project application, payments to parties related to the business plan, and the loss of financing or addition of outside financing from sources not previously identified in the approved project application or otherwise obtained from any source other than a federally regulated bank or other financial institution (as defined in 18 U.S.C. 20); and</P>
                        <P>(6) Extension or modification of a high unemployment designation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Good faith.</E>
                             The initial project application and amendment must be submitted in good faith by the regional center.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Impact on associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) At the time of filing the amendment, the regional center must identify any EB-5 immigrant visa petitions associated with an approved project application and any regional center investors relying on the project to remove conditions on their residence. USCIS will incorporate any changes and updates reflected in such amendment into associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions and petitions to remove conditions and will be considered with the other evidence submitted with each such EB-5 immigrant visa petition and petition to remove conditions for purposes of determining eligibility.</P>
                        <P>(2) USCIS will hold the adjudication of any pending EB-5 immigrant visa petitions related to a project application where an amendment is submitted under paragraph (c) of this section to report any change to the ownership or location of the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity. USCIS will resume adjudication of the EB-5 immigrant visa petitions after adjudication of the amendment. New regional center investors in the project may continue to submit an EB-5 immigrant visa petition, but USCIS will not review or adjudicate those petitions until the amendment is adjudicated.</P>
                        <P>(3) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and this paragraph, USCIS will continue to adjudicate any EB-5 immigrant visa petitions associated with the project application while USCIS reviews the amendment submitted under paragraph (c) of this section. If, upon review of the amendment, USCIS determines that any information in the amendment filing may negatively impact program eligibility of the project or associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions, USCIS will hold the adjudication of any pending EB-5 immigrant visa petitions until the amendment is adjudicated.</P>
                        <P>(4) USCIS will hold the adjudication of petitions to remove conditions based on a particular investment offering until the regional center has submitted an amendment to its approved project application under paragraph (b) of this section. If the regional center does not submit an amendment required under paragraph (b) of this section, USCIS may sanction the regional center under § 204.431(b) and may request from the investor any evidence necessary to establish eligibility under § 216.6 of this chapter to remove the conditions on his or her residence that should have been submitted by the regional center under this section.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="40791"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.424 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Revocation of a project application approval.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Reasons for revocation.</E>
                             USCIS may revoke the approval of a project application in the following circumstances:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Denial of or failure to file an amendment to an approved project application required under § 204.423;</P>
                        <P>(2) The discovery of any evidence negatively affecting program eligibility that was not disclosed by the regional center during the project application process; or</P>
                        <P>(3) A material mistake of law or fact in the adjudication of the project application.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Notification.</E>
                             If USCIS determines that one or more grounds for revocation exist, USCIS will send a written notice of intent to revoke the approval to the regional center explaining the reasons for revocation. The regional center will have 30 days from the date of the notice of intent to revoke to rebut the ground(s) stated in the notice of intent to revoke. USCIS will hold adjudication of any pending regional center investor petitions based on an approved application that is subject to a notice of intent to revoke until a decision has been reached on the revocation of the approval. USCIS will notify the regional center of the decision in writing. If USCIS determines that the approval should be revoked, USCIS will state the specific reasons for revocation in the written decision, the approval of an investment in a commercial enterprise will be revoked, and USCIS will notify associated investors of the revocation as and in a manner that USCIS determines is appropriate. The regional center may appeal the revocation decision to the Administrative Appeals Office according to the procedures in § 103.3 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of termination of regional center designation on approved project application.</E>
                             The termination of the regional center's designation to participate in the Regional Center Program, after any appeal filing period lapses or a filed appeal is adjudicated, results in the automatic revocation of the project application. Automatic revocation of the project application may not be appealed. A new commercial enterprise previously covered by the revoked project application may associate with another designated regional center, irrespective of that regional center's approved geographic area, provided that regional center submits a new project application for that particular investment offering within 180 days of USCIS notifying investors of the termination of the regional center resulting in revocation. The filing of a motion to reopen or reconsider a decision made on appeal does not stay the 180-day timeframe.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of revocation of project application approval on regional center investors.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A regional center investor generally cannot rely on any revoked project application approval to demonstrate eligibility for an EB-5 immigrant visa, except that the investor may continue to be eligible notwithstanding the revocation of the project application approval where sufficient jobs were already created and the investor's capital was invested for at least 2 years under applicable requirements before the revocation. </P>
                        <P>(2) Within 180 days of revocation, a regional center investor may maintain his or her eligibility by submitting an amendment to his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition under § 204.410. If the regional center investor makes an investment in another new commercial enterprise, the regional center investor must make any additional investment in a new commercial enterprise covered by a project application.</P>
                        <P>(3) If the regional center investor is not otherwise eligible as provided under paragraph (d)(1) and takes no action within 180 days of receiving notification of the revocation of the project application approval, USCIS will either revoke the approval of an EB-5 immigrant visa petition based on a project application approval that is revoked, or deny a pending EB-5 immigrant visa petition based on a project application approval that is revoked.</P>
                        <P>(4) USCIS will reject or deny any EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed after the date the project application approval is revoked regardless of whether 180 days have elapsed since notification of the revocation.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.425 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Separate accounts and fund administrators for regional center investor capital.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Separate account and fund administrator.</E>
                             The new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, participating in the Regional Center Program must establish a separate account and retain a fund administrator that is licensed, active, and in good standing as a certified public accountant, attorney, broker-dealer, or investment adviser registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission. The fund administrator must be independent of the new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity(ies), or any of its owners, officers, managers, or any person in a similar position and:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Monitor and track any transfer of amounts from the separate account;</P>
                        <P>(2) Serve as a cosignatory on all separate accounts;</P>
                        <P>(3) Verify that any transfer of amounts invested by regional center investors complies with all governing documents before the amounts are transferred;</P>
                        <P>(4) Approve the transfer of amounts invested by regional center investors with a written or electronic signature;</P>
                        <P>(5) Periodically, but not less than quarterly, provide each regional center investor with information about the activity of the account in which the investor's investment is held, to include the name and location of the bank or financial institution where the account is maintained, and the history of the account; and</P>
                        <P>(6) Make, preserve, and provide to the regional center, during the 5-year period beginning on the last day of the Federal fiscal year in which any transactions occurred, books, ledgers, records, and other documentation necessary to comply with this section and which USCIS may request at any time, including during any audit required by § 204.430.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Waiver of fund administrator.</E>
                             Any new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, that commissions an annual independent financial audit of the new commercial enterprise or the job-creating entity(ies) receiving investment funds from regional center investors that is conducted according to Generally Accepted Auditing Standards does not have to retain a fund administrator otherwise required by paragraph (a) of this section for the period covered by the audit and the succeeding year. The audit must cover the new commercial enterprise and any job-creating entity(ies) to which the new commercial enterprise has disbursed investment funds from regional center investors. The new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, must provide a copy of the audit to all of the new commercial enterprise's investors and its associated regional center. The regional center must include a copy of the audit(s) in its annual statement as required under § 204.418.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Discretionary waiver of fund administrator.</E>
                             USCIS, after consultation with the Securities and Exchange Commission, may waive the fund administrator required by paragraph (a) of this section for any new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity that is controlled by or under common control of an investment adviser or broker-dealer that is registered with the Securities and 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40792"/>
                            Exchange Commission if USCIS, in its discretion, determines that the commission provides comparable protections and transparency for investors as those provided by paragraph (a) of this section. A regional center may request a discretionary waiver of the fund administrator requirement for the new commercial enterprise when filing its project application or by submitting an amended project application.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Use of funds.</E>
                             Capital investment from each regional center investor must be deposited and maintained by a new commercial enterprise or affiliated job-creating entity(ies), as applicable, in a separate account, including amounts held in escrow. A new commercial enterprise may only transfer the investment funds received from regional center investors to a separate account in the United States, transfer the investment funds received from regional center investors to a job-creating entity, deploy the investment funds received from regional center investors into a capital investment project for which they were intended, or transfer the investor's investment funds back to the investor as a refund of the investment. If the new commercial enterprise makes the investor's investment available to an affiliated job-creating entity, the affiliated job-creating entity must keep the funds in a separate account until they are deployed into the capital investment project for which they were intended. Before any amounts held in a separate account may be transferred, a fund administrator must verify that the transfer complies with all governing documents (including organizational, operations, and investment documents) and approve such transfer with a written or electronic signature.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.426 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Redeployment of alien investor capital.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">When a new commercial enterprise may redeploy investor capital.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>A new commercial enterprise may redeploy regional center investor capital anywhere within the United States or its territories for the purpose of maintaining the investor's capital at risk if:</P>
                        <P>(1) The new commercial enterprise has executed the business plan for a capital investment project in good faith, including through any properly filed and approved amendments;</P>
                        <P>(2) The new commercial enterprise has created a sufficient number of new full-time positions to satisfy the job creation requirements of the program for all investors in the new commercial enterprise in accordance with the provisions of this section;</P>
                        <P>(3) The job-creating entity has repaid the capital initially deployed according to the initial investment contemplated by the business plan, or any properly filed and approved amendment; and</P>
                        <P>(4) The capital, after repayment by the job-creating entity, remains at risk and is not redeployed in any passive investment, such as secondary market securities or primary market securities that are unrelated to use in commercial activities.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Timeframe for a new commercial enterprise to redeploy investor capital.</E>
                             Any redeployment of investor capital must be made within 3 months of the return of the capital to the new commercial enterprise. USCIS will consider evidence showing that a longer period was reasonable for a specific type of commercial enterprise or into a specific commercial activity under the totality of the circumstances.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Improper redeployment of investor capital.</E>
                             USCIS will terminate a regional center's designation and may debar or otherwise sanction the new commercial enterprise from participation in the Regional Center Program under § 204.431 if the new commercial enterprise does not comply with the parameters of redeployment provided in this section.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.427 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibition on purchase of publicly available bonds.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Immigrant investor capital may not be utilized, by a new commercial enterprise or otherwise, to purchase municipal or any other bonds, if the bonds are available to the general public, either as part of a primary offering or from a secondary market. This prohibition applies to:</P>
                        <P>(a) The initial investment by the immigrant investor into the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(b) Immigrant investor capital in escrow awaiting deposit into the new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(c) Use of immigrant investor capital by the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies) in the course of business operations;</P>
                        <P>(d) Redeployment of immigrant investor capital after job creation requirements have been met; and</P>
                        <P>(e) Any other use of immigrant investor capital during the period in which the immigrant investor's capital is required to remain at risk.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.428 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Direct and third-party promoters.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Registration.</E>
                             Any direct or third-party promoter of the EB-5 program, including migration agents, must register with USCIS by submitting the form designated by USCIS, including the information and certifications required under paragraph (b) of this section, prior to engaging in any promotional activities. If USCIS determines that a request for registration does not meet applicable requirements, USCIS may issue a first notice of non-registration to the promoter and provide an opportunity to respond prior to issuing a final notice of non-registration. If USCIS issues a final notice of non-registration, a promoter must stop all promotional activities. After a promoter has registered with USCIS, such promoter must file an amended registration with USCIS on the form designated by USCIS within 30 days of any change to the information provided by the promoter, including entering into a new written agreement required under paragraph (f) of this section or substantively amending a previously disclosed written agreement.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Required information and certifications.</E>
                             At the time the promoter files for registration with USCIS or as otherwise requested by USCIS, the promoter must:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Provide identifying and contact information for such promoter, which must include submission of government-issued identification documents such as a passport for individual promoters or current formation documents file-stamped by an applicable government authority for organizational promoters, and any social media platforms and web-based communications tools used to advertise, promote, sell, market or communicate EB-5 visa program information to prospective regional center investors;</P>
                        <P>(2) Provide information related to the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H)(i) of the Act and certify that the promoter meets such requirements to maintain eligibility for participation in the program;</P>
                        <P>(3) Certify that he or she is familiar with and understand the rules and standards under this subparagraph, including the guidelines set forth in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section; and</P>
                        <P>(4) Confirm the existence of each written agreement required under paragraph (f) of this section and submit of a full and complete copy of each such written agreement.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Guidelines for accurately representing the United States immigrant visa process.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Any direct or third-party promoter, including migration agents, must understand, be familiar with, and accurately represent the Regional Center Program and the United States immigrant visa process to prospective investors sought for participation in the Regional Center Program. This includes 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40793"/>
                            being familiar with and understanding applicable legal requirements and policies related to the Regional Center Program and the United States immigrant visa process and permanent resident status.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Guidelines for permissible fee arrangements.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Any fees, ongoing interest, or other compensation, including transaction-based compensation such as finder's fees, that have been or will be received by a promoter in connection with an investment in an offering under the Regional Center Program must be contained in the written agreement required under paragraph (f) of this section and disclosed in writing to each investor in such offering.</P>
                        <P>(2) Any fee arrangement described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section must also contain a disclosure of any material conflicts of interest or potential material conflicts of interest relating to the promoter and the regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity, or applicable issuer of securities.</P>
                        <P>(3) The disclosures required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section may be made:</P>
                        <P>(i) Individually to each investor in a language the investor understands, which must be signed by the investor and included in such investor's petition for classification; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) Collectively to all investors in an offering in the related business plan provided to all investors in such offering and submitted to USCIS by the regional center with its project application.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Other guidelines for the promotion of investment offerings under the Regional Center Program.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) No offering promoted by a promoter may be based on manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent claims, including in any promotional materials used by the promoter. Manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent claims include:</P>
                        <P>(i) An untrue statement or omission of material fact;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Information that would reasonably cause an untrue or misleading implication or inference to be drawn;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Discussion of potential benefits without also adequately describing the material factors that make the investment offering speculative or risky and explaining how each factor affects the issuer of the securities;</P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) Information that projects or predicts either financial returns or immigration outcomes without also adequately describing and being accompanied by meaningful cautionary statements identifying the material factors that could cause actual results to differ from those projected or predicted, or that are not derived from metrics (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             forecasted sales, revenues, customers) provided by the issuer of the securities;
                        </P>
                        <P>(v) Any statements that USCIS or the U.S. Government or any of its agencies has approved or reviewed any calculation or presentation of performance results, except for a general statement regarding USCIS approval of a related project application; or</P>
                        <P>(vi) Any statements that may be otherwise materially misleading.</P>
                        <P>(2) Any promotional materials containing a testimonial or endorsement by an individual investor must clearly and prominently disclose the relationship of such investor to the promoter, regional center, new commercial enterprise, affiliated job-creating entity, or applicable issuer of securities and any compensation received by such investor.</P>
                        <P>(3) Each promoter must perform adequate due diligence to ensure that all promotional materials used by the promoter do not contain any manipulative, deceptive, or fraudulent claims and, to the best of his or her knowledge after due diligence investigation, comply with all applicable immigration and securities laws.</P>
                        <P>(4) Each promoter must make and retain adequate records of all promotional materials, which must be made available within 60 days to USCIS upon request and, as applicable, accompanied by a full English language translation as specified under § 103.2(b)(3) of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(5) Each promoter must comply with all applicable Federal and State securities laws, including those related to broker-dealer registration.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Written agreements.</E>
                             Each promoter operating on behalf of a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity must have a written agreement with any such entity that outlines the rules and standards under this section and provides for the monitoring and reporting of compliance of the promoter with such rules and standards. An employee of an organization registered as a promoter that must also register as a promoter does not have to submit a copy of the same agreement already provided by the organization as part of the organizational registration, provided there have been no changes to the written agreement since the organization provided the written agreement to USCIS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Violations.</E>
                             USCIS may, under § 204.431, suspend or permanently bar any promoter from participating in the Regional Center Program who violates any of the rules and standards under this section, including failure to register with USCIS, failure to certify eligibility in accordance with § 204.417, or violation of any applicable securities laws.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Suspensions.</E>
                             If USCIS seeks to suspend a direct or third-party promoter from participation in the Regional Center Program, USCIS will follow the procedures outlined under § 204.431(d)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Debarment.</E>
                             If USCIS seeks to bar a direct or third-party promoter from participation in the Regional Center Program, USCIS will follow the procedures outlined under § 204.431(d)(5).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Impact on regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity.</E>
                             If USCIS suspends or bars a promoter from participation in the Regional Center Program and USCIS can determine from its records any regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity that used that promoter, USCIS may notify the affected entities of the promoter's suspension or bar. USCIS may sanction a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or affiliated job-creating entity, including suspension, termination, or debarment, if any such entity knowingly associates with a promoter that does not meet the requirements for participation in the Regional Center Program, or fails to take commercially reasonable efforts to discontinue the promoter's involvement within 14 days of learning the person is not eligible to participate in the Regional Center Program as outlined in § 204.431(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.429 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Site visits.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            USCIS may perform a site visit to any designated regional center after providing at least 24 hours' notice. USCIS may perform a site visit to any new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity at any time. For purposes of this subpart D, a site visit may be conducted in person and, at USCIS' discretion, may include or be completed through communications via electronic means. A site visit may also include review of open-source information from commercial, or proprietary databases to verify evidence submitted to USCIS by the petitioner. Prior to adjudicating any petition to remove conditions on permanent resident status filed on or after March 15, 2024, by a regional center investor, USCIS will perform a site visit to the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, or the business locations where any jobs are 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40794"/>
                            claimed as being created, as applicable. If USCIS is unable to verify facts related to an investment or particular investment offering, including due to the failure or refusal of an entity participating in the Regional Center Program to cooperate in a site visit, then such inability to verify facts, including due to failure or refusal to cooperate, may result in termination of a designated regional center or debarment of a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity that is the subject of a site visit.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.430 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Audits.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Frequency.</E>
                             USCIS will perform an audit of a designated regional center at least once every five years during its designation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Scope of the audit.</E>
                             USCIS will audit the regional center according to Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards to the extent practicable as determined by USCIS. USCIS will evaluate whether the regional center is continuing to operate consistent with its designation. USCIS will review all records previously submitted to USCIS or otherwise required to be maintained by the regional center under paragraph (c) of this section. USCIS may request documents from, conduct interviews with, or conduct site visits under § 204.429 to, any new commercial enterprise and job-creating entity(ies) associated with the regional center.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Records requirements.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A designated regional center must maintain all documents submitted with its application for designation (and any amendments) and all project applications (and any amendments), as well as five years of annual statements. The regional center must make and preserve any books, ledgers, records, and other documentation from the regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity used to support any claims, evidence, or certifications contained in the regional center's annual statement. The regional center must maintain records of each immigrant investor in each new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies) under the purview of the regional center, his or her current filing status with USCIS, total capital received from each investor, and the disbursement and flow of each investor's capital to the new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity, as appropriate. All records must be preserved for a 5-year period beginning on the last day of the Federal fiscal year in which any transactions occurred.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Electronic records.</E>
                             If the regional center uses an electronic storage system to maintain its records, the system must index, store, preserve, retrieve, and reproduce all electronically stored records and the regional center must make the system available for a USCIS audit. Any electronic system used to retain records must have:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Reasonable controls to ensure the integrity, accuracy, and reliability of the system;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Reasonable controls to prevent and detect the unauthorized creation, addition, alteration, deletion, or deterioration of electronically stored records; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) An inspection and quality assurance program evidenced by regular evaluations of the system, including periodic checks of electronically stored records.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Audit notification.</E>
                             USCIS will issue an audit notification to the regional center when the regional center is selected for an audit. The regional center must respond to the notification within 30 days to coordinate scheduling the audit with USCIS. USCIS may schedule an audit site assessment at an agreed upon time and date at the location where the regional center is conducting its operations, which may include site assessments of any new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity(ies) under the regional center's purview. USCIS will issue a notice of intent to terminate the regional center's designation under § 204.431 if the regional center does not respond to the notification within 30 days. The regional center may submit one request for additional time to prepare for the audit, not to exceed 30 days.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Results of the audit.</E>
                             USCIS will document the results of the audit in an audit report and will add the report to the regional center's record of proceeding. If the report contains any indicators of fraud or the regional center is not continuing to operate consistent with its designation, USCIS may take appropriate action under § 204.431.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.431 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Enforcement.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             If USCIS determines there has been a violation as described in paragraph (b) of this section, USCIS may issue a sanction under paragraph (d) of this section against, as applicable, to:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A regional center;</P>
                        <P>(2) A new commercial enterprise;</P>
                        <P>(3) A job-creating entity;</P>
                        <P>(4) An issuer of securities offered or intended to be offered to investors seeking classification as an immigrant investor; or</P>
                        <P>(5) Any associated party of the entities in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, including owners, promoters, and other persons involved with such entities as defined in § 204.401.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Violations.</E>
                             USCIS may issue sanctions for any of the following violations, as applicable. USCIS may issue more than one sanction for any given violation.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) False statements and omissions made in the following circumstances:</P>
                        <P>(i) The knowing submission of any information to USCIS that is false or omits material facts.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The knowing submission of, or causing to be submitted, a statement, certification, or any information submitted under § 204.418 that contains an untrue statement of material fact or an omission that affects materiality.</P>
                        <P>(2) Impermissible involvement in the program.</P>
                        <P>(i) Failure to ensure any person involved with the regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, or issuer of securities meets the requirements of section 203(b)(5)(H) of the Act.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Failure to take commercially reasonable steps to discontinue an ineligible person's involvement after USCIS provides notice of the person's ineligibility under § 204.417.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Failure to provide notice to USCIS within 14 days of discovering a violation or take commercially reasonable steps within that time to discontinue the prohibited person's involvement as required by § 204.417.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Knowingly involving any person ineligible to participate in the Regional Center Program based on either actual or constructive knowledge of such person's ineligibility.</P>
                        <P>(v) Failure to provide the information or attestations under § 204.417.</P>
                        <P>(vi) Continuing to operate as a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity with capital that is not established as lawful capital.</P>
                        <P>(3) Noncompliance with USCIS audit or site visit.</P>
                        <P>(i) Failure to consent to a USCIS audit under § 204.430.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Deliberately attempting to impede a USCIS audit under § 204.430. A regional center is attempting to impede an audit if the regional center:</P>
                        <P>(A) Intentionally withholds material information;</P>
                        <P>(B) Conceals fraudulent activities;</P>
                        <P>(C) Fails to keep and maintain records required under § 204.430; or</P>
                        <P>(D) Fails to respond to a request for documentation as part of any USCIS audit.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) Failure to consent to or cooperate with a site visit under § 204.429.
                            <PRTPAGE P="40795"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) Any violation of section 203(b)(5)(I) of the Act, including actions by any parties associated with the regional center that the regional center knew or reasonably should have known about.</P>
                        <P>(5) Any knowing participation in conduct related to a determination by USCIS that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit under 203(b)(5) of the Act is contrary to the national interest in accordance with § 204.432.</P>
                        <P>(6) Any knowing participation in conduct related to a determination by USCIS that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit under 203(b)(5) of the Act was predicated on or involved fraud, deceit, intentional material misrepresentation, or criminal misuse in accordance with § 204.433.</P>
                        <P>(7) Conduct inconsistent with regional center designation.</P>
                        <P>(i) Any activity USCIS determines is contrary to the provision of visas to qualified immigrants that demonstrate a substantive and positive economic impact under section 203(b)(5)(E) of the Act or fails to adhere to the policies and procedures adopted by the regional center to monitor compliance of new commercial enterprises or job-creating entities.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any willful, undisclosed, and material deviation by an associated new commercial enterprise from any business plan in a project application filed by the regional center for which an amendment is not submitted under § 204.423.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Failure to submit a required amendment under § 204.416 or § 204.423.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Failure to submit a required annual statement under § 204.418.</P>
                        <P>(v) Late filing of required forms or other documents, such as annual statements under § 204.418.</P>
                        <P>(vi) Failure to have a substantive positive economic impact on the regional center's designated geographic area in accordance with the requirements of the Regional Center Program based upon the denial of a significant number of associated EB-5 immigrant visa petitions or petitions to remove conditions.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Continuing to operate with capital that is not established as lawful capital.</P>
                        <P>(viii) Overseeing a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity that is continuing to operate with capital that is not established as lawful.</P>
                        <P>(8) Any improper redeployment of investor capital that does not meet the requirements of § 204.426.</P>
                        <P>(9) Failure to pay required fees or comply with imposed sanctions.</P>
                        <P>(i) Failure to pay the fee required under section 203(b)(5)(J)(ii) of the Act within the periods specified by such section.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Failure to pay a monetary penalty when due or comply with any other sanction imposed under this paragraph.</P>
                        <P>(10) Violations of rules and standards for promoters.</P>
                        <P>(i) Failure to follow the rules and standards for promoters provided in § 204.428.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Failure to register as a promoter as required under § 204.428.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Use of an unregistered promoter by a regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, or issuer of securities.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Violations of any applicable Federal or State securities laws as described in § 204.428.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Factors affecting sanction assessment.</E>
                             USCIS will impose sanctions with consideration to the manner, nature, and magnitude of the violation. USCIS will consider the following factors when determining severity of any sanction to be imposed:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Willful or reckless violation of law (including concealment of material facts or illegal activities), pattern of conduct (if prior notice of a violation was given by another government agency or USCIS issued a notice as described in paragraph (d) of this section), and evidence of knowledge, direction, or involvement of an owner, manager, or executive officer in conduct leading to any violation provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(2) Awareness of conduct including actual knowledge, reason to know, and knowledge, direction, or involvement of any owner, manager, or executive officer in conduct leading to any violation provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(3) Harm to the reputation or integrity of the EB-5 program, such as any benefit received by the entity or individual derived from illegal or fraudulent activity committed while participating in the EB-5 program, conduct against the interests of immigrant investors that causes material damage to their EB-5 immigrant visa petition or financial injury, and implications arising from criminal or national security foreign policy-related grounds.</P>
                        <P>(4) Nature and adequacy of, as well as adherence to, the policies and procedures in place to ensure compliance, such as a risk-based compliance program and results of recent compliance audits.</P>
                        <P>(5) Cooperation with USCIS and other agencies, including whether the violation(s) were voluntarily self-disclosed or the result of a subpoena or other enforcement action, voluntarily providing relevant information, and prompt responses to official government inquiries.</P>
                        <P>(6) Any relevant disciplinary history, including pending or settled litigation or criminal conduct.</P>
                        <P>(7) Other circumstances and characteristics of the entity involved, including current financial resources, the size and sophistication of business operations, history of similar violations or misconduct, good faith, and remedial response.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Types of Sanctions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) USCIS may issue a finding of violation in a notice that will be included in the relevant USCIS record of proceeding. USCIS may issue other sanctions in addition to such notice.</P>
                        <P>(2) USCIS may impose a monetary penalty on regional centers equal to not more than 10 percent of the total capital provided by immigrant investors to the regional center's new commercial enterprises or job-creating entity(ies) directly involved in the violations resulting in such fine. Monetary penalties may be imposed on regional centers based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (4), (7), and (9) of this section. Any payment of a monetary penalty cannot include any immigrant investor capital. USCIS will deposit all monetary penalties in the EB-5 Integrity Fund.</P>
                        <P>(3) USCIS may temporarily suspend a person from participating in the EB-5 program.</P>
                        <P>(i) USCIS will base any suspension on the nature and significance of the violation and last for the period USCIS specifies. USCIS will specify the scope of the suspension, which may be total or limited only to certain aspects of the EB-5 program, such as suspending the sanctioned entity's ability to file or be associated with new project applications. USCIS may lift the suspension if the suspended person cures the violation on which the suspension is based. A person may resume participation in the EB-5 program without reapplication when the period of suspension ends.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) USCIS may suspend a regional center based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3)(iii), (4), (7), (9)(ii), and (10) of this section. The designation of a suspended regional center is not terminated during a period of suspension. A suspended regional center may not file any new project applications during a period of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40796"/>
                            suspension. Depending on the circumstances leading to suspension, USCIS may also preclude a suspended regional center from promoting existing investment offerings under the EB-5 program or the filing of any new EB-5 immigrant investor petitions associated with the suspended regional center during a period of suspension. Additionally, USCIS may continue to adjudicate or hold in abeyance previously filed project applications and EB-5 immigrant visa petitions associated with a suspended regional center during a period of suspension. A suspended regional center must continue to comply with all requirements applicable to a designated regional center during a period of suspension, including payment of the EB-5 Integrity Fund fee and filing of annual statements under § 204.418.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iii) USCIS may suspend a new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3)(iii), (4), (7), (9)(ii) and (10) of this section. A suspended new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity may not be associated with any new project applications or EB-5 immigrant investor petitions during a period of suspension. USCIS will hold in abeyance previously filed project applications and EB-5 immigrant visa petitions associated with a suspended new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity during a period of suspension. A suspended new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity may not promote any investment offerings under the EB-5 program during a period of suspension.</P>
                        <P>(iv) USCIS may suspend a promoter based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(9)(ii) and (10) of this section. A suspended promoter may not promote any investment offerings under the EB-5 program during a period of suspension. A suspended promoter will remain registered and must continue to comply with all requirements applicable to promoters during a period of suspension.</P>
                        <P>(v) USCIS may suspend other persons from participation in the EB-5 program, including persons involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraph (b)(1), (7), and (9)(ii) of this section. A suspended person involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity may remain in his or her position or role with the associated EB-5 entity but may not actively participate in any aspect of the EB-5 program, including acting as a certifier for the associated EB-5 entity or exercising any authority over or being involved in the pooling, securitization, investment, release, acceptance, or control or use of any EB-5 capital.</P>
                        <P>(4) USCIS may terminate the designation of a regional center based on an applicable violation to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(i) A terminated regional center is no longer authorized to participate in the Regional Center Program and may not solicit capital from an investor seeking classification as an immigrant investor. USCIS will notify an affected regional center investor if USCIS terminates his or her regional center.</P>
                        <P>(ii) USCIS will terminate the designation of a regional center based on a violation described in paragraphs (b)(3)(i), (3)(ii), (5), (6), (8), and (9) of this section (if not paid within 90 days of the due date for failure to pay the fee described in (b)(9)(i)) of this section).</P>
                        <P>(5) USCIS may temporarily or permanently bar a person from current and future participation in the EB-5 program. Regional centers may be debarred based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3)(iii), (4) through (8), (9)(ii), and (10) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(i) New commercial enterprises and job-creating entities may be debarred based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3)(iii), (5), (6), (7), (9)(ii) and (10) of this section. Promoters may be debarred based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(9)(ii) and (10) of this section. Other persons, including persons involved with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, may be debarred based on applicable violations to the full extent authorized by law including, but not limited to, those described in paragraphs (b)(1), (7), and (9)(ii) of this section. A debarred person may not participate in any aspect of the EB-5 program, including the solicitation of investors seeking classification as an immigrant investor. Any existing participation in the EB-5 program, including the designation of a debarred regional center, will be terminated as of the date of debarment and any pending applications, petitions, or other benefit requests filed by or associated with a debarred person may be denied or revoked, as applicable. If the bar is temporary, USCIS will specify the period of debarment, after which time the person may apply for reinstatement. USCIS will notify affected immigrant investors if USCIS debars a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies) associated with their petition.</P>
                        <P>(ii) USCIS will permanently debar any person that USCIS determines, in its discretion, to have conducted or been a knowing participant in the conduct leading to termination or debarment under paragraphs (b)(5) or (6) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(iii) In its discretion, USCIS may temporarily debar any person based on a consideration of the underlying reason for which the debarment itself is temporary, such as time-bound orders, judgements, or findings of any courts, and State or Federal regulators. When a period of temporary debarment has ended, the person may seek to resume participation in the EB-5 program, including by filing a new application for regional center designation, submitting the required filing under § 204.417 based on involvement with an applicable entity, or being associated with a project application or EB-5 immigrant visa petitions.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Pre-Sanction Notices.</E>
                             USCIS may take reasonable actions before implementing sanctions to collect information regarding a potential or suspected violation, pursue remedial action, deter future violations, and ensure compliance with the EB-5 program. Such actions may include the issuance of a pre-sanction notice or other correspondence regarding the potential or suspected violation prior to the issuance of a sanction, which will include an explanation of the potential or suspected violation, the type of sanction that may apply if the person or entity does not remedy the violation, and instructions for response within 30 days of the date of the notice. USCIS may consider the relevant factors in paragraph (c) of this section and may determine whether the person or entity is likely to remediate the issue without sanction. However, if the severity of violation or if other factors so warrant, USCIS may issue a sanction following procedures set forth in paragraph (f) of this section without first issuing a pre-sanction notice or other correspondence.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Sanction Process.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) Monetary penalties are due as of the date the notice under paragraph (f)(2) of this section is issued and must 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40797"/>
                            be paid within 30 days. Suspensions, terminations, and debarments will take effect as of the date the notice under paragraph (f)(2) of this section is issued. Suspensions will last for the period USCIS specified. Debarments will be permanent unless USCIS determines, in its discretion, to impose a debarment temporarily for a period specified by USCIS. Each sanction will be deemed to be separately imposed such that sanctions will be considered independently for purposes of any properly filed motion or appeal.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Upon a determination that a violation has occurred and a sanction should be issued, USCIS will issue a notice to the affected person or entity. The notice will include:</P>
                        <P>(i) A summary of the violations; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) A description of the sanction, including, as applicable, the calculation of any monetary penalty and the duration of any suspension or debarment.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Motions to Reopen or Reconsider.</E>
                             A person may file a motion to reopen or a motion to reconsider a sanction in accordance with part 103 of this chapter. USCIS will assess any new information provided using the factors noted in paragraph (c) of this section. If a properly filed motion on a sanction has been pending for 180 days and no final action has been taken, then the person may withdraw his or her motion and within 14 days of notifying USCIS of the withdrawal of its motion, may appeal the sanction to the USCIS Administrative Appeals Office under paragraph (h) of this section. Motions on a determination made by the USCIS Administrative Appeals Office are excluded from this provision.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Appeals.</E>
                             A person may appeal final decisions regarding any sanction to the USCIS Administrative Appeals Office according to part 103 of this chapter and paragraph (g) of this section. If a person is the subject of multiple sanctions, a separate appeal must be filed for each sanction requiring appellate review. The USCIS Administrative Appeals Office may consolidate or join two or more appeals arising from the same or substantially similar facts, if doing so does not adversely affect the interests of the parties. At its discretion, the USCIS Administrative Appeals Office may sever consolidated or joined appeals into separate appeals. Except as provided in this paragraph or as otherwise determined by USCIS in its discretion, sanctions imposed under this section will be stayed upon the timely filing of appeal. Suspensions and sanctions imposed based on violations described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (6) of this section will not be stayed upon the timely filing of an appeal. If USCIS determines in its discretion not to stay the imposition of a sanction upon the timely filing of an appeal, USCIS will include the reason for this determination in the applicable notice. Immigrant investors associated with a terminated regional center or debarred new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity may seek to amend their petition under § 204.410 based upon such termination or debarment regardless of whether of such termination or debarment is stayed upon the timely filing of an appeal.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.432 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Threats to public safety or national security.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Determination.</E>
                             At any time, USCIS may determine, in its discretion, that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit described in section 203(b)(5) of the Act (including participation in the EB-5 program) is contrary to the national interest of the United States for reasons relating to threats to public safety or national security regardless of when such petition, application, or benefit was filed or approved. USCIS may consider relevant conduct prior to enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 for purposes of making a determination that a threat to the national interest arose or continued to exist after enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022. Upon such determination, USCIS will deny or revoke the approval of such petition, application, or benefit and, as applicable, terminate the permanent resident status of the investor (and the investor's spouse and children) and terminate or debar from participation in the EB-5 program the associated regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, in each case effective as of the date of determination.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Debarment.</E>
                             USCIS will, under § 204.431, permanently debar any person associated with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity that has had its designation or participation in the EB-5 program terminated or debarred for reasons related to public safety or national security if USCIS determines, in its discretion, that such person was a knowing participant in the conduct that led to the termination or debarment. Such determination may be based on actual or constructive knowledge.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Notice.</E>
                             If USCIS determines that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit described in section 203(b)(5) of the Act is contrary to the national interest of the United States for reasons relating to a threat to public safety or national security under paragraph (b) of this section, USCIS will provide notice to the relevant person, regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies) of the determination. In the notice, USCIS will include an explanation of the determination, unless the relevant information is classified or disclosure is otherwise prohibited under law.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Appeal.</E>
                             Except for terminations of conditional permanent resident status obtained under section 216A of the Act and denials or revocations of petitions to remove conditions under section 216A of the Act, determinations made under this section may be appealed to the Administrative Appeals Office under part 103 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.433 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Determinations of fraud, misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Determination.</E>
                             At any time, USCIS may determine, in its discretion, that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit described in section 203(b)(5) of the Act (including participation in the EB-5 program) was predicated on or involved fraud, intentional material misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse regardless of when such petition, application, or benefit was filed or approved. USCIS may consider relevant conduct prior to enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022 for purposes of making a determination that such fraud, intentional material misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse arose or continued to exist after enactment of the EB-5 Reform and Integrity Act of 2022. Upon such determination, USCIS will deny or revoke the approval of such petition, application, or benefit and, as applicable, terminate the permanent resident status of the investor (and the investor's spouse and children) and terminate or debar from participation in the EB-5 program the associated regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity, in each case effective as of the date of determination.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Debarment.</E>
                             In accordance with § 204.431, USCIS will permanently debar any person associated with a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity that has had its designation or participation in the EB-5 program terminated or debarred for reasons related to fraud, misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse if USCIS determines, in its discretion, that such person was a knowing participant in the conduct that led to the termination or debarment. 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40798"/>
                            Such determination may be based on actual or constructive knowledge.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Notice.</E>
                             If USCIS determines that the approval of a petition, application, or benefit described in section 203(b)(5) of the Act was predicated on or involved fraud, intentional material misrepresentation, deceit, or criminal misuse under paragraph (a) of this section, USCIS will provide notice to the relevant person, regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity(ies) of the determination. The notice will include an explanation of the determination, unless the relevant information is classified or disclosure is otherwise prohibited under law.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Appeal.</E>
                             Except for terminations of conditional permanent resident status obtained under section 216A of the Act and denials or revocations of petitions to remove conditions under section 216A of the Act, determinations made under this section may be appealed to the Administrative Appeals Office under part 103 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.434 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Compliance with FIRRMA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Every regional center, new commercial enterprise, job-creating entity, regional center investor, and standalone investor must comply with the Foreign Investment Risk Review Modernization Act of 2018 (FIRRMA) and any superseding acts or regulations. A regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity may not divulge controlled materials or information that poses risk to the U.S. national interest to regional center investors, unless specifically authorized by the applicable administering government agency in accordance with applicable law. This section is not intended to modify any existing rules or regulations related to FIRRMA and any superseding acts or regulations. Any violation of these requirements may result in adverse action or other sanction, including but not limited to those specified under § 204.431 and § 204.432.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 204.435 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Severability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Any provision of this subpart held to be invalid or unenforceable as applied to any person or circumstance shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, including as applied to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision of this subpart is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this subpart and shall not affect the remainder thereof.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 205—REVOCATION OF APPROVAL OF PETITIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR> 4. The authority citation for part 205 continues to read:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 8 U.S.C. 1101, 1103, 1151, 1153, 1154, 1155, 1182, 1186a, and 1324a.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Section 205.1 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Adding “other than employment-based fifth preference” after “In employment-based preference cases” in the first sentence of paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(C).</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(E); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding new paragraph (c).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The amendments read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 205.1 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Automatic revocation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(3) * * *</P>
                        <P>(iii) * * *</P>
                        <P>(C) In employment-based preference cases, other than employment-based fifth preference cases, upon written notice of withdrawal filed by the petitioner to any officer of USCIS who is authorized to grant or deny petitions, where the withdrawal is filed less than 180 days after approval of the employment-based preference petition, unless an associated adjustment of status application has been pending for 180 days or more. A petition that is withdrawn 180 days or more after approval, or 180 days or more after the associated adjustment of status application has been filed, remains approved unless its approval is revoked on other grounds. If an employment-based petition on behalf of an alien is withdrawn, the job offer of the petitioning employer is rescinded and the alien must obtain a new employment-based preference petition on his or her behalf in order to seek adjustment of status or issuance of an immigrant visa as an employment-based immigrant, unless eligible for adjustment of status under section 204(j) of the Act and in accordance with 8 CFR 245.25.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(E) In employment-based fifth preference cases, upon written notice of withdrawal filed by the petitioner to any officer of USCIS who is authorized to grant or deny petitions.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) Automatic revocation does not preclude USCIS from revoking an approval on other grounds at any time.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 216—CONDITIONAL BASIS OF LAWFUL PERMANENT RESIDENCE STATUS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>6. The authority citation for part 216 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 8 U.S.C. 1101, 1103, 1154, 1184, 1186a, 1186b, and 8 CFR part 2.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>7. Revise and republish § 216.2, for the section to read:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 216.2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Notification requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">When an alien acquires status of conditional permanent resident.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>At the time an alien acquires conditional permanent residence through admission to the United States with an immigrant visa or adjustment of status under section 245 of the Act, USCIS will notify the alien of the conditional basis of the alien's status, of the requirement that the alien apply for removal of the conditions within the ninety days immediately preceding the second anniversary of the alien's having been granted such status, and that failure to apply for removal of the conditions will result in automatic termination of the alien's lawful status in the United States.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">When an alien is required to apply for removal of the conditional basis of lawful permanent resident status.</E>
                             Approximately 90 days before the second anniversary of the date on which the alien obtained conditional permanent residence, USCIS may notify the alien a second time of the requirement that the alien and the petitioning spouse or investor must file a petition to remove the conditional basis of the alien 's lawful permanent residence. USCIS will mail such notification to the alien's last known address.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Effect of failure to provide notification.</E>
                             Failure of USCIS to provide notification as required by either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section does not relieve the alien and the petitioning spouse, or investor of the requirement to file a petition to remove conditions within the 90 days immediately preceding the second anniversary of the date on which the alien obtained permanent residence.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>8. Revise and republish § 216.3 for the section to read:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 216.3 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Termination of conditional resident status.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">During the two-year conditional period.</E>
                             USCIS will send a written notice to the conditional permanent resident of the termination of the alien's conditional permanent resident status if USCIS determines that any of the conditions set forth in section 216(b)(1) or 216A(b)(1) of the Act, whichever is applicable, are true, or it becomes known to the government that an investor who was admitted pursuant to section 203(b)(5) of the Act obtained his or her investment capital through other than legal means (such as through the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40799"/>
                            sale of illegal drugs). If USCIS issues a notice of intent to terminate an alien's conditional resident status, USCIS will not adjudicate a petition to remove conditions on residence until it has been determined that the alien's status will not be terminated. During this time, the alien continues to be a lawful conditional permanent resident with all the rights, privileges, and responsibilities provided to persons possessing such status. Prior to issuing the notice of termination, USCIS will provide the alien with an opportunity to review and rebut the evidence upon which the decision is to be based, in accordance with § 103.2(b)(2) of this chapter. The termination of status, and all of the rights and privileges concomitant thereto (including authorization to accept or continue in employment in this country), will take effect as of the date of such determination by USCIS, although the alien may request a review of such determination in removal proceedings. In addition to the notice of termination, USCIS will issue a notice to appear in accordance with part 239 of this chapter. During the ensuing removal proceedings, the alien may submit evidence to rebut the determination of USCIS. The burden of proof will be on USCIS to establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that one or more of the conditions in section 216(b)(1) or 216A(b)(1) of the Act, whichever is applicable, are true, or that an alien investor who was admitted pursuant to section 203(b)(5) of the Act obtained his or her investment capital through other than legal means (such as through the sale of illegal drugs).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Determination of fraud after two years.</E>
                             If, subsequent to the removal of the conditional basis of an alien's permanent resident status, USCIS determines that an alien spouse obtained permanent resident status through a marriage that was entered into for the purpose of evading the immigration laws or an investor obtained permanent resident status through a new commercial enterprise that was improper under section 216A(b)(1) of the Act, USCIS may institute rescission proceedings pursuant to section 246 of the Act (if otherwise appropriate) or removal proceedings under section 240 of the Act.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 216.6 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a) through (d); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraphs (e) through (h).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The amendments read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 216.6 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Petition by investor to remove conditions on permanent resident status.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Filing the petition to remove conditions.</E>
                             An investor that obtained conditional permanent resident status based on an approved EB-5 immigrant visa petition must file a petition to remove the conditional basis of the permanent resident status on the form designated by USCIS according to the form instructions. A petition to remove conditions is properly filed if the petition is signed by the petitioner and is accompanied by the appropriate fees and all required evidence. USCIS may reject a petition that is not properly filed. A petitioner may include any other supporting documentation to establish eligibility.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">When to file the petition.</E>
                             The investor must file a petition to remove conditions within the 90-day period preceding the second anniversary of the date on which the investor acquired his or her conditional permanent resident status. An investor who makes a subsequent investment after his or her regional center is terminated or his or her new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is debarred must file within the 90-day period preceding the second anniversary of the subsequent investment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Physical presence at the time of filing.</E>
                             An investor may file a petition to remove conditions regardless of his or her physical presence in or outside the United States. If the investor is outside the United States at the time of filing, the investor must return to the United States, with his or her spouse and children, if necessary, to attend any required biometrics appointment or interview. USCIS may deny the petition of any investor, spouse, or child that does not appear for a required biometrics appointment or interview under § 103.2(b)(9) of this chapter. An investor who is not physically present in the United States during the filing period, but subsequently applies for admission to the United States, will be processed according to § 235.11 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Travel outside the United States after filing.</E>
                             An investor may travel outside the United States after filing a petition to remove conditions and return if in possession of documentation set forth in § 211.1(b)(3) of this chapter, provided the investor complies with the biometrics and interview requirements of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Extension of conditional permanent resident status.</E>
                             Upon receipt of a properly filed petition, USCIS will automatically extend the investor's conditional permanent resident status and provide documentation of the extension until USCIS has adjudicated the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Including a spouse and children on the petition.</E>
                             An investor may include his or her spouse and children on a petition to remove conditions if the spouse and children obtained conditional permanent resident status based on his or her relationship to the investor. If the investor's spouse and children are not included in the investor's petition to remove conditions, the spouse and each child must each file his or her own petition to remove the conditions on his or her permanent resident status, unless the investor is deceased. Any spouse or child not included on the investor's petition to remove conditions may file a petition to remove the conditions on his or her residence at any time during the period when the investor is required to file a petition to remove conditions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the investor is deceased.</E>
                             If the investor is deceased, the spouse and children seeking to remove conditions on his or her permanent resident status obtained based on his or her relationship to the deceased investor may:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Each file his or her own petition to remove conditions; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) File one petition to remove conditions including the spouse and children.</P>
                        <P>In either case, the spouse and child must file the petition(s) at any time before his or her conditional permanent resident status expires and establish eligibility to remove conditions as specified in paragraph (d) of this section and submit the documentation required under paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the child has turned 21 years of age or married.</E>
                             An investor may include any child who turned 21 years of age or married during the period of conditional permanent resident status on his or her petition to remove conditions. If the investor does not include the child on his or her petition to remove conditions, the child must file his or her own petition to remove conditions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the investor and spouse divorced.</E>
                             An investor may include a former spouse who was divorced from the investor during the period of conditional permanent resident status on his or her petition to remove conditions. If the investor does not include the former spouse on his or her petition to remove conditions, the former spouse must file his or her own petition to remove conditions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">In cases where the investor does not file to remove conditions.</E>
                             If an investor does not file a petition to remove conditions, any spouse, former 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40800"/>
                            spouse, or child that obtained conditional permanent resident status based on his or her relationship to the investor may remove the conditions on his or her status if he or she can establish that he or she remains eligible to remove the conditions on his or her residence under paragraph (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Interview requirement.</E>
                             USCIS may, in its discretion, require an investor to appear for an interview regarding his or her petition to remove conditions. USCIS may waive this requirement if the petition establishes the investor's eligibility to remove conditions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                             USCIS will not waive the interview requirement if the investor:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Invested in a regional center, new commercial enterprise, or job-creating entity that was sanctioned under § 204.431 of this chapter; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) Raises public safety or national security concerns.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Location of interview.</E>
                             Unless waived, USCIS will conduct the interview, in its discretion, at the office that has jurisdiction over:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The adjudication of the petition;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The location of the investor's new commercial enterprise in the United States; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) The investor's residence in the United States.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Failure to appear for required interview.</E>
                             If the investor cannot appear for a scheduled interview, the investor may submit a written request to USCIS prior to the interview date asking that the interview be rescheduled or that the interview be waived. The request should explain his or her inability to appear for the scheduled interview, and if requesting a waiver of the interview, the reasons such waiver should be granted. If USCIS determines that there is good cause for granting the request, the interview may be rescheduled or waived, as appropriate. If USCIS waives the interview, it will proceed to adjudicate the investor's petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Eligibility to remove conditions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">For petitions based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed before March 15, 2022.</E>
                             If the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition before March 15, 2022, USCIS will remove the conditions on permanent resident status if the investor can establish he or she:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Invested or were actively in the process of investing the requisite amount of lawful capital;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Sustained the investment at risk throughout the two years of the investor's conditional residence in the United States. The investor will be considered to have sustained the actions required for removal of conditions if he or she has, in good faith, substantially met the capital investment requirement of the statute and continuously maintained his or her capital investment for at least two years from the date he or she obtained conditional resident status in the United States;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Created or can be expected to create within a reasonable period of time 10 full-time jobs for qualifying employees; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) In the case of investment in a troubled business, as defined in § 204.6(e) of this chapter, maintained the number of existing employees of the new commercial enterprise at no less than the pre-investment level for the previous two years.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">For petitions based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022.</E>
                             If the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition on or after March 15, 2022, USCIS will remove the conditions on an investor's permanent resident status if the investor can establish that he or she:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Invested the required amount of capital no later than the date on which the investor obtained conditional permanent resident status;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Remained invested for at least two years from the date the investment was placed at risk in a new commercial enterprise, including being made available to the job-creating entity(ies) and redeployed in accordance with the requirements under § 204.426 of this chapter as applicable; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Created at least 10 full-time jobs for qualifying employees.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Death of investor and effect on spouse and children.</E>
                             If an investor dies during the period of conditional permanent resident status, the spouse and children of the investor will be eligible to remove the conditions if they can demonstrate that the investment met the requirements of this paragraph.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) If the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition before March 15, 2022, and dies before the end of his or her sustainment period, the spouse and child may inherit the investor's interest and be eligible to remove their conditions if they continue to sustain the investment for two years from the date the investor obtained conditional residence, which may differ from the date the spouse or child obtained conditional residence.</P>
                        <P>(ii) If the investor filed their EB-5 immigrant visa petition on or after March 15, 2022, and dies before their investment has been placed at risk with a new commercial enterprise for at least two years, the spouse and child may use an inheritance of the investor's interest to establish eligibility to remove their conditions if they maintain the investment for at least two years from the date the investment was placed at risk with a new commercial enterprise.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Evidence to accompany petition to remove conditions.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">For petitions filed based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed before March 15, 2022.</E>
                             If the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa petition before March 15, 2022, the investor must submit with his or her petition to remove conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Evidence that the investor invested or was actively in the process of investing the required amount of lawful capital. Such evidence must include bank statements of the petitioner and new commercial enterprise showing the transfer of the investor's capital to the new commercial enterprise and, if applicable, from the new commercial enterprise to any job-creating entity;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence that the investor sustained his or her investment at risk for at least 2 years from the date the investor obtained immigrant investor status. Such evidence must include all relevant Federal and State income tax returns, quarterly tax returns, and tax forms (including Form K-1, Form 941, and Form 1065) over the applicable period and may include, but is not limited to, bank statements, invoices, receipts, contracts, business licenses; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Evidence that the investor created or is actively in the process of creating ten full-time jobs for qualifying employees. In the case of a troubled business as defined in § 204.6(e) as in effect before March 15, 2022, the investor must submit evidence that the new commercial enterprise maintained the number of existing employees at no less than the pre-investment level for the period following his or her admission as a conditional permanent resident. For regional center investors, such evidence must include an updated comprehensive business plan, an updated economic impact analysis, updated reasonable and transparent methodologies to establish job creation and evidence supporting the inputs used in such methodologies including, but not limited to, payroll records, tax documents, invoices and receipts, purchase agreements, bank statements, or other probative evidence, which the regional center must provide to the investor. For standalone investors, such evidence must include payroll records and employment eligibility verification forms.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">For petitions filed based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022.</E>
                             If the investor filed his or her EB-5 immigrant visa 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40801"/>
                            petition on or after March 15, 2022, the investor must submit with his or her petition to remove conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Evidence that the investor invested the required amount of lawful capital, which remained invested for at least two years from the date of investment. Such evidence must include all relevant Federal income tax returns and quarterly tax returns for the petitioner and new commercial enterprise, tax forms (including Form K-1, Form 941, and Form 1065), and bank statements of the petitioner and new commercial enterprise showing the transfer of the investor's capital to the new commercial enterprise and, if applicable from the new commercial enterprise to any job-creating entity; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evidence that the investor created or is actively in the process of creating ten full-time jobs for qualifying employees before the third anniversary of the alien's lawful admission for permanent residence. For regional center investors, the regional center investor should include evidence of ongoing association with a project application that has been amended by the regional center under § 204.423(b) of this chapter to establish sufficient job creation. If the regional center does not properly file an amendment to its project application under § 204.423(b) of this chapter before a regional center investor submits a petition to remove conditions under paragraph (a) of this section, the regional center investor must establish that his or her investment created the required amount of jobs for qualifying employees, which may include an updated comprehensive business plan, an updated economic impact analysis, and updated reasonable and transparent methodologies and may also include evidence supporting the inputs used in such methodologies including, but not limited to, payroll records, tax documents, invoices and receipts, purchase agreements, bank statements, or other probative evidence. For standalone investors, such evidence must include payroll records and employment eligibility verification forms.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Site visit.</E>
                             Prior to adjudicating any petition by a regional center investor to remove conditions on his or her permanent resident status that is based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2024, USCIS will perform a site visit to each new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity associated with the investment, or the business locations where any jobs are claimed as being created, as applicable. USCIS may conduct a site visit as defined at 8 CFR 204.429.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Decision.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Approval.</E>
                             If, after initial review or after the interview and not before completion of a site visit, if required, USCIS approves the petition, USCIS will remove the conditional basis of the investor's permanent resident status as of the second anniversary of the date on which the investor acquired conditional permanent residence except as otherwise provided in paragraph (g)(4). USCIS will provide written notice of the decision to the investor. USCIS may request the investor, and any spouse or children that obtained status based on their relationship to the investor, to appear for biometrics at a USCIS facility for processing for a new permanent resident card.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Denial.</E>
                             If, after initial review or after the interview, USCIS denies the petition, USCIS will provide written notice to the investor of the decision and the reason(s) for the decision in compliance with § 103.3(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, and will issue a notice to appear. The investor's lawful permanent resident status and that of his or her spouse and any children will be terminated as of the date of USCIS' written decision. An investor cannot appeal a denial of his or her petition to remove conditions to the Administrative Appeals Office. The investor may seek review of the denial in removal proceedings. In proceedings, USCIS has the burden to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the petition was properly denied.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3
                            <E T="03">) One-year extension of conditional permanent resident status on a petition submitted to remove conditions based on an EB-5 immigrant visa petition filed on or after March 15, 2022.</E>
                             If, after initial review or after the interview, USCIS determines the investor has invested the required amount of lawful capital and is actively in the process of creating the employment required under section 203(b)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act and will create the number of jobs required under § 204.407(e) of this chapter before the third anniversary of the investor's conditional permanent resident status, USCIS may extend the investor's conditional permanent resident status for one year, provided the investor's capital will remain invested until the required number of jobs are created. USCIS will provide the investor documentation of the extension. At the end of the third year, the investor must file to remove the conditions according to paragraph (a) of this section no later than 30 days after the third anniversary of the investor's conditional permanent resident status. If, after initial review or after the interview and not before completion of a site visit, USCIS approves the petition, USCIS will remove the conditional basis of the investor's permanent resident status as of the third anniversary of the date on which the investor acquired conditional permanent residence.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Investors associated with a terminated regional center or debarred new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity.</E>
                             If, after filing a petition to remove conditions on permanent resident status and before USCIS has approved or denied such petition, the investor's regional center is terminated or his or her new commercial enterprise or job-creating entity is debarred, as applicable, such investor may make a qualifying investment in another new commercial enterprise or associate with another new commercial enterprise in good standing in accordance with section 203(b)(5)(M) of the Act. Such investor may respond to any notice of termination or debarment as described in such notice or in accordance with applicable form instructions with evidence establishing his or her subsequent investment for the purpose of amending his or her pending petition to remove conditions on his or her permanent resident status. USCIS will review such amended petition, including any evidence submitted in response to any notice of termination or debarment, to determine whether the investor has demonstrated eligibility under section 203(b)(5)(M) of the Act. If USCIS approves the petition, the conditions on the investor's permanent resident status will not be removed and USCIS will extend the investor's conditional permanent resident status for 2 years from the date of his or her subsequent investment. If USCIS denies the petition, such denial will be as described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Termination of conditional permanent resident status.</E>
                             If the investor fails to appear for a required interview in connection with the petition to remove conditions or does not submit a petition to remove conditions, USCIS will terminate the investor's permanent resident status as of the second anniversary of the date on which the investor obtained permanent residence (or third anniversary of the date on which the investor obtained permanent residence for investors granted an extension under paragraph (f)(3) of this section. USCIS will provide the investor with written notification of the termination and the reasons for the termination. DHS will issue a notice to appear placing the investor in removal proceedings. The investor may seek review of the decision to terminate his or her status in such proceedings, but the burden will be on the investor to 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40802"/>
                            establish by a preponderance of the evidence that he or she complied with the filing and interview requirements.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 235—INSPECTION OF PERSONS APPLYING FOR ADMISSION</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>9. The authority citation for part 235 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 6 U.S.C. 218 and note; 8 U.S.C. 1101 and note, 1103, 1158, 1182, 1183, 1185 (pursuant to E.O. 13323, 69 FR 241, 3 CFR, 2004 Comp., p.278), 1185 note, 1201, 1224, 1225, 1226, 1228, 1357, 1365a and note, 1365b, 1379, 1731-32; 48 U.S.C. 1806 and note; 1807, and 1808 and 48 U.S.C. 1806 notes (title VII, Pub. L. 110-229, 122 Stat. 754); 8 U.S.C. 1185 note (sec. 7209, Pub. L. 108-458, 118 Stat. 3638, and Pub. L. 112-54, 125 Stat. 550).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>10. Section 235.11 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a), heading, removing the em-dash at the end and adding, in its place, a period; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising paragraph (a)(2).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The amendments read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 235.11 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Admission of conditional permanent residents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>* * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Conditional residence based on investment in a new commercial enterprise in the United States.</E>
                             An alien seeking admission to the United States with an immigrant visa as an alien investor (as defined in section 216A(f)(1) of the Act) or the spouse or unmarried minor child of an investor shall be admitted conditionally for a period of 2 years. At the time of admission, the alien shall be notified that the principal investor must file a petition to remove the conditions on his or her permanent residence within the 90-day period immediately preceding the second anniversary of the alien's admission for conditional permanent residence.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Markwayne Mullin,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary, U.S. Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13392 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="40803"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Social Security Administration</AGENCY>
            <CFR>20 CFR Parts 404 and 416</CFR>
            <TITLE>Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Cardiovascular Disorders; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40804"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>20 CFR Parts 404 and 416</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. SSA-2019-0013]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0960-AI43</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Cardiovascular Disorders</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Social Security Administration.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>We are revising the criteria in the Listing of Impairments (listings) that we use to evaluate claims involving cardiovascular disorders in adults and children under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act (Act). The revisions reflect our adjudicative experience, advances in medical knowledge, and comments we received from the public in response to a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>This rule is effective October 30, 2026.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Michael J. Goldstein, Office of Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 965-1020.</P>
                        <P>
                            For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our internet site, Social Security Online, at 
                            <E T="03">http://www.socialsecurity.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The listings describe medical conditions that are so severe that we presume any adult who has a medical condition(s) that satisfies the criteria of a listing is unable to perform any gainful activity regardless of their age, education, or work experience and, therefore, is disabled.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For children, the listings describe impairments we consider severe enough to cause marked and severe functional limitations.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We use the listings at step 3 of the sequential evaluation process to identify claims that we should clearly allow.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We do not deny any claim solely because a person's medical condition(s) does not satisfy the criteria of a listing.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1525(a) and 416.925(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.925(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1520, 404.1525(a), 416.920, 416.924, and 416.925(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We last published final rules that comprehensively revised the cardiovascular disorders listings on January 13, 2006.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) for cardiovascular disorders in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on April 16, 2008.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             71 FR 2312 (2006).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             73 FR 20564 (2008).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are making final the rule for evaluating cardiovascular disorders that we proposed in the NPRM published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on June 29, 2022.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The preamble to the NPRM provides the background and rationale for these revisions. As explained in the NPRM, the revisions were informed by recommendations from the Institute of Medicine (IOM) 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         contained in their report titled “
                        <E T="03">Cardiovascular Disability: Updating the Social Security Listings</E>
                        ” (IOM report).
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The IOM report provides an important foundation because it was prepared within the context of the statutory definition of disability and the cardiovascular listings. The considerations under our disability program may be different than those found in a clinical or research setting. For example, the medical listings account for the most severe impairments that limit a person's function and ability to engage in any gainful activity, while clinical or research settings may seek to address all those affected by a condition or impairment and focus on decision-making regarding diagnosis and treatment of the medical problem; their focus is not necessarily on the ability to engage in any gainful activity. The IOM report specifically discusses these differences: for example, the IOM notes that generally, clinical guidelines do not address patient disability or employability as a major topic of discussion and rarely indicate the relationship of impairment severity to functional limitations that might affect work capacity.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             87 FR 38838 (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             Institute of Medicine (IOM). (2010). 
                            <E T="03">Cardiovascular Disability: Updating the Social Security Listings.</E>
                             Washington, DC: The National Academies Press. Note: We did not adopt all of the IOM report's recommendations. In some instances, certain recommendations were already addressed in another listing, or they conflicted with existing SSA policy. However, we did adopt multiple IOM recommendations. See IOM Adoption Chart in Supporting and Related Materials to this Docket for more details (see also 87 FR 38838).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             On April 28, 2015, the membership of the National Academy of Science voted to change the name of the IOM to the National Academy of Medicine. At that time, reports and studies of the IOM continued as activities of the Health and Medicine Division, a program unit operating under the direction of the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine. We will continue to use “IOM” and “Institute of Medicine” throughout this rule, as this is the name reflected in the cited report.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             IOM. (2010), 274.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, the revisions to our listings are not based solely on the IOM report. We have additionally reviewed a comprehensive body of relevant and reliable medical research, consulted with agency medical experts, and reviewed disability claims involving cardiovascular disorders to ensure that the revised criteria still reflect listing-level severity based on current medical practice. You can view the preamble to the NPRM by visiting 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and searching for document “SSA-2019-0013.” There are some differences in the introductory text and listing text from the NPRM to this final rule, which we explain below. Those differences reflect, in large part, our response to public comments we received about our proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Why are we revising the listings for evaluating cardiovascular disorders?</HD>
                    <P>We developed this final rule as part of our ongoing review of the listings. We are revising the listings for evaluating cardiovascular disorders to update their medical criteria, and to clarify how we evaluate cardiovascular disorders.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">When will we begin to use this final rule?</HD>
                    <P>As we noted in the dates section of this preamble, this final rule will be effective on October 30, 2026.</P>
                    <P>
                        We delayed the effective date of the rule to give us time to update our systems and to provide training and guidance to all of our adjudicators before we implement the final rule. The current rules will continue to apply until the effective date of the final rule. When the final rule becomes effective, we will apply it to new applications filed on or after the effective date of the rule, and to claims that are pending on or after the effective date.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             This means that we will use this final rule on and after the effective date in any case in which we make a determination or decision, including new applications, pending claims, and continuing disability reviews (CDRs), as applicable. See 20 CFR 404.901, 404.1590, 416.990, and 416.1401. We expect that Federal courts will review our final decisions using the rules that were in effect at the time we issued the decisions. If a court reverses our final decision and remands a case for further administrative proceedings after the effective date of this final rule, we will apply this final rule to the entire period at issue in the decision we make after the court's remand.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We present a series of tables below. These tables summarize the revisions we are making to the cardiovascular disorders introductory text and listings. Following the tables, we discuss the changes in detail.</P>
                    <P>The following table summarizes the current and revised sections of the adult cardiovascular disorders introductory text and listings:</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40805"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The following table summarizes the current and revised sections of the childhood cardiovascular disorders introductory text and listings:</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="487">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40806"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.001</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Listings 4.07 (
                        <E T="03">Aortic valvular disease</E>
                        ), 4.08 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                        ), and 4.16/104.16 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiac allograft vasculopathy</E>
                        ) are new listings. We added these listings to more directly address very serious conditions that can progress quickly and significantly limit an adult's ability to perform gainful activity or cause marked and severe limitations in a child's function. The impairments in these listings were previously evaluated under listings 4.02, 4.04, 4.05, 4.06, 4.09, 11.00, and 104.09.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The following tables show the revisions to the cardiovascular disorders listings criteria that involve changes to healthcare utilization and condition/episode requirements, along with the rationale for each change, and supporting resources.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A version of this table was in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking; this updated version includes current resources and changes in the criteria which were made in the final rule. Following this table, we discuss all of the changes to the cardiovascular disorders listings in more detail.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Note:</E>
                             We made several additions and changes to the tables based on feedback from public comments described later in this document, including updating listing criteria and terminology, adding more detailed rationales for our changes, and replacing or supplementing some of the older resources with newer references and guidelines.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Please be advised that the tables below contain only the changes that we are finalizing that relate to healthcare utilization, and not all revised listing criteria contain changes that relate to healthcare utilization.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40807"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.002</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40808"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.003</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40809"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.004</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40810"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.005</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40811"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.006</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40812"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.007</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40813"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.008</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40814"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.009</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40815"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.010</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40816"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.011</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40817"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.012</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="56">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40818"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.013</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40819"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.014</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40820"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.015</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="636">
                        <PRTPAGE P="40821"/>
                        <GID>ER02JY26.016</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40822"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>We are making several changes from the NPRM to this final rule for cardiovascular disorders:</P>
                    <P>
                        The following is a high-level summary of the major changes from the NPRM to this final rule. Below, in the section titled 
                        <E T="03">Public Comments on the NPRM,</E>
                         we describe in greater detail our responses to public comments, including the changes we made from the NPRM as a result of the comments. We also made minor, editorial changes from the NPRM for clarity and readability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure (chronic HF):</E>
                         We changed the acronym we use for chronic heart failure from “CHF” to “chronic HF.” We revised the terminology we use to describe the types of heart failure in paragraph 4.00D1 (
                        <E T="03">What is chronic HF?</E>
                        ) and listing 4.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ) to align with current medical terminology. In the introductory text, we expanded the list of appropriate medically acceptable imaging (paragraph 4.00D2 (
                        <E T="03">What evidence of chronic HF do we need?</E>
                        )), expanded the discussion of symptoms of chronic HF (paragraph 104.00C2b (Your medical history and physical examination)), and included increased ventricular volume in our discussion of cardiomegaly (paragraph 104.00C2a (Cardiomegaly or ventricular dysfunction)). In 4.02A1a (Left ventricular end diastolic dimension), we changed the threshold criterion for left ventricular end diastolic dimension (LVEDD) and provided different cutoffs for males and females. We also made a minor corresponding revision to the language describing a “period of stability” in paragraph 4.02A1b to replace the term “acute heart failure” with the term “exacerbation of heart failure,” which was our original intent and aligns with the language used in the description of a “period of stability” in paragraphs 4.02A1, 4.02A2, and 4.02C and ensures consistency of this description throughout listing 4.02.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease:</E>
                         We revised the introductory text in paragraphs 4.00E1 (
                        <E T="03">What is ischemic heart disease (IHD)?</E>
                        ) and 4.00E2 (
                        <E T="03">What causes chest discomfort of myocardial origin?</E>
                        ) to fully capture the causes of IHD. We also added language about non-obstructive coronary artery disease (paragraph 4.00E6 (
                        <E T="03">What is variant angina?</E>
                        )) and instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR) (paragraph 4.00E9f (In 4.04D2, instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR)). We added a new listing 4.04D2 (Instantaneous wave-free ratio) to provide another measure of listing-level IHD.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Peripheral vascular disease:</E>
                         We replaced the term “peripheral arterial disease” with “peripheral artery disease” throughout section 4.00G (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate peripheral vascular disease?</E>
                        ) and listing 4.12 (
                        <E T="03">Peripheral artery disease</E>
                        ) to reflect current medical terminology. In the introductory text, we clarified the symptoms associated with peripheral artery disease (PAD) (paragraph 4.00G1 (
                        <E T="03">What is peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?)</E>
                        ) and lymphedema (paragraphs 4.00G4 and 104.00F9 (
                        <E T="03">What is lymphedema and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        )). We also updated terminology describing ankle-brachial measurements and toe-brachial measurements we use to evaluate PAD to be consistent with modern medical practice (paragraphs 4.00G5 (
                        <E T="03">When will we purchase exercise Doppler studies for peripheral artery disease (PAD)?),</E>
                         4.00G6 
                        <E T="03">(Are there any other studies that are helpful in evaluating PAD?),</E>
                         4.00G7 
                        <E T="03">(How do we evaluate PAD under 4.12?),</E>
                         and 4.12 (
                        <E T="03">Peripheral artery disease</E>
                        )).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Congenital heart disease:</E>
                         In the introductory text, we added “pulmonary atresia” as an example of congenital valvular defects in paragraph 104.00D1c (
                        <E T="03">Valvular defects or obstructions to ventricular outflow</E>
                        ). We also added “pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum” to the list of single ventricle anomalies in paragraphs 4.00H3 and 104.00D4 (
                        <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy:</E>
                         We added functional criteria to listing 4.08A.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Other Changes:</E>
                         We revised paragraph 4.00C15b (
                        <E T="03">Cardiac catheterization reports</E>
                        ) to incorporate language that further describes the type of information typically provided in cardiac catheterization reports. We also added language that discusses the evaluation of genetic connective tissue disorders to paragraphs 4.00I8 and 104.00F10 (
                        <E T="03">What is Marfan syndrome and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">References to the cardiovascular disorders listings in other body systems:</E>
                         As we finalize revisions to the cardiovascular disorders listings, we are revising references in the introductory text for other body systems to mirror changes made in the cardiovascular listings. Specifically, we made a revision to the term “peripheral arterial disease” in paragraph 1.00B5 and to the term “Cardiovascular system” in paragraph 114.00J2m.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comments on the NPRM</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, we provided the public with a 60-day comment period, which was scheduled to end on August 29, 2022. During the comment period we received multiple comments requesting that SSA extend the comment period to give commenters more time to evaluate and respond to the proposed rule. In response to those requests, we extended the comment period until September 30, 2022.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We received 14 public comments.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Those comments came from advocacy groups, legal services organizations, medical organizations, and individual commenters.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             87 FR 51933 (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Three of the comment letters were requests from the public for an extension of the comment period.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We carefully considered all of the public comments related to this rulemaking. Below, we respond to all of the significant issues raised by the commenters that were within the scope of this rulemaking. We have not summarized or responded to comments that were outside the scope of the proposed rule. Some commenters noted provisions with which they agreed. We did not summarize or respond to those comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Chronic Heart Failure</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that throughout the child and adult listings, “chronic heart failure” is abbreviated as “CHF.” They noted that CHF is commonly used in the medical community to refer to congestive heart failure. The commenter recommended using the abbreviation “chronic HF” instead.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted this comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Two commenters recommended that we revise the terminology in paragraph 4.00D1 (SSA Note: In the NPRM we identified this section as 
                        <E T="03">What is chronic heart failure (CHF)?</E>
                        ) and listing 4.02A (Medically documented presence of 4.02A1 or A2) to align with current terminology reflecting the two types of chronic HF: heart failure with reduced EF (HFrEF) (EF&lt;40%) and heart failure with preserved EF (HFpEF) (EF&gt;50%). One of these commenters suggested including heart failure with mid-range EF (HFmrEF) (EF 40-49%). Another commenter provided proposed text to describe chronic HF in 4.00D1. The same commenter recommended changing the description of heart failure in paragraph 104.00C1a (
                        <E T="03">Heart failure</E>
                        ) to match their suggested description in 4.00D1, and recommended replacing the term diastolic heart failure and systolic heart failure in 4.02A with the preferred terminology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted these comments. We revised the terminology in final paragraphs 4.00D1a(i) 
                        <E T="03">(Heart failure with reduced EF (HFrEF)</E>
                        ) and 4.00D1a(ii) 
                        <E T="03">(Heart failure with preserved EF (HFpEF)</E>
                        ) to add HFrEF and HFpEF 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40823"/>
                        to describe the two types of HF.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We also replaced systolic failure with HFrEF in revised listing 4.02A1 (Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) and diastolic failure with HFpEF in revised listing 4.02A2 (Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction). We did not include HFmrEF in our revisions; although the terminology and identification as a distinct category of HF has been accepted by the clinical community, the available research does not provide a clear picture of the clinical significance of HFmrEF and its impact on a person's functioning. Further, there is a lack of consensus as to whether the addition of HFmrEF can be uniformly applied in practice and clinical trials.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, we did not include HFmrEF in our revisions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Types of heart failure.</E>
                             (n.d.). American Heart Association. (
                            <E T="03">https://www.heart.org/en/health-topics/heart-failure/what-is-heart-failure/types-of-heart-failure#:~:text=This%20is%20also%20known%20as%20heart%20failure%20with%20preserved%20ejection,41%25%20and%2049%25%20EF</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             Heidenreich, P.A., Bozkurt, B., Aguilar, D., Allen, L.A., Byun, J.J., Colvin, M.M., Deswal, A., Drazner, M.H., Dunlay, S.M., Evers, L.R., Fang, J.C., Fedson, S.E., Fonarow, G.C., Hayek, S.S., Hernandez, A.F., Khazanie, P., Kittleson, M.M., Lee, C.S., Link, M.S., Milano, C.A., . . . ACC/AHA Joint Committee Members (2022). 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                            (18), e895-e1032. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001063</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Although the commenter suggested matching the description of chronic HF in paragraph 104.00C1 to their proposed description of chronic HF in 4.00D1, they also provided proposed text that did not align with their suggested revisions for 4.00D1. We adopted portions of their proposed text rather than fully matching the proposed text with the description of chronic HF in 4.00D1 to account for the discrepancy.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended that we add right ventricular failure as an important refractory cause of heart failure to the definition of chronic HF in paragraph 4.00D1 (SSA Note: In the NPRM we identified this section as 
                        <E T="03">What is chronic heart failure (CHF)</E>
                        ). The same commenter recommended that we add infection and coronary artery insufficiency as possible causes of heart failure to paragraph 104.00C1b (Chronic HF is considered in these listings).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. The introductory text is intended to provide information generally about chronic HF for the public. It is not intended to provide an exhaustive discussion of the underlying causes of heart failure. Specifically, in paragraphs 4.00D1b and 104.00C1b (Chronic HF is considered in these listings), we explain that chronic HF is considered in these listings as a single category regardless of the underlying cause(s).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended that we expand the list of appropriate medically acceptable imaging in paragraph 4.00D2 (
                        <E T="03">What evidence of chronic HF do we need?</E>
                        ) to include cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted this comment. A cardiac MRI is a noninvasive test that provides important information in evaluating chronic HF and meets the definition of appropriate medical imaging in paragraph 4.00A3d.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Heidenreich, P.A., Bozkurt, B., Aguilar, D., Allen, L.A., Byun, J.J., Colvin, M.M., Deswal, A., Drazner, M.H., Dunlay, S.M., Evers, L.R., Fang, J.C., Fedson, S.E., Fonarow, G.C., Hayek, S.S., Hernandez, A.F., Khazanie, P., Kittleson, M.M., Lee, C.S., Link, M.S., Milano, C.A., . . . ACC/AHA Joint Committee Members (2022). 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                            (18), e895-e1032. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001063</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received comments recommending that we revise paragraph 4.00D2a(ii) (SSA Note: In the NPRM we identified an EF of 30 percent or less during a period of stability) and listing 4.02A1 (Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) to require an EF of less than or equal to 40 percent, rather than our current requirement of an EF of 30 percent or less.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. The American Society of Echocardiography (ASE) and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging (EACVI) considers an EF in the range of 30 percent to 40 percent as moderately abnormal and less than 30 percent as severely abnormal.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While ASE and EACVI do not describe how “severe” or “moderate” abnormalities relate to a patient's ability to engage in substantial gainful activity, the 2022 ACC/AHA guidelines referenced by commenters only distinguishes between “mildly reduced” EF (41-49 percent) and “reduced” EF as 40 percent or below. There is a difference between being diagnosed with a heart impairment and having an impairment severe enough to meet a listing. The 40 percent suggested by the commenters is a threshold for a diagnosis of heart failure, but is not indicative of the severity required to meet the listings. For example, for some individuals with an EF of 40 percent, the ACC/AHA guidelines recommend simply treating the impairment with beta blockers, which is not indicative of a level of medical severity necessary to meet a medical listing. We further note that although the ACC/AHA guidelines do not include a formal conclusion or distinction differentiating the severity of EF values below 40 percent, the guidelines do include multiple references to an EF less than 30 percent as a sign of severity, which is consistent with our criteria.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An EF between 30 percent and 40 percent does not indicate an impairment that would prevent a person from performing any gainful activity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             See Supplemental Table 3 in. Lang, R.M., Badano, L.P., Mor-Avi, V., Afilalo, J., Armstrong, A., Ernande, L., Flachskampf, F.A., Foster, E., Goldstein, S.A., Kuznetsova, T., Lancellotti, P., Muraru, D., Picard, M.H., Rietzschel, E.R., Rudski, L., Spencer, K.T., Tsang, W., &amp; Voigt, J.-U. (2015). Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification by Echocardiography in Adults: An Update from the American Society of Echocardiography and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography, 28</E>
                            (1), 1-39.e14, p. 39.e8. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.echo.2014.10.003).</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             Heidenreich, P.A., Bozkurt, B., Aguilar, D., Allen, L.A., Byun, J.J., Colvin, M.M., Deswal, A., Drazner, M.H., Dunlay, S.M., Evers, L.R., Fang, J.C., Fedson, S.E., Fonarow, G.C., Hayek, S.S., Hernandez, A.F., Khazanie, P., Kittleson, M.M., Lee, C.S., Link, M.S., Milano, C.A., . . . ACC/AHA Joint Committee Members (2022). 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                            (18), e895-e1032. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001063</E>
                            ). See specifically Table 16 (e955) and discussion of “severely depressed” EF (e978).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested defining mechanical circulatory support device (MCSD), the type of MCSD utilized, and length of time required to establish severity for listing criterion. The commenter questioned the use of “Impella devices.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted this comment. We added a discussion of devices using the Impella technology to paragraphs 4.00D4e and 104.00C4 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic HF treated with a mechanical circulatory support device?</E>
                        ) to clarify that such devices do not satisfy the requirements of listing 4.02D1 (An implanted mechanical circulatory support device except extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)) because they are intended for short-term usage only. We did not revise the text to specify a time period for an implanted MCSD to meet the criterion in this listing. The clinical conditions for which an implanted MCSD would be used reflect the underlying severity of chronic HF and the potential complications. Furthermore, the use of an implanted device carries additional risks, such as infections, blood clots, and renal failure. As a result of this comment, we realized that we inadvertently did not include 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40824"/>
                        “implanted” in proposed listings 4.02D1 or 104.02D (Mechanical circulatory support device), as we intended, and we added this term to revised 4.02D1 and 104.02D (An implanted mechanical circulatory support device except extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)). We note that adding “implanted” to listings 4.02D1 and 104.02D provides additional clarity but does not change the substance of those listings because the acceptable MCSDs described by the listings are always implanted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Two commenters suggested that we use a left ventricular end-diastolic dimension (LVEDD) indexed to body size. One of the commenters suggested that we provide separate LVEDD cutoffs for men and women, rather than specifying an absolute cutoff for LVEDD in listing 4.02A1 (Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted these comments. We did not include an LVEDD dimension indexed to body size, but we did provide separate cutoffs for men and women. While indexing LVEDD to body size can be useful in clinical practice, uncorrected measurements are generally available in the medical record and sufficient for determining the most severe forms of heart failure.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Requiring an indexed LVEDD is not practical for disability evaluation purposes because indexed LVEDD measurements are unavailable in many cases. LVEDD is not a stand-alone criterion for establishing disability; it must be considered in combination with the impact of chronic HF on the functional limitations we describe in listing 4.02B (Resulting in 4.02B1, B2, or B3). After consultation with agency medical experts and reviewing pertinent research, we did not include indexed LVEDD measurements in the listings. In cases where an indexed LVEDD measurement is available in the medical record, adjudicators will evaluate the indexed LVEDD measurement along with all other evidence in the record when evaluating disability.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             See Hayward, C., Perez, C., Patel, H., Mouyis, K., Patel, K., Akhtar, M., Harding, D., Adasuriya, G., Gillott, H., Harvey, G., Sotto, I., &amp; Bhattacharyya, S. (2019). The impact of misclassifying left ventricular size if indexing to body surface area is not performed. 
                            <E T="03">Imaging,</E>
                             A11.1-A11. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1136/heartjnl-2019-bcs.11</E>
                            ). In this study, the uncorrected LVEDD and the indexed LVEDD led to the same clinical classification 89.2 percent of the time. (
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Daimon, M., Watanabe, H., Nakanishi, K., Abe, Y., Hirata, K., Ishii, K., Iwakura, K., Izumi, C., Abe, H., Negishi, K., Ito, H., Tanabe, K., Tanaka, N., &amp; Nakatani, S. (2024). Is left ventricular diameter indexed for body surface area appropriate for assessing left ventricular dilation? 
                            <E T="03">Journal of cardiology, 84</E>
                            (1), 67-69. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jjcc.2024.03.004</E>
                            )). This study showed that indexing left ventricle (LV) diameters for body surface area (BSA) might overestimate LV dilation, particularly in subjects with a small body size.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We agree with the commenter that different LVEDD cutoffs for men and women are appropriate and we have changed the LVEDD threshold to greater than 6.8 cm for men and 6.1 cm for women during a period of stability. Clinical guidelines from the ASE and the EACVI provide these separate cutoffs for identifying severe dilation for males and females, and these cutoffs are easy to apply and are used by practitioners and researchers.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, studies have shown that they correlate with severity.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We also made a minor corresponding revision to the language describing a “period of stability” in paragraph 4.02A1b to replace the term “acute heart failure” with the term “exacerbation of heart failure,” which was our original intent, aligns with the language used in the description of a “period of stability” in paragraphs 4.02A1, 4.02A2, and 4.02C, and ensures consistency of this description throughout listing 4.02.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Lang, R.M., Badano, L.P., Mor-Avi, V., Afilalo, J., Armstrong, A., Ernande, L., Flachskampf, F.A., Foster, E., Goldstein, S.A., Kuznetsova, T., Lancellotti, P., Muraru, D., Picard, M.H., Rietzschel, E.R., Rudski, L., Spencer, K.T., Tsang, W., &amp; Voigt, J.-U. (2015). Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification by Echocardiography in Adults: An Update from the American Society of Echocardiography and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography, 28</E>
                            (1), 1-39.e14. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.echo.2014.10.003</E>
                            ); See page 18 in 
                            <E T="03">The American Society of Echocardiography Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification In Adults: A Quick Reference Guide From The ASE Workflow And Lab Management Task Force.</E>
                             (n.d.). (
                            <E T="03">https://www.asecho.org/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/WFTF-Chamber-Quantification-Summary-Doc-Final-July-18.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             Narayanan, K., Reinier, K., Teodorescu, C., Uy-Evanado, A., Aleong, R., Chugh, H., Nichols, G.A., Gunson, K., London, B., Jui, J., &amp; Chugh, S.S. (2014). Left Ventricular Diameter and Risk Stratification for Sudden Cardiac Death. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Heart Association, 3</E>
                            (5), e001193. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/JAHA.114.001193</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that we retain the requirement for an LVEDD of greater than 6 cm in listing 4.02A1 (Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) rather than changing it to a value of equal to or greater than 7 cm. The commenter noted that only patients with the most severe forms of heart failure would be captured under the 7 cm criterion and that 6 cm is likely an appropriate threshold to delineate those patients who will benefit from some advanced cardiovascular therapies. The same commenter recommended that we include an LV volume index in addition to or instead of LVEDD.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments, but we did revise the LVEDD criterion to better reflect the cutoffs for males and females used in clinical practice, as discussed in our response to the previous comment. An LVEDD of 6 cm reflects a mildly to moderately abnormal enlargement of the heart.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While 6 cm may be an appropriate threshold to delineate patients who will benefit from some advanced cardiovascular therapies, this is not the purpose of our Listing of Impairments. Rather, our listing for chronic HF is meant to capture more severe forms of the condition that represent an inability to perform any gainful activity. An LVEDD threshold of greater than 6.8 cm for males and greater than 6.1 cm for females more clearly establishes a severely enlarged heart with signs and symptoms associated with the functional limitations we require in listing 4.02B (Resulting in 4.02B1, B2, or B3).
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             Lang, R.M., Badano, L.P., Mor-Avi, V., Afilalo, J., Armstrong, A., Ernande, L., Flachskampf, F.A., Foster, E., Goldstein, S.A., Kuznetsova, T., Lancellotti, P., Muraru, D., Picard, M.H., Rietzschel, E.R., Rudski, L., Spencer, K.T., Tsang, W., &amp; Voigt, J.-U. (2015). Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification by Echocardiography in Adults: An Update from the American Society of Echocardiography and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography, 28</E>
                            (1), 1-39.e14. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.echo.2014.10.003</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Institute of Medicine (IOM). (2010). 
                            <E T="03">Cardiovascular Disability: Updating the Social Security Listings</E>
                             (pg. 89). Washington, DC: The National Academies Press; Narayanan, K., Reinier, K., Teodorescu, C., Uy-Evanado, A., Aleong, R., Chugh, H., Nichols, G.A., Gunson, K., London, B., Jui, J., &amp; Chugh, S.S. (2014). Left Ventricular Diameter and Risk Stratification for Sudden Cardiac Death. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Heart Association, 3</E>
                            (5), e001193. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/JAHA.114.001193</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In clinical practice, left ventricular volume index scores are most helpful in evaluating ventricular function in the early stages of heart failure with normal or mildly reduced EF. At present, reliable left ventricle volume index scores are time-consuming and not always feasible. Consequently, left ventricle volume index scores are seldomly included in echocardiogram reports, whereas LVEDD are routinely included in echocardiogram reports.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="40825"/>
                        After consulting with agency medical experts and reviewing pertinent research, we did not include left ventricular volume index scores in the listings.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             Ito, K., Li, S., Homma, S., Thompson, J.L.P., Buchsbaum, R., Matsumoto, K., Anker, S.D., Qian, M., Di Tullio, M.R., &amp; WARCEF Investigators (2021). Left ventricular dimensions and cardiovascular outcomes in systolic heart failure: the WARCEF trial. 
                            <E T="03">ESC heart failure, 8</E>
                            (6), 4997-5009. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1002/ehf2.13560.</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Lang, R.M., Badano, L.P., Mor-Avi, V., Afilalo, J., Armstrong, A., Ernande, L., Flachskampf, F.A., Foster, E., Goldstein, S.A., Kuznetsova, T., Lancellotti, P., Muraru, D., Picard, M.H., Rietzschel, E.R., Rudski, L., Spencer, K.T., Tsang, W., &amp; Voigt, J.-U. (2015). Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification by Echocardiography in Adults: An Update from the American Society of Echocardiography and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging. 
                            <E T="03">
                                Journal of the American 
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                Society of Echocardiography, 28
                            </E>
                            (1), 1-39.e14. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.echo.2014.10.003</E>
                            )). These guidelines indicate that there are limitations with each method of measuring and calculating LV end diastolic volume, and that indexing to BSA, and 3D measurement and reporting of LV volumes are recommended when feasible depending on image quality.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters suggested that we revise the proposed requirements in listing 4.02A2 (Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction), including revising the required left atrial volume index (LAVI) score and adding alternative criteria. One commenter suggested that an LAVI of greater than 34 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         should be the required cutoff, while another commenter suggested the cutoff should be an LAVI of 34 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        . Another commenter suggested that the cutoff should be greater than or equal to 30 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        . One of the commenters also suggested that we add diastolic function requirements as an alternative, while another specifically suggested that we include a tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity greater than 2.8 m/s and abnormal tissue dopplers over the mitral valve as a requirement. One of the commenters also suggested that we include a left ventricular EF (LVEF) of greater than or equal to 50 percent, a tissue velocity septal E/e ratio on echocardiography greater than 9, or a lateral E/e ratio greater than 13.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. An LAVI of 34 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        , as suggested by some commenters, falls within the normal range and serves as a cutoff measurement to identify a heart abnormality. Generally, higher LAVI measurements indicate greater severity of the condition. While an LAVI value between 34 and 40 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         may support a diagnosis of heart failure, as indicated in one public commenter's reference to a 2016 article from the Journal of American Society of Echocardiography, such scores are consistent with only mild enlargement.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By contrast, an LAVI value of 40 ml/m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         or greater identifies people with more severe forms of heart failure and more clearly establishes an inability to perform any gainful activity than the other suggested thresholds.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             See Table 3 in Nagueh SF, Smiseth OA, Appleton CP, et al. (2016). Recommendations for the Evaluation of Left Ventricular Diastolic Function by Echocardiography: An Update from the American Society of Echocardiography and the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography, 29</E>
                            (4), 277-314, p. 288. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.echo.2016.01.011</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             See page 18 in 
                            <E T="03">The American Society of Echocardiography Recommendations for Cardiac Chamber Quantification In Adults: A Quick Reference Guide From The ASE Workflow And Lab Management Task Force.</E>
                             (n.d.). (
                            <E T="03">https://www.asecho.org/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/WFTF-Chamber-Quantification-Summary-Doc-Final-July-18.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We did not include additional criteria to evaluate diastolic function because we already provide criteria, including the LAVI, to evaluate diastolic function. We did not add the suggested LVEF criterion because the suggested EF is implicit in the HFpEF category (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a normal EF). Furthermore, we did not add criteria to include tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity, abnormal tissue dopplers, or tissue velocity septal E/e ratios. These measurements may provide value in the overall evaluation of one's cardiovascular condition; however, they are not consistently contained in echocardiogram reports. The measurements we include in listing 4.02A (Medically documented presence of 4.02A1 or A2) are meant to capture the most severe conditions that prevent a person from being able to engage in any gainful activity. The criteria we include in 4.02A2 are not a comprehensive list of every measurement used to diagnose and assess heart failure. Alternative measures that are not included in the listing criteria may be evaluated under our rules for medical equivalence.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that the proposed criterion in listing 4.02A2 (Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction) may not be standard criterion, and questioned whether the proposed criterion captures diastolic failure of a non-hypertrophic etiology. They noted it was unclear which criteria were needed to establish a diagnosis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We disagree with the commenter's concern that the criteria are not standard. The measurements in 4.02A2 are commonly included in echocardiogram reports and used to identify left atrial enlargement, which leads to chronic HF. We use the criteria in 4.02A2 to identify people with diastolic failure that may prevent a person from engaging in any gainful activity. Satisfying the criteria in 4.02A2 is insufficient to find a person disabled at the listing level; the person's limitations caused by the heart failure must also satisfy the criteria in listing 4.02B (Resulting in 4.02B1, B2, or B3). There are many non-hypertrophic causes of diastolic dysfunction, including, but not limited to, coronary artery disease, arrythmias (such as atrial fibrillation), and non-hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. These and other non-hypertrophic causes of diastolic dysfunction may be evaluated under other listings, such as 4.04 (
                        <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease</E>
                        ), 4.05 (
                        <E T="03">Recurrent arrythmias</E>
                        ), and 4.08 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters suggested that we add elevated b-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels as another way to assess chronic HF at listing 4.02A2 (Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. BNP (and Immunoreactive amino terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP)) measurements alone are insufficient for determining listing-level severity. These levels vary in relation to heart failure severity and may be influenced by other factors such as age, sex, body mass index, and other medical conditions. Further, these measurements are most often obtained during periods of instability, while the listings contemplate functional ability during periods of stability. We discuss how we use BNP and NT-proBNP in paragraph 4.00D1b (Chronic HF is considered in these listings).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that we remove the requirement of an EF of 20 percent or less from listing 4.02C (Heart failure with left ventricular ejection fraction of 20 percent or less), noting the cutoff is too low and arbitrary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The IOM recommended a criterion for chronic HF with an EF on a sustained basis of 20 percent or less.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An EF of only 20 percent means the heart's pumping action is less than a third of normal, and therefore critically affects a person's ability to perform gainful activity.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Most people with heart disease this advanced have a greater risk of mortality and major functional limitations, such as shortness of breath or fatigue, even during mild exertion. In addition to consulting with the IOM and reviewing the medical research supporting this criterion, we reviewed disability claims involving chronic HF to ensure that the revised 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40826"/>
                        criteria reflect listing-level severity based on medical practice. This criterion is an administrative expedient to quickly identify people whose chronic HF is at a listing-level of severity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             IOM. (2010), 84, 89.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Content—Health Encyclopedia—University of Rochester Medical Center.</E>
                             (n.d.). (
                            <E T="03">https://www.urmc.rochester.edu/encyclopedia/content?contenttypeid=56&amp;contentid=DM14</E>
                            ); IOM. (2010), 84, 89; Runge, M.S., Patterson, C., Stouffer, G.A., &amp; Netter, F.H. (2010). Netter's Cardiology (2nd ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Saunders Elsevier; Fukunaga, N., Ribeiro, R. V.P., Lafreniere-Roula, M., Manlhiot, C., Badiwala, M.V., &amp; Rao, V. (2020). Left Ventricular Size and Outcomes in Patients With Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction Less Than 20%. 
                            <E T="03">The Annals of Thoracic Surgery, 110</E>
                            (3), 863-869. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.athoracsur.2020.01.005</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ischemic Heart Disease</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested several revisions to more fully capture the causes of ischemic heart disease in paragraphs 4.00E1 (
                        <E T="03">What is ischemic heart disease (IHD)?)</E>
                         and 4.00E2 (
                        <E T="03">What causes chest discomfort of myocardial origin?</E>
                        ). The same commenter also suggested revisions to paragraph 4.00E6 (
                        <E T="03">What is variant angina?</E>
                        ) to include non-obstructive coronary artery disease in our discussion of variant angina.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted the commenter's suggestion to revise 4.00E1, 4.00E2, and 4.00E6. Although we did not propose changes to these sections in the NPRM, we agree that it is appropriate to include language addressing non-obstructive coronary artery disease to more fully explain potential sources of chest discomfort. These changes do not affect the substantive criteria of the listings, as they describe other possible origins of chest discomfort as background information but do not contain additional requirements to meet any listing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter stated that the term “fractional flow reserve” (FFR) at listing 4.04D1 (Fractional flow reserve) was too restrictive and would exclude other similarly effective measures of coronary physiology that are commonly used (including other non-hyperemic pressure ratios such as diastolic hyperemia-free ratio (DFR), resting full-cycle ratio (RFR), diastolic pressure ratio (DPR), and/or instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR)). The commenter suggested we use the term “coronary artery physiology” instead. Another commenter suggested adding iFR as another method to measure stenosis severity in section 4.00E (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate ischemic heart disease?</E>
                        ) and 4.04D1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted these comments. We added iFR as a second method to measure the severity of stenosis in 4.00E and 4.04D2 because iFR and FFR are two of the most commonly used physiological methods of assessment and have been thoroughly validated for clinical use.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, we did not add the term “coronary artery physiology” to 4.04D1 because it does not align with specific measures of stenosis severity that are required in the listing.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             Lawton, J.S., Tamis-Holland, J., Bangalore, S., Bates, E., Beckie, T., Bischoff, J., Bittl, J., Cohen, M., DiMaio, J.M., Don, C., Fremes, S., Gaudine, M., Goldberger, Z., Grant, M., Jaswal, J., Kurlansky, P., Mehran, R., Metkus, Jr., T., Nnacheta, L., Rao, S., C.A, . . . 2021 ACC/AHA/SCAI Guideline for Coronary Artery Revascularization: A Report of the American College of Cariology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                             (3), e18-e114. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001038</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we replace the term “irregular heartbeat” in listing 4.04C (Documentation of three separate ischemic episodes) with “arrythmia thought to be due to ischemic cause” because the term is nonspecific.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this suggestion. We do not use the term “irregular heartbeat” in 4.04C. We used that term in the Supplementary Information section of the NPRM and in paragraph 4.00I2 (
                        <E T="03">What is cardiomyopathy and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        ). We did not use the language suggested by the commenter for any listing criteria because the listing criteria must identify specific evidence required to meet the listing, and the phrase “thought to be due to ischemic cause” is not specific.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Listing 4.04E (Exacerbations or complications of ischemic heart disease) includes both planned and unplanned hospital admissions for ischemic heart disease. One commenter questioned whether this included planned staged interventions of coronary artery disease.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Planned staged interventions are not exacerbations nor would they be separate events showing symptoms requiring hospitalization with improvement in the meantime to show it is an exacerbation. The staged surgical treatment plan, which may be in response to a complication or exacerbation, would be a single event and would not, by itself, satisfy the criterion in 4.04E.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congenital Heart Disease</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter expressed concerns that section 4.00H (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate congenital heart disease?</E>
                        ) does not adequately cover all forms of congenital heart disease. Specifically, their concern was that we do not include congenital heart diseases that can progress to heart failure, including right-sided heart failure. The commenter recommended that we allow exceptions for congenital heart disease that are not characterized in the listings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. Section 4.00H1 (
                        <E T="03">What is congenital heart disease?</E>
                        ) states that congenital heart disease is any abnormality of the heart or the major blood vessels that is present at birth. When congenital heart disease results in chronic HF, we evaluate it under listing 4.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ), regardless of the underlying cause. As we have explained elsewhere, we do not intend to provide exhaustive discussions of congenital heart conditions that may be disabling or provide listing criteria for each condition. Notably, our rules for medical equivalence provide flexibility in determining whether an impairment is disabling by allowing us to consider whether the person's impairment is at least equal in severity and duration to the criteria of any listed impairment.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, if we are unable to find a person's cardiovascular disorder disabling based on meeting or equaling a listed impairment, we will continue the sequential evaluation and may find the person disabled at the final step of the process.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1520 and 416.920.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1520(a)(4) and (g) and 416.920(a)(4) and (g).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter proposed that we change the heading at paragraph 4.00H3 (
                        <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                        ) to read “What is unrepaired congenital heart disease” to “include definitions of single ventricle.” Another commenter urged us to include “unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease” in listing 4.06D (Single ventricle (with or without Fontan procedures)), as they broadly interpret Fontan circulation as “unrepaired.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. Paragraph 4.00H3 states that the term “single ventricle” (also known as single ventricle physiology or functional single ventricle) describes a diverse group of congenital cardiac anomalies sharing the common feature that only one of the two heart ventricles is adequately developed.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This applies whether the single ventricle has been repaired or not. Furthermore, we note in 4.06D that the criterion applies whether or not Fontan procedures have been performed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Of note, the AHA guidelines use the term “single ventricle.” Stout, K.K., Daniels, C.J., Aboulhosn, J.A., Bozkurt, B., Broberg, C.S., Colman, J.M., . . . Van Hare, G.F. (2019). 2018 AHA/ACC Guideline for the Management of Adults With Congenital Heart Disease: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of the American College of Cardiology, 73</E>
                             (12), e81-e192. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jacc.2018.08.1029</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter suggested that while there is a theoretical value in linking hypoxia to hematocrit in listing 4.06A1(Hematocrit of 55 percent or greater), there may be more variables that affect hematocrit. The commenter provided specific variables they indicated affect hematocrit in addition 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40827"/>
                        to hypoxia. They noted that unless the criterion accounts for all such variables, there may be no value in linking hypoxia to hematocrit. They included specific variables that are not discussed in proposed 4.06A1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make changes based on this comment. Listing 4.06A1 discusses chronic hypoxemia, not hypoxia. We agree there may be variables other than hypoxemia that affect hematocrit, including the examples the commenter provided. Although the comment specifically referenced 4.06A1, which applies to adults, some of the commenter's examples relate to conditions in children. The criterion in 4.06A1 is only one of several alternatives for evaluating hypoxemia in congenital heart disease. We also use arterial blood gas measurements and pulse oximetry for evaluating hypoxemia when considering congenital heart disease. Other causes of elevated hematocrit levels would not be evaluated under this listing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received several comments related to use of pulse oximetry in the adult and childhood listings related to hypoxemia. One commenter noted that the 87 percent oxygen saturation rate under listings 4.06A and 104.06A (Chronic hypoxemia) seemed low and added that people can be limited when resting saturation is 90 percent. Another commenter suggested the saturation cut-off should be set at less than or equal to 89 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. We use a threshold of 89 percent or below when oxygen saturation is obtained through arterial blood gas (ABG) measurements. Pulse oximeter measurements may be between 2 and 4 percent higher or lower than ABG measurements.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The 87 percent measurement in listings 4.06A3 (S
                        <E T="52">p</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) and 104.06A3 (S
                        <E T="52">p</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) accounts for this known discrepancy between pulse oximeter and ABG measurements. In addition to consulting with the IOM and reviewing the medical research supporting this criterion, we reviewed disability claims involving congenital heart disease to ensure that the revised criteria reflect listing-level severity based on medical practice.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Torp KD, Modi P, Pollard EJ, et al. Pulse Oximetry. 2023 Jul 30. In: StatPearls [internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024 Jan-. PMID: 29262014; 
                            <E T="03">Yale Medicine. (2023, January 3). Pulse Oximetry.</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://www.yalemedicine.org/conditions/pulse-oximetry</E>
                            ). See also MedlinePlus. (2025, November 28). 
                            <E T="03">Pulse Oximetry.</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://medlineplus.gov/lab-tests/pulse-oximetry/</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that the proposal in listing 4.06A (Chronic hypoxemia) to require three separate S
                        <E T="52">p</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         measurements 30 days apart within a 12-month period to show chronic hypoxemia may be onerous, unnecessary, and would delay appropriate diagnosis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We do not agree that the requirements in 4.06A would delay appropriate diagnosis. The requirements in our listings are intended to evaluate the severity of a person's congenital heart disease, not to establish a diagnosis. The criteria for three separate measurements 30 days apart within a 12-month period demonstrates chronicity of a person's hypoxemia. Although we indicate that the evaluations must occur within a 12-month period, people may have the requisite findings in a shorter time period. Further, gathering three separate S
                        <E T="52">p</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         measurements is one alternative for documenting chronic hypoxemia in our listings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that proposed listing 4.06 (
                        <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                        ) includes no specific mention of target threshold stats after the 6-minute walk test (6MWT) and encouraged more specificity towards a cardiac versus chronic pulmonary issue. The same commenter suggested we revise listing 4.06A3 (S
                        <E T="52">p</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) to include people who are unable to perform the 6MWT.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. The criterion in listing 4.06A3 requires a target threshold amount of less than or equal to 87 percent of oxygen saturation of blood hemoglobin on three evaluations at least 30 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period, during a 6MWT or after a 6MWT. We do not need to differentiate between cardiac and pulmonary conditions in listing 4.06 because the listing requires a diagnosis of congenital heart disease documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging or cardiac catheterization. The listing criteria cannot be met without first fulfilling one of these requirements, which relate directly to cardiac conditions, not pulmonary conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>If a person is unable to perform the 6MWT, we provide other criteria for evaluating congenital heart disease under listing 4.06A (Chronic hypoxemia), including hematocrit, arterial blood gas levels, and oxygen saturation levels measured by pulse oximetry at rest.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Under their comments identified as pertaining to listing criteria 4.06A (Chronic hypoxemia), one commenter indicated that criteria should also exist for those patients who are not cyanotic or hypoxic.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. In listing 4.06 (
                        <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                        ), we provide several alternatives for evaluating congenital heart disease that do not require hypoxemia or cyanosis, including hypertension (4.06C) and exacerbations or complications requiring three hospitalizations in a 12-month period (4.06E). While listing 4.06A requires a diagnosis of chronic hypoxemia, a person with congenital heart disease who is not cyanotic or hypoxic may still be found disabled under one of the other criteria in listing 4.06, other cardiovascular listings, our rules for functional equivalence in children,
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or at step 5 of the adult sequential evaluation process.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             20 CFR 404 1520(g) and 416.920(g).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that we include criterion pertaining to cardiac surgery and complications from cardiac intervention in listing 4.06A1 (Hematocrit of 55 percent or greater).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The occurrence of a surgery does not necessarily mean a person will have limitations that prevent them from performing substantial gainful activity and meet the durational requirement. If the person has complications resulting from a surgery, we will evaluate them under listing 4.06E (Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter encouraged SSA to consider the duration of a hospitalization as a marker for complexity, not just the need for readmission under listing 4.06E (Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease). The same commenter similarly encouraged SSA to consider prolonged hospitalizations under listing 104.06E (Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease). They noted concerns that a person who is chronically hospitalized, which they defined as more than 90 days, would not qualify for disability under 104.06E but likely should.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make any changes based on these comments. We consider the duration of a person's hospitalization as a marker of complexity; both 4.06E and 104.06E require that each hospitalization last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization. A person with prolonged hospitalization as described by the commenter is likely to have medical findings that satisfy another criterion. The condition(s) leading to the prolonged hospitalization may also medically equal another cardiac listing under our equivalence 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40828"/>
                        policy.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, satisfying the hospitalization criteria is only one way that we may find a person disabled under the adult and childhood listings for congenital heart disease.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vascular Disease</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received comments suggesting that we use the term “peripheral artery disease” in place of “peripheral arterial disease” throughout section 4.00G (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate peripheral vascular disease?)</E>
                         and listing 4.12 (SSA Note: In the NPRM we titled this section “
                        <E T="03">Peripheral arterial disease</E>
                        ”), and replace the term “ankle-brachial systolic blood pressure ratio” with “ankle-brachial index,” which is the common term used for the test.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted these comments. We must use appropriate modern medical terminology to specify the medical criteria we use to evaluate cardiovascular disorders. Our research indicates that “ankle-brachial index” is the more commonly used term among professionals in the field of cardiology.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For consistency, we also replaced the term “arterial” with “artery” (in this final rule listing 4.12 is now titled “Peripheral artery disease”). Additionally, we replaced “toe/brachial systolic blood pressure ratio” with “toe-brachial index.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             A review of the website for the Journal of the American Medical Association (JAMA), a peer-reviewed medical journal published 48 times a year by the American Medical Association, found that the term “ankle-brachial index” was used more than “ankle-brachial systolic blood pressure ratio.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended adding “lymphatics” to the list describing disorders of the veins or arteries at paragraph 4.00A1c (Disorders of the veins or arteries) and adding text that describes the symptoms of lymphedema to paragraph 4.00G1 (
                        <E T="03">What is peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?</E>
                        ). The same commenter recommended broadening paragraph 104.00F9 (
                        <E T="03">What is lymphedema and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        ) to address “lymphatic disorder” or “lymphatic perfusion disorder.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted these comments. We added language to paragraph 4.00G4a and 104.00F9a (
                        <E T="03">Lymphedema</E>
                        ) that describes lymphedema. We did not revise paragraphs 4.00A1c or 4.00G1. The lymphatic system is not part of the cardiovascular system. Disorders of lymphatic circulation, such as lymphedema, are related to the immune system of the body. Although the signs and symptoms of lymphatic disease are similar to those associated with peripheral vascular disease, lymphatic disease is not part of the vascular system and is treated in a completely different manner. We believe it is more appropriate to provide general guidance about lymphedema in this section rather than focus on specific lymphatic disorders.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested editorial changes to paragraph 4.00G6 (
                        <E T="03">Are there any other studies that are helpful in evaluating PAD?</E>
                        ) to include brief discussion of Doppler waveforms and plethysmographic tracings. The commenter further suggested that we include “stenting” along with our discussion of peripheral grafting in paragraph 4.00G9 (
                        <E T="03">How do we use listing 4.12 if you have had a peripheral graft?</E>
                        ) to better reflect current medical technologies and treatment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted the suggested editorial changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter questioned whether venous dopplers are the only method to establish the diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Venous dopplers are not the only method to establish a diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency. In listing 4.11 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic venous insufficiency</E>
                        ), we allow for a person's chronic venous insufficiency to be documented by duplex ultrasound “or other appropriate diagnostic technique.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended clarifying section 4.00G (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate peripheral vascular disease?</E>
                        ) to include that peripheral artery disease can cause leg or foot pain.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted this comment. This change better encapsulates symptoms of claudication, which include pain not only in the calf, but also other parts of the lower extremities, such as the thighs or buttocks. This wording is consistent with the language in listing 4.12 (
                        <E T="03">Peripheral artery disease</E>
                        ), which discusses intermittent claudication or leg pain, as opposed to simply calf pain.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended that we add a third option to the criteria in listing 4.11 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic venous insufficiency</E>
                        ) to account for leg pain that interferes with mobility and provided a specific criterion for consideration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The commenter suggested a standalone criterion that does not include objective medical findings and does not quantify the limitation in mobility. Without specific quantified criteria for limitations in mobility, we would not be able to ensure the consistent application of the proposed criterion. To consider pain as a listing criterion, we would also require medical signs documenting the chronic venous insufficiency. Symptoms such as pain are subjective and difficult to quantify. We will not substitute symptoms such as pain for a medical sign (or diagnostic finding) in the listing criteria. However, if we are unable to find a person's cardiovascular disorder meets or medically equals a listed impairment, we will continue the sequential evaluation process and evaluate the person's symptoms, including pain, as set forth in our regulations.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1529 and 416.929.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter had questions pertaining to the duration requirement of listing 4.11B (Two or more episodes of ulceration), specifically whether this listing requires the presence of an ulceration that has not healed following at least 6 months of treatment, or whether it would also need to last for 12 continuous months.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         A temporal requirement such as the requirement described in 4.11B serves as a specific indicator of listing-level severity and does not establish that the medically determinable impairment (MDI) meets the duration requirement. To meet the duration requirement, the MDI(s) must have lasted, or be expected to last, for a continuous period of at least 12 months and the person's resulting inability to perform substantial gainful activity by reason of the MDI(s) must also have lasted, or be expected to last, for not less than 12 months without interruption or stopping.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1509 and 416.909. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             SSR 23-1p (2023). Available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/OP_Home/rulings/di/01/SSR2023-01-di-01.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter inquired as to why we did not include a listing addressing deep venous thromboses (DVT) or pulmonary emboli (PE).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We understand the commenter's concerns related to DVTs and PEs. When DVTs or PEs are chronic, there are a number of factors we consider in determining the appropriate body system(s) for evaluation. When the chronic DVT or PE has a specific cause, we will evaluate the impairment under the listing related to that cause. For example, an underlying disorder of thrombosis would be evaluated under the hematological body system. In other cases, the chronic DVT or PE may result in another MDI. For example, the chronic DVTs may cause heart failure which would be evaluated under listing 4.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ). In many cases, the chronic DVT may result in signs and symptoms similar to those for chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, we would evaluate the impairment under the medical 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40829"/>
                        equivalence policy for listing 4.11 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic venous insufficiency</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested broadening listing 4.07 (
                        <E T="03">Aortic valvular disease</E>
                        ) to include all valvular heart diseases, as all valve diseases can cause heart failure symptoms and disability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The introductory text at paragraph 4.00I3 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate valvular heart disease?</E>
                        ) specifically notes we may evaluate other forms of valvular disease under listings 4.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ), 4.04 (
                        <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease</E>
                        ), 4.05 (
                        <E T="03">Recurrent arrhythmias</E>
                        ), 4.06 (
                        <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                        ), or a listing in 11.00 (
                        <E T="03">Neurological Disorders</E>
                        ), depending on its effects on the person. The listings are not intended to be an exhaustive compilation of disabling conditions. Rather, they are used to identify cases at an early stage of the sequential evaluation process that meet a strict threshold for the statutory definition of disability. They describe impairments that we consider severe enough to prevent an adult from doing any gainful activity. If an impairment does not meet a listing, this does not mean that we will deny a claim. Rather, we will continue the sequential evaluation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that listing 4.08 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                        ) should include a functional component and should not be dependent on an exercise tolerance test (ETT). The commenter expressed concerns about logistical barriers related to practices of locally available physician's offices that may inhibit access to vendors who can properly perform ETTs for some offices (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Disability Determination Services), and suggested that the listing needs to take this into consideration. The same commenter expressed concerns about the ability to order echocardiograms and the resulting effect on the ability of those offices to evaluate claimants under listings 4.02C and 4.07. Another commenter suggested that functional details would help clarify guidelines regarding the cardiomyopathy listing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted the suggestion to add functional criteria to listing 4.08. Although proposed listing 4.08 provided criteria for evaluating cardiomyopathy when ETTs present significant risks to the person, we agree that consideration of a person's functioning is appropriate. This criterion is consistent with the criterion we provide in listing 4.02B1b (Very serious limitation) for evaluating chronic HF when ETTs cannot be performed.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the commenter's concern about some offices having barriers to ordering ETTs or echocardiograms, the listing criteria are based on a person's medical condition and the types of findings typically present in disability claims. An echocardiogram is a common diagnostic test that is typically included in the medical evidence of record for claimants with these impairments. In addition, we allow other acceptable medical testing. Furthermore, listing 4.08 provides several alternative criteria that do not consider ETTs or echocardiograms for evaluating cardiomyopathy. SSA would follow the existing processes (which are outside of the scope of the listing criteria and this rulemaking) to address any logistical concerns and barriers to acquiring the necessary medical evidence, which may include, when appropriate, ordering an echocardiogram.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we establish sex-specific criteria in evaluating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in listing 4.08 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                        ) to account for differences in body size and heart dimensions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. In the clinical guidelines for diagnosing and evaluating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, the American College of Cardiology, the American Society of Echocardiology, and the American Heart Association do not provide standards for cardiac wall measurements based on sex or body size.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, we think it is inappropriate to incorporate such requirements in our listings.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Heidenreich, P.A., Bozkurt, B., Aguilar, D., Allen, L.A., Byun, J.J., Colvin, M.M., Deswal, A., Drazner, M.H., Dunlay, S.M., Evers, L.R., Fang, J.C., Fedson, S.E., Fonarow, G.C., Hayek, S.S., Hernandez, A.F., Khazanie, P., Kittleson, M.M., Lee, C.S., Link, M.S., Milano, C.A., . . . ACC/AHA Joint Committee Members (2022). 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                            (18), e895-e1032. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001063</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested adding all etiologic factors to listing 4.10 (
                        <E T="03">Dissecting aneurysm of the aorta or major branches),</E>
                         as it currently does not specifically mention other connective tissue disorders or penetrating aortic ulcers as other etiological factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. Under listing 4.10, we evaluate dissecting aneurysm of the aorta or major branches due to any cause. The listing text is not meant to be an exhaustive compilation of the causes of dissecting aneurysms; therefore, it is not necessary to list other etiological factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter asked if listings 4.16 and 104.16 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiac allograft vasculopathy)</E>
                         address issues such as vasculitis, including Kawasaki disease.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Cardiac allograft vasculopathy is a condition that affects the blood vessels of the heart in people who have had a heart transplant. The condition does not include those who develop narrowing of the arteries due to other conditions. People who develop narrowing or blockage of arteries of the heart in the absence of a heart transplant are evaluated under listing 4.04 (
                        <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease).</E>
                         Systemic vasculitis is an immune system disorder which we evaluate under listings 14.03 and 114.03 (
                        <E T="03">Systematic vasculitis</E>
                        ). We provide information about how we evaluate Kawasaki disease in paragraph 104.00F8 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate Kawasaki disease?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we include other genetic connective tissue disorders with serious cardiovascular effects, such as Loeys-Dietz Syndrome, in paragraphs 4.00I8 and 104.00F10 (
                        <E T="03">What is Marfan syndrome and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted this comment to explain how genetic connective tissue disorders other than Marfan syndrome are evaluated under the listings. We added a new paragraph to sections 4.00I and 104.00F (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate other cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                        ) that discusses the evaluation of connective tissue disorders with cardiovascular effects, such as Loeys-Dietz syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Miscellaneous</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter questioned why “reduced oxygen concentration” is listed as a mechanism for hypoxemia in paragraphs 4.00A1b(iv) and 104.00A1b(iv) (Hypoxemia), when hypoxemia is synonymous with reduced oxygen concentration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We agree that including the words “reduced oxygen concentration” is redundant. Therefore, we removed “reduced oxygen concentration in the arterial blood” as a cause of hypoxemia.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that in paragraph 4.00C8d (We will wait to purchase an exercise test), “percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty” and “percutaneous coronary intervention” are the same procedure, and we should consider using only one term.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. While these terms are both names for the same procedure, they are each used in medical records. We kept 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40830"/>
                        both terms in 4.00C8d to account for the use of both terms in medical records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended that we revise our language in paragraph 4.00C15 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate cardiac catheterization evidence?)</E>
                         to better describe the type of information commonly provided by a cardiac catheterization. The commenter also provided specific language for consideration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted this comment. As the commenter suggested, we removed the last sentence of paragraph 4.00C15a (We will not purchase) and we revised paragraph 4.00C15b (Cardiac catheterization reports). Specifically, we incorporated additional information into the description of typical cardiac catheterization report content, while retaining other findings commonly seen by adjudicators in medical evidence. We did not include some of the suggested language that only described background information and was less helpful in understanding the requirements to meet any listing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended clarifying that paragraph 4.00C16 (
                        <E T="03">What details should exercise Doppler test reports contain?</E>
                        ) applies to Doppler studies of the lower extremities and recommended specific language.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted this comment. While relatively rare, exercise Doppler tests can be performed for conditions other than peripheral vascular disease. We recognize that this distinction was not clear in our proposed language; therefore, while we did not include all of the exact language suggested by the commenter, we revised the language to distinguish between elements of a report common to all exercise Doppler tests and those specific to exercise Doppler tests for peripheral vascular disease.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter noted that the 3-month waiting period after treatment begins under paragraph 4.00J2 (
                        <E T="03">How do we relate treatment to functional status?</E>
                        ) may be unnecessary due to the rapid progression of some peoples' disease and the improbable improvement with treatment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. In paragraph 4.00B4 (
                        <E T="03">When will we wait before we ask for more evidence?</E>
                        ), we explain that we may need to defer evaluation of an impairment for a period of up to 3 months from the date treatment began. We further state in paragraph 4.00B4b (In these situations) that “we will not wait if we have enough information to make a determination or decision based on all of the relevant evidence in your case.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter questioned whether determinations regarding ability to perform an ETT made by “medical sources” in listing 4.02B1a (A medical source has concluded) and listing 4.08 (
                        <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                        ) includes medical consultants.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make any changes in response to this comment. Paragraph 4.00D4c(i) (Your impairment satisfies the first part) states that if the case record does not include a conclusion from a medical source that an ETT would present a significant risk to you, a medical consultant as defined in paragraph 4.00A3a (
                        <E T="03">Medical consultant</E>
                        ) may make such a conclusion.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter indicated that the term “prescribed treatment” lacked clarity and suggested replacing it with “guideline-recommended treatment” in listing 4.12 (SSA Note: In the NPRM we titled this section “Peripheral arterial disease”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The term “failure to follow prescribed treatment” is a term of art that is described in our regulations at 20 CFR 404.1530 and 416.930. We hold a person responsible to follow treatment prescribed by their medical source if that treatment is expected to restore the ability to work. The term “guideline-recommended treatment” does not adequately convey that requirement.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Specific To Evaluating Cardiovascular Disorders in Children</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter suggested replacing the word “corrective” with “palliative” in paragraph 104.00B4 (
                        <E T="03">When will we wait before we ask for more evidence?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. Paragraph 104.00B4 discusses when we will wait before we ask for additional evidence. The term “corrective” covers conditions where improvement may occur post-surgery and is appropriate for a situation when we will wait before asking for more evidence. The term “palliative” implies a likeliness that the person will have significant lifelong impairment in function. This term would not be an appropriate replacement, because the term would apply to situations when we do not wait for additional evidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended removing the word “congestive” from paragraph 104.00B4a(iii) (If you have started new drug therapy).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted this comment. Although we did not propose changing the wording in 104.00B4a(iii), we agree removing “congestive” reflects the terminology more commonly used in the medical field.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended we add “volume” as a measure of ventricle size as evidence necessary to show cardiomegaly in paragraph 104.00C2b(i) (Symptoms of congestion). The same commenter recommended we remove the requirement for a 6-foot PA film to show cardiomegaly.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Although the commenter identified the incorrect section for the discussion of cardiomegaly, we adopted the recommendation and added increased ventricular volume in the discussion of cardiomegaly in paragraph 104.00C2a (Cardiomegaly or ventricular dysfunction) because increased ventricular volume is a finding that is helpful in evaluating cardiomegaly and is often documented in medical records. However, we did not make additional changes based on the recommendation to remove the requirement for 6-foot PA film, as we had already proposed removing this requirement in the NPRM and ultimately did so in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter noted that the absence of tachycardia may no longer be a relevant assessment of the severity of heart failure in discussing listing 104.02A (Persistent tachycardia at rest).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make changes based on this comment. Assessment of tachycardia is an important and common factor in evaluating heart failure. Even in its absence, listing 104.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ) provides several criteria by which a person may be found disabled, including several criteria that do not consider tachycardia.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended that we consider revising the criterion under listing 104.02A (Persistent tachycardia at rest) and listing 104.02B (Persistent tachypnea at rest) to define tachycardia and tachypnea as a resting heart rate or respiratory rate (respectively) in excess of the upper limit of normal for that age. The commenter also suggested that we use the criteria on more than one evaluation more than 3 days apart, rather than at least 90 days apart. The same commenter also noted that the 12-month assessment period is too long and would result in delays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt these comments. The commenter appears to suggest that we use a broad definition of tachycardia and tachypnea rather than providing specific cutoffs for each age range. The definition suggested is overly broad and there does not appear to be consensus among the medical community as to what the “upper limit of normal” is for various age ranges. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40831"/>
                        Furthermore, the use of a definition without specific cutoffs could lead to inconsistent determinations and decisions because of the underlying variation in the cutoffs used by the medical community.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the commenter's suggestion to require more than 3 days between evaluations, as we stated in the NPRM, we believe that a longer time period between evaluations is necessary to ensure that the underlying condition is chronic and not acute. We believe that requiring evaluations to occur at least 90 days apart is an appropriate time period for establishing the chronicity of the underlying condition. Although we indicate that the evaluations must occur within a 12-month period, we expect that many people may have the requisite findings in a shorter time period.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         With respect to listing 104.02A (Persistent tachycardia at rest), a commenter noted that tachycardia and tachypnea are not exclusive to chronic HF and may also be seen in acute or chronic HF or heart failure exacerbation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Although we understand the commenter's concern, listing 104.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ) is specifically used to evaluate chronic HF, and not other disorders which may present with tachycardia and tachypnea.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that persistent tachycardia can also include measurement by palpation of pulse, in addition to the proposed apical heart rate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make changes based on this comment. A pulse rate taken by palpation is a measurement of the pressure waves created by contraction of the left ventricle, an indirect measurement, whereas measurement of the apical pulse rate is a direct measurement of the left ventricle's contraction; therefore, this direct measurement is a more accurate measurement of the child's heart rate than the indirect measurement. The apical pulse gives the most accurate reading.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Zimmerman B., Williams D. Peripheral Pulse. 2025 July 6. In: StatPearls [internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls publishing; 2025 Jan. PMID: 31194332. (
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK542175/</E>
                            ).; Cleveland Clinic. 
                            <E T="03">Apical Pulse.</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/articles/23346-apical-pulse</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we consider growth failure instead of persistent tachycardia and tachypnea for the pediatric population under listing 104.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure).</E>
                         Another commenter expressed concerns that growth failure over the 12-month evaluation period under listing 104.02C (Growth failure) may not be reflected on growth charts as it is generally treated aggressively, with providers not waiting 12 months to initiate treatment. The same commenter also suggested expanding the symptoms of chronic HF in paragraph 104.00C2b (Your medical history and physical examination) to include signs and symptoms related to feeding intolerance and associated complications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt the first comment because we already provide criteria for evaluating growth failure in chronic HF in 104.02C. It is one of several ways to evaluate chronic HF in children, along with persistent tachycardia and tachypnea. Additionally, although we understand the second commenter's concerns, the criteria for growth failure in 104.02C are intended to establish that the growth failure persists while on a regimen of prescribed treatment, including nutritional support. Furthermore, while we indicate that the evaluations must occur within a 12-month period, many people will have the requisite findings in a shorter time period. We adopted the suggestion to expand the symptoms of chronic HF in 104.00C2b to include signs and symptoms related to feeding intolerance and associated complications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter questioned the requirement in listing 104.02E (Exacerbations or complications of chronic heart failure) that children with chronic heart failure experience three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period. They noted three hospitalizations “seems high” and suggested requiring only two hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period. The same commenter similarly suggested that we reconsider the hospitalization criterion in listing 104.06E (Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease), which also requires three hospitalizations within a 12-month period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make changes based on these comments. For children, the requirement for three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period is grounded in our rules for functional equivalence, specifically how we define “marked” and “extreme” limitations in the “Health and physical well-being” domain.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If a child has frequent exacerbations of their impairment (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         episodes of illness or exacerbations that occur on average of three times per year, or once every 4 months, each lasting 2 weeks or more) that result in significant, documented signs or symptoms, we may consider that to be a “marked” limitation in this domain.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the frequent exacerbations result in significant, documented symptoms or signs that are substantially in excess of the requirements for showing a “marked” limitation, we may find the child to have an “extreme” limitation in this domain.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although the hospitalization requirement is less than the 2 weeks contemplated in the definition of a “marked” limitation, the 2-week period will also consider the period immediately before the hospitalization and the post-hospitalization recovery. Exacerbations and complications requiring frequent hospitalization demonstrate a level of care beyond the usual course of treatment for cardiovascular disorders and are consistent with listing-level severity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a(e)(2)(iv) and 416.926a(e)(3)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a(e)(2)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a(e)(3)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, the hospitalization criterion in 104.02E and 104.06E is just one of several ways to document listing-level severity under each of these listings. We are also able to evaluate exacerbations or complications of chronic HF and congenital heart disease resulting in fewer than three hospitalizations in a consecutive 12-month period using our rules for medical equivalence,
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under our rules for functional equivalence,
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or under other listing criteria.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         In response to a question we posed on the consideration of the atrial measurements in listing 4.02A2 (Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction), one commenter noted that the criteria found in listing 4.02A1 (Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) are not applicable to children. They suggested that eligibility for children should be determined based on z-scores, biomarkers, or clinical findings as opposed to diastolic dimensions and wall thickness. They noted that left atrial enlargement is difficult to use as a criterion in children since there is no normative data for all age groups and the presence of some types of heart disease precludes this measurement. Furthermore, they noted that other end organ failure (renal disease, growth failure, neurodevelopmental disorders) needs to be considered for their impact.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not make any changes in the final rule based on the commenter's concerns. Our final criteria for evaluating chronic HF in children do not include the types of specific measurements we use for adults. As we noted in the NPRM, we proposed to revise paragraph 104.00C2 (
                        <E T="03">What evidence of chronic HF do we need?</E>
                        ) to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40832"/>
                        remove “specific findings for documenting cardiomegaly,” because such findings are infrequently included in a child's case record and this absence presents difficulty in case adjudication. We believe that requiring z-scores or biomarkers would also be infrequently present and thus poses similar difficulty in case adjudication. Our rules already provide for evaluating other end organ failure. If the chronic HF results in end organ failure, such as renal disease and neurodevelopmental disorders, we will evaluate the effects under the appropriate body system or under our rules for functional equivalence.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We already provide specific guidance for evaluating growth failure in paragraph 104.00C3 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate growth failure due to chronic HF?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended revisions to paragraph 104.00D1 (
                        <E T="03">What is congenital heart disease?</E>
                        ) to include additional treatments, such as an interventional catheterization procedure, and examples of congenital heart abnormalities, such as truncus arteriosus, total anomalous pulmonary venous return, and Epstein malformation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We adopted the recommended revisions to provide additional examples of congenital heart disease and its treatment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended that we expand the list of impairments that may require life-saving surgery before age 1 in paragraph 104.00D2c (For 104.06D, life-threatening congenital heart disease) to include “pulmonary atresia” and “critical pulmonary stenosis.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The examples of life-saving surgeries in 104.00D2c are not meant to be an exhaustive list of every life-saving surgery before age 1. However, we did make a related change to introductory text paragraph 104.00D1 (
                        <E T="03">What is congenital heart disease?)</E>
                         as a result of the comment. We added pulmonary atresia as an example of congenital valvular defects in paragraph 104.00D1c (
                        <E T="03">Valvular defects or obstructions to ventricular outflow</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter suggested revising the text in paragraph 104.00D4 (
                        <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                        ) and adding “pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum” to the list of single ventricle anomalies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted this comment. We added “pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum” to the list of single ventricle anomalies. We did not make the suggested minor edits to the text, because this paragraph describes background information, and the minor edits had unnecessary detail that is not informative for adjudication. However, we did include the additional discussion of Fontan circulation in 104.00D4. We made parallel changes to paragraph 4.00H3 (
                        <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received a comment related to the use of arterial saturation in listing 104.06 (
                        <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                        ). A commenter recommended we consider replacing the proposed emphasis on arterial saturation with oximetry and imaging diagnosis at listing 104.06A (Chronic hypoxemia), but if arterial saturation were to be used, the commenter recommended that the threshold should be set to less than 95 percent in room air. The commenter noted that the current threshold would not be appropriate for children considering that the adult threshold is set to 89 percent. The commenter also suggested a better alternative would be an echocardiographic diagnosis of anatomic abnormality.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. As we previously stated, the criterion for ABG measurements is only one alternative for establishing disability under the listing for congenital heart disease. Although ABGs may be infrequently done on children, these tests may be found in the medical evidence for some children. A threshold of less than 95 percent on room air is not appropriate because it does not reflect a level of hypoxemia that would result in marked and severe limitations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that threshold does not reflect a disabling impairment).
                    </P>
                    <P>Echocardiography is appropriate medically acceptable imaging that we use to establish congenital heart disease as an MDI. However, an anatomical abnormality established by echocardiography does not necessarily establish a degree of limitation that a child would experience. To establish the degree of limitations, we consider chronic hypoxemia or other medical findings.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested revising the description of congenital heart disease in listing 104.06C (Single ventricle) to account for those with single ventricle congenital heart disease. The commenter provided specific language they suggested we include in the listing, including specific functional limitations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. The criterion in 104.06C is sufficient to establish a disabling impairment and it is not necessary to include the functional component suggested by the commenter. In addition to consulting with the IOM and reviewing the medical research supporting this criterion, we reviewed disability claims involving single ventricle congenital heart disease to ensure that the revised criteria reflect listing-level severity based on medical practice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we consider additional assessments to evaluate chronic HF and congenital heart disease in children. They specifically recommended including poor feeding, poor weight gain, frequent respiratory infections, irritability, and hepatomegaly.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. We provide a criterion for evaluating poor weight gain in listing 104.02C (Growth failure). We also provide a criterion for considering frequent respiratory infections in listings 104.02E (Exacerbations or complications of chronic heart failure) and 104.06E (Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease). Furthermore, the listings are not meant to be an exhaustive list of all signs, symptoms, and complications of cardiac impairments. They are meant to identify the common medical findings that cause marked and severe limitation in most children. Signs and symptoms not found in the listings may still be evaluated under the functional equivalence rules.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some conditions may also be evaluated under their related body system, such as evaluating hepatomegaly under the Digestive Disorders listings.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter recommended that we revise the text in paragraph 104.00E4a (Implanted cardiac defibrillators), describing children at risk for sudden cardiac arrest due to arrhythmias, including adding “hypertrophic cardiomyopathy” and “rare forms of ischemic cardiomyopathy” to the description.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. This section addresses the evaluation of children with implanted cardiac defibrillators who do not meet the listing requirements. The information about cardiomyopathy merely identifies the largest group of children at risk for sudden cardiac death and is not intended to provide information about the evaluation of cardiomyopathy. We provide more specific information about cardiomyopathy in paragraph 104.00F3 (
                        <E T="03">What is cardiomyopathy and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested adding specific language to paragraph 104.00F1 (
                        <E T="03">
                            What is ischemic heart disease (IHD) and how do we evaluate 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40833"/>
                            it in children?
                        </E>
                        ) to address the causes of IHD in children.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt the commenter's suggested language. Our evaluation of IHD in children focuses on the functional limitations resulting from IHD and thus addressing specific causes of IHD is not required for adjudication of these cases.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested revising the description of cardiomyopathy we proposed in paragraph 104.00F3a (There are various types of cardiomyopathy) to include subtypes of dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, noncompaction, and arrhythmogenic.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We partially adopted this comment. We included the suggested “arrhythmogenic” as it is a more common type of cardiomyopathy and removed “hypertensive,” because it is less commonly used to categorize cardiomyopathies. However, we did not include all the suggested types because there is lack of consensus as to what constitutes a separate type of cardiomyopathy. We also made these changes in the introductory text for consistency. Although the final text does not enumerate all five subtypes listed by the commenter, our text already refers to several of them. These are included for illustrative purposes and are not meant to be an exhaustive list of every type or subtype of cardiomyopathy.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The specific subtype of cardiomyopathy is not a consideration under our childhood listings. We will evaluate cardiomyopathy in children under listing 4.04 (
                        <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease</E>
                        ) in part A, listing 104.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ), or listing 104.05 (
                        <E T="03">Recurrent arrhythmias</E>
                        ), depending on its effects on the child.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (2024, December 6). 
                            <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy Types.</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/cardiomyopathy/types</E>
                            ); Brieler, J., Breeden, M., Tucker, J. (2017). Cardiomyopathy: An Overview. 
                            <E T="03">American Family Physician,</E>
                             96 (10), 640-646, (
                            <E T="03">https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2017/1115/p640.html</E>
                            ). These articles illustrate the diversity of classifications of cardiomyopathy.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter noted that we should consider the person's status classification when evaluating children listed for a transplant under paragraph 104.00F5c (We will not assume). They noted that children placed on the transplant list as category “1A” are most certainly disabled as they require extensive medical intervention including intensive care hospitalization, life support measures, and certain cardiac supporting intravenous medications with a Swan-Ganz catheter, or mechanical-assist devices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this comment. Although we do not consider a child's status on the transplant waiting list, we will consider the evidence that resulted in that classification. For children who are in classification 1A, we expect that the evidence supporting 1A will, in most cases, result in a finding of disability based on meeting or medically equaling a cardiovascular disorder listing or functionally equaling the listings.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.924.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested we retain the listing for rheumatic heart disease (current listing 104.13).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not adopt this suggestion. As we state in final paragraph 104.00F6 (
                        <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease?</E>
                        ), we evaluate the manifestations of rheumatic heart disease under other criteria, such as listing 104.02 (
                        <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                        ) or listing 104.05 (
                        <E T="03">Recurrent arrhythmias</E>
                        ). If a child's rheumatic heart disease does not meet or medically equal a listing, we will evaluate it under our functional equivalence rules.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.924.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Concerns Raised by Commenters</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received several comments expressing concerns with the age of the IOM report and that our updates to the listings are based on outdated science. One commenter noted our changes to the listings may not make the listings more scientifically accurate and may result in some people no longer qualifying for benefits through the listings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IOM report is one of several sources that informed these revisions to the cardiovascular disorders listings. Despite the age of the IOM report, it remains relevant because it was drafted within the context of the statutory definition of disability and the cardiovascular listings. These considerations may be different than those found in a strictly clinical setting. However, in drafting the NPRM and this final rule, we additionally reviewed current research, consulted with agency cardiologists and other medical experts, and reviewed disability claims involving cardiovascular disorders to ensure the IOM recommendations are still relevant. We are confident the policy changes we are finalizing reflect relevant and current medical practice, and the impact of cardiovascular impairments on the person's ability to sustain gainful activity, or ability to perform age-appropriate activities (for children).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We recognize the importance of clinical practice in formulating policy. In drafting this final rule, we reviewed and considered information more recently released, including the joint guidelines promulgated by the American Heart Association, the American College of Cardiologists, and the Heart Failure Society of America.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the clinical guidelines focus on the diagnosis and treatment of people with cardiac conditions and do not necessarily consider a person's level of impairment or functioning as it relates to the definition of disability in the Act.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, we considered recent information from other sources, including the comments we received from the public in response to the NPRM and the published sources of medical literature and research we list in the references section of the NPRM and those cited in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Heidenreich, P.A., Bozkurt, B., Aguilar, D., Allen, L.A., Byun, J.J., Colvin, M.M., Deswal, A., Drazner, M.H., Dunlay, S.M., Evers, L.R., Fang, J.C., Fedson, S.E., Fonarow, G.C., Hayek, S.S., Hernandez, A.F., Khazanie, P., Kittleson, M.M., Lee, C.S., Link, M.S., Milano, C.A., . . . ACC/AHA Joint Committee Members (2022). 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Joint Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
                            <E T="03">Circulation, 145</E>
                            (18), e895-e1032. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001063</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             See sections 216(i)(1), 223(d), and 1614(a)(3) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 416(i)(1), 423(d), 1382c(a)(3)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that we consider whether reliance on healthcare use as a proxy for severity raises concerns regarding racial equity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenter's suggestion. However, to be disabled under the Act, a person must have one or more medically determinable impairments—impairments that result from anatomical, physiological, or psychological abnormalities shown by medically acceptable clinical and laboratory diagnostic techniques.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If there is insufficient medical evidence for us to determine whether a person is disabled, we may ask the person to attend one or more examinations or tests at our expense.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Once we have evidence that shows a medically determinable impairment, we consider all the available evidence from all sources, medical and non-medical, when we make a disability determination.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             See sections 216(i)(1), 223(d)(1) and 1614(a)(3) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 416(i)(1), 423(d)(1), and 1382c(a)(3)). 20 CFR 404.1521 and 416.921.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1517 and 416.917.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The listings describe impairments that are so severe they prevent people from doing any substantial gainful activity regardless of their age, education, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="40834"/>
                        work experience.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         People with very serious cardiovascular disorders, such as those described in these listings, often receive the kinds of diagnostic treatments and tests discussed in the listings because of urgent medical need.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1525(a) and 416.925(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, we do not penalize those who do not have access to the kinds of medical evidence that we describe in these listings. Furthermore, we provide several alternative criteria for people with cardiovascular impairments to establish that their impairment is of listing-level severity. If a person's cardiovascular disorder does not meet the requirements of any listing, we can still find that person disabled based on a finding of medical equivalence or functional equivalence in child claims or at a later step in our adjudication process.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1520, 416.920, and 416.924.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received several comments expressing concerns with the hospitalization criteria in our listings for cardiovascular disorders. Several commenters noted our listings do not account for current medical practice or updated research on the role of healthcare utilization as a proxy for severity. They noted that SSA does not provide compelling evidence to explain why hospitalizations are an appropriate metric by which to measure severity. Another commenter noted that many procedures that used to require inpatient hospitalization are now routinely performed on an outpatient basis, and that using hospitalizations as a predictor of disability would exclude people who are getting the exact same treatment as those in 2010. Another commenter suggested that severity and prognosis should be classified based on trajectory of symptoms rather than frequencies of exacerbations or number of hospitalizations. Several commenters expressed concerns that using hospitalization as a proxy for disability would disproportionately disadvantage low-income people in rural areas.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We decided to retain the hospitalization criteria as one of several alternative criteria in the affected listings because our intent is to reflect impairments that are so severe they result in an inability to perform any gainful activity. The hospitalization criteria reflect a need for a level of care beyond conventional outpatient treatments or isolated or brief hospitalizations for cardiovascular disorders. We understand the concerns regarding the decrease in hospitalizations due to the use of outpatient procedures and other advances in treatment. For people who are able to access these outpatient procedures and other advances in treatment, our other listing criteria specify the documentation required to evaluate cardiovascular disorders. However, in many locations, especially rural settings, people do not have access to preventative care, regular treatment, or more advanced treatment. As such, their only recourse for treating and managing severe cardiovascular disease is hospitalization.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         None of the cardiovascular listings require a specific number of hospitalizations as the only way to meet the listing. The hospitalization criterion in the listings for chronic heart failure (4.02 and 104.02), ischemic heart disease (4.04), congenital heart disease (4.06 and 104.06), and cardiomyopathy (4.08) gives people another avenue of establishing a listing-level impairment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine. 2018. 
                            <E T="03">Health-Care Utilization as a Proxy in Disability Determination.</E>
                             Washington, DC: The National Academies Press. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.17226/24969</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Although some of our listings include criteria for repeated hospitalizations, our rules for medical equivalence 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and functional equivalence in children 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provide a means for adjudicators to consider the clinical care that emphasizes quality of, rather than quantity of, medical treatment. These rules consider all findings and other evidence in the record, including those impacted by a person's level of access to medical care (as well as the preference of some medical providers to reduce the use of emergency department and hospital-level medical interventions). The medical equivalence rules provide some flexibility in determining whether a person is disabled at step 3 of the sequential evaluation process by considering whether the person's impairment is at least equal in severity and duration to the criteria of any listed impairment. If we are unable to find a person's cardiovascular disorder meets or medically equals a listing, we may still find the person disabled at the final step of the sequential evaluation process.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In children, we may still find the person disabled under our rules for functional equivalence.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1520(g) and 416.920(g).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received several comments expressing concerns with our proposed listings that require at least 30-days elapse between hospitalizations to constitute a separate event. One commenter called the requirement “arbitrary.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We decided to retain the requirement that at least 30 days elapse between hospitalizations to ensure that we are evaluating separate listing-level episodes of exacerbations or complications. We disagree that the 30-day requirement is arbitrary in defining separate events. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) uses 30 days between hospitalizations as a benchmark in their regulations. For example, the CMS defines “readmission” as the admission of a person to the same or another applicable hospital within a time period of 30 days from the date of a previous discharge.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CMS determined that 30 days is a “clinically meaningful period” for hospitals to work with their communities to reduce readmissions by ensuring patients are clinically ready at discharge and they receive appropriate planning for follow-up care after discharge.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, clinical research often uses 30 days as a benchmark in studying readmission rates.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While admission rates may trend lower in the future, the current 30-day benchmark is an appropriate period to delineate separate events in evaluating the severity of cardiovascular disorders. In some instances, hospitalizations that are less than 30 days apart may be evaluated using our rules for medical equivalence 
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or our rules for functional equivalence in children.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             42 CFR 412.152.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             77 FR 53258, 53377 (2012).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             Jiang, H.J., &amp; Hensche, M. (2023). 
                            <E T="03">Characteristics of 30-Day All-Cause Hospital Readmissions, 2016-2020</E>
                             (Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project Statistical Brief #304). Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. (
                            <E T="03">www.hcup-us.ahrq.gov/reports/statbriefs/sb304-readmissions-2016-2020.pdf</E>
                            ); James, J., Tan, S., Stretton, B., Kovoor, J.G., Gupta, A.K., Gluck, S., Gilbert, T., Sharma, Y. and Bacchi, S. (2023). Why do we evaluate 30-day readmissions in general medicine? A historical perspective and contemporary data. 
                            <E T="03">Internal Medicine Journal, 53</E>
                            (6), 1070-1075. (
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/imj.16115</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             20 CFR 404.1526 and 416.926.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             20 CFR 416.926a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">What is our authority to make rules and set procedures for determining whether a person is disabled under our statutory definition?</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Act, we have authority to make rules and regulations and to establish necessary and appropriate procedures to carry out such provisions.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, the Act directs us to adopt rules and regulations that “provide for the nature and extent of the proofs and evidence” needed to establish the right to benefits.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             See sections 205(a), 702(a)(5), and 1631(d)(1) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 405(a), 902(a)(5), 1383(d)(1)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             See sections 205(a) and 1631(d)(1) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 205(a), 1383(d)(1)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="40835"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">How long will this final rule be in effect?</HD>
                    <P>This final rule will remain in effect for 5 years after the date it becomes effective, unless we extend, revise, or issue it again. We will continue to monitor this rule to ensure that it continues to meet program purposes, and we may revise it before the end of the 5-year period if warranted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">How will we implement this final rule?</HD>
                    <P>
                        We will begin to apply this final rule to new applications, pending claims, and continuing disability reviews (CDR), as applicable, as of the effective date of this final rule.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             We will use the final rule beginning on its effective date. We will apply the final rule to new applications filed on or after the effective date, and to claims that are pending on and after the effective date. This means that we will use the final rule on and after its effective date in any case in which we make a determination or decision, including CDRs, as applicable. See 20 CFR 404.901, 404.1590, 416.990, and 416.1401.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Procedures</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866</HD>
                    <P>We consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and determined that this final rule meets the criteria for a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, and is subject to OMB review. Therefore, OMB reviewed the rule. Details about the economic impacts of this rule follow.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Anticipated Accounting Costs of This Final Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Costs to Our Programs</HD>
                    <P>Our Actuarial Services currently estimate that implementation of the final rule will result in net increases of $446 million in scheduled Old-Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance (OASDI) benefit payments and $94 million in Federal Supplemental Security Income (SSI) payments for the 10-year period covering fiscal years (FYs) 2026-2035. This estimate assumes the final rule will be implemented and effective for all disability determinations made on or after February 1, 2026. At the time of NPRM publication, Actuarial Services estimated net increases of $308 million in scheduled OASDI benefits and $71 million in Federal SSI payments for the 10-year period covering FYs 2022-2031, and assumed the rule would be effective for all disability determinations made on or after April 1, 2023.</P>
                    <P>We note that the 10-year projection period used for all of Actuarial Services' regulatory estimates is not arbitrarily selected. The period over which estimates are provided corresponds precisely to the 10-year projection period in the President's Budget used as the baseline for the estimates. Therefore, if the assumed effective date of a regulatory action provided to Actuarial Services is not the beginning of that 10-year period, then the estimates will cover less than 10 years.</P>
                    <P>The current estimates are higher than those included in the NPRM for three primary reasons: (1) the 10-year estimate in the NPRM covered 8 years and 6 months in which the rule was effective, while the 10-year estimate for this final rule covers 9 years and 8 months in which the rule is effective, so the estimate for this final rule effectively includes more than one year of additional OASDI and SSI payments; (2) the Cost-of-Living Adjustment (COLA) effective for benefits paid in 2023 was 8.7 percent, which was significantly larger than the 2023 COLA of 2.5 percent that was assumed in the NPRM estimate; and (3) the estimation window has shifted from 2022-2031 to 2026-2035, so the average monthly benefits assumed for this final rule are higher than in the NPRM because of assumed benefit increases over time. The changes we made from the proposed to the final rule did not cause any estimated change in allowances.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Net Administrative Costs to the Social Security Administration</HD>
                    <P>SSA's Finance, and Management division estimates a net administrative savings of less than 15 work years and $2 million annually.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Costs to the Public</HD>
                    <P>We do not believe there are any more than de minimis costs to the public associated with this rulemaking. As discussed earlier in our responses to comments on the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking as well as in the Paperwork Reduction Action section below, the requirements contained in this rulemaking will not impose new additional costs outside of the normal course of business for applicants or change how the public interacts with our disability programs. We do not anticipate that the requirements contained in the new cardiovascular listings will impose additional costs or documentation requirements on applicants or cause the affected applicants to pursue a different course of treatment than they otherwise would have done under our existing rules.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Benefits to the Public</HD>
                    <P>The revisions to the cardiovascular listings update the medical criteria and clarify how we evaluate cardiovascular disorders. The revisions also improve the clarity, readability, and application of the listings as well as consistency across the listings as a whole. The revisions also help promote uniform national disability policy and can simplify claims adjudication.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (also known as the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs designated this final rule as not meeting the criteria in 5 U.S.C. 804(2), and it is therefore not a major rule as defined by the Congressional Review Act.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                    <P>We analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles and criteria established by E.O. 13132 and determined that it will not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism assessment. We also determined that the final rule will not preempt any State law or State regulations or affect the States' abilities to discharge traditional State governmental functions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 14192</HD>
                    <P>
                        As previously discussed in the NPRM, we consider this rule a transfer rule with no more than 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                         costs.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As such, it is not a regulatory action under E.O. 14192.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             Based upon the criteria established in E.O. 13771, now superseded by E.O. 14192. For further information 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             OMB M- Memo 25-20 (“Guidance Implementing Section 3 of Executive Order 14192, Titled `Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation' ”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>We certify that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it affects individuals only. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>This final rule only updates the criteria in the Listing of Impairments that we use to evaluate disability claims involving cardiovascular disorders under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act. It does not create any new or affect any existing collections. Accordingly, this final rule does not impose any burdens under the Paperwork Reduction Act and does not require further OMB approval.</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP>
                            (Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 96.001, Social Security—Disability Insurance; 96.002, Social 
                            <PRTPAGE P="40836"/>
                            Security—Retirement Insurance; 96.004, Social Security—Survivors Insurance; and 96.006, Supplemental Security Income)
                        </FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>20 CFR Part 404</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure; Blind, Disability benefits; Old-age, survivors, and disability insurance; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Social Security.</P>
                        <CFR>20 CFR Part 416</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure; Aged, Blind, Disability cash payments; Public assistance programs; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Supplemental Security Income (SSI).</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Mark Steffensen,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>General Counsel, Social Security Administration.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, we are amending subpart P of part 404 of chapter III of title 20 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 404—FEDERAL OLD-AGE, SURVIVORS AND DISABILITY INSURANCE (1950-)</HD>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart P—Determining Disability and Blindness</HD>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="20" PART="404">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for subpart P of part 404 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 42 U.S.C. 402, 405(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 416(i), 421(a) and (h)-(j), 422(c), 423, 425, 902(a)(5), and 1320e-3; sec. 211(b), Pub. L. 104-193, 110 Stat. 2105, 2189; sec. 202, Pub. L. 108-203, 118 Stat. 509 (42 U.S.C. 902 note).</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="20" PART="404">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend appendix 1 to subpart P of part 404 as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revise item 5 of the introductory text before part A;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Revise the body system name for section 4.00 in the table of contents in part A;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Amend section 1.00 by revising paragraph 1.00B5;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revise and republish section 4.00;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. Revise the body system name for section 104.00 in the table of contents in part B;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. Revise and republish section 104.00;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. Amend section 114.00 by revising paragraph 114.00J2m.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix 1 to Subpart P of Part 404—Listing of Impairments</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">5. Cardiovascular Disorders (4.00 and 104.00): October 30, 2031.</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part A</HD>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sec.</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">4.00 Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">1.00 Musculoskeletal Disorders</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>B. * * *</P>
                            <P>5. We evaluate leg pain associated with peripheral vascular claudication and foot ulceration associated with peripheral artery disease under the listings in 4.00.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">4.00 Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. How do we define cardiovascular disorders and cardiovascular terms?</HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What do we mean by a cardiovascular disorder?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We mean any disorder that affects the proper functioning of the heart or the circulatory system (that is, arteries, veins, capillaries, and the lymphatic drainage). The disorder can be congenital or acquired.</P>
                            <P>b. Cardiovascular disorders result from one or more of four consequences of heart disease:</P>
                            <P>(i) Chronic heart failure (chronic HF) or ventricular dysfunction.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Discomfort or pain due to myocardial ischemia, with or without necrosis of the heart muscle.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Syncope, or near syncope, due to inadequate cerebral perfusion from any cardiac cause, such as obstruction of flow or disturbance in rhythm or conduction resulting in inadequate cardiac output.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Hypoxemia (reduced oxygen concentration in the blood) due to right-to-left shunt or pulmonary vascular disease.</P>
                            <P>c. Disorders of the veins or arteries (for example, obstruction, rupture, or aneurysm) may cause impairments of the lower extremities (peripheral vascular disease), the central nervous system, the eyes, the kidneys, and other organs. We will evaluate peripheral vascular disease under 4.11 or 4.12 and impairments of another body system(s) under the listings for that body system(s).</P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider in evaluating cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                                 The listings in this section describe cardiovascular disorders based on the medical and other evidence, including response to a regimen of prescribed treatment and functional limitations.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What do the following terms or phrases mean in these listings?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Medical consultant</E>
                                 is a person defined in §§ 404.1616(a) and 416.1016(a) of this chapter. This term does not include medical sources who provide consultative examinations for us. We use the abbreviation “MC” throughout this section to designate a medical consultant.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. 
                                <E T="03">Persistent</E>
                                 means that the longitudinal clinical record shows that, with few exceptions, the required finding(s) has been present, or is expected to be present, for a continuous period of at least 12 months, such that a pattern of continuing severity is established. By “exceptions,” we mean brief periods when the required finding(s) is greatly reduced or gone. These periods are so brief or inconsequential, the required finding(s) remains a factor in the person's condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                c. 
                                <E T="03">Recurrent</E>
                                 means that the longitudinal clinical record shows that, within a consecutive 12-month period, the finding(s) occurs at least three times, with intervening periods of improvement of sufficient duration that it is clear that separate events are involved. By “improvement of sufficient duration,” we mean the finding is greatly reduced or not present for long enough that the required finding(s) is no longer a factor in the person's condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                d. 
                                <E T="03">Appropriate medically acceptable imaging</E>
                                 means that the technique used is the proper one to evaluate and diagnose the impairment and is commonly recognized as accurate for assessing the cited finding.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                e. 
                                <E T="03">A consecutive 12-month period</E>
                                 means a period of 12 consecutive months, all or part of which must occur within the period we are considering in connection with an application or continuing disability review.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What documentation do we need to evaluate cardiovascular disorders?</HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What basic documentation do we need?</E>
                                 We need sufficiently detailed reports of history, physical examinations, laboratory studies, and any prescribed treatment and response to allow us to assess the severity and duration of your cardiovascular disorder. A longitudinal clinical record covering a period of not less than 3 months of observations and treatment is usually necessary, unless we can make a determination or decision based on the current evidence we already have.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">Why is a longitudinal clinical record important?</E>
                                 We will usually need a longitudinal clinical record to assess the severity and expected duration of your impairment(s). If you have a listing-level impairment, you probably will have received medically prescribed treatment. Whenever there is evidence of such treatment, your longitudinal clinical record should include a description of the ongoing management and evaluation provided by your medical source(s). It should also include your response to this medical management, as well as information about the nature and severity of your impairment. The record will provide us with information on your functional status over an extended period of time and show whether your ability to function is improving, worsening, or unchanging.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What if you have not received ongoing medical treatment?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. You may not have received ongoing treatment or have an ongoing relationship with the medical community despite the existence of a severe impairment(s). In this situation, we will base our evaluation on the current evidence we have. If you do not receive treatment, you cannot show an impairment that meets the criteria of most of these listings. However, we may find you disabled because you have another impairment(s) that, in combination with your cardiovascular disorder, medically equals a listing, or we may find you disabled at a later step in the evaluation process based on a consideration of your residual functional 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40837"/>
                                capacity and age, education, and work experience.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. Unless we can decide your claim favorably on the basis of the current evidence we already have, a longitudinal record is still important. In instances when there is no or insufficient longitudinal evidence, we may purchase a consultative examination(s) to help us establish the existence, severity, and duration of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">When will we wait before we ask for more evidence?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will wait when we have information showing that your impairment is not yet stable and the expected change in your impairment might affect our determination or decision. In these situations, we need to wait to properly evaluate the severity and duration of your impairment during a stable period. Examples of when we might wait are:</P>
                            <P>(i) If you have had a recent acute event; for example, a myocardial infarction (heart attack);</P>
                            <P>(ii) If you have recently had a corrective cardiac procedure; for example, coronary artery bypass grafting;</P>
                            <P>(iii) If you have started new drug therapy and your response to this treatment has not yet been established; for example, beta-blocker therapy for dilated cardiomyopathy.</P>
                            <P>b. In these situations, we will obtain more evidence 3 months following the event before we evaluate your impairment. However, we will not wait if we have enough information to make a determination or decision based on all of the relevant evidence in your case.</P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">Will we purchase any studies?</E>
                                 In appropriate situations, we may purchase studies necessary to substantiate the existence of a medically determinable impairment or to document the severity of your impairment, generally after we have evaluated the evidence we already have. We will not purchase studies involving exercise testing if there is significant risk involved or if there is another medical reason not to perform the test. We will follow 4.00C6, 4.00C7, and 4.00C8 when we decide whether to purchase exercise testing.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">What studies will we not purchase?</E>
                                 We will not purchase any studies involving cardiac catheterization, such as coronary angiography, arteriograms, or electrophysiological studies. However, if the results of a catheterization are part of the existing evidence we have, we will consider them together with the other relevant evidence. See 4.00C15a.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How do we use cardiovascular test results?</HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is an ECG?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">ECG</E>
                                 stands for 
                                <E T="03">electrocardiograph</E>
                                 or 
                                <E T="03">electrocardiogram.</E>
                                 An electrocardiograph is a machine that records electrical impulses of your heart on a strip of paper called an electrocardiogram or a 
                                <E T="03">tracing.</E>
                                 To record the ECG, a technician positions a number of small contacts (or 
                                <E T="03">leads</E>
                                ) on your arms, legs, and across your chest to connect them to the ECG machine. An ECG may be done while you are resting or exercising.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. The ECG tracing may indicate that you have a heart abnormality. It may indicate that your heart muscle is not getting as much oxygen as it needs (ischemia), that your heart rhythm is abnormal (arrhythmia), or that there are other abnormalities of your heart, such as left ventricular enlargement. </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate ECG evidence?</E>
                                 We consider a number of factors when we evaluate ECG evidence:
                            </P>
                            <P>a. An original or legible copy of the 12-lead ECG obtained at rest must be appropriately dated and labeled, with the standardization inscribed on the tracing. Alteration in standardization of specific leads (such as to accommodate large QRS amplitudes) must be identified on those leads.</P>
                            <P>(i) Detailed descriptions or computer-averaged signals without original or legible copies of the ECG as described in 4.00C2a are not acceptable.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The effects of drugs or electrolyte abnormalities must be considered as possible noncardiac causes of ECG abnormalities of ventricular repolarization; that is, those involving the ST segment and T wave. If available, the predrug (especially digitalis glycosides) ECG should be submitted.</P>
                            <P>b. ECGs obtained in conjunction with treadmill, bicycle, or arm exercise tests should meet the following specifications:</P>
                            <P>(i) ECG reports must include the original calibrated ECG tracings or a legible copy;</P>
                            <P>(ii) A 12-lead baseline ECG must be recorded in the upright position before exercise;</P>
                            <P>(iii) A 12-lead ECG should be recorded at the end of each minute of exercise;</P>
                            <P>(iv) If ECG documentation of the effects of hyperventilation is obtained, the exercise test should be deferred for at least 10 minutes because metabolic changes of hyperventilation may alter the physiologic and ECG-recorded response to exercise;</P>
                            <P>(v) Post-exercise ECGs should be recorded using a generally accepted protocol consistent with the prevailing state of medical knowledge and clinical practice; and</P>
                            <P>(vi) All resting, exercise, and recovery ECG strips must have the standardization inscribed on the tracing. The ECG strips should be labeled to indicate the date, the times recorded and the relationship to the stage of the exercise protocol. The speed and grade (treadmill test) or work rate (bicycle or arm ergometric test) should be recorded. The highest level of exercise achieved, heart rate and blood pressure levels during testing, and the reason(s) for terminating the test (including limiting signs or symptoms) must be recorded.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What are exercise tests and what are they used for?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Exercise tests have you perform physical activity and record how your cardiovascular system responds. Exercise tests usually involve walking on a treadmill, but other forms of exercise, such as an exercise bicycle or an arm exercise machine, may be used. Exercise testing may be done for various reasons, such as to evaluate the severity of your coronary artery disease or peripheral vascular disease or to evaluate your progress after a cardiac procedure or an acute event, like a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Exercise testing is the most widely used testing for identifying the presence of myocardial ischemia and for estimating maximal aerobic capacity (usually expressed in METs—metabolic equivalents) if you have heart disease.</P>
                            <P>b. We include exercise tolerance test (ETT) criteria in 4.02B2, 4.04A, 4.06B, and 4.08A2. To meet the ETT criteria in these listings, the ETT must be a sign- or symptom-limited test in which you exercise while connected to an ECG until you develop a sign or symptom that indicates that you have exercised as much as is considered safe for you.</P>
                            <P>c. In 4.12B, we also refer to exercise testing for peripheral vascular disease. In this test, you walk on a treadmill, usually for a specified period of time, and the person who administers the test measures the effect of exercise on the flow of blood in your legs, usually by using ultrasound. The test is also called an exercise Doppler test. Even though this test is intended to evaluate peripheral vascular disease, it will be stopped for your safety if you develop abnormal signs or symptoms because of heart disease.</P>
                            <P>
                                d. Each type of test is done in a certain way following specific criteria, called a 
                                <E T="03">protocol.</E>
                                 For our program, we also specify certain aspects of how any exercise test we purchase is to be done. See 4.00C10 and 4.00C17.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">Do ETTs have limitations?</E>
                                 An ETT provides an estimate of aerobic capacity for walking on a grade, bicycling, or moving one's arms in an environmentally controlled setting. Therefore, ETT results do not correlate with the ability to perform other types of exertional activities, such as lifting and carrying heavy loads, and do not provide an estimate of the ability to perform activities required for work in all possible work environments or throughout a workday. Also, certain medications (such as beta blockers) and conduction disorders (such as left or right bundle branch blocks) can cause false-negative or false-positive results. Therefore, we must consider the results of an ETT together with all the other relevant evidence in your case record.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">How does an ETT with measurement of maximal or peak oxygen uptake (VO</E>
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                ) differ from other ETTs? Occasionally, medical evidence will include the results of an ETT with VO
                                <E T="52">2,</E>
                                 which is also called a cardiopulmonary exercise test. While ETTs without measurement of VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 provide only an estimate of aerobic capacity, measured maximal or peak oxygen uptake provides an accurate measurement of aerobic capacity, which is often expressed in METs (metabolic equivalents). The MET level may not be indicated in the report of attained maximal or peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 testing, but can be calculated as follows: 1 MET = 3.5 milliliters (ml) of oxygen uptake per kilogram (kg) of body weight per minute. For example, a 70 kg (154 lb.) person who achieves a maximal or peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 of 1225 ml in 1 minute has attained 5 METs (1225 ml/70 kg/1 min = 17.5 ml/kg/min. 17.5/3.5 = 5 METs). In listings 4.02B2, 4.06B, and 4.08A2, we use the peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (oxygen uptake) measurement when evaluating the results of a cardiopulmonary exercise test.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">When will we consider whether to purchase an exercise test?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will consider whether to purchase an exercise test when:</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) There is a question whether your cardiovascular disorder meets or medically equals the severity of one of the listings, or there is no timely test in the evidence we 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40838"/>
                                have (see 4.00C9), and we cannot find you disabled on some other basis; or
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) We need to assess your residual functional capacity and there is insufficient evidence in the record to make a determination or decision.</P>
                            <P>b. We will not purchase an exercise test when we can make our determination or decision based on the evidence we already have.</P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">What must we do before purchasing an exercise test?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Before we purchase an exercise test, an MC, preferably one with experience in the care of patients with cardiovascular disease, must review the pertinent history, physical examinations, and laboratory tests that we have to determine whether the test would present a significant risk to you or if there is some other medical reason not to purchase the test (see 4.00C8).</P>
                            <P>b. If you are under the care of a medical source (see §§ 404.1502 and 416.902 of this chapter) for a cardiovascular disorder, this source has not performed an exercise test, and there are no reported significant risks to testing, we will request a statement from that source explaining why it was not done or should not be done before we decide whether we will purchase the test.</P>
                            <P>c. The MC, in accordance with the regulations and other instructions on consultative examinations, will generally not override the medical source's conclusion about the risk of exercise testing to you. In the rare situation in which the MC does override the medical source's conclusion, the MC must prepare a written rationale documenting the reasons for overriding the conclusion.</P>
                            <P>d. If you do not have a medical source or we cannot obtain a statement from your medical source, the MC is responsible for assessing the risk of exercise testing based on a review of the records we have before purchasing an exercise test for you.</P>
                            <P>e. We must also provide your records to the medical source who performs the exercise test for review prior to conducting the test if the source does not already have them. The medical source who performs the exercise test has the ultimate responsibility for deciding whether you would be at risk.</P>
                            <P>
                                8. 
                                <E T="03">When will we not purchase an exercise test or wait before we purchase an exercise test?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will not purchase an exercise test when an MC finds that you have one of the following significant risk factors:</P>
                            <P>(i) Unstable angina not previously stabilized by medical treatment;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias causing symptoms or hemodynamic compromise;</P>
                            <P>(iii) An implanted cardiac defibrillator;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis;</P>
                            <P>(v) Uncontrolled symptomatic heart failure;</P>
                            <P>(vi) Aortic dissection;</P>
                            <P>(vii) Severe pulmonary hypertension (pulmonary artery systolic pressure greater than 60 mm Hg);</P>
                            <P>(viii) Left main coronary stenosis of 50 percent or greater that has not been bypassed;</P>
                            <P>(ix) Moderate stenotic valvular disease with a systolic gradient across the aortic valve of 50 mm Hg or greater;</P>
                            <P>(x) Severe arterial hypertension (systolic greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic greater than 110 mm Hg); or</P>
                            <P>(xi) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with a systolic gradient of 50 mm Hg or greater.</P>
                            <P>b. We also will not purchase an exercise test when you are prevented from performing exercise testing due to another impairment affecting your ability to use your arms and legs.</P>
                            <P>c. We will not purchase an ETT to document the presence of a cardiac arrhythmia.</P>
                            <P>d. We will wait to purchase an exercise test until 3 months after you have had one of the following events. This will allow for maximal, attainable restoration of functional capacity.</P>
                            <P>(i) Acute myocardial infarction;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Surgical myocardial revascularization (bypass surgery);</P>
                            <P>(iii) Other open-heart surgical procedures; or</P>
                            <P>(iv) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with or without stenting.</P>
                            <P>e. If you are deconditioned after an extended period of bedrest or inactivity and could improve with activity, or if you are in acute heart failure and are expected to improve with treatment, we will wait an appropriate period of time until you are ready and there are no medical reasons that prevent us from purchasing an exercise test.</P>
                            <P>
                                9. 
                                <E T="03">What do we mean by a “timely” test?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We consider exercise test results to be timely for 12 months after the date they are performed, provided there has been no change in your clinical status that may alter the severity of your cardiovascular disorder.</P>
                            <P>b. However, an exercise test that is older than 12 months, especially an abnormal one, can still provide information important to our adjudication. For example, a test that is more than 12 months old can provide evidence of ischemic heart disease or peripheral vascular disease, information on decreased aerobic capacity, or information about the duration or onset of your impairment. Such tests can be an important component of the longitudinal record.</P>
                            <P>c. When we evaluate a test that is more than 12 months old, we must consider the results in the context of all the relevant evidence, including why the test was performed and whether there has been an intervening event or improvement or worsening of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>d. We will purchase a new exercise test only if we cannot make a determination or decision based on the evidence we have.</P>
                            <P>
                                10. 
                                <E T="03">How must ETTs we purchase be performed?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. The ETT must be a sign- or symptom-limited test characterized by a progressive multistage regimen. It must be performed using a generally accepted protocol consistent with the prevailing state of medical knowledge and clinical practice. A description of the protocol that was followed must be provided, and the test must meet the requirements of 4.00C2b and this section. A radionuclide perfusion scan may be useful for detecting or confirming ischemia when resting ECG abnormalities, medications, or other factors may decrease the accuracy of ECG interpretation of ischemia. (The perfusion imaging is done at the termination of exercise, which may be at a higher MET level than that at which ischemia first occurs. If the imaging confirms the presence of reversible ischemia, the exercise ECG may be useful for detecting the MET level at which ischemia initially appeared.) Exercise tests may also be performed using echocardiography to detect stress-induced ischemia and left ventricular dysfunction (see 4.00C12 and 4.00C13).</P>
                            <P>b. The exercise test must be paced to your capabilities and be performed following the generally accepted standards for adult exercise test laboratories. With a treadmill test, the speed, grade (incline), and duration of exercise must be recorded for each exercise test stage performed. Other exercise test protocols or techniques should use similar workloads. The exercise protocol may need to be modified in individual cases to allow for a lower initial workload with more slowly graded increments than the standard Bruce protocol.</P>
                            <P>c. Levels of exercise must be described in terms of workload and duration of each stage; for example, treadmill speed and grade, or bicycle ergometer work rate in kpm/min or watts.</P>
                            <P>d. The exercise laboratory's physical environment, staffing, and equipment must meet the generally accepted standards for adult exercise test laboratories.</P>
                            <P>
                                11. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate ETT results?</E>
                                 We evaluate ETT results on the basis of the work level at which the test becomes abnormal, as documented by onset of signs or symptoms and any ECG or imaging abnormalities. The absence of an ischemic response on an ETT alone does not exclude the diagnosis of ischemic heart disease. We must consider the results of an ETT in the context of all of the other evidence in your case record.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                12. 
                                <E T="03">When are ETTs done with imaging?</E>
                                 When resting ECG abnormalities preclude interpretation of ETT tracings relative to ischemia, a radionuclide (for example, thallium-201 or technetium-99m) perfusion scan or echocardiography in conjunction with an ETT provides better results. You may have resting ECG abnormalities when you have a conduction defect—for example, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, left bundle branch block, left ventricular hypertrophy—or when you are taking digitalis or other antiarrhythmic drugs, or when resting ST changes are present. Also, these techniques can provide a reliable estimate of ejection fraction.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                13. 
                                <E T="03">Will we purchase ETTs with imaging?</E>
                                 We may purchase an ETT with imaging in your case after an MC, preferably one with experience in the care of patients with cardiovascular disease, has reviewed your medical history and physical examination, any report(s) of appropriate medically acceptable imaging, ECGs, and other appropriate tests. We will consider purchasing an ETT with imaging when other information we have is not adequate for us to assess whether you have severe ventricular dysfunction or myocardial ischemia, there is no significant risk involved (see 4.00C8a), and we cannot make our determination or decision based on the evidence we already have.
                                <PRTPAGE P="40839"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                14. 
                                <E T="03">What are drug-induced stress tests?</E>
                                 These tests are designed primarily to provide evidence about myocardial ischemia or prior myocardial infarction, but do not require you to exercise. These tests are used when you cannot exercise or cannot exercise enough to achieve the desired cardiac stress. Drug-induced stress tests can also provide evidence about heart chamber dimensions and function; however, these tests do not provide information about your aerobic capacity and cannot be used to help us assess your ability to function. Some of these tests use agents, such as Persantine or adenosine, that dilate the coronary arteries and are used in combination with nuclear agents, such as thallium or technetium (for example, Cardiolyte or Myoview), and a myocardial scan. Other tests use agents, such as dobutamine, that stimulate the heart to contract more forcefully and faster to simulate exercise and are used in combination with a 2-dimensional echocardiogram. We may, when appropriate, purchase a drug-induced stress test to confirm the presence of myocardial ischemia after a review of the evidence in your file by an MC, preferably one with experience in the care of patients with cardiovascular disease.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                15. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate cardiac catheterization evidence?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will not purchase cardiac catheterization; however, if you have had catheterization, we will make every reasonable effort to obtain the report and any ancillary studies. We will consider the quality and type of data provided and its relevance to the evaluation of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>b. Cardiac catheterization reports commonly include an evaluation of each main coronary artery and whether there is evidence of obstruction, as well as the grade of obstruction (percent stenosis). Cardiac catheterization reports may include information about the pressures of left and right side of the heart, evidence of coronary artery size and flow patterns, and chamber size. These reports may also include evaluation of left ventricular wall motion, left ventricular ejection fraction (left ventriculography), fractional flow reserve (FFR) (a measure of flow access across an obstruction), and the instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR) (a measure of stenosis severity).</P>
                            <P>
                                16. 
                                <E T="03">What details should exercise Doppler test reports contain?</E>
                                 The reports of exercise Doppler tests must describe the level of exercise; for example, the speed and grade of the treadmill settings, the duration of exercise, changes in the person's condition during exercise (including the presence and location of leg symptoms), and the reasons for stopping exercise if the expected level of exercise was not attained. If the exercise Doppler test was done to evaluate peripheral vascular disease, the report must also provide the blood pressures at the ankle and other pertinent sites measured after exercise, and also provide the time required for the systolic blood pressure to return toward or to the pre-exercise level. The graphic tracings, if available, should also be included with the report. All tracings must be annotated with the standardization used by the testing facility.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                17. 
                                <E T="03">How must exercise Doppler tests we purchase be performed?</E>
                                 When we purchase an exercise Doppler test, you must exercise on a treadmill at 2 mph on a 12 percent grade for up to 5 minutes. The reports must include the information specified in 4.00C16. Because this is an exercise test, we must evaluate whether such testing would put you at significant risk, in accordance with the guidance found in 4.00C6, 4.00C7, and 4.00C8.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                D. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic heart failure?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is chronic heart failure (chronic HF)?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Heart failure</E>
                                 is the inability of the heart to pump enough oxygenated blood to body tissues. This syndrome is characterized by symptoms and signs of pulmonary or systemic congestion (fluid retention) or limited cardiac output. Certain laboratory findings of cardiac functional and structural abnormality support the diagnosis of chronic HF. Ejection fraction (EF) is the percentage of the blood in the ventricle actually pumped out with each contraction. EF in heart failure is a continuum ranging from low EF due to muscle dysfunction to preserved EF resulting from high intracardiac pressures. We consider heart failure to be chronic when the condition persists or recurs over time despite treatment. There are two main types of chronic HF:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (i)
                                <E T="03"> Heart failure with reduced EF (HFrEF) or predominant systolic dysfunction</E>
                                 is characterized by the inability of the heart to contract normally and expel sufficient blood due to a dilated, poorly contracting left ventricle, and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 
                                <E T="03">Heart failure with preserved EF (HFpEF) or predominant diastolic dysfunction</E>
                                 is characterized by the inability of the heart to relax and fill normally due to a thickened ventricular muscle, poor ability of the left ventricle to distend, and increased ventricular filling pressure.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. Chronic HF is considered in these listings as a single category whether due to atherosclerosis (narrowing of the arteries), cardiomyopathy, hypertension, or rheumatic, congenital, or other heart disease. If the chronic HF is the result of primary pulmonary hypertension secondary to disease of the lung, we evaluate your impairment under the listings in 3.00 (for example, 3.09) or 4.00, as appropriate. For the purposes of 4.02B3, a finding of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) or N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) in the blood assists in differentiating chronic HF from non-heart failure symptoms.</P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What evidence of chronic HF do we need?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Cardiomegaly or ventricular dysfunction must be present and demonstrated by appropriate medically acceptable imaging, such as cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), chest x-ray, echocardiography (M-Mode, 2-dimensional, and Doppler), radionuclide studies, or cardiac catheterization.</P>
                            <P>(i) Abnormal cardiac imaging provides objective measures of both left ventricular function and structural abnormality in heart failure. Examples of abnormal findings include increased left ventricular end-diastolic dimension (LVEDD), decreased EF, increased left atrial chamber size, increased left atrial volume index (LAVI), increased ventricular filling pressures measured at cardiac catheterization, or increased left ventricular wall or septum thickness.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) An LVEDD greater than 6.8 cm for males or 6.1 cm for females, 
                                <E T="03">or</E>
                                 an EF of 30 percent or less during a period of stability (that is, not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure) may be associated clinically with systolic dysfunction.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) LAVI is measured in milliliters (ml) indexed to body surface area (BSA) measured in squared meters (m
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                ). Indexing is a method of standardizing measurements to different body sizes. Diastolic dysfunction may be clinically associated with LAVI of 40 ml, BSA/m
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 or greater. The imaging report will contain a measurement for the left atrium volume. The index is calculated by dividing the left atrium volume by BSA.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) However, these measurements alone do not reflect your functional capacity, which we evaluate by considering all of the relevant evidence. In some situations, we may need to purchase an ETT to help us assess your functional capacity.</P>
                            <P>(v) Other findings on appropriate medically acceptable imaging may include increased pulmonary vascular markings, pleural effusion, and pulmonary edema. These findings need not be present on each report, since chronic HF may be controlled by prescribed treatment.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Other findings on an echocardiogram report (such as an LVEDD indexed to BSA) may be at least of medically equal significance to required findings in the listing criteria. These findings may be evaluated under our medical equivalence policy, as appropriate. See §§ 404.1526 and 416.926 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>b. Your medical history and physical examination should describe characteristic symptoms and signs of pulmonary or systemic congestion (fluid retention) or of limited cardiac output associated with the abnormal findings on appropriate medically acceptable imaging. When an acute episode of heart failure is triggered by a remediable factor, such as an arrhythmia, dietary sodium overload, or high altitude, cardiac function may be restored and a chronic impairment may not be present.</P>
                            <P>(i) Symptoms of congestion or of limited cardiac output include easy fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, or chest discomfort at rest or with activity. People with chronic HF may also experience shortness of breath upon lying flat (orthopnea) or episodes of shortness of breath that wake them from sleep (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea). They may also experience cardiac arrhythmias resulting in palpitations, lightheadedness, or fainting.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) Signs of congestion may include hepatomegaly, ascites, increased jugular venous distention or pressure, rales, peripheral edema, or rapid weight gain. However, these signs need not be found on all examinations because congestion may be controlled by prescribed treatment or may not be present at the time of evaluation.
                                <PRTPAGE P="40840"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">Is it safe for you to have an ETT if you have chronic HF?</E>
                                 The presence of chronic HF is not necessarily a contraindication to an ETT, unless you are having an acute episode of heart failure. Measures of cardiac performance are valuable in helping us evaluate your ability to do work-related activities. ETT has been used safely in people with chronic HF. Therefore, we may purchase an ETT for evaluation under 4.02B2 if an MC, preferably one experienced in the care of patients with cardiovascular disease, determines that the test poses no significant risk to you. ST segment changes from digitalis use in the treatment of chronic HF do not preclude the purchase of an ETT. (See 4.00C6 for when we will consider the purchase of an ETT. See 4.00C7-4.00C8 for what we must do before we purchase an ETT and when we will not purchase one.)
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic HF using 4.02?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We must have objective evidence, as described in 4.00D2, that you have chronic HF.</P>
                            <P>b. To meet the required level of severity for this listing, your impairment must satisfy the requirements of the criteria in A and B or satisfy either C or D.</P>
                            <P>c. In 4.02B1, we follow a two-part process to evaluate your impairment. Your impairment must satisfy the requirements in the first part of this process before we will move to the second part.</P>
                            <P>(i) Your impairment satisfies the first part if a medical source has concluded that the performance of an ETT would present a significant risk to you. This medical source, such as a cardiologist, may be providing your care. If your case record does not include a conclusion from a medical source that an ETT would present a significant risk to you, an MC as defined in 4.00A3a may make such a conclusion if evidence in your case record supports it.</P>
                            <P>(ii) In the second part of the process, we will evaluate activities of daily living (ADL). ADLs include, but are not limited to, such activities as doing household chores, grooming and hygiene, shopping at a grocery store, taking public transportation, or paying bills. We will assess whether you have persistent symptoms of chronic heart failure (for example, easy fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, or chest discomfort) at rest or with activity that very seriously limit your ability to perform ADLs independently, appropriately, effectively, and on a sustained basis. Even if you are able to perform some ADLs, we may find your ability is very seriously limited and that your impairment satisfies the second part of the evaluation.</P>
                            <P>d. Listing 4.02B2b requires a decrease in systolic blood pressure below the baseline level or below any systolic pressure reading recorded during exercise. We have this requirement because, normally, systolic blood pressure and heart rate increase gradually with exercise. Decreases in systolic blood pressure below the baseline level that occur during exercise are often associated with ischemia-induced left ventricular dysfunction resulting in decreased cardiac output. However, a blunted response (that is, failure of the systolic blood pressure to rise 10 mm Hg or more), particularly in the first 3 minutes of exercise, may be drug-related and is not necessarily associated with left ventricular dysfunction. Also, some people with increased sympathetic responses because of deconditioning or apprehension may increase their systolic blood pressure and heart rate above their baseline level just before and early into exercise. This can be associated with a drop in systolic pressure in early exercise that is not due to left ventricular dysfunction. Therefore, an early decrease in systolic blood pressure must be interpreted within the total context of the test; that is, the presence or absence of symptoms such as lightheadedness, ischemic changes, or arrhythmias on the ECG.</P>
                            <P>
                                e. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic HF treated with a mechanical circulatory support device?</E>
                                 We use 4.02D1 to evaluate chronic HF treated with an implanted mechanical circulatory support device (MCSD), such as a left ventricle assistive device (LVAD) or a right ventricle assistive device (RVAD). Implanted MCSDs are intended for long-term circulatory support in helping the heart pump blood. For the purposes of 4.02D1, an MCSD does not include extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) or devices using Impella technology. Although these are forms of mechanical circulatory support, we do not include them in 4.02D1 because they are intended only for short-term circulatory support (maximum 30 days), used in a setting of imminent or actual cardiac arrest.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                E. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate ischemic heart disease</E>
                                ?
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is ischemic heart disease (IHD)? IHD</E>
                                 is a condition in which the heart muscle does not receive enough blood to function normally (ischemia). Ischemia can result when one or more of your coronary arteries is narrowed or obstructed or, in rare situations, constricted due to vasospasm. The obstruction may be the result of an embolus, a thrombus, or plaque. When heart muscle tissue dies as a result of the reduced blood supply, it is called a myocardial infarction (heart attack). In the absence of coronary artery obstruction, ischemia can also occur due to coronary microvascular dysfunction, which results in the heart muscle getting insufficient oxygen.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What causes chest discomfort of myocardial origin?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Chest discomfort of myocardial ischemic origin, commonly known as angina pectoris, is usually caused by obstructive coronary artery disease (CAD). However, ischemic discomfort may be caused by a noncoronary artery impairment, such as aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, pulmonary hypertension, or anemia. Ischemic chest discomfort may also be caused by microvascular coronary artery dysfunction with non-obstructive CAD or in the absence of CAD.</P>
                            <P>b. Instead of typical angina pectoris, some people with IHD experience atypical angina, anginal equivalent, variant angina, or silent ischemia, all of which we may evaluate using 4.04. We discuss the various manifestations of ischemia in 4.00E3-4.00E7.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What are the characteristics of typical angina pectoris?</E>
                                 Discomfort of myocardial ischemic origin (angina pectoris) is discomfort that is precipitated by effort or emotion and promptly relieved by rest, sublingual nitroglycerin (that is, nitroglycerin tablets that are placed under the tongue), or other rapidly acting nitrates. Typically, the discomfort is located in the chest (usually substernal) and described as pressing, crushing, squeezing, burning, aching, or oppressive. Sharp, sticking, or cramping discomfort is less common. Discomfort occurring with activity or emotion should be described specifically as to timing and usual inciting factors (type and intensity), character, location, radiation, duration, and response to nitrate treatment or rest.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What is atypical angina? Atypical angina</E>
                                 describes discomfort or pain from myocardial ischemia that is felt in places other than the chest. The common sites of cardiac pain are the inner aspect of the left arm, neck, jaw(s), upper abdomen, and back, but the discomfort or pain can be elsewhere. When pain of cardiac ischemic origin presents in an atypical site in the absence of chest discomfort, the source of the pain may be difficult to diagnose. To represent atypical angina, your discomfort or pain should have precipitating and relieving factors similar to those of typical chest discomfort, and we must have objective medical evidence of myocardial ischemia; for example, ECG or ETT evidence or appropriate medically acceptable imaging.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">What is anginal equivalent?</E>
                                 Often, people with IHD will complain of shortness of breath (dyspnea) on exertion without chest pain or discomfort. In a minority of such situations, the shortness of breath is due to myocardial ischemia; this is called 
                                <E T="03">anginal equivalent.</E>
                                 To represent anginal equivalent, your shortness of breath should have precipitating and relieving factors similar to those of typical chest discomfort, and we must have objective medical evidence of myocardial ischemia; for example, ECG or ETT evidence or appropriate medically acceptable imaging. In these situations, it is essential to establish objective evidence of myocardial ischemia to ensure that you do not have effort dyspnea due to non-ischemic or non-cardiac causes.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">What is variant angina?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Variant angina</E>
                                 (Prinzmetal's angina, vasospastic angina) refers to the occurrence of anginal episodes at rest, especially at night, accompanied by transitory ST segment elevation (or, at times, ST depression) on an ECG. It is due to severe spasm of a coronary artery, causing ischemia of the heart wall, and is often accompanied by major ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia. We will consider variant angina under 4.04 only if you have spasm of a coronary artery in relation to an obstructive lesion of the vessel. If you have an arrhythmia as a result of variant angina, we may consider your impairment under 4.05.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. Variant angina may also occur in the absence of obstructive CAD. In this situation, an ETT will not demonstrate ischemia. The diagnosis will be established by showing the typical transitory ST segment changes during attacks of pain, and the absence of obstructive lesions shown by catheterization. In the absence of obstructive CAD, the treatment of ischemia due to coronary 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40841"/>
                                vasospasm or microvascular dysfunction is limited to medications such as calcium channel blockers, statins, and nitrates. In such situations, we will consider the frequency of anginal episodes despite prescribed treatment when evaluating your residual functional capacity.
                            </P>
                            <P>c. Vasospasm that is catheter-induced during coronary angiography is not variant angina.</P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">What is silent ischemia?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. Myocardial ischemia, and even myocardial infarction, can occur without perception of pain or any other symptoms; when this happens, we call it 
                                <E T="03">silent ischemia.</E>
                                 Pain sensitivity may be altered by a variety of diseases, most notably diabetes mellitus and other neuropathic disorders. People also vary in their threshold for pain.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. Silent ischemia occurs most often in:</P>
                            <P>(i) People with documented past myocardial infarction or established angina without prior infarction who do not have chest pain on ETT, but have a positive test with ischemic abnormality on ECG, perfusion scan, or other appropriate medically acceptable imaging.</P>
                            <P>(ii) People with documented past myocardial infarction or angina who have ST segment changes on ambulatory monitoring (Holter monitoring) that are similar to those that occur during episodes of angina. ST depression shown on the ambulatory recording should not be interpreted as positive for ischemia unless similar depression is also seen during chest pain episodes annotated in the diary that the person keeps while wearing the Holter monitor.</P>
                            <P>(iii) People who have diabetes mellitus with neuropathy. People with diabetes mellitus can have a higher threshold for pain because of the neuropathy and may not feel chest pain or discomfort from cardiac ischemia.</P>
                            <P>c. ST depression can result from a variety of factors, such as postural changes and variations in cardiac sympathetic tone. In addition, there are differences in how different Holter monitors record the electrical responses. Therefore, we do not consider the Holter monitor reliable for the diagnosis of silent ischemia except in the situation described in 4.00E7b(ii).</P>
                            <P>
                                8. 
                                <E T="03">What other sources of chest discomfort are there?</E>
                                 Chest discomfort of nonischemic origin may result from other cardiovascular disorders, such as pericarditis. Noncardiac disorders may also produce symptoms mimicking that of myocardial ischemia. These disorders include acute anxiety or panic attacks, gastrointestinal tract disorders (such as esophageal spasm, esophagitis, hiatal hernia, biliary tract disease, gastritis, peptic ulcer, and pancreatitis), and musculoskeletal syndromes (such as chest wall muscle spasm, chest wall syndrome (especially after coronary bypass surgery), costochondritis, and cervical or dorsal spine arthritis). Hyperventilation may also mimic ischemic discomfort. Thus, in the absence of documented myocardial ischemia, such disorders should be considered as possible causes of chest discomfort.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                9. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate IHD using 4.04?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We must have objective evidence, as described under 4.00C, that your symptoms are due to myocardial ischemia.</P>
                            <P>b. In 4.04A, we need evidence, such as an ECG interpretation, from an acceptable medical source who reviewed your ETT findings and found them positive for ischemia. These ETT findings may include ECG tracings or systolic blood pressure measurements. If your case record does not have such an interpretation from an acceptable medical source, an MC, as defined in 4.00A3a, may review your ETT findings and interpret them as being positive for ischemia if evidence in your case record supports it.</P>
                            <P>(i) ETT findings may show the classically accepted changes in ECG tracings of horizontal or down sloping ST depression or of ST elevation. For example, ECG tracings may show horizontal or down sloping depression, in the absence of digitalis glycoside treatment or hypokalemia, of the ST segment of at least −0.10 millivolts (−1.0 mm) in at least three consecutive complexes that are on a level baseline in any lead other than a VR, and depression of at least −0.10 millivolts lasting for at least 1 minute of recovery. Alternatively, the ECG tracings may show at least 0.10 millivolt (1 mm) ST elevation above resting baseline in non-infarct leads during both exercise and 1 or more minutes of recovery.</P>
                            <P>(ii) ETT findings may also show a decrease of 10 mmHg or more in systolic pressure below the baseline systolic blood pressure or the preceding systolic pressure measured during exercise due to left ventricular dysfunction, despite an increase in workload. This finding is the same finding required in 4.02B2b. See 4.00D4d for full details.</P>
                            <P>
                                c. In 4.04C, each ischemic episode must result in an unplanned hospitalization. Examples of ischemic episodes that may result in unplanned hospitalizations include unplanned revascularizations, myocardial infarctions, unstable angina, or dysrhythmias. 
                                <E T="03">Revascularization</E>
                                 means angioplasty (with or without stent placement) or bypass surgery.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) How do we calculate separate ischemic episodes? Reocclusion that occurs after a revascularization procedure but during the same hospitalization and that requires a second procedure during the same hospitalization will not be counted as another ischemic episode. If you are hospitalized for documented myocardial infarction and have a revascularization procedure during the same hospitalization, this event will be counted as one ischemic episode.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) How do we evaluate ischemic episodes not amenable to revascularizations? If your ischemic episodes are not amenable to revascularization, we will evaluate them using the appropriate listing (for example, 4.04D). 
                                <E T="03">Not amenable</E>
                                 means that the revascularization procedure could not be done because of another medical impairment or because the vessel was not suitable for revascularization.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                d. We will use 4.04D only when you have symptoms due to myocardial ischemia as described in 4.00E3-4.00E7 while on a regimen of prescribed treatment, you are at risk for ETT (see 4.00C8), 
                                <E T="03">and</E>
                                 we do not have a timely ETT or a timely normal drug-induced stress test for you. See 4.00C9 for what we mean by a timely test.
                            </P>
                            <P>e. In 4.04D1, fractional flow reserve (FFR) is a measurement of the pressure differences across an obstructive lesion, giving an estimate of the severity of stenosis. An FFR measurement of 1.0 indicates normal blood flow. An FFR measurement equal to or less than 0.80 indicates stenosis capable of producing serious myocardial ischemia in an artery appropriate for revascularization. An FFR measurement that is greater than 0.80 indicates stenosis not likely to produce significant ischemia. FFR also helps define the adequacy of collateral flow that directly affects function in ischemic heart disease.</P>
                            <P>f. In 4.04D2, instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR) measures the pressure ratio during a specified period of diastole when the coronary resistance is minimized and stable. An iFR value equal to or less than 0.89 indicates a hemodynamically significant stenosis that is appropriately treated with percutaneous coronary intervention.</P>
                            <P>g. In 4.04D3 and 4.04D4, the term “nonbypassed” means that the blockage is in a vessel that is potentially bypassable; that is, large enough to be bypassed and considered to be a cause of your ischemia. These vessels are usually major arteries or one of a major artery's major branches. A vessel that has become obstructed again after angioplasty or stent placement and has remained obstructed or is not amenable to another revascularization is considered a nonbypassed vessel for purposes of the listings. When you have had revascularization, we will not use the pre-operative findings to assess the current severity of your coronary artery disease under 4.04D, although we will consider the severity and duration of your impairment before your surgery in making our determination or decision.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. How do we evaluate arrhythmias?</HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is an arrhythmia?</E>
                                 An 
                                <E T="03">arrhythmia</E>
                                 is a change in the regular beat of the heart. Your heart may seem to skip a beat or beat irregularly, very quickly (tachycardia), or very slowly (bradycardia). Although we use the term 
                                <E T="03">arrhythmia</E>
                                 in the listings, the term “dysrhythmia” may also be used in the medical evidence to describe this condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What are the different types of arrhythmias?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. There are many types of arrhythmias. Arrhythmias are identified by where they occur in the heart (atria or ventricles) and by what happens to the heart's rhythm when they occur.</P>
                            <P>b. Arrhythmias arising in the cardiac atria (upper chambers of the heart) are called atrial or supraventricular arrhythmias. Ventricular arrhythmias begin in the ventricles (lower chambers). In general, ventricular arrhythmias caused by heart disease are the most serious.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate arrhythmias using 4.05?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. We will use 4.05 when you have arrhythmias that are not fully controlled by medication, an implanted pacemaker, or an 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40842"/>
                                implanted cardiac defibrillator, and you have recurrent episodes of syncope or near syncope. If your arrhythmias are controlled, we will evaluate your underlying heart disease using the appropriate listing. For other considerations when we evaluate arrhythmias in the presence of an implanted cardiac defibrillator, see 4.00F4.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. We consider 
                                <E T="03">near syncope</E>
                                 to be a period of altered consciousness, since 
                                <E T="03">syncope</E>
                                 is a loss of consciousness or a faint. It is not merely a feeling of light-headedness, momentary weakness, or dizziness.
                            </P>
                            <P>c. For purposes of 4.05, there must be a documented association between the syncope or near syncope and the recurrent arrhythmia. The recurrent arrhythmia, not some other cardiac or non-cardiac disorder, must be established as the cause of the associated symptom. This documentation of the association between the symptoms and the arrhythmia may come from the usual diagnostic methods, including Holter monitoring (also called ambulatory electrocardiography) and tilt-table testing with a concurrent ECG. Although an arrhythmia may be a coincidental finding on an ETT, we will not purchase an ETT to document the presence of a cardiac arrhythmia.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider when you have an implanted cardiac defibrillator and you do not have arrhythmias that meet the requirements of 4.05?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Implanted cardiac defibrillators are used to prevent sudden cardiac death in people who have had, or are at high risk for, cardiac arrest from life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. The largest group at risk for sudden cardiac death consists of people with cardiomyopathy (ischemic or non-ischemic) and reduced ventricular function. However, life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias can also occur in people with little or no ventricular dysfunction. The shock from the implanted cardiac defibrillator rescues a person from what may have been cardiac arrest. However, as a consequence of the shock(s), similar to the effects of treatments for other cardiovascular disease, a person may experience psychological distress, which we may evaluate under the listings in 12.00.</P>
                            <P>b. Most implantable cardiac defibrillators have rhythm-correcting and pacemaker capabilities. In some people, these functions may result in the termination of ventricular arrhythmias without an otherwise painful shock. (The shock is like being kicked in the chest.) Implanted cardiac defibrillators may deliver inappropriate shocks, often repeatedly, in response to benign arrhythmias or electrical malfunction. Also, exposure to strong electrical or magnetic fields, such as from magnetic resonance imaging, can trigger or reprogram an implanted cardiac defibrillator, resulting in inappropriate shocks. We must consider the frequency of, and the reason(s) for, the shocks when evaluating the severity and duration of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>c. In general, the exercise limitations imposed on people with an implanted cardiac defibrillator are those dictated by the underlying heart impairment. However, the exercise limitations may be greater when the implanted cardiac defibrillator delivers an inappropriate shock in response to the increase in heart rate with exercise, or when there is exercise-induced ventricular arrhythmia.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                G. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate peripheral vascular disease?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?</E>
                                 Generally, 
                                <E T="03">PVD</E>
                                 is any impairment that affects either the arteries (peripheral artery disease) or the veins (venous insufficiency) in the extremities, particularly the lower extremities. The usual effect is blockage of the flow of blood either from the heart (arterial) or back to the heart (venous). If you have peripheral artery disease, you may have pain in your leg after walking a distance that goes away when you rest (intermittent claudication); at more advanced stages, you may have pain in your leg or foot at rest or you may develop ulceration or gangrene. Neuropathy may mask these typical symptoms. If you have venous insufficiency, you may have swelling, varicose veins, skin pigmentation changes, or skin ulceration.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">How do we assess limitations resulting from PVD?</E>
                                 We will assess your limitations based on your symptoms together with physical findings and Doppler studies or other appropriate diagnostic techniques. However, if the PVD has resulted in amputation, we will evaluate any limitations related to the amputation under the listings in 1.00.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What is brawny edema? Brawny edema</E>
                                 (4.11A) is swelling that is usually dense and feels firm due to the presence of increased connective tissue; it is also associated with characteristic skin pigmentation changes. It is not the same thing as pitting edema. Brawny edema generally does not pit (indent on pressure), and the terms are not interchangeable. Pitting edema does not satisfy the requirements of 4.11A.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What is lymphedema and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Lymphedema</E>
                                 is edema of the extremities due to a disorder of the lymphatic circulation; at its worst, it is called elephantiasis. Primary lymphedema is caused by abnormal development of lymph vessels and may be present at birth (congenital lymphedema), but more often develops during the teens (lymphedema praecox). It may also appear later, usually after age 35 (lymphedema tarda). Secondary lymphedema is due to obstruction or destruction of normal lymphatic channels due to tumor, surgery, repeated infections, or parasitic infection such as filariasis. Lymphedema most commonly affects one extremity. Symptoms of lymphedema include but are not limited to swelling in an extremity, changes in skin, and pain or sensory changes in the affected area. The symptoms may limit movement in affected joints.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. Lymphedema does not meet the requirements of 4.11, although it may medically equal the listing. We evaluate lymphedema by considering whether the underlying cause meets or medically equals any listing, or whether the lymphedema medically equals a cardiovascular disorders listing such as 4.11 or a listing in 1.00 or 14.00. If no listing is met or medically equaled, we evaluate any functional limitations imposed by your lymphedema when we assess your residual functional capacity.</P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">When will we purchase exercise Doppler studies for evaluating peripheral artery disease (PAD)?</E>
                                 If we need additional evidence of your PAD, we will generally purchase exercise Doppler studies (see 4.00C16 and 4.00C17) when your resting ankle-brachial index is at least 0.50 but less than 0.80, and only rarely when it is 0.80 or above. We will not purchase exercise Doppler testing if you have a disease that results in abnormal arterial calcification or small vessel disease, but will use your resting toe systolic blood pressure or resting toe-brachial index. (See 4.00G7c and 4.00G8.) There are no current medical standards for evaluating exercise toe pressures. Because any exercise test stresses your entire cardiovascular system, we will purchase exercise Doppler studies only after an MC, preferably one with experience in the care of patients with cardiovascular disease, has determined that the test would not present a significant risk to you and that there is no other medical reason not to purchase the test (see 4.00C6, 4.00C7, and 4.00C8).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">Are there any other studies that are helpful in evaluating PAD?</E>
                                 Doppler studies done using a recording ultrasonic Doppler unit and strain-gauge or air plethysmography are other useful tools for evaluating PAD. A recording Doppler, which prints a tracing of the arterial pulse wave in the femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial arteries, is an evaluation tool that compares waveforms in normal and compromised peripheral blood flow. Qualitative analysis of the Doppler waveforms and plethysmographic tracings is helpful in the overall assessment of the severity of the occlusive disease. Tracings help in assessing severity if you have small vessel disease related to diabetes mellitus or other diseases with similar vascular changes, or diseases causing medial calcifications when ankle pressure is either normal or falsely high. When there is evidence of medial calcification of the ankle arteries or the ankle-brachial index is 0.50 or greater, other appropriate tests for PAD include magnetic resonance angiography, computed tomography angiography, contrast angiography, and graded treadmill tests.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate PAD under 4.12?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. The ankle blood pressure referred to in 4.12A and B is the higher of the pressures recorded from the posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries in the affected leg. The higher pressure recorded from the two sites is the more significant measurement in assessing the extent of arterial insufficiency. Techniques for obtaining ankle systolic blood pressures include Doppler (See 4.00C16 and 4.00C17), plethysmographic studies, or other techniques. We will request any available tracings generated by these studies so that we can review them.</P>
                            <P>
                                b. In 4.12A, the ankle-brachial index is the ratio of the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the systolic blood pressure at the brachial artery; both taken at the same time 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40843"/>
                                while you are lying on your back. We do not require that the ankle and brachial pressures be taken on the same side of your body. This is because, as with the ankle pressure, we will use the higher brachial systolic pressure measured. The criterion in 4.12A is met when your resting ankle-brachial index is less than 0.50. If your resting ankle-brachial index is 0.50 or above, we will use 4.12B to evaluate the severity of your PAD, unless you also have a disease causing abnormal arterial calcification or small vessel disease, such as diabetes mellitus. See 4.00G7c and 4.00G8.
                            </P>
                            <P>c. We will use resting toe systolic blood pressures or resting toe-brachial indices (determined the same way as the ankle-brachial index, see 4.00G7b) when you have intermittent claudication and a disease that results in abnormal arterial calcification (for example, Monckeberg's sclerosis or diabetes mellitus) or small vessel disease (for example, diabetes mellitus). These diseases may result in misleadingly high blood pressure readings at the ankle. However, high blood pressures due to vascular changes related to these diseases seldom occur at the toe level. While the criteria in 4.12C and 4.12D are intended primarily for people who have a disease causing abnormal arterial calcification or small vessel disease, we may also use them for evaluating anyone with PAD.</P>
                            <P>
                                8. 
                                <E T="03">How are toe pressures measured?</E>
                                 Toe pressures are measured routinely in most vascular laboratories through one of three methods: most frequently, photoplethysmography; less frequently, plethysmography using strain gauge cuffs; and Doppler ultrasound. Toe pressure can also be measured by using any blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the big toe and is neither too tight nor too loose. A neonatal cuff or a cuff designed for use on fingers or toes can be used in the measurement of toe pressure.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                9. 
                                <E T="03">How do we use listing 4.12 if you have had a peripheral graft or stenting?</E>
                                 Peripheral grafting serves the same purpose as coronary grafting; that is, to bypass a narrow or obstructed arterial segment. If intermittent claudication recurs or persists after peripheral grafting, we may purchase Doppler studies to assess the flow of blood through the bypassed vessel and to establish the current severity of the peripheral artery impairment. However, if you have had peripheral grafting or stenting done for your PAD, we will not use the findings from before the surgery to assess the current severity of your impairment, although we will consider the severity and duration of your impairment prior to your surgery in making our determination or decision.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                H. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate congenital heart disease?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is congenital heart disease?</E>
                                 Congenital heart disease is any abnormality of the heart or the major blood vessels that is present at birth. Congenital heart disease includes abnormal structure of the individual heart chambers, valves, and blood vessels, and abnormal relative relationship of the chambers to each other that alters the normal pattern of blood flow. Surgery in childhood is the usual treatment, and with improving surgical techniques and medical management, more children with congenital heart disease are surviving into adulthood. Rarely, a person with congenital heart disease may not have received the usual surgery in childhood, and later, as an adult, they are no longer a surgical candidate, as for example, in Eisenmenger syndrome.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What is Eisenmenger syndrome?</E>
                                 Eisenmenger syndrome refers to any surgically untreated congenital heart defect with intracardiac communication that over time leads to pulmonary hypertension, reversal of blood flow, and hypoxemia.
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Lesions in Eisenmenger syndrome, such as large septal defects, are characterized by elevated pulmonary pressures or a high pulmonary flow rate. In response, the pulmonary blood vessels pathologically change, leading eventually to pulmonary hypertension. Development of Eisenmenger syndrome represents a point at which pulmonary hypertension is irreversible and the cardiac lesion is likely inoperable.</P>
                            <P>b. Examples of congenital heart disease that if untreated may cause pulmonary vascular disease leading to Eisenmenger syndrome include atrial septal defect (ASD), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                                 The term “single ventricle” (also known as “single ventricle physiology” or “functional single ventricle”) describes a diverse group of congenital cardiac anomalies sharing the common feature that only one of the two heart ventricles is adequately developed. At birth, one ventricle must functionally do the work of two, pumping blood for both the body (systemic) and the lungs (pulmonary). Because of this feature, the ultimate plan for cardiac reconstruction is similar for most of these anomalies. People with single ventricle will generally undergo staged reconstructive “Fontan procedures,” ultimately resulting in a “Fontan circulation.” Fontan circulation describes the hemodynamic state in which virtually all systemic venous return-blood passively flows directly into the pulmonary arteries via surgical or catheter-placed shunts, without the blood passing through a ventricle. The Fontan circulation results in difficulties augmenting, and sometimes maintaining, cardiac output. Some of the anomalies described as single ventricle include the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(a) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome;</P>
                            <P>(b) Hypoplastic right ventricle;</P>
                            <P>(c) Tricuspid valve atresia;</P>
                            <P>(d) Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum;</P>
                            <P>(e) Double inlet left ventricle; and</P>
                            <P>(f) Some variations of double outlet right ventricle.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate conditions associated with congenital heart disease?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We evaluate congenital heart disease that results in chronic heart failure with evidence of ventricular dysfunction or in recurrent arrhythmias under 4.02 or 4.05, respectively. Otherwise, we evaluate your impairment under 4.06.</P>
                            <P>b. We evaluate pulmonary hypertension due to congenital heart disease under 4.06B or 4.06C. We evaluate pulmonary hypertension not due to congenital heart disease under the listings in 3.00 (for example, 3.09).</P>
                            <P>c. We need pulse oximetry measurements documented by medical sources using methods consistent with the prevailing state of medical knowledge and clinical practice to evaluate chronic hypoxemia in congenital heart disease under 4.06A3. These pulse oximetry measurements also must be consistent with the other evidence in the case record.</P>
                            <P>d. We evaluate single ventricle physiology under 4.06D and will consider you disabled if your medical evidence documents that you have any congenital heart disorder that results in single ventricle physiology (functional single ventricle). In addition to the above congenital heart disorders, examples of palliative surgical procedures that indicate single ventricle physiology include the Glenn, Fontan, and Norwood procedures.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                I. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate other cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate hypertension? Hypertension</E>
                                 (high blood pressure) over time may significantly raise the pressures in the heart to the point of ineffective heart muscle function known generally as hypertensive heart disease that we can evaluate under 4.02. Other body systems, such as the brain, kidneys, or eyes may also be affected. We evaluate these impairments by reference to the specific body system(s) that is affected. We will also consider any limitations imposed by your hypertension when we assess your residual functional capacity.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What is cardiomyopathy and how do we evaluate it</E>
                                ? 
                                <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                                 is a disease of the heart muscle. The heart loses its ability to pump blood (heart failure), and in some instances, heart rhythm is disturbed, leading to irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias). Usually, the exact cause of the muscle damage is never found (idiopathic cardiomyopathy).
                            </P>
                            <P>a. There are various types of cardiomyopathy, which fall into two major categories: ischemic and nonischemic cardiomyopathy. Ischemic cardiomyopathy typically refers to heart muscle damage that results from coronary artery disease, including heart attacks. Nonischemic cardiomyopathy includes, but is not limited to several types: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic. Cardiomyopathy includes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, endomyocardial fibrosis, or cardiac amyloidosis AL (light-chain) type.</P>
                            <P>b. We evaluate cardiomyopathy under 4.08. Depending on the underlying cause of the cardiomyopathy or its effects on you, we may also evaluate your cardiomyopathy under 4.02, 4.04, or 4.05. If your cardiomyopathy results in vascular insult to the brain, we may also evaluate it under 11.04.</P>
                            <P>c. Under 4.08A1a, we need a conclusion from a medical source that the performance of an exercise test would present a significant risk to you. If your case record does not have a conclusion from a medical source that an exercise test would present a significant risk to you, an MC as defined in 4.00A3a may make such a conclusion if evidence in your case record supports it.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate valvular heart disease?</E>
                                 We evaluate aortic valvular disease 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40844"/>
                                under 4.07. We may also evaluate aortic valvular disease, as well as other forms of valvular disease, under 4.02, 4.04, 4.05, 4.06, or a listing in 11.00, depending on its effects on you.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider when we evaluate heart transplant recipients?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. After your heart transplant, we will consider you disabled under 4.09 for 1 year following the surgery because there is a greater likelihood of rejection of the organ and infection during the first year. If you develop cardiac allograft vasculopathy after your transplant, we will evaluate this impairment under 4.16.</P>
                            <P>b. However, heart transplant patients generally meet our definition of disability before they undergo transplantation. We will determine the onset of your disability based on the facts in your case.</P>
                            <P>c. We will not assume that you became disabled when your name was placed on a transplant waiting list. This is because you may be placed on a waiting list soon after diagnosis of the cardiac disorder that may eventually require a transplant. Physicians recognize that candidates for transplantation often have to wait months or even years before a suitable donor heart is found, so they place their patients on the list as soon as permitted.</P>
                            <P>d. When we do a continuing disability review to determine whether you are still disabled, we will evaluate your residual impairment(s), as shown by the evidence in your case record, including any side effects of medication. We will consider all evidence indicative of cardiac dysfunction in deciding whether medical improvement (as defined in §§ 404.1594 and 416.994 of this chapter) has occurred.</P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">What is cardiac allograft vasculopathy and how do we evaluate it? Cardiac allograft vasculopathy</E>
                                 (CAV) may affect a person who has received a heart transplant and involves thickening in the walls of the coronary arteries that may progress quickly into serious vascular stenosis and heart dysfunction. Stenosis in CAV is caused by a pathological process different from classic atherosclerosis and treatment often is only palliative. We evaluate CAV under 4.16.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">When does an aneurysm have “dissection not controlled by prescribed treatment,” as required under 4.10?</E>
                                 An aneurysm (or bulge in the aorta or one of its major branches) is 
                                <E T="03">dissecting</E>
                                 when the inner lining of the artery begins to separate from the arterial wall. We consider the dissection not controlled when you have persistence of chest pain due to progression of the dissection, an increase in the size of the aneurysm, or compression of one or more branches of the aorta supplying the heart, kidneys, brain, or other organs. An aneurysm with dissection can cause heart failure, renal (kidney) failure, or neurological complications. If you have an aneurysm that does not meet the requirements of 4.10 and you have one or more of these associated conditions, we will evaluate the condition(s) using the appropriate listing.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">What is hyperlipidemia and how do we evaluate it? Hyperlipidemia</E>
                                 is the general term for an elevation of any or all of the lipids (fats or cholesterol) in the blood; for example, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercholesterolemia, and hyperlipoproteinemia. These disorders of lipoprotein metabolism and transport can cause defects throughout the body. The effects most likely to interfere with function are those produced by atherosclerosis (narrowing of the arteries) and coronary artery disease. We will evaluate your lipoprotein disorder by considering its effects on you.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                8. 
                                <E T="03">What is Marfan syndrome and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Marfan syndrome</E>
                                 is a genetic connective tissue disorder that affects multiple body systems, including the skeleton, eyes, heart, blood vessels, nervous system, skin, and lungs. There is no specific laboratory test to diagnose Marfan syndrome. The diagnosis is generally made by medical history (including family history), physical examination (including an evaluation of the ratio of arm/leg size to trunk size), a slit lamp eye examination, and a heart test(s) (such as an echocardiogram). In some cases, a genetic analysis may be useful, but such analyses may not provide any additional helpful information.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. The effects of Marfan syndrome can range from mild to severe. In most cases, the disorder progresses as you age. Most people with Marfan syndrome have abnormalities associated with the heart and blood vessels. Your heart's mitral valve may leak, causing a heart murmur. Small leaks may not cause symptoms, but larger ones may cause shortness of breath, fatigue, and palpitations. Another effect is that the wall of the aorta may be weakened and abnormally stretch (aortic dilation). This aortic dilation may tear, dissect, or rupture, causing serious heart problems or sometimes sudden death. We will evaluate the cardiovascular manifestations of your Marfan syndrome under the appropriate criteria, such as 4.10, or, if necessary, consider the functional limitations imposed by your impairment.</P>
                            <P>c. Other genetic connective tissue disorders, such as Loeys-Dietz syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, may have abnormalities associated with the heart and blood vessels. We will evaluate the cardiovascular manifestations of your genetic connective tissue disorder under the appropriate criteria, such as 4.10, or, if necessary, consider the functional limitations imposed by your impairment.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                J. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate other issues that affect the cardiovascular system?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">How do we consider the effects of obesity when we evaluate your cardiovascular disorder? Obesity</E>
                                 is a medically determinable impairment that may be associated with cardiovascular disorders. The additional body mass may make it harder for the chest and lungs to expand or may cause the heart to work harder to pump blood to carry oxygen to the body. The combined effects of obesity with a cardiovascular disorder can be greater than the effects of each of the impairments considered separately. We consider the additional and cumulative effects of obesity when we determine whether you have a severe cardiovascular disorder, a listing-level cardiovascular disorder, a combination of impairments that medically equals the severity of a listed impairment, and when we assess your residual functional capacity.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">How do we relate treatment to functional status?</E>
                                 In general, conclusions about the severity of a cardiovascular disorder cannot be made on the basis of the type of treatment rendered or anticipated. The amount of function restored and the time required for improvement after treatment (medical, surgical, or a prescribed program of progressive physical activity) vary with the nature and extent of the disorder, the type of treatment, and other factors. Depending upon the timing of this treatment in relation to the alleged onset date of disability, we may need to defer evaluation of the impairment for a period of up to 3 months from the date treatment began to permit consideration of treatment effects, unless we can make a determination or decision using the evidence we have. See 4.00B4.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we consider hospitalizations?</E>
                                 When we evaluate hospitalizations for chronic heart failure (4.02B3), ischemic heart disease (4.04E), congenital heart disease (4.06E), and cardiomyopathy (4.08D), the hospitalizations do not all have to be for the same cardiovascular disorder(s). They may be for three different exacerbations or complications resulting from your cardiovascular disorder. The hospitalizations must be at least 30 days apart, and each one must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                K. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate cardiovascular disorders that do not meet one of these listings?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>1. These listings are only examples of common cardiovascular disorders that we consider severe enough to prevent you from doing any gainful activity. If your impairment(s) does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we must also consider whether you have an impairment(s) that satisfies the criteria of a listing in another body system.</P>
                            <P>2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing. See §§ 404.1526 and 416.926 of this chapter. If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, you may or may not have the residual functional capacity to engage in substantial gainful activity. We will proceed to the fourth step and, if necessary, the fifth step of the sequential evaluation process in §§ 404.1520 and 416.920 of this chapter. We will use the rules in §§ 404.1594 or 416.994 of this chapter, as appropriate, when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">4.01 Category of Impairments, Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                            <P>
                                4.02 
                                <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                                 (see 4.00D) while on a regimen of prescribed treatment, with symptoms and signs described in 4.00D2. The required level of severity for this impairment is met when the requirements are satisfied by A and B; or C alone; or D alone.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                A. Medically documented presence of one of the following:
                                <PRTPAGE P="40845"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>1. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging during a period of stability (not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure), with either a. or b.</P>
                            <P>a. Left ventricular end diastolic dimension greater than 6.8 cm for males or 6.1 cm for females during a period of stability (not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure); or</P>
                            <P>b. Ejection fraction of 30 percent or less during a period of stability (not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure); OR</P>
                            <P>2. Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging during a period of stability (not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure), with either a. or b.</P>
                            <P>a. Left ventricular posterior wall plus septal thickness totaling 2.5 cm or greater, with an enlarged left atrium greater than or equal to 4.5 cm, or</P>
                            <P>
                                b. Left atrial volume index (LAVI) greater than or equal to 40 ml, BSA/m
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 (milliliters to body surface area in squared meters).
                            </P>
                            <P>AND</P>
                            <P>B. Resulting in one of the following:</P>
                            <P>1. Recurrent (see 4.00A3c) symptoms of heart failure, resulting in both a and b:</P>
                            <P>a. A medical source (see 4.00D4c(i)) has concluded that the performance of an exercise test would present a significant risk to the person; and</P>
                            <P>b. Very serious limitation in the ability to perform activities of daily living independently, appropriately, effectively, and on a sustained basis; or</P>
                            <P>
                                2. Inability to perform on an exercise tolerance test at a workload equivalent to 5 METs or less if using a standard treadmill (or bicycle) test without gas exchange, or at 15 ml/kg/min peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (oxygen consumption) on a cardiopulmonary exercise test, due to either a or b.
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations, or chest discomfort; or</P>
                            <P>b. Decrease of 10 mmHg or more in systolic pressure below the baseline systolic blood pressure or the preceding systolic pressure measured during exercise (see 4.00D4d) due to left ventricular dysfunction, despite an increase in workload; or</P>
                            <P>3. Exacerbations or complications of chronic heart failure (see 4.00D1b) requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e) and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 4.00J3);</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Heart failure with left ventricular ejection fraction of 20 percent or less while on a regimen of prescribed therapy, on two evaluations at least 90 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e) during a period of stability (not during an episode of exacerbation of heart failure);</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. One of the following while hospitalized, at home, or both:</P>
                            <P>1. An implanted mechanical circulatory support device except extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) (see 4.00D4e). Consider under a disability for 1 year from the date of implantation; after that, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.</P>
                            <P>2. Continuous intravenous administration of inotropic medication (for example, milrinone) for at least 30 consecutive days. Consider under a disability for 1 year from the date of initiation of the treatment; after that, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">4.03 [Reserved]</HD>
                            <P>
                                4.04 
                                <E T="03">Ischemic heart disease</E>
                                 (see 4.00E), with symptoms due to myocardial ischemia, while on a regimen of prescribed treatment (see 4.00B3 if there is no regimen of prescribed treatment), with A, B, C, D, or E:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Inability to perform on an exercise tolerance test at a workload equivalent to 5 METs or less with findings interpreted by an acceptable medical source as positive for ischemia (see 4.00E9b).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Ischemic response with exercise or pharmacological (drug-induced) stress testing (see 4.00C14) on medically appropriate imaging, with either 1 or 2:</P>
                            <P>1. At least two reversible or fixed regional myocardial perfusion defects and either a or b:</P>
                            <P>a. Transient ischemic dilatation; or</P>
                            <P>b. Resting left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 50 percent; or</P>
                            <P>2. At least two reversible or fixed regional wall motion abnormalities and either a or b:</P>
                            <P>a. Decrease in left ventricular ejection fraction during testing; or</P>
                            <P>b. Resting left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 50 percent.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Documentation of three separate ischemic episodes (see 4.00E9c) requiring unplanned hospitalization (inpatient or observation status) within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. Coronary artery disease, documented by coronary angiography (obtained independently of Social Security disability evaluation) with 1, 2, 3 or 4:</P>
                            <P>1. Fractional flow reserve (FFR) (see 4.00E9e) measurement of equal to or less than 0.80 of a proximal segment or mid segment coronary artery not amenable to revascularization (see 4.00E9c(ii)).</P>
                            <P>2. Instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR) (see 4.00E9f) measurement of equal to or less than 0.89 of a proximal segment or mid segment coronary artery not amenable to revascularization (see 4.00E9c(ii)).</P>
                            <P>3. History of coronary artery bypass graft surgery with manifestations of ischemia, as described in 4.00E3-4.00E7, while on a regimen of prescribed treatment (see 4.00B3 if there is no regimen of prescribed treatment) with a, b, c, or d:</P>
                            <P>a. 50 percent or more stenosis of a nonbypassed left main coronary artery; or</P>
                            <P>b. 70 percent or more stenosis in the proximal segment or mid segment of another nonbypassed coronary artery; or</P>
                            <P>c. 50 percent or more stenosis in the proximal segment or mid segment of at least two nonbypassed coronary arteries; or</P>
                            <P>d. 70 percent or more stenosis of a bypass graft vessel.</P>
                            <P>4. Resting left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 50 percent while medically stable (see 4.00B4) with manifestations of ischemia, as described in 4.00E3-4.00E7, while on a regimen of prescribed treatment (see 4.00B3 if there is no regimen of prescribed treatment) with a, b, or c:</P>
                            <P>a. 50 percent or more stenosis of a nonbypassed left main coronary artery; or</P>
                            <P>b. 70 percent stenosis in the proximal segment or mid segment of another nonbypassed coronary artery; or</P>
                            <P>c. 50 percent or more stenosis in the proximal segment or mid segment of at least two nonbypassed coronary arteries.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>E. Exacerbations or complications of ischemic heart disease (see 4.00E2-4.00E7) requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e) and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 4.00J3).</P>
                            <P>
                                4.05 
                                <E T="03">Recurrent arrhythmias</E>
                                 (see 4.00F), not related to reversible causes such as electrolyte abnormalities or digitalis glycoside or antiarrhythmic drug toxicity, while on a regimen of prescribed treatment (see 4.00B3 if there is no prescribed treatment), demonstrated by both A and B:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Coincident with recurrent (see 4.00A3c) episodes of cardiac syncope or near syncope (see 4.00F3b).</P>
                            <P>AND</P>
                            <P>B. Documented by either 1 or 2:</P>
                            <P>1. Resting or ambulatory (Holter) electrocardiography; or</P>
                            <P>2. Other appropriate medically acceptable testing.</P>
                            <P>
                                4.06 
                                <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                                 (see 4.00H), documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging (see 4.00A3d) or cardiac catheterization, with A, B, C, D, or E:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Chronic hypoxemia, and 1, 2, or 3:</P>
                            <P>1. Hematocrit of 55 percent or greater on two evaluations at least 90 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e); or</P>
                            <P>2. Arterial blood gas test measurement obtained at rest while breathing room air, as described in either a or b:</P>
                            <P>
                                a. S
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (arterial oxygen saturation) less than or equal to 89 percent; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. PO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 or P
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (partial pressure of oxygen) less than or equal to 60 mmHg; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. S
                                <E T="52">p</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (percentage of oxygen saturation of blood hemoglobin) measured by pulse oximetry either at rest, during a 6-minute walk test (6MWT), or after a 6MWT, while breathing room air, less than or equal to 87 percent on three evaluations at least 30 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e).
                            </P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>
                                B. Intermittent right-to-left shunting (for example, Eisenmenger syndrome; see 4.00H2) during cardiopulmonary exercise testing while breathing room air, resulting in oxygen desaturation on exertion at a workload equivalent to 5 METs or less, or peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (oxygen uptake) of 15.0 ml/kg/min or less, 
                                <E T="03">and</E>
                                 arterial blood gas test measurement, with either 1 or 2:
                                <PRTPAGE P="40846"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                1. S
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 less than or equal to 89 percent; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. PO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 or P
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 less than or equal to 60 mmHg.
                            </P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Pulmonary hypertension documented by cardiac catheterization while medically stable, as described in 1, 2, or 3:</P>
                            <P>1. Pulmonary arterial systolic pressure elevated to at least 70 percent of the systemic arterial systolic pressure; or</P>
                            <P>2. Pulmonary arterial systolic pressure equal to or greater than 70 mmHg; or</P>
                            <P>3. Mean pulmonary artery pressure equal to or greater than 40 mmHg.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. Single ventricle (with or without Fontan procedures) (see 4.00H3).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>E. Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease (see 4.00J3) requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e) and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 4.00J3).</P>
                            <P>
                                4.07 
                                <E T="03">Aortic valvular disease</E>
                                 (see 4.00I3), with symptoms due to stenosis, determined by appropriate test or tests showing an aortic valve area of less than 1.0 cm
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                .
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4.08 
                                <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                                 (see 4.00I2) while on a regimen of prescribed treatment, with A, B, C, or D:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging, with left ventricular or septal wall thickness equal to or greater than 20 mm in the absence of other causes of left ventricular hypertrophy (for example, hypertension or aortic valvular disease) and either 1 or 2:</P>
                            <P>1. Recurrent (see 4.00A3c) symptoms of cardiomyopathy, resulting in both a and b:</P>
                            <P>a. A medical source (see 4.00I2c) has concluded that the performance of an exercise tolerance test would present a significant risk to the person; and</P>
                            <P>b. Very serious limitation in the ability to perform activities of daily living independently, appropriately, effectively, and on a sustained basis; or</P>
                            <P>
                                2. Inability to perform on an exercise tolerance test at a workload equivalent to 5 METs or less if using a standard treadmill (or bicycle) test without gas exchange, or at 15 ml/kg/min peak VO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (oxygen consumption) on a cardiopulmonary exercise test.
                            </P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Endomyocardial fibrosis documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging, with 1, 2, and 3:</P>
                            <P>1. Loss of chamber volume due to fibrosis of the endocardium of at least one ventricle; and</P>
                            <P>2. Right or left atrial dilatation (chamber enlargement); and</P>
                            <P>3. Regurgitant (backward) blood flow through the mitral or tricuspid valve.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Cardiac amyloidosis AL (light-chain) type documented by biopsy.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. Exacerbations or complications of cardiomyopathy requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e) and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 4.00J3).</P>
                            <P>
                                4.09 
                                <E T="03">Heart transplantation</E>
                                 (see 4.00I4). Consider under a disability for 1 year from the date of the transplant; after that, evaluate the residual impairment(s).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4.10 
                                <E T="03">Dissecting aneurysm of the aorta or major branches</E>
                                 (see 4.00I6), due to any cause (for example, atherosclerosis, cystic medial necrosis, Marfan syndrome, or trauma), with A and B:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging.</P>
                            <P>AND</P>
                            <P>B. Dissection not controlled by prescribed treatment.</P>
                            <P>
                                4.11 
                                <E T="03">Chronic venous insufficiency</E>
                                 (see 4.00G) of a lower extremity with reflux or obstruction of the venous system documented by duplex ultrasound or other appropriate diagnostic technique, with A or B:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Extensive trophic changes of skin (for example, hyperpigmentation, lipodermatosclerosis, brawny edema) involving at least two-thirds of the leg below the knee, on two evaluations at least 90 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 4.00A3e), with both 1 and 2:</P>
                            <P>1. Consistent with chronic venous insufficiency; and</P>
                            <P>2. Unresponsive to compression therapy.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Two or more episodes of ulceration that have not healed following at least 6 months of prescribed treatment.</P>
                            <P>
                                4.12 
                                <E T="03">Peripheral artery disease</E>
                                 (see 4.00G7) while on a regimen of prescribed treatment resulting in intermittent claudication or leg pain that interferes with mobility (see 4.00G1), with A, B, C, or D, as determined by an appropriate test(s) (see 4.00G5-4.00G6):
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Resting ankle-brachial index of less than 0.50 (see 4.00G7b).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Decrease in systolic blood pressure at the ankle on exercise test (see 4.00G7a) of 50 percent or more of the pre-exercise level and requiring 10 minutes or more to return to pre-exercise level.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Resting toe systolic pressure of less than 30 mmHg (see 4.00G7c and 4.00G8).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. Resting toe-brachial index of less than 0.40 (see 4.00G7c).</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">4.13-4.15 [Reserved]</HD>
                            <P>
                                4.16 
                                <E T="03">Cardiac allograft vasculopathy</E>
                                 (see 4.00I5), documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging (for example, intravascular ultrasonography or coronary angiography) (see 4.00A3d), with A, B, C, or D:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                A. Cardiac index (CI) or cardiac output (CO) less than 2 l/min/m
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                .
                            </P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Left ventricular ejection fraction equal to or less than 45 percent.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Right atrial pressure (RAP) greater than 12 mmHg.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) greater than 15 mmHg.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part B</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sec.</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.00 Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.00 CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS</HD>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                A. 
                                <E T="03">How do we define cardiovascular disorders and cardiovascular terms?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What do we mean by a cardiovascular disorder?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We mean any disorder that affects the proper functioning of the heart or the circulatory system (that is, arteries, veins, capillaries, and the lymphatic drainage). The disorder can be congenital or acquired.</P>
                            <P>b. Cardiovascular disorders result from one or more of four consequences of heart disease:</P>
                            <P>(i) Chronic heart failure (chronic HF) or ventricular dysfunction.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Discomfort or pain due to myocardial ischemia, with or without necrosis of the heart muscle.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Syncope, or near syncope, due to inadequate cerebral perfusion from any cardiac cause, such as obstruction of flow or disturbance in rhythm or conduction resulting in inadequate cardiac output.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Hypoxemia (reduced oxygen concentration in the blood) due to right-to-left shunt, or pulmonary vascular disease.</P>
                            <P>c. Disorders of the veins or arteries (for example, obstruction, rupture, or aneurysm) may cause impairments of the lower extremities (peripheral vascular disease), the central nervous system, the eyes, the kidneys, and other organs. We will evaluate peripheral vascular disease under 4.11 or 4.12 in part A, and impairments of another body system(s) under the listings for that body system(s).</P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider in evaluating cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                                 The listings in this section describe cardiovascular disorders based on the medical and other evidence, including response to a regimen of prescribed treatment and functional limitations.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What do the following terms or phrases mean in these listings?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Medical consultant</E>
                                 is a person defined in § 416.1016(a) of this chapter. This term does not include medical sources who provide consultative examinations for us. We use the abbreviation “MC” throughout this section to designate a medical consultant.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. 
                                <E T="03">Persistent</E>
                                 means that the longitudinal clinical record shows that, with few exceptions, the required finding(s) has been present, or is expected to be present, for a continuous period of at least 12 months, such that a pattern of continuing severity is established. By “exceptions,” we mean brief periods when the required finding(s) is greatly reduced or gone. These periods are so brief or inconsequential, the required finding(s) remains a factor in the person's condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                c. 
                                <E T="03">Recurrent</E>
                                 means that the longitudinal clinical record shows that, within a 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40847"/>
                                consecutive 12-month period, the finding(s) occurs at least three times, with intervening periods of improvement of sufficient duration that it is clear that separate events are involved. By “improvement of sufficient duration,” we mean the finding is greatly reduced or not present for long enough that the required finding(s) is no longer a factor in the person's condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                d. 
                                <E T="03">Appropriate medically acceptable imaging</E>
                                 means that the technique used is the proper one to evaluate and diagnose the impairment and is commonly recognized as accurate for assessing the cited finding.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                e. 
                                <E T="03">A consecutive 12-month period</E>
                                 means a period of 12 consecutive months, all or part of which must occur within the period we are considering in connection with an application or continuing disability review.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                B. 
                                <E T="03">What documentation do we need to evaluate cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What basic documentation do we need?</E>
                                 We need sufficiently detailed reports of history, physical examinations, laboratory studies, and any prescribed treatment and response to allow us to assess the severity and duration of your cardiovascular disorder. A longitudinal clinical record covering a period of not less than 3 months of observations and treatment is usually necessary, unless we can make a determination or decision based on the current evidence we already have.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">Why is a longitudinal clinical record important?</E>
                                 We will usually need a longitudinal clinical record to assess the severity and expected duration of your impairment(s). If you have a listing-level impairment, you probably will have received medically prescribed treatment. Whenever there is evidence of such treatment, your longitudinal clinical record should include a description of the ongoing management and evaluation provided by your medical source(s). It should also include your response to this medical management, as well as information about the nature and severity of your impairment. The record will provide us with information on your functional status over an extended period of time and show whether your ability to function is improving, worsening, or unchanging.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What if you have not received ongoing medical treatment?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. You may not have received ongoing treatment or have an ongoing relationship with the medical community despite the existence of a severe impairment(s). In this situation, we will base our evaluation on the current evidence we have. If you do not receive treatment, you cannot show an impairment that meets the criteria of these listings. However, we may find you disabled because you have another impairment(s) that, in combination with your cardiovascular disorder, medically equals a listing or functionally equals the listings.</P>
                            <P>b. Unless we can decide your claim favorably on the basis of the current evidence we already have, a longitudinal record is still important. In instances when there is no or insufficient longitudinal evidence, we may purchase a consultative examination(s) to help us establish the existence, severity, and duration of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">When will we wait before we ask for more evidence?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will wait when we have information showing that your impairment is not yet stable and the expected change in your impairment might affect our determination or decision. In these situations, we need to wait to properly evaluate the severity and duration of your impairment during a stable period. Examples of when we might wait are:</P>
                            <P>(i) If you have had a recent acute event; for example, acute heart failure.</P>
                            <P>(ii) If you have recently had a corrective cardiac procedure; for example, open-heart surgery.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If you have started new drug therapy and your response to this treatment has not yet been established; for example, beta-blocker therapy for dilated cardiomyopathy.</P>
                            <P>b. In these situations, we will obtain more evidence 3 months following the event before we evaluate your impairment. However, we will not wait if we have enough information to make a determination or decision based on all of the relevant evidence in your case.</P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">Will we purchase any studies?</E>
                                 In appropriate situations, we may purchase studies necessary to substantiate the existence of a medically determinable impairment or to document the severity of your impairment, generally after we have evaluated the evidence we already have. We will not purchase studies involving exercise testing if there is significant risk involved or if there is another medical reason not to perform the test. We will follow sections 4.00C6, 4.00C7, 4.00C8 in part A, and 104.00B7, when we decide whether to purchase exercise testing. We will make a reasonable effort to obtain any additional studies from a qualified medical source in an office or center experienced in pediatric cardiac assessment. (See § 416.919g of this chapter.)
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">What studies will we not purchase?</E>
                                 We will not purchase any studies involving cardiac catheterization, such as coronary angiography, arteriograms, or electrophysiological studies. However, if the results of a catheterization are part of the existing evidence we have, we will consider them together with the other relevant evidence. See 4.00C15a in part A.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">Will we use exercise tolerance tests (ETT) for evaluating children with cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. ETTs, though increasingly used, are still less frequently indicated in children than in adults, and can rarely be performed successfully by children under 6 years of age. An ETT may be of value in the assessment of some arrhythmias, and may be considered in 104.05B2. ETTs may also be used in the assessment of the severity of chronic heart failure and in the assessment of recovery of function following cardiac surgery or other treatment.</P>
                            <P>b. We will purchase an ETT only if we cannot make a determination or decision based on the evidence we have and an MC, preferably one with experience in the care of children with cardiovascular disorders, has determined that an ETT is needed to evaluate your impairment. We will not purchase an ETT if you are less than 6 years of age. If we do purchase an ETT for a child age 12 or younger, it must be performed by a qualified medical source in a specialty center for pediatric cardiology or other facility qualified to perform exercise tests of children.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">c. For full details on ETT requirements and usage, see 4.00C3 in part A.</HD>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                C. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic heart failure?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is chronic heart failure (chronic HF)?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Heart failure</E>
                                 is the inability of the heart to pump enough oxygenated blood to body tissues. This syndrome is characterized by symptoms and signs of pulmonary or systemic congestion (fluid retention) or limited cardiac output. Certain laboratory findings of cardiac functional and structural abnormality support the diagnosis of chronic HF. Heart failure can range from low ejection fraction due to muscle dysfunction to preserved ejection fraction with impaired relaxation of the left ventricle. We consider heart failure to be chronic when the condition persists or recurs over time despite treatment.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. Chronic HF is considered in these listings as a single category whether due to atherosclerosis (narrowing of the arteries), cardiomyopathy, hypertension, congenital, or other heart disease. If the chronic HF is the result of primary pulmonary hypertension secondary to disease of the lung, we will evaluate your impairment under the listings in 3.00 (for example, 3.09) or 4.00 in part A, as appropriate.</P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">What evidence of chronic HF do we need?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Cardiomegaly or ventricular dysfunction must be present and demonstrated by appropriate medically acceptable imaging, such as cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), chest x-ray, echocardiography (M-Mode, 2-dimensional, and Doppler), radionuclide studies, or cardiac catheterization. Other findings on appropriate medically acceptable imaging may include increased ventricular volume, increased pulmonary vascular markings, pleural effusion, and pulmonary edema.</P>
                            <P>b. Your medical history and physical examination should describe characteristic symptoms and signs of pulmonary or systemic congestion (fluid retention) or of limited cardiac output associated with the abnormal findings on appropriate medically acceptable imaging. When an acute episode of heart failure is triggered by a remediable factor, such as an arrhythmia, dietary sodium overload, or high altitude, cardiac function may be restored and a chronic impairment may not be present.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) Symptoms of congestion or of limited cardiac output include easy fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, feeding intolerance, gastrointestinal distress, or chest discomfort at rest or with activity. Children with chronic HF may also experience shortness of breath on lying flat (orthopnea) or episodes of shortness of breath that wake them from sleep (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea). They may also experience cardiac arrhythmias resulting in palpitations, lightheadedness, or fainting. Fatigue or exercise intolerance in an infant may result in prolonged feeding time or tube 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40848"/>
                                feeding, often associated with excessive respiratory effort and sweating.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) Other manifestations of chronic HF may include repeated lower respiratory tract infections, wheezing, or growth failure (failure to thrive).</P>
                            <P>(iii) Signs of congestion may include hepatomegaly, ascites, increased jugular venous distention or pressure, rales, peripheral edema, rapid shallow breathing (tachypnea), or rapid weight gain. However, these signs need not be found on all examinations because congestion may be controlled by prescribed treatment or may not be present at the time of evaluation.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate growth failure due to chronic HF?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. To evaluate growth failure due to chronic HF, we require documentation of the clinical findings of chronic HF described in 104.00C2 and the growth measurements in 104.02C within the same consecutive 12-month period. The dates of clinical findings may be different from the dates of growth measurements.</P>
                            <P>b. Under 104.02C, we use the appropriate table(s) under 105.08B in the digestive system to determine whether your growth is less than the third percentile.</P>
                            <P>(i) If you have not attained age 2, we use the weight-for-length table corresponding to your sex (Table I or Table II).</P>
                            <P>(ii) If you have attained age 2 but have not attained age 18, we use the body mass index (BMI)-for-age table corresponding to your sex (Table III or Table IV).</P>
                            <P>(iii) BMI is the ratio of your weight to the square of your height. We calculate BMI using the formulas in the digestive disorders body system (105.00).</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic HF treated with a mechanical circulatory support device?</E>
                                 We use 104.02D to evaluate chronic HF treated with an implanted mechanical circulatory support device (MCSD), such as a left ventricle assistive device (LVAD) or a right ventricle assistive device (RVAD). Implanted MCSDs are intended for long-term circulatory support in helping the heart pump blood. For the purposes of 104.02D, an MCSD does not include extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) or devices using Impella technology. Although these are forms of mechanical circulatory support, we do not include them in 104.02D because they are intended only for short-term circulatory support (maximum 30 days), used in a setting of imminent or actual cardiac arrest.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                D. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate congenital heart disease?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is congenital heart disease? Congenital heart disease</E>
                                 is any abnormality of the heart or the major blood vessels that is present at birth. Congenital heart disease includes abnormal structure of the individual heart chambers, valves, and blood vessels, and abnormal relative relationship of the chambers to each other that alters the normal pattern of blood flow. Surgery or an interventional catheterization procedure is the usual treatment, and with improving surgical techniques and medical management, more children with congenital heart disease are surviving into adulthood. Examples of congenital heart disease include:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Abnormalities of cardiac septation,</E>
                                 including atrial or ventricular septal defect or atrioventricular canal;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. 
                                <E T="03">Abnormalities resulting in cyanotic heart disease,</E>
                                 including tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, truncus arteriosus, total anomalous pulmonary venous return, or Epstein malformation;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                c. 
                                <E T="03">Valvular defects with obstructions or regurgitation to ventricular inflow or outflow,</E>
                                 including pulmonary or aortic stenosis, pulmonary atresia, or coarctation of the aorta; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                d. 
                                <E T="03">Major abnormalities of ventricular development,</E>
                                 including hypoplastic left heart syndrome or tricuspid atresia with hypoplastic right ventricle.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate conditions associated with congenital heart disease?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. We will evaluate congenital heart disease that results in chronic HF with evidence of ventricular dysfunction or in recurrent arrhythmias under 104.02 or 104.05, respectively. Otherwise, we will evaluate your impairment under 104.06.</P>
                            <P>b. We need pulse oximetry measurements documented by medical sources using methods consistent with the prevailing state of medical knowledge and clinical practice to evaluate chronic hypoxemia in congenital heart disease under 104.06A3. These pulse oximetry measurements also must be consistent with the other evidence in the case record.</P>
                            <P>c. For 104.06D, life-threatening congenital heart disease does not include single ventricle; we evaluate single ventricle physiology separately under 104.06C. When we evaluate life-threatening congenital heart disease under 104.06D, we consider whether it responds to surgical treatment and, therefore, may not meet the 12-month duration requirement. Examples of impairments that in most instances will require life-saving surgery or a combination of surgery and other major interventional procedures (for example, multiple “balloon” catheter procedures) before age 1 include, but are not limited to, the following:</P>
                            <P>(i) Critical aortic stenosis with neonatal heart failure;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Critical coarctation of the aorta, with associated anomalies;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Complete atrioventricular canal defects;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Transposition of the great arteries;</P>
                            <P>(v) Tetralogy of Fallot; and</P>
                            <P>(vi) Multiple ventricular septal defects.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What is Eisenmenger syndrome?</E>
                                 Eisenmenger syndrome refers to any surgically untreated congenital heart defect with intracardiac communication that over time leads to pulmonary hypertension, reversal of blood flow, and hypoxemia.
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Lesions in Eisenmenger syndrome, such as large septal defects, are characterized by elevated pulmonary pressures or a high pulmonary flow rate. In response, the pulmonary blood vessels pathologically change, leading eventually to pulmonary hypertension. Development of Eisenmenger syndrome represents a point at which pulmonary hypertension is irreversible and the cardiac lesion is likely inoperable.</P>
                            <P>b. Examples of congenital heart disease that if untreated may cause pulmonary vascular disease leading to Eisenmenger syndrome include atrial septal defect (ASD), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). We evaluate Eisenmenger syndrome under 104.06A or 104.06B.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What is single ventricle?</E>
                                 The term “single ventricle” (also known as “single ventricle physiology” or “functional single ventricle”) describes a diverse group of congenital cardiac anomalies sharing the common feature that only one of the two heart ventricles is adequately developed. At birth, one ventricle must functionally do the work of two, pumping blood for both the body (systemic) and the lungs (pulmonary). Because of this feature, the ultimate plan for cardiac reconstruction is similar for most of these anomalies. People with single ventricle will generally undergo staged reconstructive “Fontan procedures,” ultimately resulting in a “Fontan circulation.” Fontan circulation describes the hemodynamic state in which virtually all systemic venous return-blood passively flows directly into the pulmonary arteries via surgical or catheter-placed shunts, without (the blood) passing through a ventricle. The Fontan circulation results in difficulties augmenting, and sometimes maintaining, cardiac output. Some of the anomalies described as single ventricle include the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(a) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome;</P>
                            <P>(b) Hypoplastic right ventricle;</P>
                            <P>(c) Tricuspid valve atresia;</P>
                            <P>(d) Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum;</P>
                            <P>(e) Double inlet left ventricle; and</P>
                            <P>(f) Some variations of double outlet right ventricle.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                E. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate arrhythmias?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is an arrhythmia?</E>
                                 An 
                                <E T="03">arrhythmia</E>
                                 is a change in the regular beat of the heart. Your heart may seem to skip a beat or beat irregularly, very quickly (tachycardia), or very slowly (bradycardia). Although we use the term “arrhythmia” in the listings, the term “dysrhythmia” may also be used in the medical evidence to describe this condition.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2.
                                <E T="03"> What are the different types of arrhythmias?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. There are many types of arrhythmias. Arrhythmias are identified by where they occur in the heart (atria or ventricles) and by what happens to the heart's rhythm when they occur.</P>
                            <P>b. Arrhythmias arising in the cardiac atria (upper chambers of the heart) are called atrial or supraventricular arrhythmias. Ventricular arrhythmias begin in the ventricles (lower chambers). In general, ventricular arrhythmias caused by heart disease are the most serious.</P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate arrhythmias using 104.05?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. We will use 104.05 when you have arrhythmias that are not fully controlled by medication, an implanted pacemaker, or an implanted cardiac defibrillator, and you have recurrent episodes of syncope or near syncope. If your arrhythmias are controlled, we will evaluate your underlying heart disease using the appropriate listing. For other considerations when we evaluate arrhythmias in the presence of an implanted cardiac defibrillator, see 104.00E4.
                                <PRTPAGE P="40849"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. We consider 
                                <E T="03">near syncope</E>
                                 to be a period of altered consciousness, since 
                                <E T="03">syncope</E>
                                 is a loss of consciousness or a faint. It is not merely a feeling of light-headedness, momentary weakness, or dizziness.
                            </P>
                            <P>c. For purposes of 104.05, there must be a documented association between the syncope or near syncope and the recurrent arrhythmia. The recurrent arrhythmia, not some other cardiac or non-cardiac disorder, must be established as the cause of the associated symptom. This documentation of the association between the symptoms and the arrhythmia may come from the usual diagnostic methods, including Holter monitoring (also called ambulatory electrocardiography) and tilt-table testing with a concurrent ECG. Although an arrhythmia may be a coincidental finding on an ETT, we will not purchase an ETT to document the presence of a cardiac arrhythmia.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider when you have an implanted cardiac defibrillator and you do not have arrhythmias that meet the requirements of 104.05?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Implanted cardiac defibrillators are used to prevent sudden cardiac death in children who have had, or are at high risk for, cardiac arrest from life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. The largest group of children at risk for sudden cardiac death consists of children with cardiomyopathy (ischemic or non-ischemic) and reduced ventricular function. However, life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias can also occur in children with little or no ventricular dysfunction. The shock from the implanted cardiac defibrillator rescues a child from what may have been cardiac arrest. However, as a consequence of the shock(s), similar to the effects of treatments for other cardiovascular disease, a child may experience psychological distress, which we may evaluate under the listings in 112.00.</P>
                            <P>b. Most implantable cardiac defibrillators have rhythm-correcting and pacemaker capabilities. In some children, these functions may result in the termination of ventricular arrhythmias without an otherwise painful shock. (The shock is like being kicked in the chest.) Implanted cardiac defibrillators may deliver inappropriate shocks, often repeatedly, in response to benign arrhythmias or electrical malfunction. Also, exposure to strong electrical or magnetic fields, such as from magnetic resonance imaging, can trigger or reprogram an implanted cardiac defibrillator, resulting in inappropriate shocks. We must consider the frequency of, and the reason(s) for, the shocks when evaluating the severity and duration of your impairment.</P>
                            <P>c. In general, the exercise limitations imposed on children with an implanted cardiac defibrillator are those dictated by the underlying heart impairment. However, the exercise limitations may be greater when the implanted cardiac defibrillator delivers an inappropriate shock in response to the increase in heart rate with exercise, or when there is exercise-induced ventricular arrhythmia.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                F. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate other cardiovascular disorders?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">What is ischemic heart disease (IHD) and how do we evaluate it in children?</E>
                                 IHD results when one or more of your coronary arteries is narrowed or obstructed or, in rare situations, constricted due to vasospasm, interfering with the normal flow of blood to your heart muscle (ischemia). The obstruction may be the result of an embolus, a thrombus, or plaque. When heart muscle tissue dies as a result of the reduced blood supply, it is called a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Ischemia is rare in children, but when it occurs, its effects on children are the same as on adults. If you have IHD, we evaluate it under 4.04 in part A.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate hypertension? Hypertension</E>
                                 (high blood pressure) generally causes disability in children through its effects on other body systems, such as the brain, kidneys, or eyes, and we will evaluate these impairments by reference to the specific body system(s) that is affected. We also consider any limitations imposed by your hypertension when we consider whether you have an impairment that functionally equals the listings.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">What is cardiomyopathy and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Cardiomyopathy</E>
                                 is a disease of the heart muscle. The heart loses its ability to pump blood (heart failure), and in some instances, heart rhythm is disturbed, leading to irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias). Usually, the exact cause of the muscle damage is never found (idiopathic cardiomyopathy).
                            </P>
                            <P>b. There are various types of cardiomyopathy, which fall into two major categories: ischemic and nonischemic cardiomyopathy. Ischemic cardiomyopathy typically refers to heart muscle damage that results from coronary artery disease, including heart attacks. Nonischemic cardiomyopathy includes, but is not limited to several types: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic.</P>
                            <P>c. We evaluate cardiomyopathy under 4.04 in part A, 104.02, or 104.05, depending on its effects on you.</P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate valvular heart disease?</E>
                                 We evaluate aortic valvular disease under 4.07 in part A. We may also evaluate aortic valvular disease, as well as other forms of valvular disease, under 4.04 in part A, 104.02, 104.05, 104.06, or a listing in 111.00, depending on its effects on you.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">What do we consider when we evaluate heart transplant recipients?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>a. After your heart transplant, we consider you disabled under 104.09 for 1 year following the surgery because there is a greater likelihood of rejection of the organ and infection during the first year. If you develop cardiac allograft vasculopathy after your transplant, we will evaluate this impairment under 104.16.</P>
                            <P>b. However, heart transplant patients generally meet our definition of disability before they undergo transplantation. We will determine the onset of your disability based on the facts in your case.</P>
                            <P>c. We will not assume that you became disabled when your name was placed on a transplant waiting list. This is because you may be placed on a waiting list soon after diagnosis of the cardiac disorder that may eventually require a transplant. Physicians recognize that candidates for transplantation often have to wait months or even years before a suitable donor heart is found, so they place their patients on the list as soon as permitted.</P>
                            <P>d. When we do a continuing disability review to determine whether you are still disabled, we will evaluate your residual impairment(s), as shown by the evidence in your case record, including any side effects of medication. We will consider all evidence indicative of cardiac dysfunction in deciding whether medical improvement (as defined in § 416.994a of this chapter) has occurred.</P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate chronic rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease?</E>
                                 We evaluate rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease under the listing appropriate to its effects on you, which may include heart failure or recurrent arrhythmias. If you have evidence of chronic heart failure or recurrent arrhythmias associated with rheumatic heart disease, we evaluate these disorders under 104.02 or 104.05, respectively.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">What is hyperlipidemia and how do we evaluate it? Hyperlipidemia</E>
                                 is the general term for an elevation of any or all of the lipids (fats or cholesterol) in the blood; for example, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercholesterolemia, and hyperlipoproteinemia. These disorders of lipoprotein metabolism and transport can cause defects throughout the body. The effects most likely to interfere with function are those produced by atherosclerosis (narrowing of the arteries) and coronary artery disease. We evaluate your lipoprotein disorder by considering its effects on you.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                8. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate Kawasaki disease?</E>
                                 We evaluate Kawasaki disease under the listing appropriate to its effects on you, which may include major coronary artery aneurysm or heart failure. A major coronary artery aneurysm may cause ischemia or arrhythmia, which we evaluate under 4.04 in part A or 104.05. We will evaluate chronic heart failure under 104.02.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                9. 
                                <E T="03">What is lymphedema and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Lymphedema</E>
                                 is edema of the extremities due to a disorder of the lymphatic circulation; at its worst, it is called elephantiasis. Primary lymphedema is caused by abnormal development of lymph vessels and may be present at birth (congenital lymphedema), but more often develops during the teens (lymphedema praecox). Secondary lymphedema is due to obstruction or destruction of normal lymphatic channels due to tumor, surgery, repeated infections, or parasitic infection such as filariasis. Lymphedema most commonly affects one extremity. Symptoms of lymphedema include but are not limited to swelling in an extremity, changes in skin, and pain or sensory changes in the affected area. The symptoms may limit movement in affected joints.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. Lymphedema does not meet the requirements of 4.11 in part A, although it may medically equal the listing. We evaluate lymphedema by considering whether the underlying cause meets or medically equals any listing or whether the lymphedema 
                                <PRTPAGE P="40850"/>
                                medically equals a cardiovascular disorders listing, such as 4.11 in part A, or a listing in 101.00 or 114.00. If no listing is met or medically equaled, we evaluate any functional limitations imposed by your lymphedema when we consider whether you have an impairment(s) that functionally equals the listings.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                10. 
                                <E T="03">What is Marfan syndrome and how do we evaluate it?</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                a. 
                                <E T="03">Marfan syndrome</E>
                                 is a genetic connective tissue disorder that affects multiple body systems, including the skeleton, eyes, heart, blood vessels, nervous system, skin, and lungs. There is no specific laboratory test to diagnose Marfan syndrome. The diagnosis is generally made by medical history (including family history), physical examination (including an evaluation of the ratio of arm/leg size to trunk size), a slit lamp eye examination, and a heart test(s) (such as an echocardiogram). In some cases, a genetic analysis may be useful, but such analyses may not provide any additional helpful information.
                            </P>
                            <P>b. The effects of Marfan syndrome can range from mild to severe. In most cases, the disorder progresses as you age. Most people with Marfan syndrome have abnormalities associated with the heart and blood vessels. Your heart's mitral valve may leak, causing a heart murmur. Small leaks may not cause symptoms, but larger ones may cause shortness of breath, fatigue, and palpitations. Another effect is that the wall of the aorta may be weakened and stretch (aortic dilation). This aortic dilation may tear, dissect, or rupture, causing serious heart problems or sometimes sudden death. We evaluate the cardiovascular manifestations of your Marfan syndrome under the appropriate criteria, such as 4.10 in part A, or, if necessary, consider the functional limitations imposed by your impairment.</P>
                            <P>c. Other genetic connective tissue disorders, such as Loeys-Dietz syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, may have abnormalities associated with the heart and blood vessels. We evaluate the cardiovascular manifestations of your genetic connective tissue disorder under the appropriate criteria, such as 4.10 in part A, or, if necessary, consider the functional limitations imposed by your impairment.</P>
                            <P>
                                11. 
                                <E T="03">What is cardiac allograft vasculopathy and how do we evaluate it? Cardiac allograft vasculopathy</E>
                                 (CAV) may affect a person who has received a heart transplant and involves thickening in the walls of the coronary arteries that may progress quickly into serious vascular stenosis and heart dysfunction. Stenosis in CAV is caused by a pathological process different from classic atherosclerosis and treatment often is only palliative. We evaluate CAV under 104.16.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                G. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate other issues that affect the cardiovascular system?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">1. How do we consider the effects of obesity when we evaluate your cardiovascular disorder? Obesity</E>
                                 is a medically determinable impairment that may be associated with cardiovascular disorders. The additional body mass may make it harder for the chest and lungs to expand or may cause the heart to work harder to pump blood to carry oxygen to the body. The combined effects of obesity with a cardiovascular disorder can be greater than the effects of each of the impairments considered separately. We consider the additional and cumulative effects of obesity when we determine whether you have a severe cardiovascular disorder, a listing-level cardiovascular disorder, a combination of impairments that medically equals the severity of a listed impairment, and when we determine whether your impairment(s) functionally equals the listings.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">How do we relate treatment to functional status?</E>
                                 In general, conclusions about the severity of a cardiovascular disorder cannot be made on the basis of the type of treatment rendered or anticipated. The amount of function restored and the time required for improvement after treatment (medical, surgical, or a prescribed program of progressive physical activity) vary with the nature and extent of the disorder, the type of treatment, and other factors. Depending upon the timing of this treatment in relation to the alleged onset date of disability, we may need to defer evaluation of the impairment for a period of up to 3 months from the date treatment began to permit consideration of treatment effects, unless we can make a determination or decision using the evidence we have. See 104.00B4.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">How do we consider hospitalizations?</E>
                                 The hospitalizations in 104.02E and 104.06E do not all have to be for the same exacerbation or complication of your cardiovascular disorder(s). They may be for three different exacerbations or complications resulting from your cardiovascular disorder. The hospitalizations must be at least 30 days apart, and each one must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization.
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                                H. 
                                <E T="03">How do we evaluate cardiovascular disorders that do not meet one of these listings?</E>
                            </HD>
                            <P>1. These listings are only examples of common cardiovascular disorders that we consider severe enough to result in marked and severe functional limitations. If your impairment(s) does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we must also consider whether you have an impairment(s) that satisfies the criteria of a listing in another body system.</P>
                            <P>2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing. See § 416.926 of this chapter. If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, we will also consider whether it functionally equals the listings. See § 416.926a of this chapter. We will use the rules in § 416.994a of this chapter when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.01 Category of Impairments, Cardiovascular Disorders</HD>
                            <P>
                                104.02 
                                <E T="03">Chronic heart failure</E>
                                 (see 104.00C) while on a regimen of prescribed treatment with symptoms and signs described in 104.00C2, and with A, B, C, D, or E:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Persistent tachycardia at rest measured at least twice within a consecutive 12-month period and at least 90 days apart documented by apical heart rate greater than or equal to the value in Table I.</P>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,12">
                                <TTITLE>Table I—Tachycardia—At Rest</TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1">Age</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1">
                                        Apical heart rate
                                        <LI>(beats per minute)</LI>
                                    </CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">Under 1 year</ENT>
                                    <ENT>150</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">1 through 3 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>130</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">4 through 9 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>120</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">10 through 15 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>110</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">Over 15 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>100</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>
                                B. Persistent tachypnea at rest measured at least twice within a consecutive 12-month period and at least 90 days apart documented by respiratory rate greater than or equal to the value in Table II 
                                <E T="03">or</E>
                                 markedly decreased exercise tolerance (see 104.00C2b).
                            </P>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,12">
                                <TTITLE>Table II—Tachypnea—At Rest</TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1">Age</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1">
                                        Respiratory rate
                                        <LI>(per minute)</LI>
                                    </CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">Under 1 year</ENT>
                                    <ENT>40</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">1 through 5 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>35</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">6 through 9 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>30</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">Over 9 years</ENT>
                                    <ENT>25</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Growth failure as required in 1 or 2:</P>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">For children from birth to attainment of age 2,</E>
                                 three weight-for-length measurements that are:
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Within a consecutive 12-month period; and</P>
                            <P>b. At least 60 days apart; and</P>
                            <P>c. Less than the third percentile on the appropriate weight-for-length table under 105.08B1; or</P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">For children age 2 to attainment of age 18,</E>
                                 three BMI-for-age measurements that are:
                            </P>
                            <P>a. Within a consecutive 12-month period; and</P>
                            <P>b. At least 60 days apart; and</P>
                            <P>c. Less than the third percentile on the appropriate BMI-for-age table under 105.08B2.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. An implanted mechanical circulatory support device (except an extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) while hospitalized, at home, or both (see 104.00C4). Consider under a disability for 1 year from the date of implantation; after that, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>
                                E. Exacerbations or complications of chronic heart failure (see 104.00C1b) requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 104.00G3).
                                <PRTPAGE P="40851"/>
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.03-104.04 [Reserved]</HD>
                            <P>
                                104.05 
                                <E T="03">Recurrent arrhythmias</E>
                                 (see 104.00E), not related to reversible causes such as electrolyte abnormalities or digitalis glycoside or antiarrhythmic drug toxicity, while on a regimen of prescribed treatment (see 104.00B3 if there is no prescribed treatment), demonstrated by both A and B:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Coincident with recurrent (see 104.00A3c) episodes of cardiac syncope or near syncope (see 104.00E3b).</P>
                            <P>AND</P>
                            <P>B. Documented by either 1 or 2:</P>
                            <P>1. Resting or ambulatory (Holter) electrocardiography; or</P>
                            <P>2. Other appropriate medically acceptable testing.</P>
                            <P>
                                104.06 
                                <E T="03">Congenital heart disease</E>
                                 (see 104.00D), documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging (see 104.00A3d) or cardiac catheterization, with A, B, C, D, or E:
                            </P>
                            <P>A. Chronic hypoxemia, and 1, 2, or 3:</P>
                            <P>1. Hematocrit of 55 percent or greater on two evaluations at least 90 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 104.00A3e); or</P>
                            <P>2. Arterial blood gas test measurement obtained at rest while breathing room air, as described in either a or b:</P>
                            <P>
                                a. S
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (arterial oxygen saturation) less than or equal to 89 percent; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                b. PO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 or P
                                <E T="52">a</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (partial pressure of oxygen) less than or equal to 60 mmHg; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. S
                                <E T="52">p</E>
                                O
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 (percentage of oxygen saturation of blood hemoglobin) measured by pulse oximetry either at rest, or after activity, while breathing room air, less than or equal to 87 percent on three evaluations at least 30 days apart within a consecutive 12-month period (see 104.00A3e).
                            </P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>B. Pulmonary hypertension documented by cardiac catheterization while medically stable, as described in 1, 2, or 3:</P>
                            <P>1. Pulmonary arterial systolic pressure elevated to at least 70 percent of the systemic arterial systolic pressure; or</P>
                            <P>2. Pulmonary arterial systolic pressure equal to or greater than 70 mmHg; or</P>
                            <P>3. Mean pulmonary artery pressure equal to or greater than 40 mmHg.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>C. Single ventricle (for example, hypoplastic left or right ventricle) that has or will require Fontan procedures (see 104.00D4).</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>D. For infants under 1 year of age at the time of filing, with life-threatening congenital heart disease (see 104.00D2c) that will require or already has required surgical treatment in the first year of life, and the impairment is expected to be disabling (because of residual impairment following surgery, or the recovery time required, or both) until the attainment of at least 1 year of age, consider under a disability until the attainment of at least age 1; after that, evaluate impairment severity with the appropriate listing.</P>
                            <P>OR</P>
                            <P>E. Exacerbations or complications of congenital heart disease (see 104.00D) requiring three hospitalizations within a consecutive 12-month period (see 104.00A3e) and at least 30 days apart. Each hospitalization must last at least 48 hours, including hours in a hospital emergency department immediately before the hospitalization (see 104.00G3).</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.07-104.08 [Reserved]</HD>
                            <P>
                                104.09 
                                <E T="03">Heart transplantation</E>
                                 (see 104.00F5). Consider under a disability for 1 year from the date of the transplant; after that, evaluate the residual impairment(s).
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">104.10-104.15 [Reserved]</HD>
                            <P>
                                104.16 
                                <E T="03">Cardiac allograft vasculopathy</E>
                                 (see 104.00F11), documented by appropriate medically acceptable imaging (for example, intravascular ultrasonography or coronary angiography).
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">114.00 Immune System Disorders</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>J. * * *</P>
                            <P>2. * * *</P>
                            <P>m. Syphilis or neurosyphilis under the criteria for the affected body system; for example, 102.00 Special senses and speech, 104.00 Cardiovascular disorders, or 111.00 Neurological.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13420 Filed 7-1-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>126</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 2, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="40853"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <PRES>The President</PRES>
            <PROC>Proclamation 11038—Declaration of Emergency and Authorization for Temporary Duty-Free Importation of Phosphate Fertilizer From Morocco</PROC>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRESDOCS>
            <PRESDOCU>
                <PROCLA>
                    <TITLE3>Title 3— </TITLE3>
                    <PRES>
                        The President
                        <PRTPAGE P="40855"/>
                    </PRES>
                    <PROC>Proclamation 11038 of June 29, 2026</PROC>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Declaration of Emergency and Authorization for Temporary Duty-Free Importation of Phosphate Fertilizer From Morocco</HD>
                    <PRES>By the President of the United States of America</PRES>
                    <PROC>A Proclamation</PROC>
                    <FP>1. Fertilizers are an essential component of agriculture and food production. Producers of corn, soybeans, wheat, and a variety of other crops need phosphate fertilizers to ensure strong crop yields to feed the population. Food production is critical to human health, farm security, and to the function of major sectors of the economy, and even isolated interruptions in food production can have serious health and economic consequences. Robust and reliable food production is therefore critical to the economic and national security of the United States.</FP>
                    <FP>2. During the planting and growing season, soil and crops require critical nutrients, including the phosphorus supplied by phosphate fertilizers, and in the coming months, farmers will apply more than half of annually consumed phosphate fertilizers between the fall and very early spring prior to next spring's planting. To ensure a stable food supply, predictable and timely sources of phosphate fertilizer must be procured to meet United States demand, which requires adequate supply of phosphate fertilizer, a critical type of plant food.</FP>
                    <FP>3. Global supply chains for phosphate fertilizer and fertilizer inputs, including imports of such products into the United States, have been disrupted in recent months by, among other things, conflicts in fertilizer-producing regions as well as trade actions taken by major fertilizer-producing countries. For example, the United States' largest foreign source of phosphate fertilizer has experienced supply chain disruption, placing additional pressure on the farm economy and the production of certain categories of domestic food. Persistent threats to the global fertilizer supply chain, which create rapid price increases and procurement challenges, require the United States to procure phosphate fertilizer from diversified foreign sources to mitigate the significant risk of harm to the agricultural food production of the United States.</FP>
                    <FP>4. Currently, United States production of phosphate fertilizer is insufficient to support domestic agricultural food production after accounting for exports. The Federal Government is working with the private sector to expand domestic fertilizer manufacturing capacity, but those efforts will take time to increase the supply materially. Immediate action is necessary and appropriate to ensure in the interim that United States farmers have access to a sufficient and timely supply of phosphate fertilizers during the planting and growing season, to ensure a stable domestic crop supply, and to meet our food production needs.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        5. Producers in countries such as the Kingdom of Morocco can supply phosphate fertilizers to the United States without disruption at this time. It is imperative to immediately facilitate importation of phosphate fertilizers from the Kingdom of Morocco to mitigate the significant risk to the agricultural food production of the United States, to safeguard the economic and national security of the United States, and to ensure a stable domestic food supply.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40856"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP>6. Section 318(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1318(a)) (section 318), authorizes the President to declare an emergency for a reason described in section 318(a) and to authorize the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce, as appropriate and consistent with applicable law, to permit, during the continuance of such emergency, the importation free of duty of food, clothing, and medical, surgical, and other supplies for use in emergency relief work.</FP>
                    <FP>NOW, THEREFORE, I, DONALD J. TRUMP, President of the United States of America, by the authority vested in me by the Constitution and the laws of the United States, including section 318 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, do hereby declare an emergency to exist with respect to the threats to the availability of sufficient supplies of fertilizers to meet expected agricultural demand. Pursuant to this declaration, I hereby direct as follows:</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(1) To provide additional authority to the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce to respond to the emergency declared in this proclamation, the authority under section 318 is invoked and made available, according to its terms, to the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce. The Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce shall, when appropriate, consult with each other before exercising the authority under section 318.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(2) To provide relief from the emergency declared in this proclamation, the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce, after consultation with the Secretary of Homeland Security, shall take appropriate action within their respective authorities under section 318 to permit until the earlier of 8 months after the date of this proclamation or the termination of the emergency declared in this proclamation, under such regulations and under such conditions as the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce may use or prescribe, the importation, free of the collection of duties and deposits of estimated duties, if applicable, under sections 1671, 1675, and 1677j of title 19, United States Code, of phosphate fertilizers of the Kingdom of Morocco, and to temporarily extend during such 8-month period or the course of the emergency, as applicable, the time therein prescribed for the performance of any act related to such imports.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(3) Pursuant to section 318, the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with any senior official they deem appropriate, shall monitor and review the status of circumstances related to the emergency declared in this proclamation. The Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Commerce shall also inform the President of any circumstance that, in their opinion, might indicate the need for further action by the President, including under section 318.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(4) The Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary of Commerce, when appropriate, shall report to the Congress any action taken under the provisions of section 318.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(5) Any provision of previous proclamations and Executive Orders that is inconsistent with this proclamation is superseded to the extent of such inconsistency. If any provision of this proclamation or the application of any provision to any individual or circumstance is held to be invalid, the remainder of this proclamation and the application of its provisions to any other individuals or circumstances shall not be affected.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(6)(a) Nothing in this proclamation shall be construed to impair or otherwise affect:</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) the authority granted by law to an executive department or agency, or the head thereof; or</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) the functions of the Director of the Office of Management and Budget relating to budgetary, administrative, or legislative proposals.</FP>
                    <P>
                        (b) This proclamation shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
                        <PRTPAGE P="40857"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(c) This proclamation is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.</P>
                    <FP>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, I have hereunto set my hand this twenty-ninth day of June, in the year of our Lord two thousand twenty-six, and of the Independence of the United States of America the two hundred and fiftieth.</FP>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="80" HTYPE="RIGHT">
                        <GID>Trump.EPS</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PSIG> </PSIG>
                    <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13588 </FRDOC>
                    <FILED>Filed 7-1-26; 11:15 am]</FILED>
                    <BILCOD>Billing code 3395-F4-P</BILCOD>
                </PROCLA>
            </PRESDOCU>
        </PRESDOCS>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
