A notice of intent was published in the Federal Register on October 23, 2018, 83 FR 53443-53444; a notice of availability (NOA) for the draft EIS on August 28, 2020, 85 FR 53366. The final EIS was published in the Federal Register on September 10, 2021, 86 FR 50713-50714. The Flathead National Forest's decision to withdraw the EIS and draft ROD in its entirety is based on the results of recent field work concerning resource conditions.

  Incident identifier Postponement identifier Review board decision 2024-003-019 2024-NARA-03-1206 and 2024-NARA-03-1207 Approve. 2024-003-019 2024-NARA-03-1208 through 2024-NARA-03-1210 Reject. 2024-003-019 2024-NARA-03-1211 and 2024-NARA-03-1212 Approve. 2024-003-019 2024-NARA-03-1213 through 2024-NARA-03-1215 Reject. 2024-003-019 2024-NARA-03-1216 Approve. 2024-003-057 2025-NARA-03-0349 through 2025-NARA-03-0351 Reject. 2024-004-018 2025-NARA-04-0031 through 2025-NARA-04-0047 Reject. 2024-004-018 2025-NARA-04-0048 Approve with changes. 2024-004-018 2025-NARA-04-0049 through 2025-NARA-04-0051 Reject. 2024-004-018 2025-NARA-04-0052 through 2025-NARA-04-0056 Approve. 2024-004-018 2025-NARA-04-0057 through 2025-NARA-04-0060 Reject.

Authority: Pub. L. 115-426, 132 Stat. 5489 (44 U.S.C. 2107).

On February 10, 2026, Commerce published the Preliminary Results and invited interested parties to comment. 1 On March 3, 2026, TAK submitted a timely-filed case brief. 2 No other interested party filed a case or rebuttal brief.

Due to the lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days. 3 Additionally, due to a backlog of documents that were electronically filed via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) during the Federal Government shutdown, on November 24, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by an additional 21 days. 4 Accordingly, the deadline for these final results is now June 10, 2026.

For a complete description of the events that occurred since the Preliminary Results, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum. 5 The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's ACCESS System. ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The merchandise covered by the Order is synthetic staple fibers, not carded or combed, specifically bi-component polyester fibers having a polyester fiber component that melts at a lower temperature than the other polyester fiber component (low melt PSF). For a full description of the scope of the Order, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum.

The issue raised in TAK's case brief is addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of topics discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached as an appendix to this notice.

Based on a review of the record and comment received from TAK regarding the Preliminary Results, we made no changes to the margin calculations for TAK. 7

As a result of this review, we determine that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists for the period August 1, 2023, through July 31, 2024.

Normally, Commerce discloses to interested parties the calculations of the final results of an administrative review within five days of a public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of the final results in the Federal Register ,in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). However, because we have made no changes to the Preliminary Results, there are no new calculations to disclose.

Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b), Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise covered by this review.

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), where the respondent reported the entered value of its U.S. sales, we calculated importer-specific assessment rates based on the ratio of the total amount of dumping calculated for each importer's examined sales and the total entered value of those same sales. Where the respondent did not report entered value, we calculated a per-unit assessment rate for each importer by dividing the total amount of dumping calculated for the examined sales made to that importer by the total quantity associated with those sales. To determine whether an importer-specific, per-unit assessment rate is de minimis ( i.e., less than 0.5 percent), in accordance with 19 CFR 351.106(c)(2), we also calculated an importer-specific ad valorem rate based on estimated entered values. Where either the respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is zero or de minimis, within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), or an importer-specific rate is zero or de minimis, we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.

In accordance with Commerce's “automatic assessment” practice, for entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by TAK for which it did not know that its merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate those entries at the all-others rate established in the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation ( i.e., 16.27 percent)  8 if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction. 9

Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the Federal Register . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired ( i.e., within 90 days of publication).

Upon publication of this notice in the Federal Register , the following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) the cash deposit rate for the company subject to this review will be equal to the company-specific weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of the review; (2) for merchandise exported by producers or exporters not covered in this review but covered in a prior completed segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published in the completed segment for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original LTFV investigation, but the producer has been covered in a prior completed segment of this proceeding, then the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the completed segment for the most recent period for the producer of the merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will continue to be 16.27 percent, the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation for this proceeding. 10 These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.

This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.

This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.

We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).

On August 8, 2025, Commerce published the Preliminary Results and invited interested parties to comment. 1 Due to the lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days. 2 Additionally, due to a backlog of documents that were electronically filed via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) during the Federal Government shutdown, on November 24, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by an additional 21 days. 3 On January 22, 2026, Commerce extended the deadline for the final results by an additional 53 days. 4 On April 2, 2026, Commerce extended the deadline for the final results by an additional seven days. 5 Accordingly, the deadline for these final results is now April 13, 2026. 6

For a detailed description of the events that occurred after the Preliminary Results, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum. 7 The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via ACCESS. ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The products covered by the Order are phosphate fertilizers. For a complete description of the scope of this Order, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum.

All issues raised by interested parties in briefs are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised by parties in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is provided in the appendix to this notice.

Based on our analysis of comments from interested parties and the evidence on the record, we made certain revisions to the subsidy calculations for JSC Apatit found in the Preliminary Results. These changes are explained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.

Commerce conducted this administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, we find that there is a subsidy, i.e., a government-provided financial contribution that gives rise to a benefit to the recipient, and that the subsidy is specific. For a full description of the methodology underlying all of Commerce's conclusions, including our reliance, in part, on facts otherwise available, including adverse facts available, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum.

In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4)(i), we calculated an individual net countervailable subsidy rate for JSC Apatit. We determine the following net countervailable subsidy rate for the POR of January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:

Commerce intends to disclose the calculations performed for these final results of review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).

Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), Commerce has determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review, for the above-listed company at the applicable ad valorem assessment rate for the POR ( i.e., January 1, 2023, to December 31, 2023). Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the Federal Register . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired ( i.e., within 90 days of publication).

In accordance with section 751(a)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends, upon publication of the final results, to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amount shown for JSC Apatit (and its crossed-owned affiliates) listed above on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this administrative review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the all-others rate or the most recent company-specific rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.

This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.

We are issuing and publishing these final results of administrative review and notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).

On September 20, 2016, Commerce published in the Federal Register the AD order on cold-rolled steel from the United Kingdom. 1 On September 2, 2025, Commerce published in the Federal Register a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the Order for the POR. 2 On September 30, 2025, Cleveland-Cliffs Inc., Steel Dynamics Inc., Nucor Corporation, and United States Steel Corporation (collectively, the petitioners) submitted a timely request that Commerce conduct an administrative review. 3

On December 8, 2025, Commerce published in the Federal Register a notice of initiation of an administrative review with respect to imports of cold-rolled steel from the United Kingdom in accordance with section 751(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). 4 On December 10, 2025, Commerce placed on the record U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) entry data for the companies subject to the review, showing no reviewable POR entries, and invited interested parties to comment. 5 No party filed comments with respect to the CBP data.

On December 18, 2025, Commerce issued a memorandum of intent to rescind the 2024-2025 administrative review and invited interested parties to comment. 6 No party filed comments with respect to our intent to rescind.

Due to a lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days. 7 Additionally, due to a backlog of documents that were electronically filed via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) during the Federal Government shutdown, on November 24, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by an additional 21 days. 8 Accordingly the deadline for the preliminary results of this review is now August 10, 2026.

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(3), it is Commerce's practice to rescind an administrative review of an AD order when there are no reviewable entries of subject merchandise during the POR for which liquidation is suspended. 9 Normally, upon completion of an administrative review, the suspended entries are liquidated at the AD assessment rate for the review period. 10 Therefore, for an administrative review to be conducted, there must be a reviewable, suspended entry that Commerce can instruct CBP to liquidate at the calculated AD assessment rate for the review period. 11

As noted above, there were no entries of subject merchandise for the companies subject to this review during the POR. Accordingly, in the absence of suspended entries of subject merchandise during the POR, we are hereby rescinding this administrative review, in its entirety, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(3).

As Commerce has proceeded to a final rescission of this administrative review, no cash deposit rates will change. Accordingly, the current cash deposit requirements shall remain in effect until further notice.

Commerce will instruct CBP to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in the United States, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of this rescission notice in the Federal Register .

This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of the APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with regulations and terms of an APO is a violation, which is subject to sanction.

This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(l) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).

The agenda will include (a) Council updates; (b) general Ecosystem and Socioeconomic Profile (ESP) updates (tentative); (c) risk table discussion; (d) Tanner crab proposed models; (e) Aleutian Islands golden king crab (AIGKC) final 2026 SAFE; (f) January modelling workshop updates; (g) emerging issues around hybrid abundance; (h) Norton Sound red king crab (NSRKC) proposed models; (i) crab research updates; (j) Eastern Bering Sea snow crab proposed models; (k) Bristol Bay red king crab (BBRKC) proposed models; (l) St. Matthew blue king crab (SMBKC) proposed models; (m) Pribilof Islands golden king crab (PIGKC) final 2026 SAFE; (n) SAFE guidelines; (o) skipper survey updates; and (p) other new business, including membership and Council meeting timing.

The agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/5138 prior to the meeting, along with meeting materials.

You can attend the meeting online using a computer, tablet, or smartphone, or by phone only. Connection information will be posted online at: https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/5138.

Public comment letters will be accepted and should be submitted electronically to https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/5138 .

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

During this meeting, the SSC will make multi-year acceptable biological catch (ABC) recommendations for Blueline Tilefish. The SSC will recommend new 2027-2029 ABC specifications for Blueline Tilefish based on updated catch and survey information. The SSC will also review the most recent survey and fishery data and the previously recommended 2027 ABC for Atlantic Golden Tilefish. The SSC will review and provide feedback on the Mid-Atlantic State of the Ecosystem report, the Council's Ecosystem Approach to Fisheries Management risk assessment, and the results of a recently completed project evaluating the effectiveness of the scup Gear Restricted Areas (GRAs). The SSC will also discuss the activities and draft recommendations of the Overfishing Limit (OFL) Coefficient of Variation (CV) sub-group regarding the use of data updates. The SSC may take up any other business as necessary. A detailed agenda and background documents will be made available on the Council's website ( www.mafmc.org ) prior to the meeting.

These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to Shelley Spedden, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

On Friday, April 10, 2026 (91 FR 18444), the DoD published a notice titled Extension of the TRICARE Childbirth and Breastfeeding Support Demonstration. Subsequent to publication in the Federal Register , the DoD realized that the docket identifier was not included. All other information in the notice at 91 FR 18444 remains the same.

In the Federal Register issue of Friday, April 10, 2026, on page 18444, in the first column, Doc. 2026-06913 is corrected by adding the docket identifier to read as set forth above.

The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.

Title of Collection: Consolidation Loan Rebate Fee Report.

OMB Control Number: 1845-0046.

Type of Review: Extension without change of a currently approved ICR.

Respondents/Affected Public: Private Sector; State, Local, and Tribal Governments.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 2,460.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 2,665.

Abstract: The Department of Education is submitting for approval the Consolidation Loan Rebate Fee Report, ED Form 4-619. This request is for an extension of a currently approved collection. The information collected on the Consolidation Loan Rebate Fee Report will be used to document Federal Consolidation loans held by lenders who are responsible for sending interest payment rebate fees to the Secretary of Education.

The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.

Title of Collection: William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program Repayment Plan Selection Form.

OMB Control Number: 1845-0014.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved ICR.

Respondents/Affected Public: Individuals and Households.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 660,000.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 110,220.

Abstract: The Fixed Payment Repayment Plan Request form serves as the means by which Direct Loan borrowers notify the Department of their choice of an initial fixed payment repayment plan as described in 34 CFR 685.208 before their loans enter repayment. The form may also be used by borrowers to request a change to one of these plans after their loans have entered repayment. If a borrower does not select an initial repayment plan, the borrower is placed on the Standard Repayment Plan or the Tiered Standard Repayment Plan in accordance with 34 CFR 685.210(a)(2).

The One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) signed into law on July 4, 2025, made statutory changes to the Higher Education Act of 1965 as amended (the HEA) regarding Direct Loans that impact regulatory requirements related to this information collection. This is a request for a revision of the current information collection to include the new regulatory requirements in order to comply with the OBBBA.

The purpose of the State Personnel Development Grants program is to assist State educational agencies (SEAs) in reforming and improving their systems for personnel preparation and professional development in early intervention, educational, and transition services to improve results for children with disabilities. ED shall award grants, on a competitive basis, to SEAs to carry out the activities described in the State plan submitted under section 653 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) (20 U.S.C. 1453). The FY 2026 competition includes an absolute priority, selection criteria, and requirements. The absolute priority is: Expanding Career Pathways and Workforce Readiness.

Maximum Award: Pursuant to requirements in section 651(c)(5) of IDEA, ED will set the amount of each award after considering—

(1) The amount of funds available for making the grants;

(2) The relative population of the State or outlying area;

(3) The types of activities proposed by the State or outlying area;

(4) The alignment of proposed activities with section 612(a)(14) of IDEA, as amended by the Every Student Succeeds Act (ESSA);

(5) The alignment of proposed activities with State plans and applications submitted under sections 1111 and 2101(d), respectively, of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act, as amended (ESEA); and

(6) The use, as appropriate, of scientifically based research and activities.

Eligible Applicants: An SEA of one of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or an outlying area (United States Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands).

Note: Public Law 95-134, which permits the consolidation of grants to the outlying areas, does not apply to funds received under this competition.

Program Authority: 20 U.S.C. 1451-1455.

To Apply: The complete funding opportunity announcement and all information needed to apply, including the priorities and program requirements, are available on ED's website at https://www.ed.gov/grants-and-programs/grants-special-populations/grants-individuals-disabilities/state-personnel-development-84-323-a and on Grants.gov at https://grants.gov/search-results-detail/361904. The application notice and instructions on Grants.gov is the official document governing the grant competition.

Accessible Format: On request to the program contact person listed under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT , individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format.

Title of Collection: Fair Credit Reporting Risk-Based Pricing Regulations, 16 CFR part 640.

OMB Control Number: 3084-0145.

Type of Review: Extension without change of currently approved collection.

Affected Public: Private Sector: Businesses and other for-profit entities.

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: 10,667,220.

Estimated Annual Labor Costs: $239,052,400.

Abstract: The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) was enacted on July 21, 2010. 1 The Dodd-Frank Act transferred to the CFPB most of the FTC's rulemaking authority for the risk-based pricing provisions of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), 2 on July 21, 2011. 3 After the enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, the FTC retains rulemaking authority for its Risk-Based Pricing Rule (16 CFR part 640) solely for motor vehicle dealers described in section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act that are predominantly engaged in the sale and servicing of motor vehicles, the leasing and servicing of motor vehicles, or both. 4 The FTC shares enforcement authority with the CFPB for provisions of Regulation V Subpart H (12 CFR 1022.70-1022.75) that apply to entities other than motor vehicle dealers described above.

The Risk-Based Pricing Rule and the CFPB's Regulation V require that a creditor provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer when the creditor uses a consumer report to grant or extend credit to the consumer on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable terms available to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that creditor. 5 Additionally, these provisions require disclosure of credit scores and information relating to credit scores in risk-based pricing notices if a credit score of the consumer is used in setting the material terms of credit.

As required by section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), the FTC is providing this opportunity for public comment before requesting that OMB extend the existing clearance for the information collection requirements contained in the Risk-Based Pricing Rule.

The Commission estimates that approximately 294,612 entities are covered by the FTC and CFPB Rules, 6 including 60,963 motor vehicle dealers that are subject to exclusive FTC jurisdiction. 7 The FTC assumes the full burden for the motor vehicle dealers subject to its exclusive jurisdiction and shares burden for the remaining entities subject to both CFPB and FTC enforcement authority. Accordingly, as an analytical framework, the FTC estimates burden pertaining to respondents over which both agencies have shared enforcement authority, divides the resulting total by one-half to reflect the FTC's shared burden, and adds to the resulting subtotal the estimated burden for motor vehicle dealers over which the FTC retains exclusive rulemaking and enforcement authority.

This yields a total of 177,787 respondents for whom the FTC accounts for burden (60,963 motor vehicle dealers plus one-half ( i.e., 116,824) of the remaining 233,649 entities subject to shared FTC-CFPB jurisdiction). The FTC estimates that covered entities spend approximately 60 hours per year to comply with the Rule's requirements. As a result, the FTC estimates that the total burden hours attributable to FTC requirements are 10,667,220 hours (177,787 respondents × 60 hours).

Labor costs are derived by applying estimated hourly cost figures to the burden hours described above. The FTC assumes that respondents will use correspondence clerks, at a mean hourly wage of $22.41, 8 to modify and distribute notices to consumers, for a cumulative labor cost total of approximately $239,052,400 (10,667,220 hours × $22.41 per hour).

The FTC believes that the FTC and CFPB rules impose negligible capital or other non-labor costs, as the affected entities are likely to have the necessary supplies or equipment already ( e.g., offices and computers) for the information collections discussed above.

Pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the FTC invites comments on: (1) whether the disclosure and recordkeeping requirements are necessary, including whether the information will be practically useful; (2) the accuracy of our burden estimates, including whether the methodology and assumptions used are valid; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information.

For the FTC to consider a comment, we must receive it on or before June 16, 2026. Your comment, including your name and your state, will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including the https://www.regulations.gov website.

If you file your comment on paper, write “Risk-Based Pricing Rule, PRA Comment, P145403,” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Mail Stop H-144 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580.

Because your comment will become publicly available at https://www.regulations.gov, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including, in particular, competitively sensitive information, such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.

Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must: (1) be filed in paper form; (2) be clearly labeled “Confidential”; and (3) comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record. See FTC Rule 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Once your comment has been posted publicly at www.regulations.gov, we cannot redact or remove your comment unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request.

The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before June 16, 2026. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.

Title: Informal Dispute Settlement Procedures Rule (the Dispute Settlement Rule or the Rule), 16 CFR part 703.

OMB Control Number: 3084-0113.

Likely Respondents: Warrantors that Use an IDSM (Automobile Manufacturers) and Informal Dispute Settlement Mechanisms.

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: 11,738 (derived from 7,843 recordkeeping hours in addition to 2,614 reporting hours and 1,281 disclosure hours).

Estimated Annual Labor Costs: $339,496.

Estimated Annual Capital or Other Non-Labor Costs: $425,987.

Abstract: The Dispute Settlement Rule is one of three rules  1 that the FTC implemented pursuant to requirements of the Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act, 15 U.S.C. 2301 et seq. (“Warranty Act” or “Act”). 2 The Dispute Settlement Rule, 16 CFR part 703, specifies the minimum standards that must be met by any informal dispute settlement mechanism (“IDSM”) incorporated into a written consumer product warranty and that the consumer is required to use before pursuing legal remedies under the Act in court (known as the “prior resort requirement”). 3

The Dispute Settlement Rule standards for IDSMs include requirements concerning the mechanism's structure ( e.g., funding, staffing, and neutrality), the qualifications of staff or decision makers, the mechanism's procedures for resolving disputes ( e.g., notification, investigation, time limits for decisions, and follow-up), recordkeeping, and annual audits. The Rule requires that IDSMs establish written operating procedures and provide copies of those procedures upon request.

As required by section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), the FTC is providing this opportunity for public comment before requesting that OMB extend the existing clearance for the information collection requirements associated with the Dispute Settlement Rule.

The primary burden from the Dispute Settlement Rule comes from the recordkeeping requirements that apply to IDSMs that are incorporated into a consumer product warranty through a prior resort clause. Currently, there are two IDSMs operating under the Rule: (1) the BBB AUTO LINE, and (2) the National Center for Dispute Settlement (“NCDS”). Although the Rule's information collection requirements have not changed since 2023, staff has adjusted its previous estimates slightly upward for its 2026 calculations because the two IDSMs indicate that, on average, more disputes have been handled since the previous submission to OMB (12,420 disputes/year projected in 2023; 15,685 disputes/year projected in 2026). The calculations underlying staff's new estimates follow.

Recordkeeping: The Rule requires IDSMs to maintain records of each consumer warranty dispute. Both the BBB AUTO LINE and NCDS report the number of disputes closed each year. Staff is using those numbers to project what will happen over the next three years of OMB clearance for the Rule. The BBB AUTO LINE handles an average of 11,061 disputes each year. 4 NCDS handles an average of 4,624 disputes each year. 5 Based on these figures, staff estimates that the average number of IDSM disputes covered by the Rule is approximately 15,685. Case files must include information such as the consumer's contact information, the make and model of the product at issue, all letters or other correspondence submitted by the consumer or warrantor, and all evidence collected to resolve the dispute. Because maintaining individual case records is a necessary function for any IDSM, much of the burden would be incurred in the ordinary course of business. Nonetheless, staff estimates that maintaining individual case files imposes an additional burden of 30 minutes per case.

Accordingly, the total annual recordkeeping burden is approximately 7,843 hours ((15,685 disputes x 30 minutes of burden/dispute)/60 minutes/hour).

Reporting: The Rule requires IDSMs to update indexes, complete semiannual statistical summaries, and submit an annual audit report to the FTC. Staff estimates that covered entities spend approximately 10 minutes per case for these activities, resulting in a total annual burden of approximately 2,614 hours ((15,685 disputes × 10 minutes of burden/dispute)/60 minutes/hour).

Similar to 2023, staff has determined that it would be appropriate to account for the disclosure burden as it relates to warrantors based on two types of additional information that warrantors are required to disclose under the Rule: (1) information concerning the IDSM and its procedures; and (2) information that makes consumers aware of the existence of the IDSM. 6

A review of the annual audits of the BBB AUTO LINE and the NCDS indicates that there are approximately thirty-four automobile manufacturers covered by the Rule. Staff assumes that each manufacturer spends an average of thirty hours a year creating, revising, and distributing the informational materials necessary to comply with the Rule, resulting in an annual disclosure burden of 1,020 hours (34 manufacturers × 30 hours).

Under the Rule, the IDSMs are required to provide to interested consumers, upon request, copies of the various types of information the IDSM possesses, including its annual audits. In addition, consumers who have filed disputes with the IDSM also have a right to copies of their records. IDSMs are permitted to charge for providing both types of information.

Based on discussions with representatives of the two IDSMs, staff estimates that the burden imposed by these disclosure requirements is approximately 261 hours per year. This estimate draws from the average number of disputes closed each year with the IDSMs (15,685) and the assumption that twenty percent of consumers request copies of the records pertaining to their disputes (approximately 3,137 disputes). 7 Staff estimates that copying such records would require approximately 5 minutes per dispute. 8 Staff estimates a total disclosure burden of approximately 261 hours ((3,137 disputes × 5 minutes of burden/dispute)/60 minutes/hour) for the IDSMs.

Accordingly, the total PRA-related annual hours burden attributed to the Rule is approximately 11,738 (7,843 hours for recordkeeping plus 2,614 hours for reporting plus 1,020 hours for warrantors' disclosures and 261 hours for IDSM disclosures).

Total Annual Labor Cost: $339,496.

Recordkeeping: Staff assumes that IDSMs use clerical staff to comply with the recordkeeping requirements contained in the Rule at an hourly rate of approximately $22. 9 Thus, the labor cost associated with the 7,843 annual burden hours for recordkeeping is approximately $172,546 (7,843 burden hours x $22 per hour).

Reporting: Staff assumes that IDSMs also use clerical support staff at an hourly rate of $22 to comply with the reporting requirements. Thus, the labor cost associated with the 2,614 annual burden hours for reporting is approximately $57,508 (2,614 burden hours × $22 per hour).

Disclosure: Staff assumes that the work required to comply with the warrantors' disclosure requirements entails an equal mix of legal, clerical, and graphic design work. Staff assumes that one third of the total disclosure hours for warrantors (340 hours) require legal work at a rate of $250 per hour, one third require graphic design at a rate of $33 per hour, 10 and one third require clerical work at a rate of $22 per hour. This results in a disclosure labor burden of $103,700 for warrantors ((340 × $250) + (340 × $33) + (340 × $22)).

In addition, staff assumes that IDSMs use clerical support at an hourly rate of $22 to reproduce records and, therefore, the labor cost associated with the 261 annual hours of disclosure burden for IDSMs is approximately $5,742 (261 burden hours × $22 per hour).

Accordingly, the combined total annual labor cost for PRA-related burden under the Rule is approximately $339,496 ($172,546 for recordkeeping + $57,508 for reporting + $109,442 for disclosures).

Total Annual Capital or Other Non-Labor Costs: $425,987.

Total Capital and Start-Up Costs: The Rule imposes no appreciable current capital or start-up costs. The vast majority of warrantors have already developed systems to retain the records and provide the disclosures required by the Rule. Rule compliance does not require the use of any capital goods, other than ordinary office equipment, to which providers already have access.

The Rule imposes one additional cost on IDSMs operating under the Rule, which is the annual audit requirement. According to representatives of the IDSMs, the vast majority of costs associated with this requirement consist of the fees paid to the auditors and their staffs. Representatives of the IDSMs previously estimated a combined cost of $315,000 associated with the audits. In light of cost increases over the past three years, staff has increased that estimate by an additional twenty percent, estimating that the annual audit requirement now costs $378,000 (or $315,000 plus 20% increase).

Other Non-Labor Costs: As discussed above, staff assumes that approximately twenty percent of dispute files (approximately 3,137 files) are requested by consumers. Staff also estimates that only five percent of consumers will request a copy of the IDSM's audit report (approximately 784 audit reports). 11 Staff bases this assumption on the number of consumer requests received by the IDSMs in the past and the fact that the IDSMs' annual audits are available online. Staff estimates that the average dispute-related file contains 35 pages and a typical annual audit file contains approximately 200 pages. Staff estimates copying costs of 18 cents per page.

Thus, the total annual copying cost for dispute-related files is approximately $19,763 (35 pages per file × $0.18 per page × 3,137 disputes), and the total annual copying cost for annual audit reports is approximately $28,224 (200 pages per audit report × $0.18 per page × 784 audit reports). Accordingly, the total cost attributed to copying under the Rule is approximately $47,987.

Thus, the total non-labor cost under the Rule is approximately $425,987 ($378,000 for auditor fees + $47,987 for copying costs).

Pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the FTC invites comments on: (1) whether the disclosure and recordkeeping requirements are necessary, including whether the information will be practically useful; (2) the accuracy of our burden estimates, including whether the methodology and assumptions used are valid; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information.

For the FTC to consider a comment, we must receive it on or before June 16, 2026. Your comment, including your name and your state, will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including the https://www.regulations.gov website.

If you file your comment on paper, write “Dispute Settlement Rule; PRA Comment: FTC File No. P044403” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Mail Stop H-144 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580.

Because your comment will become publicly available at https://www.regulations.gov, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including, in particular, competitively sensitive information, such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.

Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must (1) be filed in paper form, (2) be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and (3) comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record. See FTC Rule 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Once your comment has been posted publicly at www.regulations.gov, we cannot redact or remove your comment unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request.

The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before June 16, 2026. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.

Description: The purpose of PREP is to provide grants to states, tribes and tribal communities, and community organizations to support evidence-based programs to reduce teen pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections. The programs are required to provide education on both abstinence and contraceptive use. The programs also offer information on adulthood preparation subjects such as healthy relationships, adolescent development, financial literacy, parent-child communication, education and employment skills, and healthy life skills.

The PREP project collects performance measures data from PREP grant recipients, program providers, and participants. The data include information on program structure, cost, and support for implementation; program attendance, reach, and dosage; the characteristics of youth involved in programming; youth sexual risk behaviors and behaviors related to adulthood preparation prior to program participation; and youth behavior intentions at program exit. The performance measures help the ACF program office and grant recipients to monitor and report on progress in implementing PREP programs and inform technical assistance. In addition, ACF will use the information to continue fulfilling its reporting requirements to Congress and OMB concerning the PREP initiative.

Some of the performance measures data come from youth participants through surveys PREP grant recipients administer at program entry and exit. There are separate versions of the entry and exit surveys for middle school youth, which exclude some of the more sensitive items that are included in the versions for high school and older youth. There is also a shorter version of the entry survey for participants in the Personal Responsibility Education Innovative Strategies (PREIS) and Tribal PREP (TPREP) programs, to reduce the burden on participants in those programs (who are likely responding to other surveys); youth in these programs complete the same version of the exit survey as other youth.

We are proposing revisions to the current performance measures to address feedback from grant recipients and to ensure the measures meet FYSB data needs. Grant recipients have requested various changes to simplify and clarify the measures, including noting particular questions in the participant surveys that youth have difficulty understanding and responding to. In addition, contractor staff have noted which measures most frequently result in help desk contacts or are prone to data quality issues. Finally, FYSB staff identified measures that are no longer needed or could be obtained from other sources. Types of revisions include re-wording to use simpler language, reducing the number of sub-items or response categories, avoiding patterns in which survey respondents need to skip one or more questions based on their response to an earlier question, and removing some measures entirely. The proposed revisions to the participant surveys were cognitively tested with program participants for clarity and to check burden estimates.

Respondents: State PREP (SPREP), TPREP, Competitive PREP (CPREP), and PREIS grant recipients, their subrecipients, and program participants.

Annual Burden Estimates: The changes described above reduced the overall length of the surveys and are expected to reduce the burden for completing the participant entry survey from 8 minutes to 5 minutes per response and the participant exit survey from 7 minutes to 5 minutes per response. Additionally, the estimated number of respondents has been adjusted to reflect the estimated number over the next 3 years, which is reduced compared to previous estimates. Overall, we expect a 40 percent reduction in the annual burden hours under this request compared to the previously approved annual burden.

Comments: The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.

Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1310.

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, FDA is publishing notice of the proposed collection of information set forth in this document.

With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.

This information collection request supports regulations and associated Agency forms. Sections 201, 505, and 701 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321, 355, and 371) establish provisions under which FDA issues regulations governing the use of radioactive drugs for basic scientific research. Specifically, § 361.1 (21 CFR 361.1) sets forth specific regulations about establishing and composing radioactive drug research committees (RDRCs) and their role in approving and monitoring basic research studies using radiopharmaceuticals. No basic research study involving any administration of a radioactive drug to research subjects is permitted without the authorization of an FDA-approved RDRC (§ 361.1(d)(7)). The type of research that may be undertaken with a radiopharmaceutical drug must be intended to obtain basic information and must not carry out a clinical trial for safety or efficacy. The types of basic research permitted are specified in the regulations and include studies of metabolism, human physiology, pathophysiology, or biochemistry.

Section 361.1(c)(2) requires that each RDRC will select a chairman, who will sign all applications, minutes, and reports of the committee. Each committee will meet at least once each quarter in which research activity has been authorized or conducted. Minutes will be kept and will include the numerical results of votes on protocols involving use in human subjects. Under § 361.1(c)(3), each RDRC will submit an annual report to FDA. The annual report will include the names and qualifications of the members of, and of any consultants used by, the RDRC, using Form FDA 2914 (Report on Research Use of Radioactive Drugs—Membership Summary). The annual report will also include a summary of each study conducted during the preceding year, using Form FDA 2915 (Report on Research Use of Radioactive Drugs—Study Summary).

We developed a guidance for industry and researchers entitled “Radioactive Drug Research Committee: Human Research Without An Investigational New Drug Application” (August 2010) available at https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/radioactive-drug-research-committee-human-research-without-investigational-new-drug-application. The guidance provides information to help determine whether research studies may be conducted under an FDA-approved RDRC, or whether research studies must be conducted under an investigational new drug application (IND). The guidance also offers answers to frequently asked questions on conducting research with radioactive drugs, and provides information on the membership, functions, and reporting requirements of an FDA-approved RDRC. All Agency guidance documents are issued consistent with our good guidance practice regulations at 21 CFR 10.115.

Under § 361.1(d)(5), each investigator will obtain the proper consent required under the regulations. Each female research subject of childbearing potential must state in writing that she is not pregnant or, based on a pregnancy test, be confirmed as not pregnant.

Under § 361.1(d)(8), the investigator will immediately report to the RDRC all adverse effects associated with use of the drug, and the committee will then report to FDA all adverse reactions probably attributed to the use of the radioactive drug.

Section 361.1(f) sets forth labeling requirements for radioactive drugs. These requirements are not in the reporting burden estimate because they are information supplied by the Federal Government to the recipient for the purposes of disclosure to the public (5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2)).

Types of research studies not permitted under the regulations are also specified in § 361.1(a) and include those intended for immediate therapeutic, diagnostic, or similar purposes or to determine the safety or effectiveness of the drug in humans for such purposes ( i.e., to carry out a clinical trial for safety or efficacy). These studies require filing of an IND under 21 CFR part 312, and the associated information collections, are covered in OMB control number 0910-0014.

The primary purpose of this collection of information is to determine whether the research studies are being conducted in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations specified under 21 CFR 361.1 and that human subject safety is assured. If these studies were not reviewed, human subjects could be subjected to inappropriate radiation or pharmacologic risks. Respondents to this information collection are the chairperson or chairpersons of each individual RDRC, investigators, and participants in the studies. The burden estimates are based on our experience with these reporting and recordkeeping requirements and the number of submissions we received under the regulations over the past 3 years.

FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:

Our estimated burden for the information collection reflects an overall decrease of 52 hours and a corresponding decrease of 97 responses. This is attributed to the Agency receiving fewer submissions over the last few years due to decreased subject enrollment during the pandemic.

Section 564 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-3) allows FDA to strengthen public health protections against biological, chemical, nuclear, and radiological agents. Among other things, section 564 of the FD&C Act allows FDA to authorize the use of an unapproved medical product or an unapproved use of an approved medical product in certain situations. With this EUA authority, FDA can help ensure that medical countermeasures may be used in emergencies to diagnose, treat, or prevent serious or life-threatening diseases or conditions caused by biological, chemical, nuclear, or radiological agents when there are no adequate, approved, and available alternatives (among other criteria).

Section 564(b)(1) of the FD&C Act provides that, before an EUA may be issued, the Secretary of HHS must declare that circumstances exist justifying the authorization based on one of the following grounds: (A) a determination by the Secretary of Homeland Security that there is a domestic emergency, or a significant potential for a domestic emergency, involving a heightened risk of attack with a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent or agents (“CBRN”); (B) a determination by the Secretary of Defense that there is a military emergency, or a significant potential for a military emergency, involving a heightened risk to U.S. military forces, including personnel operating under the authority of title 10 or title 50, U.S. Code, of attack with (i) a CBRN; or (ii) an agent or agents that may cause, or are otherwise associated with, an imminently life-threatening and specific risk to U.S. military forces;  1 (C) a determination by the Secretary of HHS that there is a public health emergency, or a significant potential for a public health emergency, that affects, or has a significant potential to affect, national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad, and that involves a CBRN agent or agents, or a disease or condition that may be attributable to such agent or agents; or (D) the identification of a material threat by the Secretary of Homeland Security pursuant to section 319F-2 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 247d-6b) sufficient to affect national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad.

Once the Secretary of HHS has declared that circumstances exist justifying an authorization under section 564 of the FD&C Act, FDA may authorize the emergency use of a drug, device, or biological product if the Agency concludes that the statutory criteria are satisfied. Under section 564(h)(1) of the FD&C Act, FDA is required to publish in the Federal Register a notice of each authorization, and each termination or revocation of an authorization, and an explanation of the reasons for the action. Under section 564(h)(1) of the FD&C Act, revisions to an authorization shall be made available on FDA's website. Section 564 of the FD&C Act permits FDA to authorize the introduction into interstate commerce of a drug, device, or biological product intended for use in an actual or potential emergency when the Secretary of HHS has declared that circumstances exist justifying the authorization of emergency use. Products appropriate for emergency use may include products and uses that are not approved, cleared, or licensed under sections 505, 510(k), 512, or 515 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 355, 360(k), 360b, and 360e) or section 351 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262), or conditionally approved under section 571 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360ccc).

Under section 564(c) of the FD&C Act, FDA may issue an EUA only if, after consultation with the HHS Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response, the Director of the National Institutes of Health, and the Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (to the extent feasible and appropriate given the applicable circumstances), FDA  2 concludes: (1) that an agent referred to in a declaration of emergency or threat can cause a serious or life-threatening disease or condition; (2) that, based on the totality of scientific evidence available to FDA, including data from adequate and well-controlled clinical trials, if available, it is reasonable to believe that: (A) the product may be effective in diagnosing, treating, or preventing (i) such disease or condition; or (ii) a serious or life-threatening disease or condition caused by a product authorized under section 564, approved or cleared under the FD&C Act, or licensed under section 351 of the PHS Act, for diagnosing, treating, or preventing such a disease or condition caused by such an agent; and (B) the known and potential benefits of the product, when used to diagnose, prevent, or treat such disease or condition, outweigh the known and potential risks of the product, taking into consideration the material threat posed by the agent or agents identified in a declaration under section 564(b)(1)(D) of the FD&C Act, if applicable; (3) that there is no adequate, approved, and available alternative to the product for diagnosing, preventing, or treating such disease or condition; (4) in the case of a determination described in section 564(b)(1)(B)(ii) of the FD&C Act, that the request for emergency use is made by the Secretary of Defense; and (5) that such other criteria as may be prescribed by regulation are satisfied. No other criteria for issuance have been prescribed by regulation under section 564(c)(4) of the FD&C Act.

The Authorizations follow the August 18, 2025, determination by the Secretary of HHS that there is a significant potential for a public health emergency that has a significant potential to affect national security or the health and security of U.S. citizens living abroad and that involves NWS. On the basis of such determination, the Secretary of HHS declared, on August 18, 2025, that circumstances exist justifying the authorization of emergency use of animal drugs to treat or prevent NWS myiasis in animals. Notice of the Secretary's determination and declaration was provided in the Federal Register on August 20, 2025 (90 FR 40609). Having concluded that the criteria for the issuance of the Authorizations under section 564(c) of the FD&C Act are met, FDA has issued four authorizations for the emergency use of animal products. On February 5, 2026, FDA issued an EUA to Boehringer for the animal product Ivomec (ivermectin), subject to the terms of its Authorization. On February 18, 2026, FDA issued two EUAs to Boehringer for the animal products NexGard (afoxolaner) and NexGard COMBO (esafoxolaner, eprinomectin, and praziquantel topical solution), subject to the terms of their Authorizations. On March 10, 2026, FDA issued an EUA to Health and Hygiene (Pty) Ltd for the animal product F10 Antiseptic Wound Spray with Insecticide (benzalkonium chloride, polyhexanide and cypermethrin topical solution), subject to the terms of its Authorization.

The initial Authorizations, included below in their entirety after section IV of this document (not including the authorized versions of the fact sheets and other written materials), provide explanations of the reasons for issuance, as required by section 564(h)(1) of the FD&C Act. Any subsequent reissuance of the Authorizations can be found on FDA's web page at: https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/safety-health/new-world-screwworm-information-veterinarians.

An electronic version of this document and the full text of the Authorization is available on the internet at: https://www.fda.gov/emergency-preparedness-and-response/mcm-legal-regulatory-and-policy-framework/emergency-use-authorization.

The authority for AGDUFA expires September 30, 2028. Without new legislation, FDA will no longer have the authority to collect user fees to help fund the new animal generic drug review process for future fiscal years. Prior to beginning negotiations with the regulated industry on AGDUFA reauthorization, section 742(d)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 379j-22(d)(2)) requires FDA to: (1) Publish a notice in the Federal Register requesting public input on the reauthorization; (2) hold a public meeting at which the public may present its views on the reauthorization, including specific suggestions for changes to the goals referred in section 742(a) of FD&C Act; (3) provide a period of 30 days after the public meeting to obtain written comments from the public suggesting changes; and (4) publish the comments on FDA's website. This notice, the public meeting, the comment period after the meeting, and the posting of the comments on the FDA website will satisfy these requirements. FDA is holding a public meeting to gather information on what FDA should consider including in the reauthorization of AGDUFA. FDA is interested in responses from the public on the following two general questions and welcomes other pertinent information that stakeholders would like to share:

1. What is your assessment of the overall performance of the AGDUFA program thus far?

2. What aspects of AGDUFA should be retained, changed, or discontinued to further strengthen and improve the program?

FDA considers the timely review of generic new animal drug submissions to be central to the Agency's mission to protect and promote human and animal health. The AGDUFA program began in FY 2009 and is currently in the fourth authorization (AGDUFA IV). FDA has published a number of reports that provide useful background on AGDUFA I, AGDUFA II, AGDUFA III, and AGDUFA IV. AGDUFA-related Federal Register notices, guidances, legislation, performance reports, and financial reports can be found at: https://www.fda.gov/industry/fda-user-fee-programs/animal-generic-drug-user-fee-act-agdufa.

Registration: Persons interested in attending this public meeting must register no later than midnight Eastern time on May 22, 2026, by emailing complete contact information for each attendee, including name, title, affiliation, address, email, telephone number, and if you need reasonable accommodations due to a disability ( e.g., Closed Captioning) to AGDUFAReauth@fda.hhs.gov. Registration is free and early registration is recommended. Registrants will receive confirmation when their registration has been received and will be provided the webcast link.

Requests for Oral Presentations: During online registration you may indicate if you wish to make an oral presentation during the public meeting. To facilitate agenda development, registrants requesting to present will be asked to provide information regarding which topics they intend to address and the title of their presentation. We will do our best to accommodate requests to make an oral presentation. Individuals and organizations with common interests are urged to consolidate or coordinate their presentations, and request time for a joint presentation, or submit requests for designated representatives to participate. All requests to make oral presentations must be received by May 1, 2026.

We will determine the amount of time allotted to each presenter and the approximate time each oral presentation is to begin, and we will notify participants by May 8, 2026. Presenters planning to use an electronic slide deck must email an electronic copy of their presentation to Madeline Faunce at AGDUFAReauth@fda.hhs.gov (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT ) with the subject line “AGDUFA Public Meeting Presentation” on or before May 15, 2026. If presenters choose not to use a slide deck, they are requested to email a single slide with their name, affiliation, title of their presentation, and contact information. No commercial or promotional material will be permitted to be presented at the public meeting.

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, FDA is publishing notice of the proposed collection of information set forth in this document.

With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.

OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has issued memoranda that provides an overview of administrative flexibilities available to assist agencies in complying with their statutory obligations under the PRA. Among these flexibilities is use of a generic clearance for certain information collection activities. A generic clearance may be appropriate when (1) the need for the data collection can be evaluated in advance, as part of the review of the proposed plan, but (2) the Agency cannot determine the details of the specific individual collections until a later time. Generic clearances cover collections that are voluntary, low-burden, and uncontroversial.

This generic clearance for certain information collection activities supports research conducted by FDA, as authorized under section 1003(d)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 393(d)(2)(D)), and is intended to help FDA's Human Foods Program (HFP) understand stakeholders' perceptions, attitudes, motivations, and behaviors. Understanding these perceptions, attitudes, motivations, and behaviors plays an important role in improving FDA's communications which impact various stakeholders and assists in the development of quantitative study proposals to complement other important research efforts in the Agency. To ensure that regulatory actions and communications activities have the highest potential to be received, understood, and accepted by those for whom they are intended, HFP and related FDA offices conduct research and studies relating to the control and prevention of disease as authorized by section 301 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 241(a)).

To ensure that communications activities have the highest effect, we conduct research and studies relating to the control and prevention of disease and the safety and health of the public. FDA is requesting OMB approval for the use of this generic collection of information that allows FDA to use qualitative social/behavioral science data collection techniques ( i.e., individual in-depth interviews (IDIs), small group discussions, focus groups, and observations) to better understand stakeholders' perceptions, attitudes, motivations, and behaviors regarding various issues associated with food, dietary supplements, cosmetics, and animal food and feed. Understanding these consumers', manufacturers', and producers' perceptions, attitudes, motivations, and behaviors plays an important role in improving FDA's communications that impact these various stakeholders and in assisting in the development of quantitative study proposals, complementing other important research efforts in the Agency.

To obtain approval for an individual generic submission collection that meets the conditions of this generic clearance, an abbreviated supporting statement will be submitted to OMB along with supporting documentation ( e.g., a copy of the interview or moderator guide, screening questionnaire).

Selection for potential respondents is done via a screening process to match the best possible respondent to each individual generic submission. Respondents to individual requests made under the generic clearance, once approved by OMB, may include a wide range of consumers and other FDA stakeholders, such as producers and manufacturers who are regulated under FDA-regulated food, dietary supplements, cosmetics, and animal food and feed. Participation is voluntary.

We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:

These estimates are based on both historical numbers of participants from past projects as well as estimates for projects to be conducted in the next 3 years. Based on a review of the information collection since our last request for OMB approval, we have adjusted our burden estimate based on actual usage of this collection of information and have decreased the number of responses and hours by half for these items, as listed in the first four rows in table 1. We have reduced our estimate for the number of responses from 19,600 to 9,800 responses (a decrease of 9,800 responses) and reduced the number of hours from 7,048 to 3,524 hours (a decrease of 3,524 hours) based on our experience conducting these collections of information. The total reduction in burden, therefore, is estimated as 9,800 responses and 3,524 hours. The new burden is estimated at 10,664 responses and 3,870 hours.

The authority for ADUFA expires September 30, 2028. Without new legislation, FDA will no longer have the authority to collect user fees to help fund the new animal drug review process for future fiscal years. Prior to beginning negotiations with the regulated industry on ADUFA reauthorization, section 740A(d)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 379j-13(d)(2)) requires FDA to: (1) Publish a notice in the Federal Register requesting public input on the reauthorization; (2) hold a public meeting at which the public may present its views on the reauthorization, including specific suggestions for changes to the goals referred to in section 740A(a) of the FD&C Act; (3) provide a period of 30 days after the public meeting to obtain written comments from the public suggesting changes; and (4) publish the comments on FDA's website. This notice, the public meeting, the comment period after the meeting, and the posting of the comments on the FDA website will satisfy these requirements. FDA is holding a public meeting to gather information on what FDA should consider including in the reauthorization of ADUFA. FDA is interested in responses from the public on the following two general questions and welcomes other pertinent information that stakeholders would like to share:

1. What is your assessment of the overall performance of the ADUFA program thus far?

2. What aspects of ADUFA should be retained, changed, or discontinued to further strengthen and improve the program?

FDA considers the timely review of new animal drug submissions to be central to the Agency's mission to protect and promote human and animal health. The ADUFA program began in FY 2004 and is currently in the fifth authorization (ADUFA V). FDA has published a number of reports that provide useful background on ADUFA I, ADUFA II, ADUFA III, ADUFA IV and ADUFA V. ADUFA-related Federal Register notices, guidances, legislation, performance reports, and financial reports can be found at: https://www.fda.gov/industry/fda-user-fee-programs/animal-drug-user-fee-act-adufa.

Registration: Persons interested in attending this public meeting must register no later than midnight Eastern time on May 22, 2026, by emailing complete contact information for each attendee, including name, title, affiliation, address, email, telephone number, and if you need reasonable accommodations due to a disability ( e.g., Closed Captioning) to ADUFAReauth@fda.hhs.gov. Registration is free and early registration is recommended. Registrants will receive confirmation when their registration has been received and will be provided the webcast link.

Requests for Oral Presentations: During online registration you may indicate if you wish to make an oral presentation during the public meeting. To facilitate agenda development, registrants requesting to present will be asked to provide information regarding which topics they intend to address and the title of their presentation. We will do our best to accommodate requests to make an oral presentation. Individuals and organizations with common interests are urged to consolidate or coordinate their presentations, and request time for a joint presentation, or submit requests for designated representatives to participate. All requests to make oral presentations must be received by May 1, 2026.

We will determine the amount of time allotted to each presenter and the approximate time each oral presentation is to begin, and we will notify participants by May 8, 2026. Presenters planning to use an electronic slide deck must email an electronic copy of their presentation to Madeline Faunce at ADUFAReauth@fda.hhs.gov (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT ) with the subject line “ADUFA Public Meeting Presentation” on or before May 15, 2026. If presenters choose not to use a slide deck, they are requested to email a single slide with their name, affiliation, title of their presentation, and contact information. No commercial or promotional material will be permitted to be presented at the public meeting.

Pursuant to section 44907(e) of title 49, United States Code, if “(1) a condition exists that threatens the safety or security of passengers, aircraft, or crew traveling to or from [a foreign] airport; and (2) the public interest requires an immediate suspension of transportation between the United States and that airport,” the Secretary of Homeland Security, in coordination with the Secretary of Transportation and with the approval of the Secretary of State, shall suspend flights to and from that foreign airport.

On June 4, 2019, DHS published a notice in the Federal Register stating that the Acting Secretary of Homeland Security had determined that conditions in Venezuela threatened the safety and security of passengers, aircraft, and crew, and that the public interest required an immediate suspension of air transportation. The June 4, 2019 determination was based on several factors, including: (1) reports of civil unrest and violence in and around the airports; (2) the inability of TSA to gain access to Venezuelan airports to conduct required security assessments to determine whether adequate security measures are in place; (3) the economic and political crisis in Venezuela; (4) cancellation of flights to Venezuela by American Airlines, the largest air carrier providing service, and two other carriers; (5) the U.S. Department of State's publication of Do Not Travel advisories, suspension of Embassy operations, and recommendation that TSA inspectors not enter the country owing to safety concerns; (6) the Federal Aviation Administration's issuance of a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) on May 1, 2019, which prohibited all flight operations by U.S. air carriers and commercial operators in Venezuela airspace below FL 260; and (7) the risk of Maduro regime actions against U.S. citizens and U.S. interests located in Venezuela. Following Secretary of State approval, the Department of Transportation concurred with this determination and suspended foreign air transportation of passengers or cargo to or from any airport in Venezuela, effective May 15, 2019. See DOT-OST-2019-0072.

Consistent with statutory requirements, DHS required that the Secretary of Homeland Security's determination regarding conditions in Venezuela be displayed prominently in all U.S. airports with regularly scheduled air carrier operations. The Secretary of Homeland Security also instructed TSA to require that each foreign and domestic air carrier providing air transportation originating in the United States to any person with a flight itinerary that originates in, transfers or transits through, or has a final destination to any airport in Venezuela, provide written notice to such person advising that conditions in Venezuela currently present a threat to the traveling public.

On January 3, 2026, President Donald J. Trump announced that the U.S. military had launched strikes across Venezuela that culminated in the capture and arrest of President Nicolás Maduro and his wife Cilia Flores. Maduro and Flores were transferred to New York to face narco-terrorism, drug trafficking, and weapons charges. Venezuela's new interim government has since re-established diplomatic and economic relationships with the United States.

On January 29, 2026, the President of the United States directed the DOT and other concerned U.S. government agencies to take the steps necessary to re-establish air service to Venezuela. Accordingly, the Secretary of Transportation issued Order 2026-1-24 that same day, rescinding the 2019 Order. On March 14, 2026, the U.S. Embassy in Caracas raised the American flag, symbolizing a shift in the bilateral relationship between the two governments.

TSA has re-established direct communications with the National Institute of Civil Aviation of Venezuela (INAC) and conducted an assessment at Maiquetía “Simón Bolívar” International Airport (CCS) in Caracas between February 22 and 24, 2026. TSA made several recommendations to INAC and concluded that sufficient security measures have been implemented at CCS to commence commercial flight operations from the United States to CCS. TSA is collaborating with INAC to address these recommendations and coordinating additional assessments at other airports in Venezuela. TSA is currently working with several U.S. aircraft operators and foreign air carriers to re-establish direct service between the United States and Venezuela.

On March 19, 2026, the U.S. Department of State updated its travel alert from “Level 4: Do Not Travel” to “Level 3: Reconsider Travel.” The conditions that led to this change by the Department of State were also considered in the threat assessment conducted by TSA, as well as the overall improvement in the relationship between Venezuela and the United States.

Consistent with the President's direction and the changed conditions in Venezuela, DHS is rescinding its previous determination and related requirements suspending all direct commercial passenger and cargo flights between the United States and Venezuela. As noted above, TSA will continue assessing security at Venezuelan airports on an individual basis concerning the possible future commencement of commercial flight operations to and from each airport.

The Commission instituted this investigation on December 11, 2024, based on a complaint filed on behalf of Cricut, Inc. (“Cricut”) of South Jordan, Utah. 89 FR 99,905-06 (Dec. 11, 2024). The complaint, as supplemented, alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain crafting machines and components thereof by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 11,208,758 (“the '758 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 11,905,646 (“the '646 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D893,563 (“the D563 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D910,724 (“the D724 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D926,237 (“the D237 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. D1,029,090 (“the D090 patent”). Id. The complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists or is in the process of being established as required by the applicable Federal statute. The Commission's notice of investigation names eight (8) respondents: Bozhou Wanxingyu Technology Co. Ltd. of Bozhou, China; Bozhou Zhongdaxiang Technology Co., Ltd. of Bozhou, China; and Shanghai Sishun E-Commerce Co., Ltd. of Shanghai, China (collectively, the “Vevor Respondents”); LiPing Zhan (“Konduone”) of Jingzhou, China; Hunan Sijiu Technology, Co. Ltd. of Changsha, China; Hunan Sijiu Electronic Technology Co., Ltd. (“HSET”) of Changsha, China; Guangdong Rongtu Technology Co., Ltd. of Foshan City, China; and SainStore Technology Co., Ltd. (“SainStore”) of Dongguan City, China. Id. at 99,905-06. The Office of Unfair Import Investigations (“OUII”) is also named as a party. Id. at 99,906.

On January 31, 2025, the Commission partially terminated the investigation as to SainStore based on a consent order stipulation and issued a consent order against SainStore. Order No. 5 (Jan. 8, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (Jan. 31, 2025).

On April 3, 2025, Respondent HSET was terminated from this investigation, HK Sijiu International Share Co., Ltd. of Hong Kong, China, was added to this investigation as a new respondent, and U.S. Design Patent No. D877,214 (“the D214 patent”) was also added to this investigation. Order No. 10 (Mar. 6, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (Apr. 3, 2025), 90 FR 15,161-62 (Apr. 8, 2025). The target date was extended to May 13, 2026.

On April 4, 2025, claims 19 and 20 of the 758 patent were terminated from the investigation based on withdrawal of the complaint. Order No. 11 (Mar. 17, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (Apr. 4, 2025).

The Vevor Respondents and Konduone were found in default pursuant to 19 CFR 210.16. Order No. 17 (May 7, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (May 28, 2025). The only participating respondents remaining in the investigation are Respondents HK Sijiu International Share Co., Ltd., Hunan Sijiu Technology, Co. Ltd., and Guangdong Rongtu Technology Co., Ltd. (collectively, “HTVRONT”).

On May 27, 2025, the Commission partially terminated the investigation as to the D090 patent based on a consent order stipulation and issued a consent order against HTVRONT as to that patent. Order No. 16 (Apr. 30, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (May 27, 2025).

On August 5, 2025, the Commission determined not to review an ID (Order No. 21), extending the target date to August 13, 2026, at the request of the parties. Order No. 21 (July 8, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (Aug. 5, 2025).

On August 27, 2025, the Chief ALJ shortened the target date to March 11, 2026, after the parties agreed that the remainder of the investigation could be adjudicated through motion practice. Order No. 22 (Aug. 27, 2025).

On September 4, 2025, Cricut filed a motion for summary determination that Konduone has violated section 337 as to the D563 patent and claims 8-12 of the '646 patent, and the Vevor Respondents have violated section 337 as to the D090 patent, and for a recommended determination on remedy. That same day, HTVRONT moved for summary determination of non-infringement of its redesigned products and to partially terminate this investigation as to the products HTVRONT was discontinuing—the Square Heat Press, Reduced Square Heat Press, Mini Heat Press, Mini3 Heat Press, and Hat Heat Press (the “Old HTVRONT Products”)—based upon a consent order stipulation and proposed consent order. HTVRONT's motion to partially terminate the investigation as to the Old HTVRONT Products was granted on January 20, 2026 and the Commission issued a second consent order against HTVRONT. Order No. 27 (Jan. 20, 2026), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (February 17, 2026).

On December 4, 2025, the Commission determined not to review Order No. 24, extending the target date to May 21, 2026, due to a lapse in government appropriations from October 1, 2025 through November 12, 2025. Order No. 24 (Nov. 17, 2025), unreviewed by Comm'n Notice (Dec. 4, 2025).

On January 21, 2026, the Chief ALJ issued a combined final ID and recommended determination (“RD”), finding a violation of section 337 by Konduone as to the D563 patent and claims 8-12 of the '646 patent and by the Vevor Respondents as to the D090 patent. The final ID also found HTVRONT's redesigned products were ripe for adjudication and the redesigned products are entitled to summary determination of non-infringement. The final ID further found no violation of section 337 as to the '758 or D214 patents because Cricut did not present any evidence or argument as to those patents in its summary determination motion. Furthermore, the final ID determined Cricut's contentions that the Old HTVRONT Products infringe the D724 and D237 patents were moot in view of the consent order stipulation. In the event the Commission agrees that a violation of section 337 has occurred, the RD recommended that the Commission issue a general exclusion order (“GEO”) with respect to the D563 patent, a limited exclusion order (“LEO”) against Konduone with respect to the '646 patent, an LEO against the Vevor Respondents with respect to the D090 patent, and cease and desist orders (“CDO”) against Konduone and the Vevor Respondents. The RD also recommended that the Commission set the bond during the period of Presidential review at one-hundred percent (100%) of the entered value of the imported articles.

No petitions for review were filed, which means each party has abandoned all issues decided adversely to that party. See 19 CFR 210.43(b)(4).

Having reviewed the record of the investigation, including the final ID, the parties' submissions to the ALJ, and the record evidence, the Commission has determined to review the final ID's findings on the economic prong of the domestic industry requirement. The Commission has determined not to review the remaining findings, conclusions, and supporting analysis in the final ID.

In connection with the final disposition of this investigation, the statute authorizes issuance of, inter alia, (1) an exclusion order that could result in the exclusion of the subject articles from entry into the United States; and/or (2) cease and desist orders that could result in the respondents being required to cease and desist from engaging in unfair acts in the importation and sale of such articles. Accordingly, the Commission is interested in receiving written submissions that address the form of remedy, if any, that should be ordered. If a party seeks exclusion of an article from entry into the United States for purposes other than entry for consumption, the party should so indicate and provide information establishing that activities involving other types of entry either are adversely affecting it or likely to do so. For background, see Certain Devices for Connecting Computers via Telephone Lines, Inv. No. 337-TA-360, USITC Pub. No. 2843, Comm'n Op. at 7-10 (Dec. 1994).

The statute requires the Commission to consider the effects of that remedy upon the public interest. The public interest factors the Commission will consider include the effect that an exclusion order and cease and desist orders would have on: (1) the public health and welfare, (2) competitive conditions in the U.S. economy, (3) U.S. production of articles that are like or directly competitive with those that are subject to investigation, and (4) U.S. consumers. The Commission is therefore interested in receiving written submissions that address the aforementioned public interest factors in the context of this investigation.

If the Commission orders some form of remedy, the U.S. Trade Representative, as delegated by the President, has 60 days to approve, disapprove, or take no action on the Commission's determination. See Presidential Memorandum of July 21, 2005, 70 FR 43251 (July 26, 2005). During this period, the subject articles would be entitled to enter the United States under bond, in an amount determined by the Commission and prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The Commission is therefore interested in receiving submissions concerning the amount of the bond that should be imposed if a remedy is ordered.

Written Submissions: The parties to the investigation are requested to file written submissions on the issues identified in this notice. Parties to the investigation, interested government agencies, and any other interested parties are encouraged to file written submissions on the issues of remedy, the public interest, and bonding. Such submissions should address the recommended determination by the ALJ on remedy and bonding.

In its initial submission, Complainant is also requested to identify the remedy sought and Complainant and OUII are requested to submit proposed remedial orders for the Commission's consideration. Complainant is further requested to state the date that the '646 patent, the D563 patent, and the D090 patent expire, to provide the HTSUS subheadings under which the accused products are imported, and to supply the identification information for all known importers of the products at issue in this investigation. The initial written submissions and proposed remedial orders must be filed no later than close of business on April 28, 2026. Reply submissions must be filed no later than the close of business on May 5, 2026. No further submissions on these issues will be permitted unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.

Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above pursuant to 19 CFR 210.4(f). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (Inv. No. 337-TA-1426) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. ( See Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf ). Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary, (202) 205-2000.

Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment by marking each document with a header indicating that the document contains confidential information. This marking will be deemed to satisfy the request procedure set forth in Rules 201.6(b) and 210.5(e)(2) (19 CFR 201.6(b) & 210.5(e)(2)). Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. Any non-party wishing to submit comments containing confidential information must serve those comments on the parties to the investigation pursuant to the applicable Administrative Protective Order. A redacted non-confidential version of the document must also be filed with the Commission and served on any parties to the investigation within two business days of any confidential filing. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection on EDIS.

The Commission vote for this determination took place on April 14, 2026.

The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).

Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 provides that, if the Commission finds a violation, it shall exclude the articles concerned from the United States unless, after considering the effect of such exclusion upon the public health and welfare, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, and United States consumers, it finds that such articles should not be excluded from entry. (19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1)). A similar provision applies to cease and desist orders. (19 U.S.C. 1337(f)(1)).

The Commission is soliciting submissions on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief should the Commission find a violation, specifically: a limited exclusion order directed to certain motorized self-balancing vehicles imported, sold for importation, and/or sold after importation by respondents Golabs Inc. d/b/a Gotrax (“Gotrax”) and Zhejiang TaoTao Vehicles Co., Ltd. that infringe U.S. Patent Nos. RE46,964 and RE49,608; and a cease and desist order directed to Gotrax. Parties are to file public interest submissions pursuant to 19 CFR 210.50(a)(4).

The Commission is interested in further development of the record on the public interest in this investigation. Accordingly, members of the public and interested government agencies are invited to file submissions of no more than five (5) pages, inclusive of attachments, concerning the public interest in light of the ALJ's Recommended Determination on Remedy and Bonding issued in this investigation on April 10, 2026. Comments should address whether issuance of the recommended remedial orders in this investigation, should the Commission find a violation, would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.

In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:

(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the recommended remedial orders are used in the United States;

(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the recommended orders;

(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;

(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third-party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the recommended orders within a commercially reasonable time; and

(v) explain how the recommended orders would impact consumers in the United States.

Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business on Thursday, May 14, 2026.

Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above pursuant to 19 CFR 210.4(f). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 337-TA-1440”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. ( See Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, https://www.usitc.gov/secretary/fed_reg_notices/rules/handbook_on_electronic_filing.pdf ). Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary (202-205-2000).

Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment by marking each document with a header indicating that the document contains confidential information. This marking will be deemed to satisfy the request procedure set forth in Rules 201.6(b) and 210.5(e)(2) (19 CFR 201.6(b) & 210.5(e)(2)). Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. Any non-party wishing to submit comments containing confidential information must serve those comments on the parties to the investigation pursuant to the applicable Administrative Protective Order. A redacted non-confidential version of the document must also be filed simultaneously with any confidential filing and must be served in accordance with Commission Rule 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A) (19 CFR 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A)). All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection on EDIS.

This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).

In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a), this is notice that on March 2, 2026, Usona Institute, Inc., 2780 Woods Hollow Road, Room 2412-2413, Fitchburg, Wisconsin 53711, applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic class(es) of controlled substance(s):

The company plans to manufacture the listed controlled substances for use in chemical process development as well as pre-clinical and clinical research. No other activities for these drug codes are authorized for this registration.

In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on March 4, 2026, Quagen Pharmaceuticals LLC, 37 Fairfield Place, West Caldwell, New Jersey 07006, applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic class(es) of controlled substance(s):

The company plans to import the listed controlled substance for distribution to its customer. No other activities for these drug codes are authorized for this registration.

Approval of permit applications will occur only when the registrant's business activity is consistent with what is authorized under 21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2). Authorization will not extend to the import of Food and Drug Administration-approved or non-approved finished dosage forms for commercial sale.

In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on March 6, 2026, LTS Therapy Systems, LLC, 1685 Marthaler Lane, West Saint Paul, Minnesota 55118-3517, applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic class(es) of controlled substance(s):

The company plans to import the above controlled substance as bulk API for internal research, development, and analytical purposes only. No other activity for this drug code is authorized for this registration.

Approval of permit applications will occur only when the registrant's business activity is consistent with what is authorized under 21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2). Authorization will not extend to the import of Food and Drug Administration-approved or non-approved finished dosage forms for commercial sale.

In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on March 3, 2026, Royal Emerald Pharmaceuticals, 14011 Palm Drive, Building B, Desert Hot Springs, California 92240-6845, applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic class(es) of controlled substance(s):

The company plans to import immature plants to use as starting/raw materials to continue cultivation of Marihuana under their Bulk Manufacturing registration. All products and materials will be developed as botanical raw materials or Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients for Drug Enforcement Administration-approved legitimate medical, scientific, research, and/or industrial purposes. No other activities for these drug codes are authorized for this registration.

Approval of permit applications will occur only when the registrant's business activity is consistent with what is authorized under 21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2). Authorization will not extend to the import of Food and Drug Administration-approved or non-approved finished dosage forms for commercial sale.

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:

Abstract: The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is a federal law enforcement agency charged with enforcing the controlled substances laws and regulations of the United States. Its principal responsibilities include investigation and prosecution of major violators of controlled substances laws.

Because of the nature of DEA's mission, and its status as a law enforcement agency, past use of illegal drugs by potential employees presents special concerns, and therefore the agency evaluates a job applicant's illegal drug use and abuse during the application process. Executive Order 12564 is supported in the DEA Pre-Employment Drug Policy that a history of illegal drug use or abuse may be a disqualification for employment with DEA.

The content and questions of this previously approved form have been edited to eliminate confusion between job applicants and polygraphers before a pre-employment polygraph examination. The DEA Pre-Employment Drug Policy and DEA-200 form asks applicants to acknowledge their understanding of those requirements to move forward in the employment process.

1. Type of Information Collection: Revision.

2. The Title of the Form/Collection: Drug Enforcement Administration Pre-Employment Drug Policy Notification and Acknowledgement.

3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: Form number: DEA-200. The sponsoring component is the Drug Enforcement Administration.

4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: DEA job applicants are asked to complete the form. While not mandatory, an applicant can be disqualified in the hiring process for failing to provide the requested acknowledgement.

5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: The total or estimated number of respondents for the DEA-200 is 5,000. The time per response is 7 minutes.

6. An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The total annual burden hours for this collection is 583 hours.

7. An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable: $19,040.78.

If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Enterprise Portfolio Management, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:

Abstract: BJS has conducted the CSLLEA regularly since 1992. The 2026 CSLLEA will be the ninth administration. Historically, the CSLLEA generates an enumeration of all publicly funded state, county, and local law enforcement agencies operating in the United States. The 2026 CSLLEA will also include campus law enforcement agencies serving private institutions. The CSLLEA will provide complete personnel counts and an overview of the functions performed for approximately 22,000 law enforcement agencies operating nationally. The survey asks about the level of government that operates the agency; oversight of any agency sub-components; total operating budget; full-time and part-time personnel counts for sworn, limited sworn, and non-sworn employees; sex of full-time sworn, limited sworn, and non-sworn personnel; race and Hispanic origin of full-time sworn officers; and the functions the agency performs on a regular or primary basis. Upon completion, the 2026 CSLLEA will serve as the sampling frame for future law enforcement surveys administered by BJS.

1. Type of Information Collection: Reinstatement, with changes, of a previously approved collection for which approval has expired.

2. Title of the Form/Collection: 2026 Census of State and Local Law Enforcement Agencies (CSLLEA).

3. Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Justice sponsoring the collection: The form number is CJ-38. The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), in the Office of Justice Programs.

4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: Respondents will include all state, county, local, and tribal law enforcement agencies in the United States that are (1) publicly funded general purpose law enforcement agencies employing at least the equivalent of one full-time sworn officer with general arrest powers or (2) publicly or privately funded campus law enforcement agencies employing at least the equivalent of one full-time sworn officer with general arrest powers. Both general purpose agencies ( i.e., any public agency with sworn officers whose patrol and enforcement responsibilities are primarily delimited by the boundaries of a municipal, county, or state government) and special purpose agencies ( e.g., campus law enforcement, transportation, natural resources, etc.) meeting the above description will be asked to respond.

5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: Approximately 22,000 agencies will be invited to participate, spending an average of 32 minutes each to complete form CJ-38, including time to research or find information not readily available. In addition, an estimated 11,000 respondents will be contacted for data quality follow-up at 10 minutes per respondent.

6. An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The total burden hours for this collection is 13,566.

7. An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable: $521,000.

If additional information is required, contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Enterprise Portfolio Management, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.

The DOL, as part of continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information before submitting them to the OMB for final approval. This program helps to ensure requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements can be properly assessed.

The Black Lung Benefits Act (BLBA), (30 U.S.C. 901 et seq. ) provides benefits to coal miners who are totally disabled due to pneumoconiosis (black lung disease) and to certain survivors of miners. Miners entitled to benefits also receive medical benefits for treatment related to their pneumoconiosis and resulting disability. A miner who applies for black lung benefits must complete the CM 911 (Miner's Claim for Benefits Under the Black Lung Benefit's Act). The completed form gives basic identifying information about the applicant and is the beginning of the development of the black lung claim. 20 CFR 725.304(a) authorizes this information collection. The CM-911a (Employment History), when completed, provides a complete history of the miner's employment and helps to establish whether the individual currently or formerly worked in the nation's coal mines and how long that employment lasted. 20 CFR 725.404(a) authorizes this information collection. This information collection is currently approved for use through October 31, 2026.

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB under the PRA approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

Interested parties are encouraged to provide comments to the contact shown in the ADDRESSES section. Written comments will receive consideration, and be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval of the final ICR. In order to help ensure appropriate consideration, comments should mention 1240-0038.

Submitted comments will also be a matter of public record for this ICR and posted on the internet, without redaction. The DOL encourages commenters not to include personally identifiable information, confidential business data, or other sensitive statements/information in any comments.

OWCP is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection related to the Miner's Claim for Benefits Under the Black Lung Benefit's Act and Employment History. OWCP is particularly interested in comments that:

• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;

• Evaluate the accuracy of OWCP's estimate of the burden related to the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used in the estimate;

• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

• Minimize the burden of the information collection on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

Documents related to this information collection request are available at https://regulations.gov and at DOL-OWCP located at 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room S3524, Washington, DC 20210. Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION section of this notice.

This information collection request concerns Miner's Claim for Benefits Under the Black Lung Benefit's Act and Employment History. OWCP has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request from the previous information collection request.

Type of Review: Extension without Change of a Currently Approved Collection.

Agency: Office of Workers' Compensation Programs.

OMB Number: 1240-0038.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Number of Respondents: 5,400.

Number of Responses: 10,800.

Annual Burden Hours: 9,450 hours.

Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost: $3,137.

OWCP Forms: Miner's Claim for Benefits under the Black Lung Benefits Act CM-911 and Employment History CM-911a.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the proposed information collection request; they will become a matter of public record and will be available at https://www.reginfo.gov.

The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008, Public Law 110-181, was enacted on January 28, 2008. Section 1105 of Public Law 110-181 amended the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA) creating a new section, 5 U.S.C. 8102a effective upon enactment. This section establishes a FECA death gratuity benefit of up to $100,000 for eligible beneficiaries of federal employees and Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality employees who die from injuries incurred in connection with service with an Armed Force in a contingency operation which also permits agencies to authorize retroactive payment of the death gratuity for employees who died on or after October 7, 2001 in service with an Armed Force in the theater of operations of Operation Enduring Freedom and Operation Iraqi Freedom. It also allows federal employees to vary the order of precedence of beneficiaries or to name alternate beneficiaries and provides that the OWCP Forms CA-40, CA-41, and CA-42 are to be used to designate beneficiaries and initiate the payment process for death gratuity benefits. Form CA-40 is an optional form that requests the information necessary from the employee to accomplish this variance and to name alternate beneficiaries only if the employee wishes to do so. OWCP Form CA-41 provides the means for those named beneficiaries and possible recipients to file claims for those benefits and requests information from such claimants so that OWCP may determine their eligibility for payment. Further, the statute and regulations require agencies to notify OWCP immediately upon the death of a covered employee. OWCP Form CA-42 provides the means to accomplish this notification and requests information necessary to administer any claim for benefits resulting from such a death.

Form CA-40 is an optional form that requests the information necessary from the employee to accomplish this variance and to name alternate beneficiaries only if the employee wishes to do so. Form CA-41 provides the means for those named beneficiaries and possible recipients to file claims for those benefits and requests information from such claimants so that OWCP may determine their eligibility for payment. Further, the statute and regulations require agencies to notify OWCP immediately upon the death of a covered employee. OWCP Form CA-42 provides the means to accomplish this notification and requests information necessary to administer any claim for benefits resulting from such a death. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the Federal Register on February 3, 2026 (91 FR 4967).

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.

Agency: DOL-OWCP.

Title of Collection: Death Gratuity.

OMB Control Number: 1240-0017.

Affected Public: Individuals or Households, Federal Government.

Total Estimated Number of Respondents: 7.

Total Estimated Number of Responses: 7.

Total Estimated Annual Time Burden: 2 hours.

Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden: $0.

DOE and DOL have entered into two MOUs to address occupational safety and health authority of both current and former DOE government-owned or leased, contractor-operated (GOCO) facilities. The first MOU, entered into on August 28, 1992 (1992 MOU), delineates DOE's regulatory authority over the occupational safety and health of contractor employees at DOE GOCO facilities. Section 4(b)(1) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 653(b)(1)) exempts from OSHA authority working conditions with respect to which other federal agencies have exercised statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational safety and health. DOE has statutory authority to regulate the occupational safety and health of private-sector employees at DOE facilities under section 161.i.(3) [42 U.S.C. 2201(i)(3)] of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (Atomic Energy Act), among other statutory authorities, and DOE exercises that authority, with certain limited exceptions. The 1992 MOU acknowledges DOE's extensive program for the regulation of contractor health and safety, which includes requiring contractor compliance with certain OSHA standards along with additional DOE-prescribed requirements, and sets forth an agreement that the provisions of the OSH Act do not apply to GOCO sites for which DOE has exercised authority to regulate occupational safety and health.

OSHA and DOE entered into a second MOU on July 25, 2000 (2000 MOU), to establish interagency procedures addressing regulatory authority for occupational safety and health for specific facilities and operations (1) that were formerly controlled by DOE but have been leased to private business enterprises which are not conducting activities for or on behalf of DOE, and (2) where there is no likelihood that any employee exposure to radiation from DOE sources will be 25 millirems per year (mrem/yr) or more. The 2000 MOU also set forth a process in which OSHA would publish a Federal Register notice for privatized facilities or operations for which OSHA assumes regulatory jurisdiction, and that the Federal Register notice would serve as an addendum to the 1992 MOU.

In a letter dated October 21, 2024, DOE notified OSHA that certain parcels of DOE-owned land across certain DOE sites may be utilized by private entities by way of lease or easement (collectively, the “Project Parcels”). DOE has entered into long-term realty agreements ( i.e., lease or easement agreements) to repurpose this land for private-sector energy projects that will be owned and operated by independent entities, not under contract with DOE. DOE will not assert or exercise statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational safety or health of private-sector employers and employees at the Project Parcels. Consequently, DOE requested that OSHA confirm that OSHA or the applicable OSHA-approved State Plan will regulate occupational safety and health at the Project Parcels. Specific information about the Project Parcels subject to this Notice is provided below:

• Idaho National Laboratory Site in Idaho Falls, Idaho: The parcels are represented in township and range format as follows: T6N, R33E Section 16; T7N, R31E Section 16; T7N, R31E Section 19; and T8N, R30E Section 36.

• Hanford Site in Benton County, Washington: The parcels are located along Route 4 in the southeastern portion of the site. They are represented in township and range format as follows: T12N, R27E Portions of Sections 35 and 36; T12N, R28E Portions of Sections 31 and 32; T11N, R27E Sections 1, 12, and Portions of Sections 2, 11, 13, 14, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 34, 35, and 36; T11N, R28E Sections 7 and Portions of Sections 6, 8, 17, 18, 19, 20, and 30; and T10N, R27E Portions of Sections 1 and 2.

• Nevada National Security Site in Nye County, Nevada: The parcels are represented in township and range format as follows: T15S, R53E Portions of Sections 23, 24, 25, 26, 33, 34, 35, 36; and T16S, R53E Portions of Sections 3, 4 and 5.

• Savannah River Site in the sand-hills region of South Carolina (covering parts of Aiken, Barnwell, and Allendale counties): The parcels are bounded by coordinates as follows:

○ Solar Site C: 33°12′58.51690200″ N, 081°43′16.88899080″ W; 33°12′53.86759920″ N, 081°42′56.38398120″ W; 33°11′45.71913480″ N, 081°43′12.41286240″ W; 33°11′40.28659080″ N, 081°43′19.38762840″ W; 33°11′36.90900600″ N, 081°43′36.48835920″ W; 33°11′51.29566440″ N, 081°43′48.70552440″ W; 33°11′57.48951840″ N, 081°43′49.59699600″ W; 33°12′04.29265440″ N, 081°43′40.09553760″ W; 33°12′22.88837520″ N, 081°43′45.39015480″ W; 33°12′37.43054640″ N, 081°43′54.42812400″ W; 33°12′41.63149080″ N, 081°43′51.37684320″ W; 33°12′45.99395280″ N, 081°43′55.31647080″ W; 33°12′59.14741320″ N, 081°43′57.54936000″ W.

○ Solar Site G: 33°11′55.41507690″ N, 081°42′33.74421887″ W; 33°12′24.86308367″ N, 081°41′59.18421217″ W; 33°11′14.30306947″ N, 081°40′30.12018007″ W; 33°10′34.99106128″ N, 081°40′41.24418253″ W; and 33°10′34.99106006″ N, 081°41′21.70819307″ W.

For each Project Parcel listed, DOE does not expect the residual radiological dose to workers to be 25 millirems per year (mrem/yr) or more above background. Further, radiological activities at each relevant DOE site and under the control of DOE pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act will continue to be conducted in accordance with the applicable public dose limits in DOE Order 458.1, Radiation Protection of the Public and the Environment.

OSHA shall regulate the occupational safety and health of private-sector employers and employees at the Project Parcels at the Idaho site. The other three identified Project Parcel sites (the sites in Washington, Nevada, and South Carolina) are located in states with OSHA-approved State Plans that regulate occupational safety and health for private-sector and state and local government employers and employees in those states. OSHA provided notification regarding the expected transfer of occupational safety and health coverage for these Project Parcels to the impacted State Plans (the Washington Division of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH), the Nevada Occupational Safety and Health Administration (Nevada OSHA), and the South Carolina Occupational Safety and Health Administration (SC OSHA)). OSHA received written confirmation from the three affected State Plans that they are assuming coverage over occupational safety and health for private-sector and state and local government-sector employers and employees performing work at the Project Parcels within their states for the duration of the applicable DOE long-term realty agreement(s), consistent with their existing coverage over private-sector and state and local government-sector employers and employees. In an email dated May 29, 2025, OSHA provided this confirmation from the affected OSHA-approved State Plans to DOE and also provided confirmation that OSHA is assuming coverage over occupational safety and health for private-sector employers and employees performing work at the Project Parcels at the Idaho site for the duration of the applicable DOE long-term realty agreement(s).

Therefore, in accordance with the 2000 MOU, this Federal Register publication provides notice that OSHA has assumed and maintains occupational safety and health regulatory authority over private-sector employers and employees performing work at the Project Parcels at the Idaho National Laboratory site in Idaho Falls, Idaho for the duration of the applicable DOE long-term realty agreement(s). It also provides notice that the aforementioned affected State Plans have assumed and maintain occupational safety and health regulatory authority over private-sector and state and local government-sector employers and employees performing work at the other identified Project Parcels within their states for the duration of the applicable DOE long-term realty agreement(s), as follows:

• DOSH confirmed such authority over Project Parcels at the Hanford Site in Benton County, Washington;

• Nevada OSHA confirmed such authority over Project Parcels at the Nevada National Security Site in Nye County, Nevada; and

• SC OSHA confirmed such authority over Project Parcels at the Savannah River Site in the sand-hills region of South Carolina.

In addition, OSHA notes that its website for the Washington State Plan, DOSH, currently states that “certain contractors within the boundaries of the Hanford Reservation and the Hanford National Monument” are not covered by DOSH. That coverage exception arises from a Federal Register notice published on June 29, 2006 (71 FR 36988), which provided clarification as to the jurisdiction and enforcement responsibilities of OSHA and several State Plans at various DOE sites not subject to DOE jurisdiction under the Atomic Energy Act. With respect to the Washington State Plan specifically, that document provided notice that DOSH intended to exercise jurisdiction over private contractors performing work at the Bonneville Power Administration “except in controlled areas of the Hanford Reservation,” i.e., except in the areas of the Hanford Reservation subject to DOE's jurisdiction. Thus, to avoid any potential confusion about DOSH's coverage of employers operating within the boundaries of the Hanford Reservation, OSHA is making a minor clarification on its website for the Washington State Plan to specify that this coverage exclusion is limited to “contractors for which DOE has authority to regulate health and safety, and with respect to which DOE is exercising that authority”.

David Keeling, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, authorized the preparation of this notice. This Federal Register notice provides public notice and serves as an addendum to the 1992 MOU. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to section 8(g)(2) and section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 657(g)(2) and 29 U.S.C. 667), 29 CFR parts 102, 1953, and 1955, and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 07-2025 (90 FR 27878).

We are publishing notice of records schedules in which agencies propose to dispose of records they no longer need to conduct agency business. We invite public comments on these records schedules, as required by 44 U.S.C. 3303a(a), and list the schedules at the end of this notice by agency and subdivision requesting disposition authority.

In addition, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records or states that the schedule has agency-wide applicability. It also provides the control number assigned to each schedule, which you will need if you submit comments on that schedule.

We have uploaded the records schedules and accompanying appraisal memoranda to the regulations.gov docket for this notice as “other” documents. Each records schedule contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their proposed disposition. The appraisal memorandum for the schedule includes information about the records.

We will post comments, including any personal information and attachments, to the public docket unchanged. Because comments are public, you are responsible for ensuring that you do not include any confidential or other information that you or a third party may not wish to be publicly posted. If you want to submit a comment with confidential information or cannot otherwise use the regulations.gov portal, you may contact request.schedule@nara.gov for instructions on submitting your comment.

We will consider all comments submitted by the posted deadline and consult as needed with the Federal agency seeking the disposition authority. After considering comments, we may or may not make changes to the proposed records schedule. The schedule is then sent for final approval by the Archivist of the United States. After the schedule is approved, we will post on regulations.gov a “Consolidated Reply” summarizing the comments, responding to them, and noting any changes we made to the proposed schedule. You may elect at regulations.gov to receive updates on the docket, including an alert when we post the Consolidated Reply, whether or not you submit a comment. If you have a question, you can submit it as a comment, and can also submit any concerns or comments you would have to a possible response to the question. We will address these items in consolidated replies along with any other comments submitted on that schedule.

We will post schedules on our website in the Records Control Schedule (RCS) Repository, at https://www.archives.gov/records-mgmt/rcs, after the Archivist approves them. The RCS contains all schedules approved since 1973.

Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing retention periods for records and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when no longer needed for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives or to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking continuing administrative, legal, research, or other value. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.

Agencies may not destroy Federal records without the approval of the Archivist of the United States. The Archivist grants this approval only after thorough consideration of the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value. Public review and comment on these records schedules is part of the Archivist's consideration process.

1. Department of Commerce, Video and Audio Surveillance Recordings (DAA-0040-2025-0001).

2. Department of Justice, United States Parole Commission Records (DAA-0438-2024-0002).

3. Bureau of Prisons, Inmate Scanning Devices Data (DAA-0129-2025-0009).

4. Federal Aviation Administration, National Simulator Program (DAA-0237-2025-0003).

5. National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Veterinary Care (DAA-0255-2025-0007).

6. National Institute of Standards and Technology, Personnel Records (DAA-0167-2025-0003).

7. Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Employee Relations Program Records (DAA-0576-2023-0031).

8. Office of the Director of National Intelligence, Intelligence Community Chief Information Officer Records (DAA-0576-2023-0014).

9. Veterans Health Administration, Office of Research and Development General Program Records (DAA-0015-2025-0039).

The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) established the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Advisory Committee (Committee) to foster dialogue between the Administration and the requester community, solicit public comments, and develop recommendations for improving the FOIA process. The Committee operates under the directive in FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(2)(C), that the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) within NARA “identify procedures and methods for improving compliance” with FOIA. The Committee is governed by the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 1001-1014.

NARA initially chartered the Committee on May 20, 2014. NARA has determined that renewing the Committee is in the public interest. See IV, Public Interest Determination, below. Member appointment terms run for two years, concurrent with the Committee charter.

The 2026-2028 FOIA Advisory Committee will consist of no more than 20 individuals who will include a range of Government and non-Government representatives. Members are selected in accordance with the charter. Considerations when making appointments will include geographic breadth; various sizes of companies or organizations to be represented; and representation from a variety of fields of business and industry, academic institutions, non-profit and non-governmental organizations, and other stakeholders in accordance with the charter.

Government members will include, at a minimum: Three FOIA professionals from Cabinet-level Departments; three FOIA professionals from non-Cabinet agencies; the director of the Department of Justice's Office of Information Policy (OIP) or the OIP Director's designee; and the Director of OGIS or the OGIS Director's designee.

Non-Governmental members will include, at a minimum: Two individuals representing the interests of non-Governmental organizations that advocate on FOIA matters; one individual representing the interests of FOIA requesters who qualify for the “all other” FOIA requester fee category; one individual representing the interests of requesters who qualify for the “news media” FOIA requester fee category; one individual representing the interests of requesters who qualify for the “commercial” FOIA requester fee category; one individual representing the interests of historians and history-related organizations; and one individual representing the interests of academia.

All Committee members are expected to attend a minimum of 12 public meetings during the two-year Committee term. Meetings will be held virtually to save costs with some in-person meetings possible. All Committee members are expected to volunteer for one or more working subcommittees that will meet at various times during the two-year term. The first meeting of the 2026-2028 Committee term is scheduled for Thursday, September 10, 2026. Meeting notices will be published in the Federal Register .

All nominations for Committee membership must include the following information:

1. If you are self-nominating: Your name, title, relevant contact information (including telephone and email address), and the representative role for which you wish to be considered;

2. If you are nominating another individual: The nominee's name, title, and relevant contact information, and the Committee position for which you are submitting the nominee;

3. For both self-nominations and nominations by other individuals: (a) A short paragraph or biography about the nominee (fewer than 250 words), summarizing their resumé or otherwise highlighting the contributions the nominee would bring to the Committee; and (b) the nominee's resumé or curriculum vitae.

Nominations selected for appointment to the Committee will be notified in writing prior to the first Committee meeting of the seventh term.

Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.65, the National Archives and Records Administration provides this written notice determination that the FOIA Advisory Committee is in the public interest. The following factors below provide an overview of the Committee's operations and public interest intent.

Annual Budget—The overall operating costs for the Committee $230,632. The expected costs are:

(i) Federal personnel (based on a full-time equivalent (FTE) of .97) is $195,491.

(ii) Other Federal internal costs are $4,233.

(iii) Proposed payments to members is $0. The estimated compensation to non-NARA government members, borne by their employing agencies, is $35,141.

(iv) Reimbursable costs are $0.

The Committee does not recommend grants.

Criteria for Selecting Members—Committee members must have significant knowledge of and expertise with FOIA. Eight of the 10 government seats are designated for specific FOIA stakeholder representation. Three seats are designated for representatives of Cabinet-level departments while three seats are designated for non-Cabinet-level agencies.

Seven of the 10 non-government seats are designated for specific FOIA stakeholder representation with seats designated for representatives of non-government organizations that advocate on FOIA matters, and representatives from the three FOIA fee categories, among others. Selection criteria includes consideration of geography, organization size, and range of representatives across business, academia, non-profit and non-governmental sectors.

Existing Federal Advisory Committees—NARA has three Federal advisory committees in addition to the FOIA Advisory Committee:

(1) Records of Congress Advisory Committee

(2) National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee

(3) State, Local, Tribal, and Public Sector Policy Advisory Committee

Justification—The FOIA Advisory Committee is unique. No other Federal advisory committee—or alternative, less costly mechanism—provides a structured forum for FOIA requesters and FOIA professionals to jointly address systemic challenges in FOIA administration. The Committee directly supports the Office of Government Information Services' (OGIS) statutory responsibility under 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(2)(C) to identify procedures and methods for improving FOIA compliance. While OGIS draws insights from assisting requesters and agencies in more than 6,000 cases annually, it relies on the Committee's cross-sector expertise to fulfill this statutory mandate effectively.

Summary of Previous Committee Accomplishments—Since its establishment in 2014, the FOIA Advisory Committee has issued 67 recommendations, leading to measurable government-wide improvements in FOIA administration, including:

(1) Updated OMB FOIA Fee Guidelines

(2) Creation of the Technology Committee of the Chief FOIA Officers Council

(3) Department of Justice (DOJ) Office of Information Policy guidance on key issues

(4) Recommendations to modify the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)

(5) Development of three e-Learning FOIA training modules for the Federal workforce: executives, FOIA professionals, and Federal employees whose primary responsibility is not FOIA

(6) Publication of a request for information (RFI) and scheduling of a FOIA tech showcase to identify technology for Federal agencies to assist in FOIA administration using artificial intelligence (AI)

Why the Committee is Essential—Renewing the Committee charter is particularly important during a period of significant government transition. The President's Management Agenda (December 2025) emphasizes transparency. FOIA is the most robust transparency mechanism and a cornerstone of public access to Federal records.

The Committee's work supports NARA's vision of embracing a shared commitment to transparency and the emphasis on transparency and access to information in the President's Management Agenda.

In conclusion, this public interest determination documents that renewing the Committee is in the public interest, essential to the conduct of agency business, and that the information to be obtained is not already available through another advisory committee or source within the Federal Government.