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    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agricultural Marketing
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agricultural Marketing Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Decreased Assessment Rate:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Grapes Grown in a Designated Area of Southeastern California, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17845-17847</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06891</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agricultural Marketing Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Nutrition Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Agricultural Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17932</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06790</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicare and Medicaid Programs:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application from DNV Healthcare USA Inc. for Continued CMS-Approval of its Hospital Accreditation Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17970-17971</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06861</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Children</EAR>
            <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Annual Report on Households Assisted by the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17972-17973</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06804</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of Refugee Resettlement Annual Survey of Refugees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17971-17972</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06809</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of Refugee Resettlement Unaccompanied Refugee Minors Program Application and Withdrawal of Unaccompanied Refugee Minors Program Application, etc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17973-17974</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06805</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Procedures for Requests from Tribal Lead Agencies to use Child Care and Development Fund Funds for Construction or Major Renovation of Child Care Facilities, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17974-17975</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06795</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Wisconsin Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17937-17938</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06893</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Industry and Security Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Patent and Trademark Office</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commission Fine</EAR>
            <HD>Commission of Fine Arts</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>17952</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06855</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Committee for Purchase</EAR>
            <HD>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Procurement List; Additions and Deletions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17952-17954</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06868</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06881</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Joint Consolidation Loan Separation Application, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17955</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06888</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Native American Language Application Package (1894-0001), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17956-17957</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06889</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program Promissory Notes and Related Forms, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17956</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06890</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Voluntary Agreements and Related Plans of Action under the Defense Production Act, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17958</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06833</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Importation or Exportation of Liquified Natural Gas or Electric Energy; Applications, Authorizations, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cove Point LNG, LP, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17957-17958</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06836</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Colorado; Serious Attainment Plan Contingency Measures and RACT Requirements for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards for the Denver Metro/North Front Range Nonattainment Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17857-17863</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06837</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Missouri; Revisions to Existing Rule 10 CSR 10-5.570; Control of Sulfur Emissions from Stationary Boilers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17855-17857</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06832</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rhode Island; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan for the Second Implementation Period; Prong 4 (Visibility) for the 2015 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17852-17855</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06838</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18056-18132</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06808</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Missouri; Revisions to Existing Rule 10 CSR 10-5.570; Control of Sulfur Emissions from Stationary Boilers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17913-17914</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06831</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Community Right-to-Know Reporting Requirements under Sections 311 and 312 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17966-17967</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06898</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Proposed Settlement Agreement, Stipulation, Order, and Judgment, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>CERCLA Cost Recovery for the Safety Light Corp. Site, Bloomsburg, Columbia County, PA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17967-17968</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06908</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airspace Designations and Reporting Points:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cincinnati, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17849-17850</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06847</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
                    <SJDOC>Covington, KY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17847-17849</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06846</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Denver International Airport, Denver, CO; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17850</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06879</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airspace Designations and Reporting Points:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Canton, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17906-17908</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06894</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crown Point, IN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17909-17910</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06907</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mullin, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17908-17909</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06927</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Omak Airport, Omak, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17910-17912</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06848</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Bureau</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Bureau of Investigation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Compact Council for the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18005-18006</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06844</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules, </DOC>
                    <PGS>18134-18180</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06864</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Review of Foreign Ownership Policies for Broadcast, Common Carrier and Aeronautical Radio Licensees, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17863-17887</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06866</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17888-17893</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06863</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Spectrum Abundance for Weird Space Stuff, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17914-17931</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06865</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17968-17969</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06867</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Deposit</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17969</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06897</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Powerhouse Systems, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17962-17963</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06883</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Texas Eastern Transmission, LP, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17960-17962</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06886</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17959-17960</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06859</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pacific Gas and Electric Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17966</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06884</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Texas Eastern Transmission, LP, Line 31 Expansion Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17963-17964</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06887</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tucson Electric Power Co., UNS Electric, Inc., UniSource Energy Development Co., Tucson Electric Power Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17965-17966</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06860</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Request under Blanket Authorization:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>El Paso Natural Gas Co., LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17964-17965</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06885</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Transportation of Hazardous Materials; Highway Routing, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18021-18022</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06803</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Fish</EAR>
            <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Endangered Species, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17981-17983</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06798</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Nutrition</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for the Study Food Price Data Collection in the Non-Contiguous States and U.S. Territories, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17935-17937</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06845</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Child Nutrition Programs:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Income Eligibility Guidelines, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17932-17935</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06842</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Agricultural</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Agricultural Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Dairy Tariff-Rate Quota Import Licensing Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17893</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06873</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application for Reorganization under Alternative Site Framework:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Expansion of Service Area, Foreign-Trade Zone 136, Brevard County, FL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17938</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06874</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Expansion of Service Area, Foreign-Trade Zone 39,  Dallas/Fort Worth, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17938</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06841</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Application for Subzone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Phillips 66 Co., Foreign-Trade Zone 274, Billings, MT, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17938-17939</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06839</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Funded Extension for the Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement and Delta States Network Development Programs, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17975-17976</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06802</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Transportation Security Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Housing</EAR>
            <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Housing Discrimination Complaint Form, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17979-17981</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06834</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Public Housing Capital Fund Amendments to the Annual Contributions Contract, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17978-17979</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06835</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Industry</EAR>
            <HD>Industry and Security Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Extension of Authorized Integrated Circuit Designer Status and Application Deadline to become an Approved IC Designer, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17851-17852</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06851</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Report of Requests for Restrictive Trade Practice or Boycott, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17939</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06900</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Voluntary Self-Disclosure of Antiboycott Violations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17939-17940</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06901</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Institute of Museum and Library Services</EAR>
            <HD>Institute of Museum and Library Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>2027-2029 Grant Application Forms, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18007-18008</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06862</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Interior
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Office of Natural Resources Revenue</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Improving Customer Experience, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17984-17986</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06899</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Private Rental Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17983-17984</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06895</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet from the Republic of Turkiye, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17941-17943</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06878</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews; Rescission, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17940-17941</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06857</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Investigations; Determinations, Modifications, and Rulings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oil Country Tubular Goods from China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18004-18005</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06843</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Silicon Metal from Angola, Laos, and Thailand, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18004</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06792</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Bureau of Investigation</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Merit</EAR>
            <HD>Merit Systems Protection Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18006-18007</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06858</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>NASA</EAR>
            <HD>National Aeronautics and Space Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>International Space Station Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18007</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06896</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Foundation</EAR>
            <HD>National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Institute of Museum and Library Services</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17976-17977</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06801</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Eye Institute, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17977</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06800</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>West Coast Fisheries Participation Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17948</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06902</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone off Alaska:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska; Central Gulf of Alaska Rockfish Program Cost Recovery Fee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17946-17947</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06870</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17948-17949</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06876</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the Gulf of America; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17944-17945</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06875</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>North Pacific Albacore United States Stakeholders, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17949</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06853</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Endangered and Threatened Species; File No. 29414, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17946</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06830</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17945-17946</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06793</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marine Mammals; File No. 29107, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17943-17944</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06840</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marine Mammals; File No. 29467, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17944</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06871</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marine Geophysical Survey in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18024-18053</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06854</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Intended Disposition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, St. Louis, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17998-17999</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06819</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Intended Repatriation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of California, Berkeley, Berkeley, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17997</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06812</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Inventory Completion:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Case Western Reserve University Cleveland, OH, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17989-17990, 17999-18000</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06823</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06824</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17993-17994, 17997-17998</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06813</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06814</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17994-17995</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06826</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The University of Texas at Austin, Texas Archeological Research Laboratory, Austin, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17993</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06818</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17986-17990</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06820</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06821</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06822</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology, Columbia, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17999</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06817</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Vermont, Burlington, VT, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17990-17991</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06816</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Repatriation of Cultural Items:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Bruce Museum Inc., Greenwich, CT, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17987-17988</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06829</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Field Museum, Chicago, IL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18000-18001</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06810</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>North Carolina State University, Gregg Museum of Art and Design, Raleigh, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17991-17992</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06828</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17995-17996, 18001-18002</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06825</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06827</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Field Museum, Chicago, IL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17986</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06811</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Channel Islands National Park, Ventura, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17992</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06815</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Modernizing Requirements Relating to Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17893-17906</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06877</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18008-18009</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06807</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Natural Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Office of Natural Resources Revenue</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>OCS Net Profit Share Payment, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18002-18004</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06794</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Patent</EAR>
            <HD>Patent and Trademark Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Patent Cooperation Treaty Informed Examination Request Pilot Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17949-17952</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06903</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Peace</EAR>
            <HD>Peace Corps</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>18009-18010</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06882</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>18010</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06856</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Presidential Documents
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Presidential Documents</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROCLAMATIONS</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Aluminum, Steel, and Copper; Adjustment to Imports Into U.S. (Proc. 11021), </DOC>
                    <PGS>18201-18266</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06960</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Pharmaceuticals and Pharmaceutical Ingredients; Adjustment to Imports Into U.S. (Proc. 11020), </DOC>
                    <PGS>18181-18200</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06956</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>EXECUTIVE ORDERS</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>College Sports; Efforts To Preserve Through National Action (EO 14400), </DOC>
                    <PGS>18267-18271</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06961</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Duty-Free De Minimis Treatment for All Countries; Continued Suspension (EO 14388), </DOC>
                    <PGS>17839-17844</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-03829</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>ADMINISTRATIVE ORDERS</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act, as Amended; Sequestration Order for Fiscal Year 2027 Pursuant to Section 251A (Order of April 3, 2026), </DOC>
                    <PGS>18273</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06962</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18010-18020</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06799</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fragments of Memory, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18020</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06852</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Giacometti in the Temple of Dendur, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18020</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06850</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Surface Mining</EAR>
            <HD>Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Wyoming Regulatory Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17912-17913</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06892</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Surface Transportation</EAR>
            <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Abandonment; Belvidere and Delaware River Railway Co., Inc., Hunterdon County, NJ, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>18020-18021</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06791</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Security</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>TSA Canine Training Center Adoption Application, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>17977-17978</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06880</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>DFC</EAR>
            <HD>U.S. International Development Finance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>17954-17955</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-06806</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Commerce Department, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>18024-18053</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06854</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Environmental Protection Agency, </DOC>
                <PGS>18056-18132</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06808</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Federal Communications Commission, </DOC>
                <PGS>18134-18180</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06864</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part V</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Presidential Documents, </DOC>
                <PGS>18181-18271, 18273</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06960</FRDOCBP>
                  
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06956</FRDOCBP>
                  
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06961</FRDOCBP>
                  
                <FRDOCBP>2026-06962</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17845"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>7 CFR Part 925</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Doc. No. AMS-SC-24-0075]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Grapes Grown in a Designated Area of Southeastern California; Decreased Assessment Rate</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule implements a recommendation from the California Desert Grape Administrative Committee (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the 2025 fiscal period and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.040 to $0.030 per 18-pound lug for grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California. The assessment rate will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective May 11, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Bianca Bertrand, Marketing Specialist, or Abigail Maharaj, Chief, West Region Branch, Market Development Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; telephone: (559) 487-5901, or email: 
                        <E T="03">BiancaM.Bertrand@usda.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Abigail.Maharaj@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, amends regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This final rule is issued under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674) (the Act), amending Marketing Agreement and Order No. 925 (7 CFR part 925; the Order), regulating the handling of grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California. The Committee locally administers the Order and is comprised of producers and handlers of grapes operating within the area of production, as well as a public member.</P>
                <P>This action is exempt from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review process required by Executive Order 12866. This rule amends existing Marketing Order No. 925, as amended (7 CFR part 925), Grapes Grown in a Designated Area of Southeastern California, and is necessary for the continued operation of Marketing Order No. 925. Additionally, this action is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 14192, “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation,” pursuant to section 5(c).</P>
                <P>This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” which requires Federal agencies to consider whether their rulemaking actions would have Tribal implications. The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has determined that this final rule is unlikely to have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.</P>
                <P>This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform.” Under the Order now in effect, California grape handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the Order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate will be applicable to all assessable grapes for the 2025 fiscal period, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.</P>
                <P>The Act provides that administrative remedies must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court challenging the final agency action. Under section 8c(15)(A) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 608(c)(15)(A)), any handler subject to an order may file with the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) a petition stating that the order, any provision of the Order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order, is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.</P>
                <P>This final rule decreases the assessment rate for California grapes handled under the Order from $0.040 to $0.030 per 18-pound lug for the 2025 fiscal period and subsequent fiscal periods.</P>
                <P>Sections 925.40 and 925.41 of the Order authorize the Committee, with the approval of AMS, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs of goods and services in their local area and can formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting, and all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.</P>
                <P>For the 2021 fiscal period and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and AMS approved, an assessment rate of $0.040 per 18-pound lug of California grapes. That rate continues in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period until modified, suspended, or terminated by AMS upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to AMS.</P>
                <P>
                    The Committee met on November 12, 2024, and unanimously recommended with a vote of eight in favor and none opposed, 2025 fiscal period expenditures of $88,600 and an assessment rate of $0.030 per 18-pound lug of California grapes handled for the 2025 fiscal period and subsequent fiscal periods. In comparison, the 2024 fiscal period budgeted expenditures were $77,000. The assessment rate of $0.030 per 18-pound lug is $0.010 lower than the rate currently in effect. The Committee recommended decreasing the assessment rate to draw down its reserve funds to within a level authorized by the Order. The Committee projects 2,000,000 18-pound lugs of assessable California grapes for the 2025 fiscal period, the same amount that the Committee initially projected for the 2024 fiscal period.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17846"/>
                </P>
                <P>The Committee derived the recommended assessment rate by reviewing anticipated expenses, the estimated 2,000,000 18-pound lugs of assessable California grapes, and the amount of funds available in the authorized reserve. The estimated 2,000,000 18-pound lugs of assessable California grapes would generate $60,000 in assessment revenue at the assessment rate (2,000,000 18-pound lugs multiplied by the $0.030 assessment rate). The income generated from handler assessments, along with approximately $28,600 from the financial reserve fund, should be sufficient to meet the Committee's estimated program expenditures of $88,600 for the 2025 fiscal period. Funds available in the financial reserve (which currently total about $110,000) would be kept within the maximum permitted by the Order (not to exceed approximately one fiscal period's expenses, as authorized in § 925.42).</P>
                <P>The assessment rate will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by AMS upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information. Although this assessment rate will be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or AMS. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. AMS will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking would be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2025 fiscal period budget, and those for subsequent fiscal periods, will be reviewed and as appropriate, approved by AMS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), AMS has considered the economic impact of this final rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.</P>
                <P>The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act are unique regulations in that they are brought about through group action of typically small entities.</P>
                <P>There are approximately six producers of California grapes in the production area and six handlers subject to regulation under the Order. At the time this analysis was prepared, the Small Business Administration (SBA) defined small agricultural producers of grapes as those having annual receipts equal to or less than $4,000,000 (North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code 111332, Grape Vineyards) and small agricultural service firms as those having annual receipts equal to or less than $34,000,000 (NAICS code 115114, Postharvest Crop Activities) (13 CFR 121.201).</P>
                <P>The USDA National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) reported a 2023 season average California grape producer price of $1,850 per ton, equivalent to $16.65 per 18-pound container ([$1,850 per ton divided by 2,000 pounds] multiplied by 18 equals $16.65). The Committee reported a 2023 grape shipment quantity of 2,549,484 18-pound lugs. Multiplying 2,549,484 by the $16.65 average producer price yields $42,448,910, divided by 6 producers equals an estimated annual crop value per producer of $7.07 million. Assuming a normal distribution, the majority of California grape producers subject to the order have estimated annual receipts of well over $4,000,000 and may be classified as large entities according to the SBA definition (NAICS code 111332, Grape Vineyards).</P>
                <P>In addition, AMS Market News reported an average terminal market price of $38.53 per 18-pound container for the 2024 calendar year (annual average of the weekly low-high price range midpoint, 18-pound container bagged, California origin, various varieties, non-organic, all U.S. terminal markets, all grades and sizes). With approximately 2,549,484 18-pound lugs handled, the total value would be $98,231,619 (2,549,484 multiplied by $38.53). With six grape handlers within the production area, the 2024 average revenue per handler is estimated to be $16,371,937 ($98,231,619 divided by 6), which is below the $34,000,000 SBA size threshold (NAICS code 115114, Postharvest Crop Activities) for handlers. Thus, the majority of California grape handlers subject to the order would be classified as small entities.</P>
                <P>This final rule decreases the assessment rate collected from handlers for the 2025 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.040 to $0.030 per 18-pound lug of assessable California grapes ($0.010 lower, or 25% decrease). The Committee unanimously recommended 2025 fiscal period expenditures of $88,600 and an assessment rate of $0.030 per 18-pound lug of California grapes. The Committee expects the industry to handle 2,000,000 18-pound lugs of assessable California grapes during the 2025 fiscal period. Thus, the $0.030 per 18-pound lug rate should provide roughly $60,000 in assessment income (2,000,000 18-pound lugs multiplied by $0.030 per 18-pound lug). Income derived from handler assessments along with reserve funds should be sufficient to meet budgeted expenditures for the 2025 fiscal period.</P>
                <P>The Committee recommended decreasing the assessment rate to utilize funds from its reserve to meet necessary expenses for the 2025 fiscal period, and ensure the reserve is maintained at a level in compliance with order requirements.</P>
                <P>Prior to arriving at this budget and assessment rate recommendation, the Committee discussed various alternatives, including reducing the assessment rate more and/or less than the rate herein. However, the Committee determined that the recommended assessment rate would achieve its goals of both adequately funding Committee operations and reducing the reserve to an appropriate level. Consequently, those alternatives were rejected.</P>
                <P>A review of historical and preliminary information pertaining to the 2025 fiscal period indicates the average producer price for the 2025 fiscal period should be approximately $13.11 per 18-pound lug of California grapes. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2025 fiscal period as a percentage of total producer revenue would be about 0.23 percent ($0.030 per 18-pound lug assessment rate divided by $13.11 and multiplied by 100).</P>
                <P>This final rule decreases the assessment rate imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, these costs are expected to be offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the Order.</P>
                <P>
                    Committee meetings are widely publicized throughout the production area. The California grape industry and all interested persons are invited to attend the meetings and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the November 12, 2024, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons were invited to submit comments on this rule, including the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17847"/>
                    regulatory and information collection impacts of this action on small businesses.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189, Fruit and Specialty Crops. No changes in those requirements are necessary as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.</P>
                <P>This final rule does not impose any additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large California grape handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.</P>
                <P>AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.</P>
                <P>AMS has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this final rule.</P>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 1, 2025 (90 FR 47243). Copies of the proposed rule were provided to California grape handlers. In addition, the proposal was made available through the internet by AMS and the Office of the Federal Register via 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     A 30-day comment period ending October 31, 2025, was provided to all interested persons to respond to the proposal. AMS received five comments regarding this proposal. Three comments supported the proposal and one comment did not pertain to the merits of the rule. One comment challenged the procedural sufficiency of the rulemaking, asserting that AMS did not adhere to the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, and Executive Order 12866.
                </P>
                <P>Specifically, the commenter claimed that AMS procedurally bypassed notice and comment by issuing a direct final rule without relying on a good cause exception, deprived interested parties a meaningful opportunity to comment, and failed to present a complete analysis of the impacts on small businesses. After reviewing the comment, AMS determined that all of the statutory and procedural requirements for rulemaking have been met regarding this action.</P>
                <P>
                    Contrary to the comment's assertions, AMS did not bypass notice and comment or invoke good cause. Interested persons had numerous opportunities to review pertinent information, present their views, and participate in the rulemaking process. As noted above, AMS published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 1, 2025, that included a 30-day comment period for interested persons, ending October 31, 2025. The proposed rulemaking also included an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, that considered and detailed for the public's review the economic impact of this rule on small entities.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, to address the comment's statements concerning Executive Order 12866, AMS reiterates that, as stated in the proposed rule, this rule falls within a category of regulatory actions that OMB exempted from the review process required by Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, AMS made no changes to the rule as proposed.</P>
                <P>After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendations submitted by the Committee and other available information, AMS has determined that this final rule is consistent with and will effectuate the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 7 CFR Part 925</HD>
                    <P>Grapes, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Agricultural Marketing Service amends 7 CFR part 925 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 925—GRAPES GROWN IN A DESIGNATED AREA OF SOUTHEASTERN CALIFORNIA</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="925">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 925 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>7 U.S.C. 601-674. </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="925">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 925.215 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 925.215</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Assessment rate.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>On and after January 1, 2025, an assessment rate of $0.030 per 18-pound lug is established for grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erin Morris,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06891 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-0534; Airspace Docket No. 26-ASO-2]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Class E Airspace; Covington, KY</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action amends the Class E airspace at Covington, KY. The geographic coordinates of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, Cincinnati, OH, contained within the Covington, KY, Class E airspace legal description are also being updated to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. This action is the result of an airspace review conducted due to the decommissioning of the Cincinnati very high frequency omnidirectional range (VOR) as part of the VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON) Program. It brings the airspace into compliance with FAA orders and supports instrument flight rule (IFR) procedures and operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective 0901 UTC, July 9, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under 1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), all comments received, this final rule, and all background material may be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         using the FAA Docket number. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from 
                        <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17848"/>
                        Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends the Class E airspace at the affected airports to support IFR operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA published an NPRM for Docket No. FAA-2025-0534 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (91 FR 2321; January 20, 2026) and an NPRM correction (91 FR 6152; February 11, 2026) proposing to amend the Class E airspace at Covington, KY. Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal to the FAA. Eight (8) comments were received. Two (2) comments did not apply to the action, so no response is provided. Four (4) comments supported the action, and FAA acknowledges the support. And two (2) duplicative comments were received supporting further expansion of the Class E airspace rather than the proposed reduction; the following response is provided.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA understands and appreciates the opinions expressed for a further expansion of the Class E airspace at Covington, KY; however, the FAA has an obligation to preserve the general public's right of transit through the navigable airspace and therefore must classify controlled airspace only as required for IFR operations and air traffic control. The requirements and criteria for airspace design are outlined within FAA Order JO 7400.2R, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters, and this order was followed in the amendment of the Class E airspace at Covington, KY.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences From the NPRM</HD>
                <P>Subsequent to the publication of the NPRM, the FAA discovered that the geographic coordinates for Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, Cincinnati, OH, contained in the Covington, KY, Class E airspace legal description, should have been updated. As this update does not materially change the boundaries of the proposed airspace or impose any additional requirements on users of the airspace, the FAA has determined that good cause exists for not recirculating this action for public comment, and the geographic coordinates are being corrected in this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document amends the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These amendments will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This action amends 14 CFR part 71 by modifying the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft. above the surface at Covington, KY, due to airspace reviews conducted as part of the decommissioning of the Cincinnati VOR as part of the VOR MON Program.</P>
                <P>For the Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport, Covington, KY, Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft. above the surface, the action decreases the radius from 10 miles to 7.9 miles from the airport.</P>
                <P>For the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, Cincinnati, OH, Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft. above the surface contained within the Covington, KY, airspace legal description, the action updates the geographic coordinates of the airport.</P>
                <P>For the Clermont County Airport, Batavia, OH, Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft. above the surface contained within the Covington, KY, airspace legal description, the action increases the radius from 6.8 miles to 7 miles.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures,” Paragraph B-2.5(a). This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17849"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASO KY E5 Covington, KY [Amended]</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport, KY</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 39°02′56″ N, long. 084°40′04″ W)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, OH</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 39°06′11″ N, long. 084°25′03″ W)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Clermont County Airport, OH</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 39°04′42″ N, long. 084°12′37″ W)</FP>
                        <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.9-mile radius of Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport; and within an 8.8-mile radius of Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within 2 miles each side of the 021° bearing from the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field extending from the 8.8-mile radius of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field to 12.3 miles north of Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within 2 miles each side of the 062° bearing of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field extending from the 8.8-mile radius of Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field to 11 miles northeast of Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within 2 miles each side of the 201° bearing from the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field extending from the 8.8-mile radius of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field to 11.7 miles south of Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within a 7-mile radius of Clermont County Airport.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06846 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3634; Airspace Docket No. 26-AGL-2]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Cincinnati, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action amends the Class D and Class E airspace at Cincinnati, OH. This action updates the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. This action does not change the airspace boundaries or operating requirements.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective 0901 UTC, July 9, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under 1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this final rule and all background material may be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         using the FAA Docket number. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends the Class D and Class E airspace at the affected airport to support IFR operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>The geographic coordinates at Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, Cincinnati, OH, have been updated, but the airspace legal description had not been updated. This action updates the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Good Cause for Bypassing Notice and Comment</HD>
                <P>The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) authorizes agencies to dispense with ordinary notice and comment requirements for rules when the agency for “good cause” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). This action is an administrative change and does not materially affect the airspace boundaries or alter operating requirements; therefore, the FAA finds good cause that notice and public comment under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) is unnecessary.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class D and E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000 and 6002 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document amends the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These amendments will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This action amends 14 CFR part 71 by modifying the Class D airspace and Class E surface airspace at Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, Cincinnati, OH, by updating the geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17850"/>
                    Procedures,” Paragraph B-2.5(a). This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 5000 Class D Airspace.</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">AGL OH D Cincinnati, OH [Amended]</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, OH</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 39°06′11″ N, long 084°25′03″ W)</FP>
                        <P>That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,000 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within 2 miles each side of the 024° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.9 miles northeast of the airport; and within 2 miles northwest and 1.7 miles southeast of the 064° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.3 miles northeast of the airport; and within 2.1 miles each side of the 204° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 6.2 miles southwest of the airport; and within 2 miles northwest and 1.7 miles southeast of the 244° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.2 miles southwest of the airport excluding that airspace within the Covington, KY, Class B airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by Notice to Missions. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6002 Class E Airspace Areas Designated as Surface Areas.</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">AGL OH E2 Cincinnati, OH [Amended]</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field, OH</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 39°06′11″ N, long. 084°25′03″ W)</FP>
                        <P>That airspace within a 4.2-mile radius of the Cincinnati Municipal Airport/Lunken Field; and within 2 miles each side of the 024° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.9 miles northeast of the airport; and within 2 miles northwest and 1.7 miles southeast of the 064° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.3 miles northeast of the airport; and within 2.1 miles each side of the 204° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 6.2 miles southwest of the airport; and within 2 miles northwest and 1.7 miles southeast of the 244° bearing from the airport extending from the 4.2-mile radius to 5.2 miles southwest of the airport excluding that airspace within the Covington, KY, Class B airspace area. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by Notice to Missions. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06847 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-5384; Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-152]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Modification of Class E Airspace; Denver International Airport, Denver, CO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action corrects a final rule published by the FAA in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on March 31, 2026, modifying the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Denver International Airport, Denver, CO. Specifically, this action corrects the airspace docket number associated with the affected airspace.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The effective date of the final rule published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on March 31, 2026, remains 0901 UTC, July 9, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under 1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Policy Directorate, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Nathan A. Chaffman, Federal Aviation Administration, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S. 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone (206) 231-3460.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA published a final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (91 FR 15883; March 31, 2026) for Docket FAA-2025-5384, which modified Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Denver International Airport, Denver, CO. Subsequent to publication, the FAA identified an administrative error in the FAA Airspace Docket number used in the final rule. This action corrects the error by replacing the incorrect Airspace Docket number, “25-ANM-144,” with the intended Airspace Docket number, “25-ANM-152.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction to Final Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the final rule for Docket No. FAA-2025-5384, as published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 31, 2026 (91 FR 15883), FR Doc. 2026-06214, is corrected as follows:
                </P>
                <P>1. On page 15883, in the first column, in the document headings, revise the document identification numbers line (the “agency docket number” line) to read as follows: “[Docket No. FAA-2025-5384; Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-152]”.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Des Moines, Washington, on April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>B.G. Chew,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Group Manager, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06879 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17851"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>15 CFR Part 774</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 260406-0093]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0694-AJ98</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Extension of Authorized Integrated Circuit (IC) Designer Status and Application Deadline To Become an Approved IC Designer</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) is revising the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by extending by about eight months the triggering date for authorized integrated circuit designer status and submission date for applications to become an approved integrated circuit (IC) designer. The new date is December 31, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         The effective date of this rule is April 7, 2026. 
                        <E T="03">Extended date to apply to become an approved IC designer:</E>
                         Applications must be received by December 31, 2026, after which time, applicants may be considered authorized IC designers for 180 days.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Carlos Monroy at 202-482-3246 or by email: 
                        <E T="03">Carlos.Monroy@bis.doc.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">rpd2@bis.doc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On January 16, 2025, BIS published an interim final rule (IFR) (90 FR 5298) (FDD IFR), adding certain presumptions for “front-end fabricators” and “OSAT” companies seeking to export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) certain “applicable advanced logic integrated circuits” under ECCN 3A090.a (see § 742.6(a)(6)(iii)(A) and Note 1 to 3A090.a), unless the presumption is overcome via Note 1 to 3A090.a. The FDD IFR provided three ways to overcome the presumption that involve Approved IC designers, approved “OSAT” companies, or via identifying authorized IC designers with criteria included in Note 1 to 3A090.a. To be listed, entities must submit requests to BIS and be approved through the End-user Review Committee (ERC).</P>
                <P>This final rule revises Note 1 to ECCN 3A090.a by removing the April 13, 2026 date wherever it occurs, and replacing it with December 31, 2026. This change will allow entities additional time to apply to be approved IC designers and allows BIS additional time to process these applications.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Export Control Reform Act of 2018</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 13, 2018, the President signed into law the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, which included ECRA (codified, as amended, at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852). ECRA provides the legal basis for BIS's principal authorities and serves as the authority under which BIS issues this rule. In particular, and as noted elsewhere, Section 1753 of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4812) authorizes the regulation of exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) of items subject to U.S. jurisdiction. Further, Section 1754(a)(1)-(16) of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4813(a)(1)-(16)) authorizes, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     the establishment of a list of controlled items; the prohibition of unauthorized exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country); the requirement of licenses or other authorizations for exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) of controlled items; apprising the public of changes in policy, regulations, and procedures; and any other action necessary to carry out ECRA that is not otherwise prohibited by law. Pursuant to Section 1762(a) of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4821(a)), these changes can be imposed in a final rule without prior notice and comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    1. BIS has examined the impact of this rule as required by Executive Orders (E.O.) 12866 and 13563, which direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     potential economic, environmental, public, health, and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). This final rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866. Therefore, E.O. 14192 does not apply.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), unless that collection of information displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number. This regulation involves collections of information approved by OMB under the following control numbers: OMB Control Number 0694-0088-Simple Network Application Process and Multipurpose Application Form; OMB Control Number 0694-0096-Five Year Records Retention Period; OMB Control Number 0694-0137-License Exemptions and Exclusions; OMB Control Number 0694-0152-Automated Export System (AES) Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For OMB control number 0694-0088, Simple Network Application Process and Multipurpose Application Form, BIS estimates that the extension included in this final rule will result in a net increase of 75 advisory opinions submitted to BIS with an increase of 38 burden hours. However, the increase in burden falls within the existing burden estimates associated with this control number. For OMB Control number 0694-0137, 
                    <E T="03">License Exceptions and Exclusions,</E>
                     BIS estimates the extension included in this final rule will result an increase of 20 approved IC designers, and an increase in 385 burden hours, but the increase in burden falls within the existing burden estimates associated with this control number. For OMB Control number 0607-0152, 
                    <E T="03">Automated Export System (AES)</E>
                     Program, BIS expects an increase of 100 submissions, for an increase in 5 burden hours, but the increase in burden falls within the existing burden estimates associated with this control numbers. Changes impacting OMB Control Number 0694-0096, 
                    <E T="03">Five Year Records Retention Period,</E>
                     are not expected to result in a change in burden hours.
                </P>
                <P>3. This rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <P>4. Pursuant to section 1762 of the Export Control Reform Act of 2018, thisactionis exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requirements for notice of proposed rulemaking, opportunity for public participation, and delay in effective date.</P>
                <P>
                    5. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule under the APA (5 U.S.C. 553) or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) are not applicable. Accordingly, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required, and none has been prepared.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 15 CFR Part 774</HD>
                    <P>Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730 through 774) is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 774—THE COMMERCE CONTROL LIST</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="15" PART="774">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 774 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17852"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             50 U.S.C. 4801-4852; 50 U.S.C. 4601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             50 U.S.C. 1701 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             10 U.S.C. 8720; 10 U.S.C. 8730(e); 22 U.S.C. 287c, 22 U.S.C. 3201 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             22 U.S.C. 6004; 42 U.S.C. 2139a; 15 U.S.C. 1824; 50 U.S.C. 4305; 22 U.S.C. 7201 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             22 U.S.C. 7210; E.O. 13026, 61 FR 58767, 3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 228.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>Supplement No. 1 to Part 774</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="15" PART="774">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In supplement no. 1 to part 774, in ECCN 3A090, amend note 1 to 3A090.a in paragraphs a.(2) and (3) by removing the date “April 13, 2026”, wherever it occurs, and adding in its place the date “December 31, 2026.”</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Julia A. Khersonsky,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Strategic Trade.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06851 Filed 4-7-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-33-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R01-OAR-2025-0915 and EPA-R01-OAR-2020-0562; FRL-13065-02-R1]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Rhode Island; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan for the Second Implementation Period; Prong 4 (Visibility) for the 2015 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Rhode Island on March 7, 2025, as satisfying the applicable requirements under the Clean Air Act (CAA) and EPA's Regional Haze Rule (RHR) for the program's second implementation period. Rhode Island's SIP submission addresses the requirement that states must periodically revise their long-term strategies for making reasonable progress towards the national goal of preventing any future, and remedying any existing, anthropogenic impairment of visibility, including regional haze, in mandatory Class I Federal areas. The SIP submission also addresses other applicable requirements for the second implementation period of the regional haze program. EPA is also approving the remaining element of Rhode Island's September 23, 2020, infrastructure SIP (ISIP) submittal for the 2015 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS). The approval of Rhode Island's second implementation period regional haze plan addresses ISIP requirements related to visibility protection. The EPA is taking this action pursuant to sections 110 and 169A of the Clean Air Act.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on May 11, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-2025-091. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or at the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1 Regional Office, Air and Radiation Division, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Boston, MA. EPA requests that if at all possible, you contact the contact listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section to schedule your inspection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ayla Martinelli, Air Quality Branch, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code 5-MI), Boston, MA 02109-3912, tel. (617) 918-1057, email 
                        <E T="03">martinelli.ayla@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background and Purpose</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Response to Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Final Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Purpose</HD>
                <P>On November 20, 2025, EPA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) for the State of Rhode Island (90 FR 52270). The NPRM proposed approval of the second implementation period regional haze requirements contained in CAA sections 169A, 169B and 40 CFR 51.308, as well as the remaining element of the ISIP under CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) regarding visibility protection (also known as “prong 4”). EPA is now finalizing its proposed determination that the Rhode Island regional haze SIP submission for the second implementation period meets the applicable statutory and regulatory requirements and is thus approving Rhode Island's submission into its SIP. With the approval of the regional haze plan, EPA is also finalizing its proposed determination that Rhode Island has met prong 4 of the ISIP for the 2015 ozone NAAQS. Other specific requirements of the Rhode Island submittal and the rationale for EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPRM and will not be restated here. Two public comments were received on the NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>EPA received two comments during the comment period. The first comment we received, from the Citizen Rulemaking Alliance (CRA), opposes the proposed action. The second comment we received, from MANEVU, supports EPA's proposed action to approve Rhode Island's regional haze plan submittal. However, the comment from MANEVU also objected to EPA's recently adopted policy referenced in the NPRM regarding the “Uniform Rate of Progress” (URP).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The CRA argues that the “record as posted appears insufficient for meaningful comment under the [Administrative Procedure Act] APA and to support an approval under CAA section 110(k).” According to the commenter, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)-(c) requires that commenters “have access to the `critical factual material' on which the Agency relies to formulate and justify its proposal.” “For Regional Haze second planning period SIPs, the essential elements include, at a minimum: The State's identification of emissions units `reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment' at affected Class I areas and the basis for source selection (40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(iii)); The four-factor reasonable progress analyses for each selected source or emissions unit (costs of compliance, time necessary for compliance, energy and non-air quality environmental impacts, and remaining useful life), and the rationale for selected (or rejected) control measures (40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(ii)(A), (f)(2)(iii)); Baseline and projected emissions inventories and any modeling inputs/outputs used to establish or evaluate reasonable progress goals (40 CFR 51.308(f)(1), (f)(2)(vi)); Documentation of interstate consultation and consultation with Federal Land Managers and responses to their comments (40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i), (i)); The State's public notice, comments received, and responses (40 CFR 51.102; 51.308(i)(2)).” The comment claims that “without these materials, the public cannot meaningfully test whether the State's source selection was reasonable, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17853"/>
                    whether cost estimates are current and complete, whether less costly controls were improperly dismissed, whether interstate and FLM consultations were adequate, or whether reasonable progress goals are supported by the record” and requests that EPA supplement the docket and or clearly identify the materials, and extend the comment period accordingly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     EPA disagrees that the docket is missing the necessary information. Rhode Island's Regional Haze plan satisfies the applicable elements of the RHR and other EPA regulations listed in the comment, including but not limited to, 40 CFR 51.102 and 40 CFR 51.308 (f)(1), (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(ii)(A), (f)(2)(iii), (i), (i)(2).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The comment also refers to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(vi), but the regulations contain no such provision.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Regarding 40 CFR 51.308 (f)(1), it establishes requirements for “each mandatory Class I Federal area 
                    <E T="03">located within the State.</E>
                    ” (emphasis added). As stated in Rhode Island's submittal, which is in the docket, and in Section IV(D) of the NPRM, Rhode Island does not contain any Class I areas. Thus, Rhode Island did not have any obligations to submit materials under 51.308(f)(1) and is not responsible for establishing reasonable progress goals. 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     40 CFR 51.308(f)(3). Moreover, EPA generally disagrees that all technical modeling files, including large visibility modeling input and output files, must be in the docket. Large modeling files are generally too large to upload to the electronic docket on 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , however, these types of files are made available upon request. Furthermore, the RHR allows states to rely on technical analyses developed by regional planning organizations (RPOs) when that analysis is approved by all state participants, does not require RPOs to provide notice and comment for their work products, and does not require States to provide notice and comment during the technical development of their Regional Haze plans. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii). Modeling analyses developed and used by the MANEVU states were available in the docket. See, for example, appendix 21 to Rhode Island's submittal.
                </P>
                <P>• Regarding 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(A): As stated in the state's submittal and in Section (IV)(E)(c) of the NPRM, Rhode Island participated in the MANEVU intra- and inter-RPO consultation and included in its SIP submittal the measures identified and agreed to during those consultations. Documentation of the interstate consultation was included in the docket and noted in the NPRM 90 FR at 52282 &amp; n.76 (discussing interstate consultation and referring the public to appendix 20 of Rhode Island's submittal).</P>
                <P>
                    • Regarding 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(iii): As explained in the state's submittal and throughout the NPRM, MANEVU performed source selection and/or four-factor analyses for its member states, and Rhode Island chose to rely on this technical information, modeling, and analyses for the purpose of satisfying regional haze requirements and developing its long-term strategy. The MANEVU technical analyses on which Rhode Island relied are listed in the state's SIP submission and were posted in the associated docket and include source contribution assessments, information on each of the four factors and visibility modeling information for certain EGUs, and evaluations of emission reduction strategies for specific source categories. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     90 FR at 52280 through 52281 &amp; n.66 (discussing the four-factor analysis associated with Ask 3 and referring the public to appendix 6 of Rhode Island's submittal).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Regarding 40 CFR 51.102 and 51.308(i), (i)(2): As explained in the state's submittal and in Section (IV)(I) of the NPRM, Rhode Island conducted an FLM consultation process pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(i), (i)(2) before making the submittal available to the public. Contrary to the comment, the FLM correspondence is well documented in the NPRM and the docket. 90 FR at 52282 &amp; n.72 through 75; 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     at 52286 through 52287 &amp; n.97 through 98. Similarly, the docket included a copy of the state's public notice of the opportunity to request a hearing and submit comments on the submittal. And as EPA expressly noted in the NPRM, no comments were received during the subsequent public comment period, and there was no request for a public hearing. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     90 FR at 52287.
                </P>
                <P>All “critical factual materials” requested by the comment can be found in the NPRM and the associated docket, ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2025-0915. Thus, a public comment period extension is not warranted.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The CRA claims the EPA has not complied with requirements under the Regulatory Flexibility Act/Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (RFA/SBREFA), the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA), the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), and Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The RFA and SBREFA are inapplicable to this rulemaking because the EPA has certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The regulatory analysis provisions of the RFA are only triggered by a threshold determination by the Agency that this rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Because the Agency has certified this rule will not have a significant economic impact, section 603 and 604 of the RFA do not apply to this rulemaking. 5 U.S.C. 605(b). This action merely approves State choices as meeting the Clean Air Act and does not impose any additional requirements beyond those required by State law. Furthermore, the comment's claim that EPA approval of this SIP revision “makes specific emission limits and associated monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting federally enforceable against covered entities” is factually incorrect. That is, no new “emission limits” or “associated monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting” requirements are being added to the SIP. Thus, even according to its own reasoning, the comment does not demonstrate that additional analysis under the RFA/SBREFA is required.
                </P>
                <P>With regard to the UMRA, the EPA has complied by making its own determination that approval will not result in expenditures of $100M+, and therefore the Agency does not need to complete a statement under 2 U.S.C. 1532. Similar to the RFA/SBREFA claim above, no “new control measures or enhanced monitoring/reporting” will become federally enforceable through this approval. Thus, by the comment's own terms, EPA need not “identify expected compliance costs and explain why UMRA section 202 does or does not apply.”</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA has complied with the PRA by certifying in the rule that the PRA does not apply because the action does not involve an information collection burden as defined by the Act. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3502(2). The PRA generally provides that every Federal agency must obtain Office of Management and Budget approval before using identical questions to collect information from 10 or more persons. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3502(3), 3507. The EPA is not conducting nor sponsoring the collection of information from 10 or more persons. The EPA is approving the Rhode Island Regional Haze SIP submission, which merely approves state choices as meeting the Clean Air Act and does not impose any additional requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Lastly, the Agency has complied with E.O. 12866 by determining that this rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action as defined in E.O. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17854"/>
                    12866. And while the comment cites Executive Orders 14094 and 12898 as bases for requiring additional information, those Executive Orders are no longer in place. E.O. 14148, 90 FR 8237 (January 28, 2025); E.O. 14173, 90 FR 8633 (January 31, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     MANEVU states that CAA section 169A(g)(1) sets forth the four factors a state must apply in evaluating potential emission reductions from sources within its borders. They then note that the EPA in its new policy “now invokes an extra-statutory fifth factor, the Uniform Rate of Progress (URP)” which “[a]s framed by the EPA, . . . can override a statutory four factor analysis finding that while additional requirements placed on visibility-impairing sources constitute `reasonable progress,' these can be dismissed because the impacted Class I area is below the URP.” The Commenters note that “[b]ecause the URP is a regulatory creation outside the CAA section 169A(g)(1) definition of determining reasonable progress, . . . the URP as a factor to override a statutory four factor analysis is not permissible.” Commenters state that “CAA section 169A(g)(1) explicitly defines how to determine reasonable progress, and the EPA has received no authority from Congress to impose an additional overriding regulatory criterion that goes beyond the statutory factors [see, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Loper Bright Enterprises, et al. v. Raimondo, et al. 603 U.S. 369 (2024)].”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As MANEVU recognizes, Rhode Island's Regional Haze submission satisfies Clean Air Act requirements.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EPA disagrees, however, with MANEVU's comment that the URP policy articulated in our proposed approval of Rhode Island's submission allows states and EPA to override a statutory four-factor analysis to determine how to make reasonable progress toward the national visibility goal in the second planning period. CAA section 169A(b)(2) requires SIPs to “contain such emission limits, schedules of compliance and other measures as may be necessary to make reasonable progress toward the national visibility goal” and CAA section 169A(g)(1) requires that “in determining reasonable progress there shall be taken into consideration the costs of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, and the energy and nonair quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life of any existing source subject to such requirements.” Rhode Island considered the four statutory factors, as required by the Clean Air Act, and EPA did not dismiss the state's four factor analysis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         MANEVU noted that “approval of Rhode Island's haze SIP is justified without resort to an impermissible fifth factor not found in the statute, and the EPA acknowledges Rhode Island does not rely on the Agency's URP policy in its SIP submittal (90 FR at 52279, November 20, 2025).”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is approving Rhode Island's March 7, 2025, regional haze plan for the second implementation period, and Prong 4 of the September 23, 2020, ISIP for the 2015 ozone NAAQS as a revision to the Rhode Island SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>
                    The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this action and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of the rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 8, 2026. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See CAA section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark Sanborn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, EPA Region 1.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17855"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart OO—Rhode Island</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.2070(e), amend the table by revising the entry “Infrastructure SIP for the 2015 ozone NAAQS”; and by adding an entry for “Rhode Island Regional Haze Plan for 2nd planning period 2018-2028” to the end of the table to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.2070</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r75,r75">
                            <TTITLE>Rhode Island Non Regulatory</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Name of non 
                                    <LI>regulatory SIP </LI>
                                    <LI>provision</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Applicable geographic or nonattainment area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State submittal date/effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approved date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanations</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Infrastructure SIP for the 2015 ozone NAAQS</ENT>
                                <ENT>Statewide</ENT>
                                <ENT>Submitted on 9/23/2020 and 10/15/2020</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    10/14/2021, 86 FR 57060 and 4/9/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>This submittal is approved with respect to the following CAA elements or portions thereof: 110(a)(2)(A); (B); (C); (D) except (D)(i)(I); (E); (F); (G); (J); (K); (L); and (M). This submittal is disapproved for element (H). See § 52.2077.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Rhode Island Regional Haze Plan for 2nd planning period 2018-2028</ENT>
                                <ENT>Statewide</ENT>
                                <ENT>3/7/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    4/9/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Approves full plan.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06838 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R07-OAR-2026-1785; FRL-13279-02-R7]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Missouri; Revisions to Existing Rule 10 CSR 10-5.570; Control of Sulfur Emissions From Stationary Boilers</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Direct final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the Missouri State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the Missouri Department of Natural Resources (MoDNR). This direct final action will amend the SIP to address administrative changes to the State rule in the Missouri Code of State Regulations (CSR). Revisions include removal of references to a revoked State regulation and other minor administrative changes. The EPA is approving these changes because they are consistent with the Clean Air Act (CAA) and applicable EPA regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This direct final rule will be effective June 8, 2026, without further notice, unless the EPA receives adverse comment by May 11, 2026. If EPA receives adverse comments, we will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         informing the public that the rule will not take effect.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2026-1785 to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ashley Eichman, Environmental Protection Agency, Region 7 Office, Air and Radiation Division, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219; telephone number: (913) 551-7762; email address: 
                        <E T="03">eichman.ashley@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. What is being addressed in this document?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Have the requirements for approval of a SIP revision been met?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. What action is the EPA taking?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. What is being addressed in this document?</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is approving a revision to the Missouri SIP, submitted by the MoDNR on November 10, 2020. Specifically, the revisions are to a State rule at Title 10, Division 10 of the Code of State Regulations (CSR) 5.570, Control of Sulfur Emissions From Stationary Boilers, which is codified in the Missouri SIP at 40 CFR 52.1320(c). The purpose of the State regulation is to restrict emissions of sulfur dioxide from industrial boilers in the St. Louis, Missouri area. The administrative changes corrected abbreviations used for sulfur dioxide (SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ), removed duplicative references to 40 CFR part 60, removed a citation to subpart A for appendix B of 40 CFR part 60, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17856"/>
                    added punctuation. The full text of the rule revisions as well as EPA's analysis of the revisions can be found in the technical support document (TSD) included in this docket.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Have the requirements for approval of a SIP revision been met?</HD>
                <P>
                    The State submission has met the public notice requirements for SIP submissions in accordance with 40 CFR 51.102. The submission also satisfied the completeness criteria of 40 CFR part 51, appendix V. The State provided public notice on this SIP revision from July 15, 2019, to September 5, 2019, and received one comment from the EPA. The comment involved an issue surrounding 10 CSR 10-6.261 that at the time had not been approved into the SIP. 10 CSR 10-6.261 was approved into the SIP effective October 6, 2025.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained in the TSD included in the docket for this action, the revisions meet the substantive SIP requirements of the CAA, including section 110 and implementing regulations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See 90 FR 42839 (September 5, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. What action is the EPA taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    We are publishing this direct final rule without a prior proposed rule because we view the amendment of the Missouri SIP to incorporate the revised State rule as routine and noncontroversial, and anticipate no adverse comments. The revisions to 10 CSR 10-5.570 will not affect the area's ability to attain or maintain any air quality standard because they are administrative in nature. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     we are publishing a separate document that will serve as the proposed rule to approve the SIP revision if adverse comments are received on this direct final rule. We will not institute a second comment period on this action. Any parties interested in commenting must do so at this time. For further information about commenting on this rule, see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     informing the public that this direct final rule will not take effect. We will address all public comments in any subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>In this document, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is incorporating by reference Missouri Regulations at 10 CSR 10-5.570, Control of Sulfur Dioxide Emissions From Stationary Boilers, as discussed in section I. of this preamble and set forth below in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 7 Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Therefore, these materials have been approved by the EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by the EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of the EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         62 FR 27968 (May 22, 1997).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA), and EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 8, 2026. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: March 31, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James Macy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 7.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the EPA amends 40 CFR part 52 as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17857"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart AA—Missouri</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.1320, the table in paragraph (c) is amended by revising the entry “10-5.570” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.1320</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,r30,12,r50,12">
                            <TTITLE>EPA-Approved Missouri Regulations</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Missouri citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>effective date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    EPA
                                    <LI>approval date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Missouri Department of Natural Resources</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *         </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Chapter 5—Air Quality Standards and Air Pollution Control Regulations for the St. Louis Metropolitan Area</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *         </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">10-5.570</ENT>
                                <ENT>Control of Sulfur Emissions From Stationary Boilers</ENT>
                                <ENT>10/31/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    4/9/2026, 91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *         </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06832 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R08-OAR-2024-0622, EPA-R08-OAR-2025-0233; FRL-12746-05-R8]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Colorado; Serious Attainment Plan Contingency Measures and RACT Requirements for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards for the Denver Metro/North Front Range Nonattainment Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving state implementation plan (SIP) submittals from the State of Colorado under the Clean Air Act (CAA) that address contingency measures and Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) requirements for the 2008 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) for the Denver Metro/North Front Range (DMNFR) Serious ozone nonattainment area. The EPA finds that the State has met the applicable CAA requirements for Serious area contingency measures as well as RACT for certain stationary sources. Accordingly, the EPA is approving the respective SIP revisions to implement the submitted motor vehicle coating contingency measure, but we are not taking action on one of the identified contingency measures included in the submittals that concerns pneumatic controllers. In addition, the EPA is approving regulatory revisions that Colorado adopted to implement RACT requirements for landfill/biogas fired engines, refinery fuel process heaters, and a cold rolling mill, except that we are not taking final action on the RACT requirement for one refinery fuel process heater that was submitted by Colorado due to an identified error. The EPA is taking this action pursuant to the CAA.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on May 11, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established dockets for the contingency measures and RACT requirements for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2024-0622 and EPA-R08-OAR-2025-0233, respectively. All documents in the dockets are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         or please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section for additional availability information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Matthew Lang, Air and Radiation Division, EPA, Region 8, Mailcode 8ARD-IO, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado, 80202-1129, telephone number: (303) 312-6709, email address: 
                        <E T="03">lang.matthew@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” means the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The background for this action is discussed in detail in our May 8, 2025 and June 18, 2025 proposals.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the document published May 8, 2025, we proposed to approve SIP revisions submitted by Colorado on June 26, 2023, May 23, 2024, and April 2, 2025. These revisions were submitted, in part, to meet the contingency measures requirements of CAA sections 172(c)(9) and 182(c)(9) through adoption of requirements for automotive coating facilities and inclusion of an infeasibility justification for adoption of contingency measures providing for emission reductions of less than one year's worth of progress. In the proposed rulemaking published on June 18, 2025, we proposed to approve SIP revisions submitted by Colorado on June 26, 2023, May 23, 2024, May 30, 2024, and April 2, 2025. These revisions were submitted, in part, to meet the RACT requirement of CAA sections 172(c)(1) and 182(b)(2) through adoption of requirements for landfill/biogas fired engines, refinery fuel process heaters, and a cold rolling mill. The EPA also 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17858"/>
                    issued interim final determinations concurrently with the May 8, 2025 and June 18, 2025 proposed approvals of Colorado's contingency measures and RACT SIP submissions to stay and defer sanctions pending from the EPA's prior disapproval actions for the two requirements.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 19447 and 90 FR 25960, respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 19424 and 90 FR 25901, respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>We received comments on the May 8, 2025 proposal and the accompanying interim final determination from the following commenters: (1) the Center for Biological Diversity (CBD), the Colorado Sierra Club, and Public Employees for Environmental Responsibility in a comment letter submitted jointly (herein referred to as CBD comments), and (2) an anonymous public commenter. We also received comments on the June 18, 2025 proposal and associated interim final determination from the following three commenters: two anonymous public commenters and from Suncor Energy. All comments received are located in the two dockets for this action listed above.</P>
                <P>Concerning the May 8, 2025 proposal, the anonymous public comment is not directed to the proposed SIP revisions addressed in this rulemaking, and therefore the EPA is not responding to it. The comments from CBD raise concerns related to our proposed action on Colorado's contingency measures SIP submittal, including the associated infeasibility justification, and claim that the submittal does not satisfy the requirements of CAA sections 172(c)(9) and 182(c)(9). As to the June 18, 2025 proposal, one of the anonymous public comments is not relevant to the RACT requirements at issue in the proposed rule and the EPA is not responding to it. The other anonymous comment discusses requirements for cement production process heaters generally and is not specific to RACT for refinery fuel-fired process heaters addressed by the proposed rule. The comment on the June 18, 2025 proposal from Suncor Energy identifies an error in the associated regulatory revisions submitted by the State of Colorado. A summary of the comments on the May 8, 2025 and June 18, 2025 actions that are relevant to this final action and the EPA's responses are provided in the Response to Comments document, which is located in the rulemaking dockets for this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>The EPA is finalizing approval of Colorado's SIP revisions related to the contingency measures requirement because we find that they satisfy CAA sections 172(c)(9) and 182(c)(9) for the DMNFR Serious ozone nonattainment area with respect to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. This includes approval of the adopted automotive coatings contingency measure, the infeasibility justification, and associated regulatory revisions to Regulation 7 (Reg. 7) and Regulation 25 (Reg. 25) identified in the May 8, 2025 proposed rule. The EPA is also finalizing approval of the majority of Colorado's SIP revisions related to the RACT requirement because we find that they satisfy CAA sections 172(c)(1) and 182(b)(2). This includes approval of regulatory requirements for landfill/biogas fired engines, refinery fuel process heaters, and a cold rolling mill located in Colorado's Reg. 7 and Regulation 26 (Reg. 26) detailed in the June 18, 2025 proposed rule. Specifically, the EPA is finalizing approval of the regulatory revisions identified in table 1 in this document (below) for which we proposed approval in the May 8, 2025 and June 18, 2025 proposed rules.</P>
                <P>
                    As described in the EPA's June 18, 2025 proposed rule,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the EPA is not taking action on the addition to Reg. 7, Part E, section II.A.4. from the June 26, 2023 SIP submittal that concerns the May 1, 2024 compliance date for equipment specified under sections II.A.1.d.-e. The EPA will propose action on the associated revision to section II.A.4. concurrently with the revisions to sections II.A.1.d.-e. in a future action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 25960 at footnote 21.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The EPA is also not finalizing approval of revisions to Reg. 7, Part A, sections I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv), as well as the corresponding language in Reg. 25, Part A, sections I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv), which we had proposed approval of in our May 8, 2025 proposed rule. The revisions to these sections relate to the portion of northern Weld County which is included in the DMNFR nonattainment area for the 2015 ozone NAAQS but is not included within the DMNFR nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. As such, it is unnecessary to finalize our approval of the revisions referenced above in this action concerning contingency measures and RACT requirements for the Serious classification of the DMNFR nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. The EPA intends to address these revisions in a separate action at a later date.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r150">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of EPA's Final Approval of Revisions to Regulations 7, 25, and 26</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Submittal</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Revisions included in the EPA's final approval</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">June 26, 2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reg. 7, Part A, sections I.B.2.a.(i)-(ii), I.B.2.c, I.B.2.e., II.A.13-18, II.C.1; Reg. 7, Part C, sections I.A.3.a., I.P; Reg. 7, Part E, sections I.D.4.a.(i)(B), II, II.A.4 (partial approval), II.A.4.a.(vii), II.A.4.b.(ii), II.A.5.a.(i), II.A.5.b.(i)(A)(2)-(3), II.A.5.b.(i)(B)(1)-(2), II.A.5.b.(ii)(A), II.A.5.b.(ii)(B)(1)-(2), II.A.5.b.(ii)(B)(6)-(7), II.A.5.b.(ii)(D)-(E), II.A.6.a.(i)-(ii), II.A.6.b.(viii)(F)-(G), II.A.6.c.(ii), II.A.7.f.(iii), V.A.6.b.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">May 23, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reg. 7, Part C, section I.P; removal of Reg. 7, Part E; Reg. 25, Part A; Reg. 25, Part B, sections I.A., I.P.; Reg. 25 appendix D-E; Reg. 26, Part A; Reg. 26, Part B.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">May 30, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reg. 26, Part A, section I.C, Reg. 26; Part B, sections I.C.1., II.A.4.f, II.A.5.b.(ii)(E)-(F), II.A.7.h, II.A.8.b.(i), V.A.1.a.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17859"/>
                        <ENT I="01">April 2, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reg. 25, Part A, section II.C.2.; Reg. 25, Part B, sections I.P.1.b., I.P.3., I.P.4.b., I.P.7.a., I.P.7.a.(vi), I.P.7.b., I.P.8; Reg. 26, Part B, sections II.A.4., II.A.4.g.(i), II.A.4.g.(iv)-(v), II.A.5.a.(iii), II.A.5.b.(i)(A), II.A.5.b.(ii)(B)(1), IX.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Note:</E>
                         At this time, the EPA is not finalizing action on any of the revisions included in the June 26, 2023, May 23, 2024, May 30, 2024, and April 2, 2025 submittals besides those identified in table 1. This means that there are revisions to Reg. 7, Part E included as part of the June 26, 2023 submittal which will not yet be incorporated into the SIP as part of the newly established Reg. 26. Additionally, and as described previously, the EPA is not finalizing approval of the June 26, 2023 revisions to Reg. 7, Part A, sections I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv) concerning northern Weld County, as well as the corresponding language in the newly established Reg. 25, Part A, sections I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv). The EPA will act on these revisions and their incorporation into the SIP within Regulations 25 and 26 in a future action. With regards to the revisions to Reg. 26, Part B, section II.A.4.g.(iv), the EPA is not finalizing approval of the language included in table 3 of section II.A.4.g.(iv) concerning process heater H-1717 due to an identified error in that table. Finally, those sections marked as “state-only” in Colorado's SIP submittals are not included for incorporation into the SIP. Therefore, the EPA is not finalizing action on these sections, and any such sections which were relocated from Reg. 7 to Reg. 25 or Reg. 26 will continue to be “state-only.”
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    In this final action EPA is not acting upon that portion of the SIP submission that incorporates heater H-1717 due to an error that was identified in the regulatory revisions submitted by the State of Colorado on April 2, 2025, concerning RACT determinations for individual refinery fuel process heaters. Colorado's technical support documentation accompanying its RACT determinations for process heaters, as well as the EPA's proposed rule, make clear that Colorado determined that additional controls were not technologically or economically feasible for all refinery fuel process heaters.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Colorado therefore adopted revisions at Reg. 26, Part B, section II.A.4.g.(iv) to identify the existing emission controls that were determined to represent RACT for individual units. For the process heater designated H-1717, the existing emission control was inadvertently listed as operation of ultra-low NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     burners. However, heater H-1717 is equipped with low NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     burners as shown in Colorado's supporting technical documentation at table 5 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Colorado's analysis of economic infeasibility of ultra-low NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     burner or Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) retrofit, as summarized in tables 8 and 9 of the State's analysis, demonstrates the lack of additional feasible emission controls available for the unit.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In our proposed rule, the EPA concurred with Colorado's rejection of burner retrofits and SCR for heater H-1717 on the basis of economic infeasibility, highlighting that the EPA correctly evaluated Colorado's RACT determination despite the error in the submitted regulatory revisions.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, due to the identified error, the EPA is not finalizing our proposed approval for RACT concerning process heater H-1717. We are also not finalizing approval of the language included in table 3 of the revision to Reg. 26, Part B, section II.A.4.g.(iv) concerning heater H-1717. The EPA intends to take action to approve RACT for heater H-1717 when the corrected rule text is submitted to the EPA by Colorado for incorporation into the SIP. The SIP's inclusion of inaccurate existing burner technology for process heater H-1717 in table 3 of Reg. 26, Part B, section II.A.4.g.(iv) does not affect our approval of Colorado's RACT SIP submittal for all other identified process heaters besides heater H-1717. To be clear, the EPA is not disapproving Colorado's SIP submission concerning process heater H-1717. Rather, because of the identified error in the State's submission, we are not acting upon that portion of the submission, and intend to approve an anticipated, future submission from Colorado that corrects the error.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         April 2, 2025 SIP Submittal, Document Set 1 of 2, “Technical Support Document for Reasonably Available Control Technology for Major Sources” at 26-27 and 29-32, available in Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2025-0233. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         also 90 FR 25960 at 25964 and 25966.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 29-32.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 25960 at 25964 and 25966.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Because the EPA is now finalizing approval of the portions of Colorado's SIP submittals that correct the prior contingency measure disapproval, the associated sanctions from EPA's November 7, 2023 are now fully relieved. The EPA is also finalizing approval of RACT requirements for landfill/biogas engines and a cold rolling mill and is determining that our prior December 8, 2023 disapproval concerning these specific sources is now resolved. Concerning RACT requirements for refinery fuel process heaters that were included in the EPA's December 8, 2023 disapproval, the EPA is finalizing our proposed approval that Colorado has adopted RACT for all of the affected units except for process heater H-1717 due to the identified error in Colorado's submitted regulatory language. Therefore, our December 8, 2023 disapproval concerning RACT and associated deferred sanctions will not be fully resolved until EPA receives and takes final action concerning RACT for heater H-1717. To be clear, the interim final determination issued June 18, 2025 remains in effect with sanctions deferred pending EPA action on an anticipated error correction to be submitted by Colorado.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Colorado Air Quality Control Commission Reg. 7 pertaining to the “Control of Ozone via Ozone Precursors and Control of Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds &amp; Nitrogen Oxides),” Reg. 25 pertaining to the “Control of Emissions from Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals,” and Reg. 26 pertaining to the “Control of Emissions from Engines and Major Stationary Sources” (as listed in table 1 above and discussed in section III.). The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 8 Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information). Therefore, these materials have been approved by the EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by the EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of the EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         62 FR 27968 (May 22, 1997).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="17860"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA), and EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 8, 2026. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Ammonia, Carbon oxides, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds. </P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: March 31, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Cyrus M. Western,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 8.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency is amending 40 CFR part 52 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>
                            42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Colorado</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.320:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In the table in paragraph (c):</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>i. Under the center heading “5 CCR 1001-09, Regulation Number 7, Control of Ozone Via Ozone Precursors and Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions, (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds and Nitrogen Oxides), Part A, Applicability and General Provisions”, revise the entries “I. Applicability” and “II. General Provisions”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>ii. Under the center heading “5 CCR 1001-09, Regulation Number 7, Control of Ozone Via Ozone Precursors and Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions, (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds and Nitrogen Oxides), Part C, Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals”, revise the entry “I. Surface Coating Operations”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        iii. Removing the center heading “5 CCR 1001-09, Regulation Number 7, Control of Ozone Via Ozone Precursors and Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions, (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds and Nitrogen Oxides), Part E, Combustion Equipment and Major Source RACT” and the entries “I. Control of Emissions from Engines”, “II. Control of Emissions from Stationary and Portable Engines and Other Combustion Equipment in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area”, “III. Control of Emissions from Specific Major Sources of VOC and/or NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area”, and “IV. Control of Emissions from Breweries in the 8-hour Ozone Control Area”.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>iv. Add the center heading “5 CCR 1001-29 Regulation Number 25, Control of Emissions From Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals, Part A, Applicability and General Provisions” and the entries “I. Applicability” and “II. General Provisions” at the end of the table.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>v. Add the center heading “5 CCR 1001-29 Regulation Number 25, Control of Emissions From Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals, Part B, Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals” and the entries “I. Surface Coating Operations”, “Appendix D Minimum Cooling Capacities for Refrigerated Freeboard Chillers on Vapor Degreasers”, and “Appendix E Emission Limit Conversion Procedure” at the end of the table.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>vi. Add the center heading “5 CCR 1001-30 Regulation Number 26, Control of Emissions from Engines and Major Stationary Sources, Part A, Applicability and General Provisions” and the entry “I. General Provisions” at the end of the table.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        vii. Add the center heading “5 CCR 1001-30 Regulation Number 26, Control of Emissions from Engines and Major Stationary Sources, Part B, Combustion Equipment and Major Source RACT” and the entries “I. Control of Emissions from Engines”, “II. Control of Emissions from Stationary and Portable Combustion Equipment in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area or Northern Weld County”, “III. Control of Emissions from Specific Major Sources of VOC and/or NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area”, “IV. Control of Emissions from Breweries in the 8-hour Ozone Control Area”, “V. Control of Emissions from 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17861"/>
                        Foam Manufacturing in the 8-hour Ozone Control Area”, and “IX. Control of Emissions from Cold Rolling Mills” at the end of the table.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In the table in paragraph (e):</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>i. Under the center heading “Maintenance and Attainment Plan Elements”, add the entries “Contingency Measures for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) Serious State Implementation Plan (Contingency Measures SIP)” and “Landfill/biogas fired engine, refinery fuel process heater, and cold rolling mill RACT for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) Serious State Implementation Plan” after the entry titled “Ozone (8-hour, 2015) DMNFR 2017 Base Year Inventory”.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.320</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,r50,r100">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Title</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Final rule
                                    <LI>citation/date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-09, Regulation Number 7, Control of Ozone Via Ozone Precursors and Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions, (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds and Nitrogen Oxides), Part A, Applicability and General Provisions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">I. Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. Previous SIP approval 8/5/11. Nonsubstantive changes approved 7/3/2018, 2/24/2021, and 11/5/2021. Revisions to I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv) excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026 insofar as related to northern Weld County. Revisions to I.A.1.c., I.B.1.a., I.B.1.c., I.B.1.d., I.B.2.h. and I.B.2.i. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">II. General Provisions</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. Previous SIP approval 8/5/11. Nonsubstantive changes approved 2/24/2021 and 11/5/2021. Appendix A excluded.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-09, Regulation Number 7, Control of Ozone Via Ozone Precursors and Hydrocarbons via Oil and Gas Emissions, (Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds and Nitrogen Oxides), Part C, Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">I. Surface Coating Operations</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Previous SIP approval 8/5/2011; nonsubstantive changes approved 7/3/2018; substantive changes approved 2/24/2021; nonsubstantive changes approved 11/5/2021. Substantive changes limited approval/disapproval 5/9/2023. Revisions to I.L.4.b., I.L.4.d., I.N.7. and I.O.2. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-29 Regulation Number 25, Control of Emissions From Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals, Part A, Applicability and General Provisions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">I. Applicability</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. I.A.1.a., I.B.2.a.(iii), I.B.2.d., and I.B.2.d.(iii)-(iv) excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026 insofar as related to northern Weld County.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">II. General Provisions</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. II.E., II.F., and appendix A excluded.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-29 Regulation Number 25, Control of Emissions From Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals, Part B, Surface Coating, Solvents, Asphalt, Graphic Arts and Printing, and Pharmaceuticals</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">I. Surface Coating Operations</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>I.B. through I.O. excluded pending move from Regulation 7.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Appendix D Minimum Cooling Capacities for Refrigerated Freeboard Chillers on Vapor Degreasers</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <PRTPAGE P="17862"/>
                                <ENT I="01">Appendix E Emission Limit Conversion Procedure</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-30 Regulation Number 26, Control of Emissions from Engines and Major Stationary Sources, Part A, Applicability and General Provisions</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">I. General Provisions</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Appendix A excluded.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">5 CCR 1001-30 Regulation Number 26, Control of Emissions from Engines and Major Stationary Sources, Part B, Combustion Equipment and Major Source RACT</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">I. Control of Emissions from Engines</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. I.D.4.c. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">II. Control of Emissions from Stationary and Portable Combustion Equipment in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area or Northern Weld County</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>State-only provisions excluded. II.A.1.c.-e., II.A.4. (4th paragraph), II.A.4.a.(v)-(vi), portions of II.A.4.d. and II.A.4.d.(i), II.A.4.d.(ii)-(iii), II.A.4.e.(ii), II.A.4.g.(iii), Row 4 of table 3 in II.A.4.g.(iv), II.A.5.a.(iv)-(v), II.A.5.b.(ii)(B)(5), II.A.5.b.(ii)(C), II.A.6.a.(iii)-(v), II.A.6.b.(viii)(C)-(E), and II.A.8.c. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    III. Control of Emissions from Specific Major Sources of VOC and/or NO
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                     in the 8-Hour Ozone Control Area
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>III.C. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">IV. Control of Emissions from Breweries in the 8-hour Ozone Control Area</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/14/2023</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">V. Control of Emissions from Foam Manufacturing in the 8-hour Ozone Control Area</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2024</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>V.A.1.b., portion of V.A.4.a., and V.A.8.b. excluded from approval dated 4/9/2026.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">IX. Control of Emissions from Cold Rolling Mills</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Title</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Final rule citation/date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Maintenance and Attainment Plan Elements</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Denver Metropolitan Area</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Contingency Measures for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) Serious State Implementation Plan (Contingency Measures SIP)</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Approval of previously disapproved element.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Landfill/biogas fired engine, refinery fuel process heater, and cold rolling mill RACT for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) Serious State Implementation Plan</ENT>
                                <ENT>2/14/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>05/11/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    91 FR [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 4/9/2026
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Excluding process heater H-1717 due to identified error in Colorado's submission.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="17863"/>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06837 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>47 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[GN Docket No. 25-149; FCC 26-3; FR ID 294037]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Review of Foreign Ownership Policies for Broadcast, Common Carrier and Aeronautical Radio Licensees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission or FCC) adopted a Report and Order to update foreign ownership rules for common carrier and broadcast licensees to clarify the Commission's review under section 310(b) of the Communications Act of 1934. With regard to common carrier licensees, the Report and Order adopted rules to codify existing policy regarding which entity is the controlling U.S. parent; codify the Commission's advance approval policy regarding certain deemed voting interests; require identification of trusts and trustees; extend the remedial procedures and methodology to privately held companies; add requirements regarding the contents of remedial petitions; require the filing of amendments as a complete restatement to petitions for declaratory ruling; and clarify U.S. residency requirements. For broadcast licensees only, the Report and Order covers: how the Commission should process applications filed by a broadcast licensee during the pendency of a remedial petition for declaratory ruling under section 310(b)(4); and other foreign ownership considerations related to processing applications for NCE and LPFM stations. Regarding broadcast licensees only, the Report and Order directs the Media Bureau to issue processing guidelines detailing how the Commission would process applications filed by a broadcast licensee during the pendency of a remedial section 310(b)(4) petition; and clarifies other foreign ownership considerations related to processing applications for noncommercial educational (NCE) and low power FM (LPFM) stations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         These rules are effective May 11, 2026.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brenda D. Villanueva, Telecommunications and Analysis Division, Office of International Affairs, at 
                        <E T="03">Brenda.Villanueva@fcc.gov</E>
                         or (202) 418-7131. For additional information concerning the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) information collection requirements contained in this document, contact Cathy Williams at 202-418-2918, or via the internet at 
                        <E T="03">Cathy.Williams@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This is a summary of the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     in GN Docket No. 25-149; FCC 26-3, adopted on January 29, 2026, and released on January 30, 2026. The full text of this document is available for public inspection and copying via ECFS at 
                    <E T="03">http://apps.fcc.gov/ecfs</E>
                     and the FCC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-3A1.pdf.</E>
                     Documents will be available electronically in ASCII, Microsoft Word, and/or Adobe Acrobat. Alternative formats are available for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                     or calling the Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0530 (voice), (202) 418-0432 (TTY).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis.</E>
                     As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Commission has prepared this present Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities by the policies and rules proposed in this Report and Order. The Commission will send a copy of this Report and Order, including this FRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA). In addition, the Report and Order and FRFA (or summaries thereof) will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Synopsis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
                <P>In this Report and Order, we codify and clarify longstanding policies and practices with respect to the Commission's foreign ownership requirements and streamline its review processes under Section 310(b) of the Act. Certain updates apply to common carrier and broadcast licensees, and others apply only to broadcast licensees subject to section 310(b), as discussed below. Through these streamlining efforts, we promote efficiency, clarity, and consistency of our rules while continuing to analyze foreign investment to ensure that it complies with statutory requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Common Carrier and Broadcast Licensees</HD>
                <P>
                    For common carrier and broadcast licensees,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     we adopt the proposals in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking 90 FR 26684 (
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                    ) to codify certain longstanding foreign ownership policies and practices to streamline the Commission's review process under Section 310(b). Specifically, we: (1) codify existing policy regarding which entity in the ownership chain should be designated as the controlling U.S. parent; (2) codify the Commission's advance approval policy regarding certain deemed voting interests; (3) amend our rules to clarify the requirement to identify trusts and trustees in petitions; (4) amend our rules to extend the remedial procedures to privately held companies and continue to allow privately held companies to use the methodology on a case-by-case basis; (5) amend our rules to clarify requirements regarding the contents of remedial Section 310(b) petitions; (6) specify the process of filing amendments to Section 310(b) petitions; and (7) clarify U.S. residency requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         We refer to broadcast, common carrier wireless, aeronautical en route and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees (including broadcast permittees) and to common carrier spectrum lessees collectively as “licensees” unless the context warrants otherwise. We also use the term “common carrier” or “common carrier licensees” to encompass common carrier wireless, aeronautical en route and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees, and spectrum lessees. “Spectrum lessees” is defined in § 1.9003 of part 1, Subpart X (“Spectrum Leasing”). 47 CFR 1.9003.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Controlling U.S. Parent Definition</HD>
                <P>
                    As proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     we adopt a definition of controlling U.S. parent to provide regulatory certainty, ease administrative burdens, and codify the Commission's longstanding practice. For purposes of Section 310(b)(4), we define the controlling U.S. parent as “the first controlling entity organized in the United States that is directly above the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17864"/>
                    licensee(s) in the vertical chain of control and does not itself hold a license subject to [S]ection 310(b).” NCTA agrees with the Commission's proposal and no commenter opposes it. NCTA states the definition “would provide regulatory certainty for petitioners in determining how to appropriately factor the controlling U.S. parent in foreign ownership analyses.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    Importantly, identifying the controlling U.S. parent is the basis for assessing foreign ownership in all Section 310(b)(4) petitions. With the correctly identified controlling U.S. parent, entities can properly calculate the aggregate foreign ownership interests, ascertain all the disclosable interest holders, and determine which interests require specific and/or advance approval. As explained in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     we have encountered mixed approaches where some petitions correctly identify the controlling U.S. parent as the first controlling entity organized in the United States that is directly above the licensee(s) in the vertical chain of control that does not itself hold a license subject to Section 310(b), while others incorrectly identify the entity higher up in the vertical ownership chain where there is first direct foreign ownership. By adopting the proposed controlling U.S. parent definition, we simply codify our existing practice to bring clarity to our rules. Finally, we remind petitioners that they continue to have the flexibilities provided in §§ 1.5004(c)(1) (insertion of new controlling foreign organized company), 1.5004(d)(1) (insertion of new non-controlling foreign organized company), 1.5001(e) and (f) (disclosable interest holders), 1.5001(i) (specific approvals), and 1.5001(k) (advance approval)—which all rely on properly identifying the controlling U.S. parent.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Deemed Voting Interest and Advance Approval</HD>
                <P>
                    We adopt the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     and amend the rules to codify the Commission's existing practice regarding the treatment of entities that hold a deemed voting interest and are limited partners in a limited partnership (LP) or are members of a limited liability company (LLC). We adopt these rules to provide regulatory certainty to petitioners, streamline the review process, and ensure that the Commission's long-standing approach is reflected in the foreign ownership rules. As discussed in detail in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     a foreign individual or entity that receives specific approval under § 1.5001(i) may request advance approval to increase the ownership interest in the future without the need to request additional authority. Limited partners and LLC members may be deemed to hold a greater voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent than their actual interests. Under the deemed voting interest analysis for voting interests held by limited partners and LLC members, the Commission assesses whether the interests held in the limited partnership and LLC are or are not insulated. The Commission determines whether interests are insulated for limited partnerships, limited liability partnerships, and LLCs in accordance with 47 CFR 1.5003. If the limited partnership or LLC is considered to be insulated under the Commission's rules, the limited partner or LLC member is deemed to hold a voting interest equal to its equity interest. On the other hand, if the limited partnership or LLC is determined to be uninsulated, the limited partner or LLC member is deemed to hold the same voting interest as the limited partnership or LLC holds in the next lower tier in the licensee's vertical ownership chain. If the limited partnership or LLC holds its interest directly in the controlling U.S. parent, it is deemed to hold a 100 percent voting interest. Although a foreign individual or entity with a 
                    <E T="03">de jure</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     controlling interest in the controlling U.S. parent may request advance approval for 100 percent of the direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent, a foreign individual or entity with a deemed voting interest of 50 percent or greater may only request advance approval for up to a non-controlling 49.99 percent direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent. The Commission utilizes deemed voting interests to measure foreign influence separate from its analysis of whether a particular investor has actual decision-making power. As such, a determination that a foreign investor has deemed voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent does not necessarily mean that such foreign investor also has 
                    <E T="03">de jure</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     control of the controlling U.S. parent. The current rules regarding advance approval under § 1.5001(k) do not specifically address deemed voting interests for limited partnerships and LLCs.
                </P>
                <P>To provide certainty to petitioners and investors, we codify our long-standing practice concerning the amount of advance approval that interest holders with deemed voting interest may request for interest held in LPs and LLCs. Deemed voting interest is only used in a Section 310(b) review to determine which entities require specific approval, and for which advance approval may be requested. A finding of a deemed voting interest of 50 percent or more is not a finding of de jure or de facto control of the controlling U.S. parent. Rather, it is an indication of the potential influence of the limited partner or LLC member in the partnership or LLC. The new rules clarify that foreign individuals and/or entities, including LPs and LLCs, requesting specific approval pursuant to § 1.5001(i) of the Commission's rules that have a deemed voting interest but not an actual controlling voting interest, may request advance approval under § 1.5001(k) to increase their interest at a future time to a non-controlling 49.99 percent. However, if the Commission determines that there is an actual controlling interest then the petitioner may request advance approval of up to and including a controlling 100 percent interest. NCTA supports the proposals stating that “[c]odifying these current practices would add needed clarity to the Commission's rules.” No commenter opposes the proposals.</P>
                <P>
                    Therefore, we adopt our proposal and codify our long-standing practice that under §§ 1.5001(i) and 1.5001(k) of the Commission's rules, a finding of deemed voting interest of 50 percent or more is not a finding of control in and of itself. First, we amend the specific approval rule in § 1.5001(i) to codify our long-standing practice that a finding that a foreign individual or entity is deemed to hold a 100 percent voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent for purposes of § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                    <E T="03">1</E>
                    ) or a 50 percent or greater voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                    <E T="03">2</E>
                    ), does not indicate that the interest constitutes 
                    <E T="03">de jure</E>
                     control for purposes of compliance with section 310(d) of the Act. Second, we amend the advance approval rule in § 1.5001(k) to state that a foreign individual or entity that has a deemed voting interest of 100 percent pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                    <E T="03">1</E>
                    ) or a 50 percent or greater voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                    <E T="03">2</E>
                    ), but that does not have 
                    <E T="03">de jure</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     control of the controlling U.S. parent, may request advance approval for the foreign individual or entity to increase its interests, at some future time, up to any non-controlling amount not to exceed a 49.99 percent equity and/or voting interest.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Trust and Trustees Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    As proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     we amend the rules to codify the existing practice to require that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17865"/>
                    petitioners identify the trustees of trusts that are disclosable interest holders in the controlling U.S. parent. The rule changes will provide clarity about the type of information required for trusts and trustees in a petition, streamline the filing process, and enable the Commission to more efficiently review petitions. In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission proposed to amend our rules to conform with policy and practice that the trustees must be disclosed under § 1.5001(e), (f), and (i), as applicable. We received no comments on this proposal.
                </P>
                <P>Under § 1.5001(e) and (f) of the rules, a petitioner must disclose trusts, as well as any other entity or individual, U.S. or foreign, as a disclosable interest holder, if the entity or individual holds, or would hold, a direct or indirect interest of 10 percent or more, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning common carrier and broadcast applicant or licensee. In the broadcast context, the petitioner must utilize the attribution rules and policies applicable to broadcasters to determine the U.S. and foreign interests that must be disclosed in a section 310(b)(4) petition. To analyze whether a particular trust holds an equity and/or voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent for purposes of compliance with section 310(b), Commission staff have required the petitioners to provide the identity of trustees of a trust through supplemental filings. Therefore, we codify our practice and amend § 1.5001(e), (f), and (i), to require petitioners to provide the name(s) of the trustee(s) in petitions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Extending the Methodology and Remedial Process to Privately Held Entities</HD>
                <P>
                    We amend the Commission's rules in § 1.5004(f)(3) and (f)(4) to extend the remedial process available for U.S. public companies to privately held entities for inadvertent non-compliance with the foreign ownership benchmarks. In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment on extending the Commission's remedial process available to U.S. public companies for inadvertent non-compliance with the foreign ownership benchmarks to privately held U.S. companies for all services subject to section 310(b)(4). The Commission explained that since the 
                    <E T="03">2016 Foreign Ownership Report and Order,</E>
                     it has observed increasingly complex ownership structures of its licensees, including both U.S. public and privately held companies. Notably, licensees whose controlling U.S. parents are privately held companies have reported that they experience similar issues as public companies, including the “up-the-chain” ownership structures that include entities, such as equity funds, that may themselves either be public companies or have diverse ownership interests (including other funds). These licensees also have indicated that they have experienced difficulty in controlling or preventing changes in these funds, even when the entities are privately held. Absent the safe harbor available to U.S. public companies with existing foreign ownership, however, privately held U.S. companies are subject to potential enforcement action if there is an inadvertent violation of the foreign ownership benchmarks. NAB supports the Commission extending its remedial filing process to privately held companies, and welcomes this development to “modernize” the rules to “reflect the increasing complexity of ownership structures among regulated entities.” NAB is “not aware of specific data to suggest that broadcasters are any more or less likely to have complex ownership structures,” but asserts that the change would “reduce burdens on privately held licensees with complex ownership structures and lower their risk of enforcement actions from inadvertent violations of the foreign ownership limits.” No other comments were received on this topic.
                </P>
                <P>Accordingly, we amend our rules to allow privately held licensees to use the remedial filing process and will require them to adhere to the remedial filing requirements applicable to publicly held companies. We clarify that in the event that the licensee, regardless of whether its controlling U.S. parent is a privately held or U.S. public company, satisfies the elements of this safe harbor for remedial action in the Commission's rules, the Commission would not expect to take enforcement action related to the non-compliance. This approach will provide privately held U.S. companies with a safe harbor for non-compliance with the rules for changes in ownership beyond the licensee's control and that were not reasonably foreseeable by, or known to, the licensee.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, we find that no action is necessary on the separate issue of formally extending the blanket methodology used by U.S. public companies to privately held companies. As discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission has allowed privately held licensees to use the calculation methodology that is applicable to U.S. public companies on a case-by-case basis, when, for example, “there are significant impediments that prevent a privately held entity from conducting an up-the-chain analysis to ascertain all of its indirect ownership interests, including non-voting equity interests held by remote, insulated investors.” Neither the record nor the Commission's own experience indicates a need to depart from this case-by-case approach. Accordingly, we find that it is appropriate to continue to allow privately held entities to use this methodology applicable to U.S. public companies on a case-by-case basis. We note that the Commission staff frequently works with private entities to address and resolve impediments to identifying ownership interests, and we expect that this collaborative process will continue as private entities explore whether it is appropriate to rely on the methodology available for U.S. publicly traded companies.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Contents of Remedial Petitions</HD>
                <P>
                    We adopt the proposal in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     to add § 1.5004(f)(5) of the rules to clarify that, consistent with current practice, remedial petitions must contain all of the information required for an initial petition for declaratory ruling (§ 1.5001 of the Commission's rules sets out the required information to be disclosed by petitioners) and not just the information related to the newly discovered non-compliant interest(s) with respect to all services subject to Section 310(b). As the Commission explained in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission's foreign ownership rules already require that remedial petitions must be filed as new petitions and set forth the required contents of petitions for declaratory ruling. Thus, when an eligible licensee opts to file a remedial petition under §§ 1.5004(f)(3) or (f)(4) to address an instance of non-compliance with the Commission's foreign ownership rules, the Commission has required that the remedial petition contain all the information required for an initial petition and not just the information related to the non-compliant interest(s). And while the Commission has observed that most petitioners voluntarily submit a full petition, staff has observed instances where some petitioners initially provided only the information related to the non-compliant interest(s), resulting in added correspondence and coordination with staff and additional petitioner submissions. We believe that failure to provide all relevant information unduly delays and frustrates efficient processing of remedial petitions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NCTA supports the Commission's proposal, asserting it would “reduce the need for follow-up questions from Commission staff and would align with the Commission's current practice.” 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17866"/>
                    NCTA also suggests that since this proposal echoes similar requirements in other sections of the Commission's foreign ownership rules, this proposed rule change would result in a more streamlined process. In contrast, NAB asserts that even if this proposed amendment reflects current staff practice, NAB believes this practice “unnecessarily compounds filing burdens and increases processing timelines for petitioners that are subject to an existing Section 310(b) declaratory ruling that authorizes a certain level of foreign ownership and may approve individual foreign investors.” NAB essentially takes issue with what our rules already require, suggesting that under the Commission's proposal, “
                    <E T="03">every</E>
                     remedial petition would be considered a new petition that would need to include information concerning not only new foreign investor(s), but also foreign investor(s) that may already be authorized by the FCC through a declaratory ruling.” NAB adds that “[t]he proposal would also require petitioners to re-justify existing foreign ownership that has already been carefully considered and approved by the FCC in a previous proceeding.” As an alternative to the Commission's proposal, and to “alleviate filing burdens,” NAB urges the Commission to codify an exception for petitioners subject to existing Section 310(b) rulings, requiring such petitioners to “provide information and public interest justifications in a remedial petition with respect to only new foreign investors for which Commission approval is required under Section 310(b).” Further, “NAB encourages the FCC to extend this exception to section 310(b) petitions seeking 
                    <E T="03">prior</E>
                     FCC consent for prospective new foreign investment where the petitioner is already subject to a Section 310(b) declaratory ruling.”
                </P>
                <P>We agree with NCTA's assertions and therefore, we adopt our proposal to codify the existing practice by adding § 1.5004(f)(5) to clarify that remedial petitions must contain all of the information required for an initial petition and not just the information related to the newly discovered non-compliant interest(s) with respect to all services subject to Section 310(b). Consistent with our decision to extend the Commission's remedial process for inadvertent violations of the foreign ownership benchmarks to U.S. privately held companies, we clarify that our requirements regarding the contents of remedial petitions apply to both U.S. public companies and U.S. privately held companies. This approach allows us to view the comprehensive picture of foreign ownership at the outset of our review as opposed to solely the new foreign investors for which Commission approval is required. Further, as NCTA asserts, this approach will reduce the need for follow-up questions. We disagree with NAB's concern that the proposal would be burdensome because it would require that every remedial petition be re-justified as a new petition, including existing foreign ownership. While remedial petitions are filed as new petitions, the Commission staff's review will focus on the new, non-compliant interests in the context of the information submitted via the remedial petition, limiting the burden of that review on licensees participating in the proceeding. Furthermore, with respect to the filing of information regarding existing foreign ownership, we find that any burden would be mitigated by the fact that such information was filed previously and that NAB's comment has not quantified any additional burden from refiling such information. On the other hand, we believe that requiring that a remedial petition contain the same information as an initial petition is of significant value because it will enable staff to review a complete filing and to more efficiently and effectively make the appropriate determination under the Section 310(b) public interest analysis. Therefore, we reject NAB's proposed categorical exemption for reviewing and approving only the new foreign investors, as we find that this limitation could frustrate our ability to conduct a comprehensive analysis as required under Section 310(b). On balance, we find that the benefits of adopting the proposal to codify the existing practice outweigh any unquantified additional filing burdens. Obtaining complete information in the first instance, in turn, will streamline the review process for remedial petitions and reduce the processing timelines that are also of significant concern to NAB. Nonetheless, we encourage applicants to consult with Commission staff to discuss particular facts and circumstances if they believe that a different approach is warranted or if there are specific factors that will help facilitate staff's review of the petition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Filing Amendments to Petitions for Declaratory Ruling</HD>
                <P>
                    To ensure that the public and Commission staff can access accurate and complete ownership information without undue confusion about which filings or portions of filings are active and/or current, we reaffirm and codify existing amendment filing practices in § 1.5000(b)(1)-(2). In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment on whether to codify Commission staff's practice of having petitioners file a complete restatement of the Section 310(b) petition in cases involving substantial changes to the petition along with a cover letter providing a narrative description of what is being amended. To further minimize burdens, the Commission sought comment on whether certain ministerial changes could be filed as an amendment or supplement rather than as a complete restatement.
                </P>
                <P>No commenter opposes a requirement that any amendments to a pending petition must be filed as a complete restatement of the initial petition, but NAB urges that if the Commission does so, it should “codify an exception allowing for ministerial changes to be filed as a supplement in the relevant docket that details the minor amendments.” NAB suggests that ministerial changes could include “changes made to: correct lists of attributable interest holders to remove duplicate entries; update such lists to add additional interest holders or revise identifying information; or update equity and voting interests to reflect slight changes to entities or individuals that have already been disclosed in the initial petitions consistent with the FCC's foreign ownership or attribution rules.” NCTA is broadly supportive of requiring that amendments be filed as a complete restatement of the initial petition, agreeing with the Commission's reasoning for adopting such a requirement.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on the record, we codify our existing practices. Specifically, for substantial changes, an amendment to a pending petition must be filed as a complete restatement in the International Communications Filing System (ICFS) (for common carriers) or Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS) (for broadcasters) of the initial petition with a cover letter providing a narrative description of the substantial change. The ICFS homepage is located at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/icfs.</E>
                     The ECFS homepage is located at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/ecfs.</E>
                     Also, consistent with existing practice, in the case of ministerial change(s), petitioners must file an amendment in ICFS (for common carriers) or in ECFS (for broadcasters) under the relevant application or docket detailing only the relevant change(s). Similar to what NAB suggests, we provide as guidance the following non-exhaustive list of ministerial changes: (1) correcting lists of attributable interest holders to remove duplicate entries; (2) updating such lists to revise identifying information; (3) correcting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17867"/>
                    equity and voting interests amounts to reflect any changes to entities or individuals that have already been disclosed in the initial petition consistent with the Commission's foreign ownership or attribution rules; or (4) correcting misspellings or incorrect addresses. For all other types of changes not covered by this list, we encourage applicants to contact Commission staff to review whether a particular change is substantial or ministerial in nature. For such ministerial changes, we expect that petitioners will submit a new version of the relevant exhibit or attachment with the necessary corrections and provide a brief explanation of the ministerial change in the corrected exhibit/attachment or by cover letter. For common carriers, petitioners will submit amendments to a petition under Form 235, ISP-AMD via ICFS. Ministerial changes to fields in the online application form can be submitted by changing the response in the application form itself. Ministerial changes to attachments can be submitted by uploading a new attachment to the amendment application. We find that this flexible approach will reduce undue filing burdens on applicants and promote prompt processing. We caution applicants that filing multiple amendments or supplements for ministerial changes may increase Commission staff processing time and/or create undue confusion about which aspects of the filings are active and/or current. Therefore, in those instances, we urge applicants to detail the totality of the ministerial change(s) in a complete restatement of the initial petition.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. U.S. Residency Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    We affirm the proposed clarification in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     that there is no Commission requirement that foreign investors in companies seeking a petition must maintain U.S. residency. We received no comments on this topic and therefore adopt our proposed clarification. As we stated in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     a foreign investor's lack of a U.S. residence is not a factor in the Commission's assessment of whether a petition is in the public interest. We find that requiring a foreign investor to maintain U.S. residency would be antithetical to the Commission's policy of allowing certain levels of foreign ownership that are not contrary to the public interest. As proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     this clarification applies to all services subject to Section 310(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Broadcast Licensees Only</HD>
                <P>As discussed below, regarding broadcast licensees only, we: (1) direct the Media Bureau to issue processing guidelines as appropriate detailing how the Commission will process applications filed by a broadcast licensee during the pendency of a remedial petition under Section 310(b)(4); and (2) clarify other foreign ownership considerations related to processing applications for NCE and LPFM stations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Processing Broadcast Licensee Applications During the Remedial Process</HD>
                <P>
                    We adopt our tentative conclusion in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     that the broadcast industry will be best informed by processing guidelines establishing how the Commission will process broadcast applications during the pendency of a remedial petition filed pursuant to § 1.5004(f) of the Commission's rules. We therefore direct and delegate authority to the Media Bureau to specify such processing guidelines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission explained that when an eligible licensee files a remedial Section 310(b)(4) petition seeking approval of above-benchmark, aggregate foreign ownership interests or new specific approval not covered under the licensee's existing Section 310(b)(4) ruling, the Commission does not, as a general rule, expect to take enforcement action related to the licensee's non-compliance with the foreign ownership rules, provided the licensee satisfies certain requirements. Nonetheless, the Commission may ultimately determine that the licensee was not actually entitled to use the remedial process, or the Commission may ultimately reject the proposed foreign ownership. Therefore, as the Commission further explained in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the existence of the remedial process, on its own, does not necessarily resolve the issue of whether the broadcast licensee is in compliance with the Commission's rules during the pendency of a remedial petition or following remedy of the non-compliance. This is significant because it has been the Media Bureau's practice, often in consultation with the Enforcement Bureau, to place a hold on certain types of applications while a broadcast licensee is subject to an investigation for a potential violation of the Commission's rules. As a result, any unresolved foreign ownership questions presented by non-compliance with our rules or the terms of a prior declaratory ruling may impede the processing of pending license applications. The Commission therefore sought comment in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     on whether the Commission should grant the licensee new authorizations or allow a licensee to dispose of certain authorizations while the remedial petition is pending. The Commission also sought comment on whether any grant of an authorization should be explicitly conditioned on the grant of the pending remedial petition or subject to any enforcement action that may be warranted if the remedial petition is deemed inadequate, or, alternatively, if staff should hold pending applications until review of a remedial petition is complete. Also, the Commission asked if there are certain types of applications that should or should not be processed in the ordinary course during the pendency of the remedial process. Finally, the Commission sought comment on whether to adopt processing guidelines for this purpose or instead adopt rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In a written 
                    <E T="03">ex parte,</E>
                     NAB states that it “anticipates that the establishment of specific standards for the processing of broadcast applications during the pendency of a remedial petition may benefit, not burden, broadcast licensees.” No other commenters addressed this issue.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We find that processing guidelines would benefit the Commission's treatment of broadcast license applications, and we direct and delegate authority to the Media Bureau to specify processing guidelines for applications filed by a broadcast licensee during the pendency of the remedial process. Consistent with our decision to extend the Commission's remedial process for inadvertent violations of the foreign ownership benchmarks to privately held entities, we consider “broadcast licensees” to encompass broadcast station licensees and permittees that are controlled by U.S. public companies as well as broadcast station licensees and permittees that are controlled by U.S. privately held entities. The processing guidelines will provide guidance on the topics discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     including: (1) routine types of applications that should continue to be processed in the normal course during the pendency of the remedial process, such as applications related to the continued operations of currently authorized broadcast facilities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     applications for special temporary authority or minor modifications); and (2) non-routine applications such as major modifications, license renewals, and assignments/transfers of control, that would require heightened scrutiny during the pendency of a remedial 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17868"/>
                    petition. We find that guidelines are preferable to rules for this purpose, as guidelines will provide the necessary flexibility to permit individualized approaches to specific cases as warranted by the facts and circumstances.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Assessing Foreign Ownership of Noncommercial Educational (NCE) and Low Power FM (LPFM) Stations</HD>
                <P>
                    To better incorporate the governance structures of NCE and LPFM licensees seeking approval for proposed foreign ownership into our Section 310(b) reviews and to provide regulatory certainty to such licensees, we clarify how we determine the foreign ownership levels of these particular stations. In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment on changes to the Commission's foreign ownership rules that would assess the foreign ownership levels of NCE stations, including full-service FM radio and television stations and LPFM stations, by considering their unique governance structures. The Commission noted that while there have been relatively few requests for proposed foreign ownership of NCE and LPFM stations, several applications were pending before the Media Bureau involving NCE applicants with foreign ownership. We received no comments on this issue.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As the Commission explained in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the ownership of NCE and LPFM stations is subject to the provisions of Section 310(b), just like commercial stations. As such, the Commission's foreign ownership rules are not limited to commercial stations, though the rules discuss ownership in terms of the voting and equity shares of individuals and entities. This characterization of ownership, however, is rarely applicable in the NCE/LPFM context, as these entities are often governed by a board of directors or an unincorporated association without traditional voting or equity shares in the entity. The Commission's rules and policies, however, have long recognized that these governing bodies—and, by extension, the individual board members—direct the operations of these stations. The Commission has addressed this in the broadcast ownership report context, for attribution purposes, by looking to the composition of the respondent's governing board or other governing entity, and whether it is directly or indirectly under the control of another entity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with our approach in the broadcast ownership reporting context, for purposes of determining the voting shares of NCE stations in the course of our Section 310(b) review, we adopt the proposal in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     to consider the composition of the governing board or other governing entity, and whether it is directly or indirectly under the control of another entity for purposes of assessing compliance with the foreign ownership limits set forth in the Act and the Commission's rules. For example, if an NCE station licensee (or applicant) is governed by a board with five members, each member of the governing board would be deemed to hold a 20 percent voting interest in the licensee absent provisions in the bylaws or other governance document that formally allocates voting power to governing board members on something other than a pro rata basis, only if such voting arrangements are permitted under the laws of the state where the licensee or applicant was incorporated. In any such cases, each governing board member would be deemed to hold the voting interest designated in the governing documents. If the record indicates that the governing documents are inconsistent with state law, we will consider the relevance of this information in light of facts and circumstances presented by the case and any applicable precedent or policies. If there are four governing board members, each member would be deemed to hold a 25 percent voting interest, and so forth, absent provisions in the governing document allocating voting power to governing board members on a non-pro rata basis. In the event that greater than 25 percent of the controlling interest holders in the licensee's controlling U.S. parent would be non-U.S. citizens, the licensee would first need to seek approval for such foreign ownership consistent with Section 310(b)(4) and the Commission's foreign ownership rules. Direct and indirect foreign interests in the licensee, other than those held through a controlling U.S. parent, remain subject to the 20 percent limits in Section 310(b)(3).
                </P>
                <P>
                    We also acknowledge that, as with the broadcast ownership context, there may be station-specific agreements or circumstances that could impact how the ownership percentages are calculated. For example, the governing board could cede its decision-making authority over the station to an executive in the operating organization. Such circumstances will continue to be subject to individual, case-by-case review under Section 310(b). In addition, while governing board members in NCE entities do not typically have equity interests in the licensee, any such equity interests specific to a particular licensee are subject to the 310(b) benchmarks. We will recognize weighted governance structures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     non pro rata) to the extent they are permitted by applicable federal and state laws regarding the incorporation and governance of NCE entities. In the course of our review of the structures referenced in this paragraph, applicants, upon request, must file a copy of the bylaws, or other written organizational document as appropriate, to accompany their Section 310(b) analysis, either in a Section 310(b)(4) petition or when certifying compliance with Section 310(b). The Commission reserves the right to ask for such other information as necessary to verify that the documentation is consistent with the relevant state law requirements. We caution applicants that should it be determined that sham agreements are being filed, the Commission will act within its enforcement authority. Such organizational documents must substantiate the entity's governance structure, as well as establish that the structure is permitted under relevant state law.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. NCE/LPFM Application Processing Issues</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed below, to promote regulatory consistency, we make several clarifications to address various foreign ownership considerations in the context of filing windows for construction permits for NCE authorizations. In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment on whether and how to clarify the Commission's rules and procedures related to filing windows for NCE construction permits with respect to the application of Section 310(b). No commenters addressed these issues.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     entities with foreign interest holders above the statutory benchmarks in Section 310(b)(4) are eligible to apply for new construction permits that are available for application during a filing window, including NCE filing windows, provided they are covered by an existing foreign ownership declaratory ruling, or have filed a Section 310(b)(4) petition. While the Commission observes it to be a rare occurrence for such entities to apply for new construction permits, to offer some further clarity, we adopt the clarification proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     that, with respect to construction permit applications, under the current requirements in § 1.5000(b), entities with foreign ownership in excess of the statutory benchmarks in Section 310(b)(4) and 
                    <E T="03">without</E>
                     an existing declaratory ruling can participate in an NCE/LPFM filing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17869"/>
                    window so long as they file a Section 310(b)(4) petition seeking approval of the foreign ownership interest at the 
                    <E T="03">same time</E>
                     they file the application required for participation in the filing window. Moreover, for participants in these windows with foreign ownership above the benchmarks in Section 310(b)(4), we clarify that we will apply the same processing guidelines we use in the commercial context for applications that include a Section 310(b)(4) petition for declaratory ruling, which we will specify in any subsequent procedures public notice for an NCE window, while allowing for a tailored approach, if appropriate, in the context of a particular filing window. Accordingly, we find that we need not consider at this time the other issues raised in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     regarding how we will process applications from entities with foreign ownership in excess of the benchmarks, to the extent relevant, as those issues will be resolved in the context of a particular filing window. In addition, because the Commission's forbearance authority, and thus its Section 310(b)(3) forbearance approach, does not extend to broadcast licensees, all NCE and LPFM filing window participants are subject to the 20 percent limits on foreign ownership under Section 310(b)(3) of the Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Other Improvements to the Foreign Ownership Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment generally on other opportunities to improve the foreign ownership rules or reduce regulatory burdens. The Commission also sought comment on opportunities to alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens consistent with the 
                    <E T="03">Delete, Delete, Delete Proceeding.</E>
                     We received several proposals from NAB and an individual commenter, Erik Cudd. Although, as discussed more fully below, we do not accept certain specific proposals offered by NAB and Erik Cudd that those commenters assert could reduce burdens, we note that nevertheless the decisions in this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     reduce regulatory burdens overall. Specifically, in this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     we find that clarifying our rules, codifying existing requirements and practices related to foreign ownership, and providing guidance with respect to filing of petitions will reduce uncertainty for applicants, which in turn should reduce the need to revise or refile requests and thus will reduce regulatory burdens.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">NAB Suggestions.</E>
                     NAB urges the Commission to establish a limit on the amount of time from the filing of a Section 310(b) petition to the Commission's issuance of a public notice announcing that the Section 310(b) petition has been accepted for filing, as well as a timeline for ruling on a petition. NAB also urges the Commission to consider exempting certain applications from Executive Branch review, for example those involving applicants that have been approved in the recent past, and to adopt expedited or streamlined Executive Branch reviews for known foreign investors or for foreign interest holders from countries allied with the United States.” NAB states that this approach “would be consistent with other Administrative initiatives” such as the Treasury Department's Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States (CFIUS) fast-track pilot program, which has “a `known investor' portal where CFIUS can collect information from foreign investors prior to a filing” that is “intended to help effectuate the President's America First Investment Policy.” NAB also urges the Commission to consider “excluding certain applications from referral to the [Committee for the Assessment of Foreign Participation in the United States Telecommunications Services Sector (Committee)] if they involve applicants that have been approved in the recent past, as well as streamlining the Commission's own review under such circumstances.” We did not receive any reply comments on NAB's suggestions.
                </P>
                <P>We decline to adopt NAB's proposals at this time. First, we decline to specify a timeframe to place petitions on accepted for filing public notice. While we strive to adhere to the Commission's 180-day transaction review timeline, our review of petitions depends on the complexity of the underlying transaction, the completeness of the information provided, and the timeliness of the petitioner in responding to staff inquires. Second, we reject NAB's proposal for the Commission to adopt a streamlined process for known foreign investors or from allied countries. This proposal raises many complex issues, including determining who would qualify as known foreign investors, defining what constitutes an allied country, and establishing a Commission `known foreign investor portal' similar to that of the Treasury Department's known investor portal. We note that the CFIUS fast-track pilot program is still in its nascent stages. Third, we decline to exclude certain petitions from referral to the Committee as we currently exclude referral of petitions to the Committee when the only foreign ownership is through intermediate holding companies and U.S. individuals or entities that have ultimate control. NAB states that it “understands from members and their counsel that the amount of time from the filing of petitions to their placement on public notice varies significantly. Petitioners would benefit from greater predictability in the initial stages of processing.” We note that we have, on a discretionary basis, excluded petitions with only minor ownership changes after consultation with Committee staff. We will continue to use our discretion to exclude petitions from referral to the Committee when appropriate. We believe that our current approach is adequate to alleviate burdens and expedite review of Section 310(b) petitions.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Individual Commenter Suggestions.</E>
                     Erik Cudd, an individual commenter opposes any foreign ownership of U.S. broadcasters and favors stricter broadcast ownership limitations. Erik Cudd states that foreign ownership of U.S. broadcasters “poses serious risks to national interests,” including potential foreign influence over content and editorial direction, lack of transparency regarding ownership and controlling parties, and “[i]ncreased [difficulty] in holding parties accountable to the American public and legal standards.” We did not receive any comments on these suggestions. We decline to adopt these suggestions. The summary comment without any analysis or data has not persuaded us that it is necessary to prohibit all foreign ownership of broadcasters in the context of this rulemaking which is focused specifically on streamlining, clarifying, and codifying procedures and processing requirements. Erik Cudd's views about ownership concentration among broadcasters are not relevant to this proceeding. As explained at the outset, our decisions carefully balance the dual public interest objectives of prohibiting potentially harmful foreign investment and promoting non-harmful foreign investment. Instead of prohibiting foreign ownership outright, our rules, as improved herein, provide transparency regarding ownership and controlling parties so that we can hold relevant individuals and entities accountable for compliance with our rules and the Act. Our foreign ownership review process includes Executive Branch review aimed at identifying and addressing potential harms to national security. Erik Cudd has not provided any evidence or particularized reasons for his concerns.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17870"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Corrections and Updates.</E>
                     Additionally, we hereby adopt as proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     various ministerial, non-substantive changes reflected throughout Appendix A, including shifting the language in existing notes and examples into the text of the relevant rules as subsections, which practice conforms to the publishing conventions of the National Archives and Records Administration's Office of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . These changes also include, among other things, revisions to language and terms to ensure consistency of references used in §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004 of the Commission's rules. Appendix A contains a complete republication of Subpart T (47 CFR 1.5001 through 1.5004).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Pending Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission noted that applications were pending before the Media Bureau that might be affected by the outcome of this proceeding and sought comment on how to treat such pending applications. No commenter addressed this issue, nor the larger issue of the potential impact of our 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     on any other pending applications or petitions, if any. Accordingly, we determine that the rules we adopt herein will apply to petitions and applications filed on or after the effective date of the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order.</E>
                     Petitions and applications that have not been the subject of any staff decision as of the effective date of this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     and that are still pending on the effective date will be decided based on the rules in existence at the time the respective petition or application was filed.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Cost/Benefit Analysis</HD>
                <P>In the Section 310 NPRM we sought comment on the costs and benefits associated with the proposals made in the NPRM. The record reflects that the commenters generally support the proposals in the Section 310 NPRM and no commenters addressed or opposed the cost and benefit assessments. As such, in this Report and Order, we find that clarifying our rules, codifying existing requirements and practices related to foreign ownership, and providing guidance with respect to filing of petitions will reduce uncertainty for applicants, which in turn should reduce the need to revise or refile requests and thus will reduce regulatory burdens. Overall, the rules and policies adopted will expedite the application approval process without creating additional burdens for petitioners. More broadly, by clarifying the rules and potentially streamlining processes, we find that the adopted rules, clarifications, and processing guidelines will ensure continued robust investment in the U.S. market, while simultaneously reducing any risks to national security, law enforcement, foreign policy, and trade policy interests. Additionally we find that the costs associated with the adopted rules are likely negative as a result of an anticipated reduction in application revisions and enforcement, thus enabling potential increased investment in the U.S. economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Procedural Matters</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This document does not contain new or substantively modified information collections subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521. Therefore it also does not contain any new or modified information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4). This document may contain non-substantive modifications to approved information collections. Any such modifications will be submitted to OMB for review pursuant to OMB's non-substantive modification process.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Congressional Review Act.</E>
                     The Commission has determined, and the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget concurs, that this rule is “non-major” under the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 804(2). The Commission will send a copy of this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>The proposed action is authorized pursuant to sections 1, 2, 4(i), 4(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 154(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, and 310.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) incorporated an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) in the Review of Foreign Ownership Policies for Broadcast, Common Carrier and Aeronautical Radio Licensees under Section 310(b)(4) of the Communications Act of 1934, as Amended (
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                    ), released in April 2025. The Commission sought written public comment on the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     including comment on the IFRA. No comments were filed addressing the IRFA. This Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) conforms to the RFA and it (or summaries thereof) will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Need for, and Objectives of, the Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     the Commission seeks to balance promoting technical innovation, creating jobs, and strengthening the U.S. economy with national security risks and other concerns by streamlining and clarifying the Commission's foreign ownership rules for broadcast and common carrier wireless and aeronautical licensees under Section 310(b)(4) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (the Act). Over the past decade, the Commission developed policies to ensure entities with foreign ownership comply with Section 310(b) and adopted precedent for evaluating complex ownership structures. The Commission adopts in the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     rules to largely codify existing practices, including relevant definitions and concepts, clarify the information required in filings, minimize the need for additional filings, and promote efficient and shorter processing times of Section 310(b) petitions for declaratory ruling (petitions). Overall, these actions further the Commission's efforts to encourage investment in the United States while preserving the Commission's ability to comprehensively review foreign investment in its licensees “to protect the United States from new and evolving threats.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of Significant Issues Raised by Public Comments in Response to the IRFA</HD>
                <P>No comments were filed addressing the impact of the proposed rules on small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Response to Comments by the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration Office of Advocacy</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration (SBA) Office of Advocacy, and also provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rules as a result of those comments. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rules in this proceeding.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17871"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Rules Will Apply</HD>
                <P>Our actions, over time, may affect small entities that are not easily categorized at present. We therefore describe three broad groups of small entities that could be directly affected by our actions. In general, a small business is an independent business having fewer than 500 employees. These types of small businesses represent 99.9% of all businesses in the United States, which translates to 34.75 million businesses. Next, “small organizations” are not-for-profit enterprises that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their field. While we do not have data regarding the number of non-profits that meet that criteria, over 99 percent of nonprofits have fewer than 500 employees. Finally, “small governmental jurisdictions” are defined as cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts with populations of less than fifty thousand. Based on the 2022 U.S. Census of Governments data, we estimate that at least 48,724 out of 90,835 local government jurisdictions have a population of less than 50,000.</P>
                <P>
                    The rules adopted in the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     will apply to small entities in the industries identified in the chart below by their six-digit North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes and corresponding SBA size standard. Based on currently available U.S. Census data regarding the estimated number of small firms in each identified industry, we conclude that the proposed rules will impact a substantial number of small entities. Where available, we also provide additional information regarding the number of potentially affected entities in the identified industries below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,10,r50,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—2022 U.S. Census Bureau Data by NAICS Code</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Regulated industry
                            <LI>(footnotes specify potentially affected entities within a regulated industry where applicable)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS
                            <LI>code</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">SBA size standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>small firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            % Small
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Radio Broadcasting Stations</ENT>
                        <ENT>516110</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,616</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>81.65</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Television Broadcasting Stations</ENT>
                        <ENT>516120</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>413</ENT>
                        <ENT>316</ENT>
                        <ENT>76.51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite)</ENT>
                        <ENT>517112</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,184</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>91.30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Telecommunications Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>517121</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>955</ENT>
                        <ENT>847</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.69</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Telecommunications Service Provider Data</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2024 Universal service monitoring report telecommunications service provider data
                            <LI>(data as of December 2023)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Affected entity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SBA size standard
                            <LI>(1,500 employees)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Total # FCC
                            <LI>Form 499A</LI>
                            <LI>filers</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Small
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            % Small
                            <LI>entities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Local Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>222</ENT>
                        <ENT>217</ENT>
                        <ENT>97.75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Toll Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>411</ENT>
                        <ENT>398</ENT>
                        <ENT>96.84</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Description of Economic Impact and Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping and Other Compliance Requirements for Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The RFA directs agencies to describe the economic impact of proposed rules on small entities, as well as projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record.</P>
                <P>The Commission finds that the costs associated with the adopted rules and clarifications are likely negative as a result of an anticipated reduction in application revisions and enforcement, thus enabling potential increased investment in the U.S. economy. As a result, we cannot estimate the cost of complying with the rules, or compare such costs for large and small entities. The Commission believes that these clarifications will make the rules more transparent and accessible to small entities and reduce the time and cost associated with compliance and reporting requirements related to Section 310(b) petitions.</P>
                <P>
                    In determining the economic impact and projected compliance requirements for small and other entities, in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission sought comment on the costs and benefits associated with the proposals made in the Section 
                    <E T="03">310 NPRM.</E>
                     As discussed above, the record reflected some comments supporting the Commission's proposals to clarify the foreign ownership rules and reduce burdens on petitioners and other comments opposing certain aspects of the proposals. No commenters addressed or opposed the cost and benefit assessments. As such, in the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     the Commission finds that clarifying its rules, codifying existing requirements and practices related to foreign ownership, and providing guidance with respect to filing of petitions will reduce uncertainty for applicants, and, in turn, these actions should reduce the need to revise or refile requests. Overall, the rules and policies adopted will expedite the application approval process without significantly burdening petitioners. We estimate that the rule changes discussed in this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     will result in a reduction in the time and expense associated with filing petitions and will not result in significant, material changes to reporting, recordkeeping, or compliance obligations for small and other Commission licensees. For example, the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     clarifies and streamlines the Section 310(b) foreign ownership rules as applied to both broadcast and common carrier licensees by defining the terms “controlling U.S. parent” to make the Commission's rules consistent with its longstanding practices without disturbing or contradicting the substantive requirements in Section 310(b)(4). Other amendments to the rules clarify, for example, the disclosure requirements for trusts and trustees and the treatment of deemed voting interests for specific and advance approval requests to avoid duplicative filings and reduce the burdens imposed on petitioners subject to Section 310(b).
                    <PRTPAGE P="17872"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, for all licensees subject to Section 310(b), the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     amends the Commission's rules to clarify that, consistent with current practice, remedial petitions must contain all of the information required for an initial petition and not be limited to the information related to the newly discovered non-compliant interest(s). We do not expect this existing procedure to result in any additional burdens for small businesses entities. In addition, the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     clarifies that, with respect to petitions that request approval for certain foreign investors to increase their equity and/or voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent, for both common carrier and broadcast licensees, there is no Commission requirement that such foreign investors must reside within the United States, which would have no regulatory burden on small entities. Although U.S. residency status has not previously been required or expected under the Commission's foreign ownership rules, the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     clarifies that a foreign investor's lack of a U.S. residence is not a factor in the Commission's assessment of whether a granting a petition in the public interest. We therefore believe that this rule clarification will not have an impact on any small business entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     also extends the Commission's remedial process for inadvertent violations of the foreign ownership rules to privately-held entities for licensees subject to Section 310(b), which would significantly ease the regulatory and enforcement burdens on small entities. The 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     also formalizes the existing petition amendment filing practices by codifying a requirement that an amendment to a pending petition must be a complete restatement of the initial petition and filed in the International Communications Filing System (ICFS) (for common carrier licensees) or Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS) (for broadcast licensees) with a cover letter providing a narrative description of the substantial change. We do not expect this existing procedure for substantial amendments to result in any additional paperwork obligations for small business entities. In the case of ministerial change(s), the Commission will continue to allow petitioners to instead file an amendment in ICFS (for common carriers) or in ECFS (for broadcasters) under the relevant application or docket detailing only the relevant change(s). We believe that the guidance in the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     regarding what counts as “ministerial” may reduce the burdens on small entities by providing regulatory certainty.
                </P>
                <P>
                    With respect to potentially affected small entities within the radio and television broadcasting station industries, the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     directs the Media Bureau to issue processing guidelines as appropriate detailing how the Commission will process applications filed by a broadcast licensee during the pendency of a remedial petition under Section 310(b)(4); and clarifies other foreign ownership considerations related to calculating foreign ownership interests of NCE and LPFM stations and in the context of filing windows for construction permits for NCE authorizations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Discussion of Steps Taken To Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities, and Significant Alternatives Considered</HD>
                <P>The RFA requires an agency to provide, “a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities . . . including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.”</P>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission considered alternatives such as extending the remedial process to privately owned entities to provide a clearer path for foreign investment in licensees by aligning Commission rules with developments in the market, which will minimize the impact of the regulations on small entities by reducing burdens associated with noncompliance. In addition, the Commission sought comment on whether there are certain ministerial changes to petitions for declaratory ruling that could be filed by an amendment without filing a complete restatement. In the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     to minimize the impact on small and other entities, in the case of ministerial change(s) to a petition, the Commission decided to codify the existing practice of allowing petitioners to file an amendment in ICFS (for common carrier licensees) or in ECFS (for broadcaster licensees) under the relevant application or docket detailing only the relevant change(s).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission sought comment on whether any of the burdens associated with the filing, recordkeeping and reporting requirements described in the 
                    <E T="03">Section 310 NPRM</E>
                     could be minimized for small entities. As noted above, the Commission did not receive any comments on the IRFA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Report to Congress</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission will send a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     including this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, in a report to Congress pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. In addition, the Commission will send a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     including this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the SBA and will publish a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     and this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (or summaries thereof) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Ordering Clauses</HD>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, 
                    <E T="03">it is ordered</E>
                     that, pursuant to the authority found in sections 1, 2, 4(i), 4(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, 310 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 154(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, this Report and Order 
                    <E T="03">is adopted.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that, pursuant to the authority found in sections 1, 2, 4(i), 4(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, 310 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 154(j), 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, the Commission's rules 
                    <E T="03">are amended</E>
                     as set forth in Appendix A of the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that the Report and Order 
                    <E T="03">shall become effective</E>
                     30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Such publication which will not occur until after the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has completed review, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, of any non-substantive changes to current information collection requirements contained in §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004, 47 CFR 1.5000 through 1.5004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that the Commission's Office of the Secretary, 
                    <E T="03">shall send</E>
                     a copy of this 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                     including the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, to the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration (SBA) Office of Advocacy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that the Office of the Managing Director, Performance Program Management 
                    <E T="03">shall send</E>
                     a copy of the Report and Order in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that should no petitions for reconsideration or petitions for judicial review be timely filed, GN Docket No. 25-149 
                    <E T="03">shall be terminated,</E>
                     and the docket closed.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17873"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 47 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Communications, Communications common carriers, Organization and functions (Government agencies).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Rules</HD>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 1 to read as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>47 U.S.C. chs. 2, 5, 9, 13; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 47 U.S.C. 1754, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise and republish subpart T, consisting of §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart T—Foreign Ownership of Broadcast, Common Carrier, Aeronautical En Route, and Aeronautical Fixed Radio Station Licensees</HD>
                            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                            <SECTNO>1.5000</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Citizenship and filing requirements under section 310(b) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1.5001</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Contents of petitions for declaratory ruling under section 310(b) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1.5002</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How to calculate indirect equity and voting interests.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1.5003</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Insulation criteria for interests in limited partnerships, limited liability partnerships, and limited liability companies.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1.5004</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Routine terms and conditions.</SUBJECT>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.5000</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Citizenship and filing requirements under section 310(b) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The rules in this subpart establish the requirements and conditions for obtaining the Commission's prior approval of foreign ownership in broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station licensees and common carrier spectrum lessees that would exceed the 25 percent benchmarks in section 310(b)(4) of the Act. These rules also establish the requirements and conditions for obtaining the Commission's prior approval of foreign ownership in common carrier (but not broadcast, aeronautical en route or aeronautical fixed) radio station licensees and spectrum lessees that would exceed the 20 percent limit in section 310(b)(3) of the Act. These rules also establish the methodology applicable to eligible U.S. public companies for purposes of determining and ensuring their compliance with the foreign ownership limitations set forth in sections 310(b)(3) and 310(b)(4) of the Act.</P>
                        <P>
                            (a)(1) 
                            <E T="03">Section 310(b)(4).</E>
                             A broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route or aeronautical fixed radio station licensee or common carrier spectrum lessee shall file a petition for declaratory ruling to obtain Commission approval under section 310(b)(4) of the Act, and obtain such approval, before the aggregate foreign ownership of any controlling U.S. parent exceeds, directly and/or indirectly, 25 percent of the controlling U.S. parent's equity interests and/or 25 percent of its voting interests. An applicant for a broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route or aeronautical fixed radio station license or common carrier spectrum leasing arrangement shall file the petition for declaratory ruling required by this paragraph at the same time that it files its application.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section implements the Commission's foreign ownership policies under section 310(b)(4) of the Act, 47 U.S.C. 310(b)(4), for broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station licensees and common carrier spectrum lessees. It applies to foreign equity and/or voting interests that are held, or would be held, directly and/or indirectly in a controlling U.S. parent that itself directly or indirectly controls a broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, or aeronautical fixed radio station licensee or common carrier spectrum lessee. A foreign individual or entity that seeks to hold a controlling interest in such a licensee or spectrum lessee must hold its controlling interest indirectly, in a controlling U.S. parent that itself directly or indirectly controls the licensee or spectrum lessee. Such controlling interests are subject to section 310(b)(4) and the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The Commission assesses foreign ownership interests subject to section 310(b)(4) separately from foreign ownership interests subject to section 310(b)(3).</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Section 310(b)(3).</E>
                             A common carrier radio station licensee or spectrum lessee shall file a petition for declaratory ruling to obtain approval under the Commission's section 310(b)(3) forbearance approach, and obtain such approval, before aggregate foreign ownership, held through one or more intervening U.S.-organized entities that hold non-controlling equity and/or voting interests in the licensee, along with any foreign interests held directly in the licensee or spectrum lessee, exceeds 20 percent of its equity interests and/or 20 percent of its voting interests. An applicant for a common carrier radio station license or spectrum leasing arrangement shall file the petition for declaratory ruling required by this paragraph at the same time that it files its application. Foreign interests held directly in a licensee or spectrum lessee, or other than through U.S.-organized entities that hold non-controlling equity and/or voting interests in the licensee or spectrum lessee, shall not be permitted to exceed 20 percent.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section implements the Commission's section 310(b)(3) forbearance approach adopted in the First Report and Order in IB Docket No. 11-133, FCC 12-93 (released Aug. 17, 2012), 77 FR 50628 (Aug. 22, 2012). The section 310(b)(3) forbearance approach applies only to foreign equity and voting interests that are held, or would be held, in a common carrier licensee or spectrum lessee through one or more intervening U.S.-organized entities that do not control the licensee or spectrum lessee. Foreign equity and/or voting interests that are held, or would be held, directly in a licensee or spectrum lessee, or indirectly other than through an intervening U.S.-organized entity, are not subject to the Commission's section 310(b)(3) forbearance approach and shall not be permitted to exceed the 20 percent limit in section 310(b)(3) of the Act, 47 U.S.C. 310(b)(3). The Commission's forbearance approach does not apply to broadcast, aeronautical en route or aeronautical fixed radio station licenses.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Examples under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1.</E>
                             U.S.-organized Corporation A is preparing an application to acquire a common carrier radio license by assignment from another licensee. U.S.-organized Corporation A is wholly owned and controlled by U.S.-organized Corporation B. U.S.-organized Corporation B is 51 percent owned and controlled by U.S.-organized Corporation C, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by foreign-organized Corporation D. The remaining non-controlling 49 percent equity and voting interests in U.S.-organized Corporation B are held by U.S.-organized Corporation X, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by U.S. citizens. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section requires that U.S.-organized Corporation A file a petition for 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17874"/>
                            declaratory ruling to obtain Commission approval of the 51 percent foreign ownership of its controlling U.S. parent, Corporation B, by foreign-organized Corporation D, which exceeds the 25 percent benchmarks in section 310(b)(4) of the Act for both equity interests and voting interests. Corporation A is also required to identify and request specific approval in its petition for any foreign individual or entity, or “group,” as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, that holds directly and/or indirectly more than 5 percent of Corporation B's total outstanding capital stock (equity) and/or voting stock, or a controlling interest in Corporation B, unless the foreign investment is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2.</E>
                             U.S.-organized Corporation A is preparing an application to acquire a common carrier radio license by assignment from another licensee. U.S.-organized Corporation A is 51 percent owned and controlled by U.S.-organized Corporation B, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by U.S. citizens. The remaining non-controlling 49 percent equity and voting interests in U.S.-organized Corporation A are held by U.S.-organized Corporation X, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by foreign-organized Corporation Y. Paragraph (a)(2) of this section requires that U.S.-organized Corporation A file a petition for declaratory ruling to obtain Commission approval of the non-controlling 49 percent foreign ownership of U.S.-organized Corporation A by foreign-organized Corporation Y through U.S.-organized Corporation X, which exceeds the 20 percent limit in section 310(b)(3) of the Act for both equity interests and voting interests. U.S.-organized Corporation A is also required to identify and request specific approval in its petition for any foreign individual or entity, or “group,” as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, that holds an equity and/or voting interest in foreign-organized Corporation Y that, when multiplied by 49 percent, would exceed 5 percent of U.S.-organized Corporation A's equity and/or voting interests, unless the foreign investment is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Example 3.</E>
                             U.S.-organized Corporation A is preparing an application to acquire a common carrier radio license by assignment from another licensee. U.S.-organized Corporation A is 51 percent owned and controlled by U.S.-organized Corporation B, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by foreign-organized Corporation C. The remaining non-controlling 49 percent equity and voting interests in U.S.-organized Corporation A are held by U.S.-organized Corporation X, which is, in turn, wholly owned and controlled by foreign-organized Corporation Y. Paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section require that U.S.-organized Corporation A file a petition for declaratory ruling to obtain Commission approval of foreign-organized Corporation C's 100 percent ownership interest in U.S.-organized parent, Corporation B, and of foreign-organized Corporation Y's noncontrolling, 49 percent foreign ownership interest in U.S.-organized Corporation A through U.S.-organized Corporation X, which exceed the 25 percent benchmark and 20 percent limit in sections 310(b)(4) and 310(b)(3) of the Act, respectively, for both equity interests and voting interests. U.S.-organized Corporation A's petition also must identify and request specific approval for ownership interests held by any foreign individual, entity, or “group,” as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, to the extent required by § 1.5001(i).
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) Except for petitions involving broadcast stations only, the petition for declaratory ruling required by paragraph (a) of this section, or any amendments thereto, shall be filed electronically through the International Communications Filing System (ICFS) or any successor system thereto. For information on filing a petition through ICFS, see subpart Y of this part and the ICFS homepage at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/icfs.</E>
                             Petitions for declaratory ruling required by paragraph (a) of this section, or any amendments thereto, involving broadcast stations only shall be filed electronically on the internet through the Media Bureau's Licensing and Management System (LMS) or any successor system thereto when submitted to the Commission as part of an application for a construction permit, assignment, or transfer of control of a broadcast license; if there is no associated construction permit, assignment or transfer of control application, petitions for declaratory ruling should be filed with the Office of the Secretary via the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Amendments to petitions for declaratory ruling required by paragraph (a) of this section must be filed in the following form:</P>
                        <P>(i) Substantial amendments to pending petitions for declaratory ruling shall be filed as a complete restatement of the initial petition, with a cover letter providing a narrative description of the substantial change(s).</P>
                        <P>(ii) Ministerial amendments to pending petitions for declaratory ruling shall be filed as an amendment to the petition, detailing only the relevant change(s).</P>
                        <P>(c)(1) Each applicant, licensee, or spectrum lessee filing a petition for declaratory ruling required by paragraph (a) of this section shall certify to the information contained in the petition in accordance with the provisions of § 1.16 and the requirements of this paragraph. The certification shall include a statement that the applicant, licensee and/or spectrum lessee has calculated the ownership interests disclosed in its petition based upon its review of the Commission's rules and that the interests disclosed satisfy each of the pertinent standards and criteria set forth in the rules.</P>
                        <P>(2) Multiple applicants and/or licensees shall file jointly the petition for declaratory ruling required by paragraph (a) of this section where the entities are under common control and contemporaneously hold, or are contemporaneously filing applications for, broadcast, common carrier licenses, common carrier spectrum leasing arrangements, or aeronautical en route or aeronautical fixed radio station licenses. Where joint petitioners have different responses to the information required by § 1.5001, such information should be set out separately for each joint petitioner, except as otherwise permitted in § 1.5001(h)(2).</P>
                        <P>(i) Each joint petitioner shall certify to the information contained in the petition in accordance with the provisions of § 1.16 with respect to the information that is pertinent to that petitioner. Alternatively, the controlling parent of the joint petitioners may certify to the information contained in the petition.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Where the petition is being filed in connection with an application for consent to transfer control of licenses or spectrum leasing arrangements, the transferee or its ultimate controlling parent may file the petition on behalf of the licensees or spectrum lessees that would be acquired as a result of the proposed transfer of control and certify to the information contained in the petition.</P>
                        <P>(3) Multiple applicants and licensees shall not be permitted to file a petition for declaratory ruling jointly unless they are under common control.</P>
                        <P>(d) The following definitions shall apply to this section and §§ 1.5001 through 1.5004.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Aeronautical radio</E>
                             licenses refers to aeronautical en route and aeronautical fixed radio station licenses only. It does 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17875"/>
                            not refer to other types of aeronautical radio station licenses.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Affiliate</E>
                             refers to any entity that is under common control with a licensee, defined by reference to the holder, directly and/or indirectly, of more than 50 percent of total voting power, where no other individual or entity has 
                            <E T="03">de facto</E>
                             control.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Control</E>
                             includes actual working control in whatever manner exercised and is not limited to majority stock ownership. Control also includes direct or indirect control, such as through intervening subsidiaries.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Controlling U.S. parent</E>
                             is the first controlling entity organized in the United States that is directly above the licensee(s) in the vertical chain of control and that does not itself hold a license subject to section 310(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Entity</E>
                             includes a partnership, association, estate, trust, corporation, limited liability company, governmental authority or other organization.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Group</E>
                             refers to two or more individuals or entities that have agreed to act together for the purpose of acquiring, holding, voting, or disposing of their equity and/or voting interests in the relevant licensee, controlling U.S. parent, or entity holding a direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interest in the licensee or controlling U.S. parent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Individual</E>
                             refers to a natural person as distinguished from a partnership, association, corporation, or other organization.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Licensee</E>
                             as used in §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004 includes a spectrum lessee as defined in § 1.9003.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Privately held company</E>
                             refers to a U.S.- or foreign-organized company that has not issued a class of equity securities for which beneficial ownership reporting is required by security holders and other beneficial owners under sections 13(d) or 13(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Exchange Act), and corresponding Exchange Act Rule 13d-1, 17 CFR 240.13d-1, or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Public company</E>
                             refers to a U.S.- or foreign-organized company that has issued a class of equity securities for which beneficial ownership reporting is required by security holders and other beneficial owners under sections 13(d) or 13(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Exchange Act) and corresponding Exchange Act Rule 13d-1, 17 CFR 240.13d-1, or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Subsidiary</E>
                             refers to any entity in which a licensee owns or controls, directly and/or indirectly, more than 50 percent of the total voting power of the outstanding voting stock of the entity, where no other individual or entity has 
                            <E T="03">de facto</E>
                             control.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Voting stock</E>
                             refers to an entity's corporate stock, partnership or membership interests, or other equivalents of corporate stock that, under ordinary circumstances, entitles the holders thereof to elect the entity's board of directors, management committee, or other equivalent of a corporate board of directors.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Would hold</E>
                             as used in §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004 includes interests that an individual or entity proposes to hold in an applicant, licensee, or spectrum lessee, or their controlling U.S. parent, upon consummation of any transactions described in the petition for declaratory ruling filed under paragraphs (a)(1) or (2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(e)(1) This section sets forth the methodology applicable to broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station licensees and common carrier spectrum lessees that are, or are directly or indirectly controlled by, an eligible U.S. public company for purposes of monitoring the license's or spectrum lessee's compliance with the foreign ownership limits set forth in sections 310(b)(3) and 310(b)(4) of the Act and with the terms and conditions of a licensee's or spectrum lessee's foreign ownership ruling issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section. For purposes of this section:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) An “eligible U.S. public company” is a company that is organized in the United States; whose stock is traded on a stock exchange in the United States; and that has issued a class of equity securities for which beneficial ownership reporting is required by security holders and other beneficial owners under sections 13(d) or 13(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Exchange Act) and corresponding Exchange Act Rule 13d-1, 17 CFR 240.13d-1;
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) A “beneficial owner” of a security refers to any person who, directly or indirectly, through any contract, arrangement, understanding, relationship, or otherwise has or shares voting power, which includes the power to vote, or to direct the voting of, such security; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) An “equity interest holder” refers to any person or entity that has the right to receive or the power to direct the receipt of dividends from, or the proceeds from the sale of, a share.</P>
                        <P>(2) An eligible U.S. public company shall use information that is known or reasonably should be known by the company in the ordinary course of business, as described in this paragraph, to identify the beneficial owners and equity interest holders of its voting and non-voting stock:</P>
                        <P>(i) Information recorded in the company's share register;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Information as to shares held by officers, directors, and employees;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information reported to the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in Schedule 13D (17 CFR 240.13d-101) and in Schedule 13G (17 CFR 240.13d-102), including amendments filed by or on behalf of a reporting person, and company specific information derived from SEC Form 13F (17 CFR 249.325);</P>
                        <P>(iv) Information as to beneficial owners of shares required to be identified in a company's annual reports (or proxy statements) and quarterly reports;</P>
                        <P>(v) Information as to the identify and citizenship of a beneficial owner and/or equity interest holder where such information is actually known to the public company as a result of shareholder litigation, financing transactions, and proxies voted at annual or other meetings; and</P>
                        <P>(vi) Information as to the identity and citizenship of a beneficial owner and/or equity interest holder where such information is actually known to the company by whatever source.</P>
                        <P>(3) An eligible U.S. public company shall use information that is known or reasonably should be known by the company in the ordinary course of business to determine the citizenship of the beneficial owners and equity interest holders, identified pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, including information recorded in the company's shareholder register, information required to be disclosed pursuant to rules of the Securities and Exchange Commission, other information that is publicly available to the company, and information received by the company through direct inquiries with the beneficial owners and equity interest holders where the company determines that direct inquiries are necessary to its compliance efforts.</P>
                        <P>(4) A licensee or spectrum lessee that is, or is directly or indirectly controlled by, an eligible U.S. public company, shall exercise due diligence in identifying and determining the citizenship of such public company's beneficial owners and equity interest holders.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) To calculate aggregate levels of foreign ownership, a licensee or spectrum lessee that is, or is directly or indirectly controlled by, an eligible U.S. public company, shall base its foreign 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17876"/>
                            ownership calculations on such public company's known or reasonably should be known foreign equity and voting interests as described in paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section. The licensee shall aggregate the public company's known or reasonably should be known foreign voting interests and separately aggregate the public company's known or reasonably should be known foreign equity interests. If the public company's known or reasonably should be known foreign voting interests and its known or reasonably should be known foreign equity interests do not exceed 25 percent (20 percent in the case of an eligible publicly traded licensee subject to section 310(b)(3)) of the company's total outstanding voting shares or 25 percent (20 percent in the case of an eligible publicly traded licensee subject to Section 310(b)(3)) of the company's total outstanding shares (whether voting or non-voting), respectively, the company shall be deemed compliant, under this section, with the applicable statutory limit.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Example.</E>
                             Assume that a licensee's controlling U.S. parent is an eligible U.S. public company. The publicly traded controlling U.S. parent has one class of stock consisting of 100 total outstanding shares of common voting stock. The licensee (and/or the controlling U.S. parent on its behalf) has exercised the required due diligence in following the methodology described in paragraph (e) for identifying and determining the citizenship of the controlling U.S. parent's “known or reasonably should be known” interest holders and has identified one foreign shareholder that owns 6 shares (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             6 percent of the total outstanding shares) and another foreign shareholder that owns 4 shares (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             4 percent of the total outstanding shares). The licensee would add the controlling U.S. parent's known foreign shares and divide the sum by the number of the controlling U.S. parent's total outstanding shares. In this example, the licensee's controlling U.S. parent would be calculated as having an aggregate 10 percent foreign equity interests and 10 percent foreign voting interests (6 + 4 foreign shares = 10 foreign shares; 10 foreign shares divided by 100 total outstanding shares = 10 percent). Thus, in this example, the licensee would be deemed compliant with Section 310(b)(4).
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.5001 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Contents of petitions for declaratory ruling under section 310(b) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The petition for declaratory ruling required by § 1.5000(a)(1) and/or (2) shall contain the following information:</P>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicant or licensee information.</E>
                             With respect to each petitioning applicant or licensee, provide its name; FCC Registration Number (FRN); mailing address; place of organization; telephone number; facsimile number (if available); electronic mail address (if available); type of business organization (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             corporation, unincorporated association, trust, general partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, other (include description of legal entity)); name and title of officer certifying to the information contained in the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Third party information.</E>
                             If the petitioning applicant or licensee is represented by a third party (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             legal counsel), specify that individual's name, the name of the firm or company, mailing address and telephone number/electronic mail address.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Services covered.</E>
                             (1) For each named licensee, list the type(s) of radio service authorized (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             broadcast service, cellular radio telephone service; microwave radio service; mobile satellite service; aeronautical fixed service). In the case of broadcast licensees, also list the call sign, facility identification number (if applicable), and community of license or transmit site for each authorization covered by the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If the petition is filed in connection with an application for a radio station license or a spectrum leasing arrangement, or an application to acquire a license or spectrum leasing arrangement by assignment or transfer of control, specify for each named applicant:</P>
                        <P>(i) The File No(s). of the associated application(s), if available at the time the petition is filed; otherwise, specify the anticipated filing date for each application; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) The type(s) of radio services covered by each application (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             broadcast service, cellular radio telephone service; microwave radio service; mobile satellite service; aeronautical fixed service).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Type of Declaratory Ruling.</E>
                             With respect to each petitioner, include a statement as to whether the petitioner is requesting a declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) and/or (2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Disclosable interest holders</E>
                            —
                            <E T="03">direct U.S. or foreign interests in the controlling U.S. parent.</E>
                             Paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section apply only to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1) and/or (2) for common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants or licensees, as applicable. Petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1) for broadcast licensees shall provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, directly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning broadcast station applicant(s) or licensee(s), as defined in the Notes to § 73.3555 of this chapter. Where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)), the petition shall specify that no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent, applicant(s), or licensee(s).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Direct U.S. or foreign interests of ten percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             With respect to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, directly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning common carrier or aeronautical radio station applicant(s) or licensee(s) as specified in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Direct U.S. or foreign interests of ten percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             With respect to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, directly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in each petitioning common carrier applicant or licensee as specified in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">No direct U.S. or foreign interests of ten percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             Where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) or in the applicant or licensee (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)), the petition shall state that no individual or entity holds or would hold directly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent, applicant or licensee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Organization of controlling U.S. parent.</E>
                             (i) Where a controlling U.S. parent, applicant, or licensee is organized as a corporation, provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, 10 percent or 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17877"/>
                            more of the outstanding capital stock and/or voting stock, or a controlling interest.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Where a controlling U.S. parent, applicant, or licensee is organized as a general partnership, provide the names of the partnership's constituent general partners.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Where a controlling U.S. parent, applicant, or licensee is organized as a limited partnership or limited liability partnership, provide the name(s) of the general partner(s) (in the case of a limited partnership), any uninsulated partner, regardless of its equity interest, and any insulated partner with an equity interest in the partnership of at least 10 percent (calculated according to the percentage of the partner's capital contribution). With respect to each named partner (other than a named general partner), the petitioner shall state whether the partnership interest is insulated or uninsulated, based on the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Where a controlling U.S. parent, applicant, or licensee is organized as a limited liability company, provide the name(s) of each uninsulated member, regardless of its equity interest, any insulated member with an equity interest of at least 10 percent (calculated according to the percentage of its capital contribution), and any non-equity manager(s). With respect to each named member, the petitioner shall state whether the interest is insulated or uninsulated, based on the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003, and whether the member is a manager.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Information about trustee.</E>
                             With respect to trusts holding equity and/or voting or controlling interests in the petitioner, applicant/licensee, a non-controlling intervening U.S. entity, or the controlling U.S. parent, provide the name(s) of the trustee(s) regardless of the amount of equity and/or voting or controlling interests.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">General partner interest.</E>
                             The Commission presumes that a general partner of a general partnership or limited partnership has a controlling (100 percent) voting interest in the partnership. A general partner shall in all cases be deemed to hold an uninsulated interest in the partnership.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Disclosable interest holders</E>
                            —
                            <E T="03">indirect U.S. or foreign interests in the controlling U.S. parent.</E>
                             Paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section apply only to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1) and/or § 1.5000(a)(2) for common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants or licensees, as applicable. Petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1) for broadcast licensees shall provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, indirectly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning broadcast station applicant(s) or licensee(s), as defined in the Notes to § 73.3555 of this chapter. Where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, indirectly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)), the petition shall specify that no individual or entity holds, or would hold, indirectly, an attributable interest in the controlling U.S. parent, applicant(s), or licensee(s).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Indirect U.S. or foreign interests of 10 percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             With respect to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, indirectly, through one or more intervening entities, 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning common carrier or aeronautical radio station applicant(s) or licensee(s). Equity interests and voting interests held indirectly shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in § 1.5002.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Indirect U.S. or foreign interests of 10 percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             With respect to petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), provide the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, indirectly, through one or more intervening entities, 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the petitioning common carrier radio station applicant(s) or licensee(s). Equity interests and voting interests held indirectly shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in § 1.5002.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">No indirect U.S. or foreign interests of 10 percent or more or a controlling interest.</E>
                             Where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, indirectly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) or in the petitioning applicant(s) or licensee(s) (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)), the petition shall specify that no individual or entity holds indirectly 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the controlling U.S. parent, applicant(s), or licensee(s).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Information about trustee.</E>
                             With respect to trusts, provide the name(s) of the trustee(s) of the trust regardless of the trustee(s)' equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest in the petitioner or applicant/licensee, or any interest in a non-controlling intervening U.S. entity, or the controlling U.S. parent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">General partner interest.</E>
                             The Commission presumes that a general partner of a general partnership or limited partnership has a controlling interest in the partnership. A general partner shall in all cases be deemed to hold an uninsulated interest in the partnership.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Citizenship and other information</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Citizenship and other information for disclosable interests in common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees.</E>
                             For each 10 percent interest holder named in response to paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, specify the equity interest held and the voting interest held (each to the nearest one percent); in the case of an individual, his or her citizenship; and in the case of a business organization, its place of organization, type of business organization (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             corporation, unincorporated association, trust, general partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, other (include description of legal entity)), and principal business(es).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Citizenship and other information for disclosable interests in broadcast station applicants and licensees.</E>
                             For each attributable interest holder named in response to paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, describe the nature of the attributable interest and, if applicable, specify the equity interest held and the voting interest held (each to the nearest one percent); in the case of an individual, his or her citizenship; and in the case of a business organization, its place of organization, type of business organization (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             corporation, unincorporated association, trust, general partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, other legal entity (include description)), and a description of the principal business(es).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Ownership information</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Estimate of aggregate foreign ownership.</E>
                             For petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), attach an exhibit that provides a percentage estimate of the controlling U.S. parent's aggregate direct and/or indirect foreign equity interests and its aggregate direct and/or indirect foreign voting interests. For petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), attach an exhibit that provides a percentage estimate of the aggregate foreign equity interests and aggregate foreign voting interests held directly in the petitioning applicant(s) and/or licensee(s), if any, and the aggregate foreign equity interests and aggregate foreign voting interests held indirectly in the petitioning applicant(s) and/or 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17878"/>
                            licensee(s). The exhibit required by this paragraph must also provide a general description of the methods used to determine the percentages, and a statement addressing the circumstances that prompted the filing of the petition and demonstrating that the public interest would be served by grant of the petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Ownership and control structure.</E>
                             Attach an exhibit that describes the ownership and control structure of the applicant(s) and/or licensee(s) that are the subject of the petition, including an ownership diagram and identification of the real party-in-interest disclosed in any companion applications. The ownership diagram should illustrate the petitioner's vertical ownership structure, including the controlling U.S. parent named in the petition (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) and either:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) For common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees, the direct and indirect ownership (equity and voting) interests held by the individual(s) and/or entity(ies) named in response to paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) For broadcast station applicants and licensees, the attributable interest holders named in response to paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section. Each such individual or entity shall be depicted in the ownership diagram and all controlling interests labeled as such. Where the petition includes multiple petitioners, the ownership of all petitioners may be depicted in a single ownership diagram or in multiple diagrams.</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Requests for specific approval.</E>
                             Provide, as required or permitted by this paragraph, the name of each foreign individual and/or entity for which each petitioner requests specific approval, if any, and the respective percentages of equity and/or voting interests (to the nearest one percent) that each such foreign individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, in the controlling U.S. parent of the petitioning broadcast, common carrier or aeronautical radio station applicant(s) or licensee(s) for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), and in each petitioning common carrier applicant or licensee for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) Each petitioning broadcast, common carrier or aeronautical radio station applicant or licensee filing under § 1.5000(a)(1) shall identify and request specific approval for any foreign individual, entity, or group of such individuals or entities that holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, more than 5 percent of the equity and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the petitioner's controlling U.S. parent unless the foreign investment is exempt under paragraph (i)(3) of this section. Equity and voting interests held indirectly in the petitioner's controlling U.S. parent shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in §§ 1.5002 and 1.5003. Equity and voting interests held directly in a petitioner's controlling U.S. parent that is organized as a partnership or limited liability company shall be calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Solely for the purpose of identifying foreign interests that require specific approval under this paragraph (i), broadcast station applicants and licensees filing petitions under § 1.5000(a)(1) should calculate equity and voting interests in accordance with the principles set forth in §§ 1.5002 and 1.5003 and 
                            <E T="03">not</E>
                             as set forth in the Notes to § 73.3555 of this chapter, to the extent that there are any differences in such calculation methods. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the insulation of limited partnership, limited liability partnership, and limited liability company interests for broadcast applicants and licensees 
                            <E T="03">shall</E>
                             be determined in accordance with Note 2(f) of § 73.3555 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) Each petitioning common carrier radio station applicant or licensee filing under § 1.5000(a)(2) shall identify and request specific approval for any foreign individual, entity, or group of such individuals or entities that holds, or would hold, directly, and/or indirectly through one or more intervening U.S.-organized entities that do not control the applicant or licensee, more than 5 percent of the equity and/or voting interests in the applicant or licensee unless the foreign investment is exempt under paragraph (i)(3) of this section. Equity and voting interests held indirectly in the applicant or licensee shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in §§ 1.5002 and 1.5003. Equity and voting interests held directly in an applicant or licensee that is organized as a partnership or limited liability company shall be calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Foreign interests of 5 percent or less.</E>
                             Certain foreign interests of 5 percent or less may require specific approval under paragraphs (i)(1) and (2). See paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Interest held by a “group.</E>
                            ” Two or more individuals or entities will be treated as a “group” when they have agreed to act together for the purpose of acquiring, holding, voting, or disposing of their equity and/or voting interests in the licensee and/or controlling U.S. parent of the licensee or in any intermediate company(ies) through which any of the individuals or entities holds its interests in the licensee and/or controlling U.S. parent of the licensee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Example.</E>
                             Assume a common carrier (“Petitioner”) is preparing a petition for declaratory ruling to request Commission approval for foreign ownership of its controlling U.S. parent to exceed the 25 percent benchmarks in section 310(b)(4) of the Act and section 1.5000(a)(1) of the Commission's rules. The Petitioner identifies that Trust A, a U.S. entity, will indirectly hold 40 percent equity and voting interests in the Petitioner's controlling U.S. parent. Trust A has three trustees, each with equal interests in the trust, one of which is a foreign citizen. None of the trustees have a controlling interest in the trust. In such a case, the Applicant must disclose all the name(s) of the trustees to Trust A and provide the information required under § 1.5001(e) for each trustee. Pursuant to § 1.5001(i), if the foreign trustee(s) holds or will hold more than five percent equity and/or voting interests, as is the case in this example, the trustee(s) must request specific approval for its equity and/or voting interests in the Applicant's controlling U.S. parent prior to its interests exceeding five percent.
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) A foreign investment is exempt from the specific approval requirements of paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section where:</P>
                        <P>(i) The foreign individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, no more than 10 percent of the equity and/or voting interests of the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) or the petitioning applicant or licensee (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)); and</P>
                        <P>(ii) The foreign individual or entity does not hold, and would not hold, a controlling interest in the petitioner or any controlling parent company, does not plan or intend to change or influence control of the petitioner or any controlling parent company, does not possess or develop any such purpose, and does not take any action having such purpose or effect. The Commission will presume, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, that the following interests satisfy this criterion for exemption from the specific approval requirements in paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section:</P>
                        <P>
                            (A) Where the petitioning applicant or licensee, controlling U.S. parent, or entity holding a direct or indirect equity and/or voting interest in the applicant/
                            <PRTPAGE P="17879"/>
                            licensee or controlling U.S. parent is a “public company,” as defined in § 1.5000(d), provided that the foreign holder is an institutional investor that is eligible to report its beneficial ownership interests in the company's voting, equity securities in excess of 5 percent (not to exceed 10 percent) pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 13d-1(b), 17 CFR 240.13d-1(b), or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation. This presumption shall not apply if the foreign individual, entity or group holding such interests is obligated to report its holdings in the company pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 13d-1(a), 17 CFR 240.13d-1(a), or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Example.</E>
                             Common carrier applicant (“Applicant”) is preparing a petition for declaratory ruling to request Commission approval for foreign ownership of its controlling U.S. parent to exceed the 25 percent benchmarks in section 310(b)(4) of the Act. Applicant does not currently hold any FCC licenses. Shares of controlling U.S. parent trade publicly on the New York Stock Exchange. Based on a review of its shareholder records, controlling U.S. parent has determined that its aggregate foreign ownership on any given day may exceed an aggregate 25 percent, including a 6 percent common stock interest held by a foreign-organized mutual fund (“Foreign Fund”). Controlling U.S. parent has confirmed that Foreign Fund is not currently required to report its interest pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 13d-1(a) and instead is eligible to report its interest pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 13d-1(b). Controlling U.S. parent also has confirmed that Foreign Fund does not hold any other interests in controlling U.S. parent's equity securities, whether of a class of voting or non-voting securities. Applicant may, but is not required to, request specific approval of Foreign Fund's 6 percent interest in controlling U.S. parent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Example.</E>
                             Where an institutional investor holds voting, equity securities that are subject to reporting under Exchange Act Rule 13d-1, 17 CFR 240.13d-1, or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation, in addition to equity securities that are not subject to such reporting, the investor's total capital stock interests may be aggregated and treated as exempt from the 5 percent specific approval requirement in paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section so long as the aggregate amount of the institutional investor's holdings does not exceed 10 percent of the company's total capital stock or voting rights and the investor is eligible to certify under Exchange Act Rule 13d-1(b), 17 CFR 240.13d-1(b), or a substantially comparable foreign law or regulation that it has acquired its capital stock interests in the ordinary course of business and not with the purpose nor with the effect of changing or influencing the control of the company. In calculating foreign equity and voting interests, the Commission does not consider convertible interests such as options, warrants and convertible debentures until converted, unless specifically requested by the petitioner, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             where the petitioner is requesting approval so those rights can be exercised in a particular case without further Commission approval.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Where the petitioning applicant or licensee, controlling U.S. parent, or entity holding a direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interest in the applicant/licensee or controlling U.S. parent is a “privately held” corporation, as defined in § 1.5000(d), provided that a shareholders' agreement, or similar voting agreement, prohibits the foreign holder from becoming actively involved in the management or operation of the corporation and limits the foreign holder's voting and consent rights, if any, to the minority shareholder protections listed in paragraph (i)(6) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Where the petitioning applicant or licensee, controlling U.S. parent, or entity holding a direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interest in the licensee or controlling U.S. parent is “privately held,” as defined in § 1.5000(d), and is organized as a limited partnership, limited liability company (“LLC”), or limited liability partnership (“LLP”), provided that the foreign holder is “insulated” in accordance with the criteria specified in § 1.5003.</P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) For purposes of identifying foreign interests that require specific approval, where the petitioning applicant, licensee, or controlling U.S. parent is itself organized as a partnership or LLC, a general partner, uninsulated limited partner, uninsulated LLC member, and non-member LLC manager shall be deemed to hold a controlling (100 percent) voting interest in the applicant, licensee, or controlling U.S. parent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) For purposes of identifying foreign interests that require specific approval, where interests are held indirectly in the petitioning applicant, licensee, or controlling U.S. parent through one or more intervening partnerships or LLCs, a general partner, uninsulated limited partner, uninsulated LLC members, and non-member LLC managers shall be deemed to hold the same voting interest as the partnership or LLC holds in the company situated in the next lower tier of the petitioner's vertical ownership chain and, ultimately, the same voting interest as the partnership or LLC is calculated as holding in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) or in the applicant or licensee (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)). See § 1.5002(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(iii)(A). Where a limited partner or LLC member is insulated, the limited partner's or LLC member's voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)), or in the applicant or licensee (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)) is calculated as equal to the limited partner's or LLC member's equity interest in the controlling U.S. parent or in the applicant or licensee, respectively. See § 1.5002(b)(2)(ii)(B) and (b)(2)(iii)(B). Thus, depending on the particular ownership structure presented in the petition, a foreign general partner, uninsulated limited partner, LLC member, or non-member LLC manager of an intervening partnership or LLC may be deemed to hold an indirect voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent or in the petitioning applicant or licensee that requires specific approval because the voting interest exceeds the 5 percent amount specified in paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section and, unless the voting interest is otherwise insulated at a lower tier of the petitioner's vertical ownership chain, the voting interest would not qualify as exempt from specific approval under this paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(C) even in circumstances where the voting interest does not exceed 10 percent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) A finding that a foreign individual or entity is deemed to hold a 100 percent voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent for purposes of § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) or a 50 percent or greater voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ), does not indicate that the interest constitutes 
                            <E T="03">de jure</E>
                             control for purposes of compliance with Section 310(d) of the Act.
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) A petitioner may, but is not required to, request specific approval for any other foreign individual or entity that holds, or would hold, a direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1)) or in the petitioning applicant or licensee (for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2)).</P>
                        <P>(6) The minority shareholder protections referenced in paragraph (i)(3)(ii)(B) of this section consist of the following rights:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The power to prevent the sale or pledge of all or substantially all of the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17880"/>
                            assets of the corporation or a voluntary filing for bankruptcy or liquidation;
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The power to prevent the corporation from entering into contracts with majority shareholders or their affiliates;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The power to prevent the corporation from guaranteeing the obligations of majority shareholders or their affiliates;</P>
                        <P>(iv) The power to purchase an additional interest in the corporation to prevent the dilution of the shareholder's pro rata interest in the event that the corporation issues additional instruments conveying shares in the company;</P>
                        <P>(v) The power to prevent the change of existing legal rights or preferences of the shareholders, as provided in the charter, by-laws or other operative governance documents;</P>
                        <P>(vi) The power to prevent the amendment of the charter, by-laws or other operative governance documents of the company with respect to the matters described in paragraph (i)(6)(i) through (v) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(7) The Commission reserves the right to consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether voting or consent rights over matters other than those listed in paragraph (i)(6) of this section shall be considered permissible minority shareholder protections in a particular case.</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Specific approval information.</E>
                             For each foreign individual or entity named in response to paragraph (i) of this section, provide the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) In the case of an individual, his or her citizenship and principal business(es);</P>
                        <P>(2) In the case of a business organization:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) Its place of organization, type of business organization (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             corporation, unincorporated association, trust, general partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, other legal entity (include description)), and a description of the principal business(es);
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii)(A) For common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees, the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, through one or more intervening entities, 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the foreign entity for which the petitioner requests specific approval. Specify for each such interest holder, his or her citizenship (for individuals) or place of legal organization (for entities). Equity interests and voting interests held indirectly shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in § 1.5002.</P>
                        <P>(B) For broadcast applicants and licensees, the name of any individual or entity that holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, through one or more intervening entities, an attributable interest in the foreign entity for which the petitioner requests specific approval. Specify for each such interest holder, his or her citizenship (for individuals) or place of legal organization (for entities). Attributable interests shall be calculated in accordance with the principles set forth in the Notes to § 73.3555 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(iii)(A) For common carrier, aeronautical en route, and aeronautical fixed radio station applicants and licensees, where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, the petition shall specify that no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, 10 percent or more of the equity interests and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, in the foreign entity for which the petitioner requests specific approval.</P>
                        <P>(B) For broadcast applicants and licensees, where no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, an attributable interest in the foreign entity, the petition shall specify that no individual or entity holds, or would hold, directly and/or indirectly, an attributable interest in the foreign entity for which the petitioner requests specific approval.</P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Requests for advance approval.</E>
                             The petitioner may, but is not required to, request advance approval in its petition for any foreign individual or entity named in response to paragraph (i) of this section to increase its direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent of the broadcast, common carrier or aeronautical radio station licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), and/or in the common carrier licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), above the percentages specified in response to paragraph (i) of this section. Requests for advance approval shall be made as follows:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1).</E>
                             Where a foreign individual or entity named in response to paragraph (i) of this section holds, or would hold upon consummation of any transactions described in the petition, a 
                            <E T="03">de jure</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">de facto</E>
                             controlling interest in the controlling U.S. parent, the petitioner may request advance approval in its petition for the foreign individual or entity to increase its interests, at some future time, up to any amount, including 100 percent of the direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interests in the controlling U.S. parent. The petitioner shall specify for the named controlling foreign individual(s) or entity(ies) the maximum percentages of equity and/or voting interests for which advance approval is sought or, in lieu of a specific amount, state that the petitioner requests advance approval for the named controlling foreign individual or entity to increase its interests up to and including 100 percent of the controlling U.S. parent's direct and/or indirect equity and/or voting interests.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1) and/or (2).</E>
                             Where a foreign individual or entity named in response to paragraph (i) of this section holds, or would hold upon consummation of any transactions described in the petition, a non-controlling interest in the controlling U.S. parent of the licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1), or in the licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), the petitioner may request advance approval in its petition for the foreign individual or entity to increase its interests, at some future time, up to any non-controlling amount not to exceed 49.99 percent. The petitioner shall specify for the named foreign individual(s) or entity(ies) the maximum percentages of equity and/or voting interests for which advance approval is sought or, in lieu of a specific amount, shall state that the petitioner requests advance approval for the named foreign individual(s) or entity(ies) to increase their interests up to and including a non-controlling 49.99 percent equity and/or voting interest in the licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(2), or in the controlling U.S. parent of the licensee, for petitions filed under § 1.5000(a)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Request for advance approval.</E>
                             Foreign individuals or entities that are deemed to hold 100 percent voting interest pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) or a 50 percent or greater voting interest in the controlling U.S. parent pursuant to § 1.5001(i)(4)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ), but do not have 
                            <E T="03">de jure</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">de facto control</E>
                             of the controlling U.S. parent, may request advance approval in the petition for declaratory ruling for the foreign individual or entity to increase its interests, at some future time, up to any non-controlling amount not to exceed 49.99 percent.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (l) 
                            <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                             Each applicant, licensee, or spectrum lessee filing a petition for declaratory ruling shall certify to the information contained in 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17881"/>
                            the petition in accordance with the provisions of § 1.16 and the requirements of § 1.5000(c)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Submission of petition and responses to standard questions to the Committee for the Assessment of Foreign Participation in the United States Telecommunications Services Sector.</E>
                             For each petition subject to a referral to the executive branch pursuant to § 1.40001, the petitioner must submit:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Responses to standard questions, prior to or at the same time the petitioner files its petition with the Commission, pursuant to subpart CC of this part, directly to the Committee for the Assessment of Foreign Participation in the United States Telecommunications Services Sector (Committee). The standard questions and instructions for submitting the responses are available on the FCC website. The required information shall be submitted separately from the petition and shall be submitted directly to the Committee.</P>
                        <P>(2) A complete and unredacted copy of its FCC petition(s), including the file number(s) and docket number(s), to the Committee within three (3) business days of filing it with the Commission. The instructions for submitting a copy of the FCC petition(s) to the Committee are available on the FCC website.</P>
                        <P>
                            (n) 
                            <E T="03">Certifications.</E>
                             (1) Broadcast applicants and licensees shall make the following certifications by which they agree:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) To designate a point of contact who is located in the United States and is a U.S. citizen or lawful U.S. permanent resident, for the execution of lawful requests and as an agent for legal service of process;</P>
                        <P>(ii)(A) That the petitioner is responsible for the continuing accuracy and completeness of all information submitted, whether at the time of submission of the petition or subsequently in response to either the Commission or the Committee's request, as required in § 1.65(a), and that the petitioner agrees to inform the Commission and the Committee of any substantial and significant changes while a petition is pending; and</P>
                        <P>(B) After the petition is no longer pending for purposes of § 1.65, the petitioner must notify the Commission and the Committee of any changes in petitioner information and/or contact information promptly, and in any event within thirty (30) days; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) That the petitioner understands that if the petitioner or an applicant or licensee covered by the declaratory ruling fails to fulfill any of the conditions and obligations in the certifications set out in paragraph (n)(1) of this section or in the grant of an application, petition, license, or authorization associated with the declaratory ruling and/or that if the information provided to the United States Government is materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent, the petitioner, applicants, and licensees may be subject to all remedies available to the United States Government, including but not limited to revocation and/or termination of the Commission's declaratory ruling, authorization or license, and criminal and civil penalties, including penalties under 18 U.S.C. 1001.</P>
                        <P>(2) Common carrier applicants, licensees, or spectrum lessees shall make the following certifications by which they agree:</P>
                        <P>(i) To comply with all applicable Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act (CALEA) requirements and related rules and regulations, including any and all FCC orders and opinions governing the application of CALEA, pursuant to the Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in subpart Z of this part;</P>
                        <P>(ii) To make communications to, from, or within the United States, as well as records thereof, available in a form and location that permits them to be subject to a valid and lawful request or legal process in accordance with U.S. law, including but not limited to:</P>
                        <P>
                            (A) The Wiretap Act, 18 U.S.C. 2510 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) The Stored Communications Act, 18 U.S.C. 2701 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (C) The Pen Register and Trap and Trace Statute, 18 U.S.C. 3121 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             and
                        </P>
                        <P>(D) Other court orders, subpoenas, or other legal process;</P>
                        <P>(iii) To designate a point of contact who is located in the United States and is a U.S. citizen or lawful U.S. permanent resident, for the execution of lawful requests and as an agent for legal service of process;</P>
                        <P>(iv)(A) That the petitioner is responsible for the continuing accuracy and completeness of all information submitted, whether at the time of submission of the petition or subsequently in response to either the Commission or the Committee's request, as required in § 1.65(a), and that the petitioner agrees to inform the Commission and the Committee of any substantial and significant changes while a petition is pending; and</P>
                        <P>(B) After the petition is no longer pending for purposes of § 1.65 of the rules, the petitioner must notify the Commission and the Committee of any changes in petitioner information and/or contact information promptly, and in any event within thirty (30) days; and</P>
                        <P>(v) That the petitioner understands that if the petitioner or an applicant or licensee covered by the declaratory ruling fails to fulfill any of the conditions and obligations set forth in the certifications set out in paragraph (n)(2) of this section or in the grant of an application, petition, license, or authorization associated with this declaratory ruling and/or that if the information provided to the United States Government is materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent, the petitioner, applicants, and licensees may be subject to all remedies available to the United States Government, including but not limited to revocation and/or termination of the Commission's declaratory ruling, authorization or license, and criminal and civil penalties, including penalties under 18 U.S.C. 1001.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.5002 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>How to calculate indirect equity and voting interests.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Calculating indirect equity and voting interests.</E>
                             The criteria specified in this section shall be used for purposes of calculating indirect equity and voting interests under § 1.5001.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Indirect equity and voting interests</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Equity interests held indirectly in the licensee and/or controlling U.S. parent.</E>
                             Equity interests that are held by an individual or entity indirectly through one or more intervening entities shall be calculated by successive multiplication of the equity percentages for each link in the vertical ownership chain, regardless of whether any particular link in the chain represents a controlling interest in the company positioned in the next lower tier.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Example (for rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1)).</E>
                             Assume that a foreign individual holds a non-controlling 30 percent equity and voting interest in U.S.-organized Corporation A which, in turn, holds a non-controlling 40 percent equity and voting interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B. The foreign individual's equity interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B would be calculated by multiplying the foreign individual's equity interest in U.S.-organized Corporation A by that entity's equity interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B. The foreign individual's equity interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B would be calculated as 12 percent (30% × 40% = 12%). The result would be the same even if U.S.-organized Corporation A held a 
                            <E T="03">de facto</E>
                             controlling interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) [Reserved]
                            <PRTPAGE P="17882"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Voting interests held indirectly in the licensee and/or controlling U.S. parent.</E>
                             Voting interests that are held by any individual or entity indirectly through one or more intervening entities will be determined depending upon the type of business organization(s) in which the individual or entity holds a voting interest as follows:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Voting interests that are held through one or more intervening corporations shall be calculated by successive multiplication of the voting percentages for each link in the vertical ownership chain, except that wherever the voting interest for any link in the chain is equal to or exceeds 50 percent or represents actual control, it shall be treated as if it were a 100 percent interest.</P>
                        <P>
                            (A) Example (for rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1)). Assume that a foreign individual holds a non-controlling 30 percent equity and voting interest in U.S.-organized Corporation A which, in turn, holds a 
                            <E T="03">controlling</E>
                             70 percent equity and voting interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B. Because U.S.-organized Corporation A's 70 percent voting interest in U.S.-organized Parent Corporation B constitutes a 
                            <E T="03">controlling</E>
                             interest, it is treated as a 100 percent interest. The foreign individual's 30 percent voting interest in U.S.-organized Corporation A would flow through in its entirety to U.S. Parent Corporation B and thus be calculated as 30 percent (30% × 100% = 30%).
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>(ii) Voting interests that are held through one or more intervening partnerships shall be calculated depending upon whether the individual or entity holds a general partnership interest, an uninsulated partnership interest, or an insulated partnership interest as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (A) 
                            <E T="03">General partnership and other uninsulated partnership interests.</E>
                             A general partner and uninsulated partner shall be deemed to hold the same voting interest as the partnership holds in the company situated in the next lower tier of the vertical ownership chain. A partner shall be treated as uninsulated unless the limited partnership agreement, limited liability partnership agreement, or other operative agreement satisfies the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Insulated partnership interests.</E>
                             A partner of a limited partnership (other than a general partner) or partner of a limited liability partnership that satisfies the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003 shall be treated as an insulated partner and shall be deemed to hold a voting interest in the partnership that is equal to the partner's equity interest.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (C) 
                            <E T="03">General partner interests.</E>
                             The Commission presumes that a general partner of a general partnership or limited partnership has a controlling interest in the partnership. A general partner shall in all cases be deemed to hold an uninsulated interest in the partnership.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iii) Voting interests that are held through one or more intervening limited liability companies shall be calculated depending upon whether the individual or entity is a non-member manager, an uninsulated member or an insulated member as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (A) 
                            <E T="03">Non-member managers and uninsulated membership interests.</E>
                             A non-member manager and an uninsulated member of a limited liability company shall be deemed to hold the same voting interest as the limited liability company holds in the company situated in the next lower tier of the vertical ownership chain. A member shall be treated as uninsulated unless the limited liability company agreement satisfies the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Insulated membership interests.</E>
                             A member of a limited liability company that satisfies the insulation criteria specified in § 1.5003 shall be treated as an insulated member and shall be deemed to hold a voting interest in the limited liability company that is equal to the member's equity interest.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.5003 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Insulation criteria for interests in limited partnerships, limited liability partnerships, and limited liability companies.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) A limited partner of a limited partnership and a partner of a limited liability partnership shall be treated as uninsulated within the meaning of § 1.5002(b)(2)(ii)(A) unless the partner is prohibited by the limited partnership agreement, limited liability partnership agreement, or other operative agreement from, and in fact is not engaged in, active involvement in the management or operation of the partnership and only the usual and customary investor protections are contained in the partnership agreement or other operative agreement. These criteria apply to any relevant limited partnership or limited liability partnership, whether it is the licensee, a controlling U.S. parent, or any partnership situated above them in the vertical chain of ownership. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the insulation of limited partnership and limited liability partnership interests for broadcast applicants and licensees shall be determined in accordance with Note 2(f) of § 73.3555 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(b) A member of a limited liability company shall be treated as uninsulated for purposes of § 1.5002(b)(2)(iii)(A) unless the member is prohibited by the limited liability company agreement from, and in fact is not engaged in, active involvement in the management or operation of the company and only the usual and customary investor protections are contained in the agreement. These criteria apply to any relevant limited liability company, whether it is the licensee, a controlling U.S. parent, or any limited liability company situated above them in the vertical chain of ownership. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the insulation of limited liability company interests for broadcast applicants and licensees shall be determined in accordance with Note 2(f) of § 73.3555 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(c) The usual and customary investor protections referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall consist of:</P>
                        <P>(1) The power to prevent the sale or pledge of all or substantially all of the assets of the limited partnership, limited liability partnership, or limited liability company or a voluntary filing for bankruptcy or liquidation;</P>
                        <P>(2) The power to prevent the limited partnership, limited liability partnership, or limited liability company from entering into contracts with majority investors or their affiliates;</P>
                        <P>(3) The power to prevent the limited partnership, limited liability partnership, or limited liability company from guaranteeing the obligations of majority investors or their affiliates;</P>
                        <P>(4) The power to purchase an additional interest in the limited partnership, limited liability partnership, or limited liability company to prevent the dilution of the partner's or member's pro rata interest in the event that the limited partnership, limited liability partnership, or limited liability company issues additional instruments conveying interests in the partnership or company;</P>
                        <P>(5) The power to prevent the change of existing legal rights or preferences of the partners, members, or managers as provided in the limited partnership agreement, limited liability partnership agreement, or limited liability company agreement, or other operative agreement;</P>
                        <P>
                            (6) The power to vote on the removal of a general partner, managing partner, managing member, or other manager in 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17883"/>
                            situations where such individual or entity is subject to bankruptcy, insolvency, reorganization, or other proceedings relating to the relief of debtors; adjudicated insane or incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction (in the case of a natural person); convicted of a felony; or otherwise removed for cause, as determined by an independent party;
                        </P>
                        <P>(7) The power to prevent the amendment of the limited partnership agreement, limited liability partnership agreement, or limited liability company agreement, or other organizational documents of the partnership or limited liability company with respect to the matters described in paragraph (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(d) The Commission reserves the right to consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether voting or consent rights over matters other than those listed in paragraph (c) of this section shall be considered usual and customary investor protections in a particular case.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.5004 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Routine terms and conditions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Foreign ownership declaratory rulings issued pursuant to §§ 1.5000 through 1.5004 shall be subject to the following terms and conditions, except as otherwise specified in a particular declaratory ruling:</P>
                        <P>
                            (a)(1) 
                            <E T="03">Aggregate allowance for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1).</E>
                             In addition to the foreign ownership interests approved specifically in a licensee's declaratory ruling issued pursuant to § 1.5000(a)(1), the controlling U.S. parent named in the declaratory ruling (or a U.S.-organized successor-in-interest formed as part of a pro forma reorganization) may be 100 percent owned, directly and/or indirectly through one or more U.S.- or foreign-organized entities, on a going-forward basis (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             after issuance of the declaratory ruling) by other foreign investors without prior Commission approval. This “100 percent aggregate allowance” is subject to the requirement that the licensee seek and obtain Commission approval before any foreign individual, entity, or “group” not previously approved acquires, directly and/or indirectly, more than 5 percent of the controlling U.S. parent's outstanding capital stock (equity) and/or voting stock, or a controlling interest, with the exception of any foreign individual, entity, or “group” that acquires an equity and/or voting interest of 10 percent or less, provided that the interest is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Aggregate allowance for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2).</E>
                             In addition to the foreign ownership interests approved specifically in a licensee's declaratory ruling issued pursuant to § 1.5000(a)(2), the licensee(s) named in the ruling (or a U.S.-organized successor-in-interest formed as part of a pro forma reorganization) may be 100 percent owned on a going forward basis (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             after issuance of the declaratory ruling) by other foreign investors holding interests in the licensee indirectly through U.S.-organized entities that do not control the licensee, without prior Commission approval. This “100 percent aggregate allowance” is subject to the requirement that the licensee seek and obtain Commission approval before any foreign individual, entity, or “group” not previously approved acquires directly and/or indirectly, through one or more U.S.-organized entities that do not control the licensee, more than 5 percent of the licensee's outstanding capital stock (equity) and/or voting stock, with the exception of any foreign individual, entity, or “group” that acquires an equity and/or voting interest of 10 percent or less, provided that the interest is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3). Foreign ownership interests held directly in a licensee shall not be permitted to exceed an aggregate 20 percent of the licensee's equity and/or voting interests.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Obligation to monitor foreign ownership.</E>
                             Licensees have an obligation to monitor and stay ahead of changes in foreign ownership of their controlling U.S. parent (for declaratory rulings issued pursuant to § 1.5000(a)(1)) and/or in the licensee itself (for declaratory rulings issued pursuant to § 1.5000(a)(2)), to ensure that the licensee obtains Commission approval before a change in foreign ownership renders the licensee out of compliance with the terms and conditions of its declaratory ruling(s) or the Commission's rules. Licensees, their controlling parent, and other entities in the licensee's vertical ownership chain may need to place restrictions in their bylaws or other organizational documents to enable the licensee to ensure compliance with the terms and conditions of its declaratory ruling(s) and the Commission's rules.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1 (for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1)).</E>
                             U.S. Corp. files an application for a common carrier license. U.S. Corp. is wholly owned and controlled by U.S. Parent, which is a newly formed, privately held Delaware Corporation in which no single shareholder has 
                            <E T="03">de jure</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">de facto</E>
                             control. A shareholder's agreement provides that a five-member board of directors shall govern the affairs of the company; five named shareholders shall be entitled to one seat and one vote on the board; and all decisions of the board shall be determined by majority vote. The five named shareholders and their respective equity interests are as follows: Foreign Entity A, which is wholly owned and controlled by a foreign citizen (5 percent); Foreign Entity B, which is wholly owned and controlled by a foreign citizen (10 percent); Foreign Entity C, a foreign public company with no controlling shareholder (20 percent); Foreign Entity D, a foreign pension fund that is controlled by a foreign citizen and in which no individual or entity has a pecuniary interest exceeding one percent (21 percent); and U.S. Entity E, a U.S. public company with no controlling shareholder (25 percent). The remaining 19 percent of U.S. Parent's shares are held by three foreign-organized entities as follows: F (4 percent), G (6 percent), and H (9 percent). Under the shareholders' agreement, voting rights of F, G, and H are limited to the minority shareholder protections listed in § 1.5001(i)(6). Further, the agreement expressly prohibits G and H from becoming actively involved in the management or operation of U.S. Parent and U.S. Corp.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) As required by the rules, U.S. Corp. files a section 310(b)(4) petition concurrently with its application. The petition identifies and requests specific approval for the ownership interests held in U.S. Parent by Foreign Entity A and its sole shareholder (5 percent equity and 20 percent voting interest); Foreign Entity B and its sole shareholder (10 percent equity and 20 percent voting interest), Foreign Entity C (20 percent equity and 20 percent voting interest), and Foreign Entity D (21 percent equity and 20 percent voting interest) and its fund manager (20 percent voting interest). The Commission's declaratory ruling specifically approves these foreign interests. The declaratory ruling also provides that, on a going-forward basis, U.S. Parent may be 100 percent owned in the aggregate, directly and/or indirectly, by other foreign investors, subject to the requirement that U.S. Corp. seek and obtain Commission approval before any previously unapproved foreign investor acquires more than 5 percent of U.S. Parent's equity and/or voting interests, or a controlling interest, with the exception of any foreign investor that acquires an equity and/or voting interest of ten percent or less, provided that the interest is exempt under § 1.991(i)(3).</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) In this case, foreign entities F, G, and H would each be considered a previously unapproved foreign investor (along with any new foreign investors). 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17884"/>
                            However, prior approval for F, G, and H would only apply to an increase of F's interest above 5 percent (because the ten percent exemption under § 1.5001(i)(3) does not apply to F) or to an increase of G's or H's interest above 10 percent (because G and H do qualify for this exemption). U.S. Corp. would also need Commission approval before Foreign Entity D appoints a new fund manager that is a non-U.S. citizen and before Foreign Entities A, B, C, or D increase their respective equity and/or voting interests in U.S. Parent, unless the petition previously sought and obtained Commission approval for such increases (up to non-controlling 49.99 percent interests). (See § 1.5001(k)(2).) Foreign shareholders of Foreign Entity C and U.S. Entity E would also be considered previously unapproved foreign investors. Thus, Commission approval would be required before any foreign shareholder of Foreign Entity C or U.S. Entity E acquires (1) a controlling interest in either company; or (2) a non-controlling equity and/or voting interest in either company that, when multiplied by the company's equity and/or voting interests in U.S. Parent, would exceed 5 percent of U.S. Parent's equity and/or voting interests, unless the interest is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2 (for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2)).</E>
                             Assume that the following three U.S.-organized entities hold non-controlling equity and voting interests in common carrier Licensee, which is a privately held corporation organized in Delaware: U.S. corporation A (30 percent); U.S. corporation B (30 percent); and U.S. corporation C (40 percent). Licensee's shareholders are wholly owned by foreign individuals X, Y, and Z, respectively. Licensee has received a declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2) specifically approving the 30 percent foreign ownership interests held in Licensee by each of X and Y (through U.S. corporation A and U.S. corporation B, respectively) and the 40 percent foreign ownership interest held in Licensee by Z (through U.S. corporation C). On a going-forward basis, Licensee may be 100 percent owned in the aggregate by X, Y, Z, and other foreign investors holding interests in Licensee indirectly, through U.S.-organized entities that do not control Licensee, subject to the requirement that Licensee obtain Commission approval before any previously unapproved foreign investor acquires more than 5 percent of Licensee's equity and/or voting interests, with the exception of any foreign investor that acquires an equity and/or voting interest of 10 percent or less, provided that the interest is exempt under § 1.5001(i)(3). In this case, any foreign investor other than X, Y, and Z would be considered a previously unapproved foreign investor. Licensee would also need Commission approval before X, Y, or Z increases its equity and/or voting interests in Licensee unless the petition previously sought and obtained Commission approval for such increases (up to non-controlling 49.99 percent interests). (See § 1.5001(k)(2).)
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Subsidiaries and affiliates.</E>
                             A foreign ownership declaratory ruling issued to a licensee shall cover it and any U.S.-organized subsidiary or affiliate, as defined in § 1.5000(d), whether the subsidiary or affiliate existed at the time the declaratory ruling was issued or was formed or acquired subsequently, provided that the foreign ownership of the licensee named in the declaratory ruling, and of the subsidiary and/or affiliate, remains in compliance with the terms and conditions of the licensee's declaratory ruling and the Commission's rules.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The subsidiary or affiliate of a licensee named in a foreign ownership declaratory ruling issued under § 1.5000(a)(1) may rely on that declaratory ruling for purposes of filing its own application for an initial broadcast, common carrier or aeronautical license or spectrum leasing arrangement, or an application to acquire such license or spectrum leasing arrangement by assignment or transfer of control provided that the subsidiary or affiliate, and the licensee named in the declaratory ruling, each certifies in the application that its foreign ownership is in compliance with the terms and conditions of the foreign ownership declaratory ruling and the Commission's rules.</P>
                        <P>(2) The subsidiary or affiliate of a licensee named in a foreign ownership declaratory ruling issued under § 1.5000(a)(2) may rely on that declaratory ruling for purposes of filing its own application for an initial common carrier radio station license or spectrum leasing arrangement, or an application to acquire such license or spectrum leasing arrangement by assignment or transfer of control provided that the subsidiary or affiliate, and the licensee named in the declaratory ruling, each certifies in the application that its foreign ownership is in compliance with the terms and conditions of the foreign ownership declaratory ruling and the Commission's rules.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) The certifications required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section shall also include the citation(s) of the relevant declaratory ruling(s) (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             the DA or FCC Number, FCC Record citation when available, and release date).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c)(1) 
                            <E T="03">Insertion of new controlling foreign-organized companies.</E>
                             Where a licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling specifically authorizes a named, foreign investor to hold a controlling interest in the licensee's controlling U.S. parent, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1), or in an intervening U.S.-organized entity that does not control the licensee, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2), the declaratory ruling shall permit the insertion of new, controlling foreign-organized companies in the vertical ownership chain above the controlling U.S. parent, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1), or above an intervening U.S.-organized entity that does not control the licensee, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2), without prior Commission approval only where the foreign investor approved in the declaratory ruling maintains 100 percent ownership and control of any new foreign-organized company(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Notification to Office of International Affairs of insertion of new previously unapproved controlling foreign-organized companies without prior Commission approval.</E>
                             Where a previously unapproved foreign-organized entity is inserted into the vertical ownership chain of a licensee, or its controlling U.S. parent, without prior Commission approval pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the licensee shall file a letter to the attention of the Chief, Office of International Affairs, within 30 days after the insertion of the new, foreign-organized entity. The letter must include the name of the new, foreign-organized entity and a certification by the licensee that the entity complies with the 100 percent common ownership and control requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The letter must also reference the licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling(s) by ICFS File No. and FCC Record citation, if available. This letter notification need not be filed if the ownership change is instead the subject of a 
                            <E T="03">pro forma</E>
                             application or 
                            <E T="03">pro forma</E>
                             notification already filed with the Commission pursuant to the relevant broadcast service rules, wireless radio service rules or satellite radio service rules applicable to the licensee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">
                                Pro forma filing required for insertion of new previously unapproved controlling foreign-organized companies 
                                <PRTPAGE P="17885"/>
                                in broadcast licensee without prior Commission approval.
                            </E>
                             For broadcast stations, in order to insert a previously unapproved foreign-organized entity in which the foreign investor approved in the declaratory ruling maintains 100 percent common ownership and control into the vertical ownership chain of the licensee's controlling U.S. parent, as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the licensee must always file a 
                            <E T="03">pro forma</E>
                             application requesting prior consent of the FCC pursuant to section 73.3540(f) of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">No affect on forbearance from the requirements of 47 U.S.C. 310(d).</E>
                             Nothing in this section is intended to affect any requirements for prior approval under 47 U.S.C. 310(d) or conditions for forbearance from the requirements of 47 U.S.C. 310(d) pursuant to 47 U.S.C. 160.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Example (for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1)).</E>
                             Licensee of a common carrier license receives a foreign ownership declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) that authorizes its controlling, U.S. parent (“U.S. Parent A”) to be wholly owned and controlled by a foreign-organized company (“Foreign Company”). Foreign Company is minority owned (20 percent) by U.S.-organized Corporation B, with the remaining 80 percent controlling interest held by Foreign Citizen C. After issuance of the declaratory ruling, Foreign Company forms a wholly-owned, foreign-organized subsidiary (“Foreign Subsidiary”) to hold all of Foreign Company's shares in U.S. Parent A. There are no other changes in the direct or indirect foreign ownership of U.S. Parent A. The insertion of Foreign Subsidiary into the vertical ownership chain between Foreign Company and U.S. Parent A would not require prior Commission approval, except for any approval otherwise required pursuant to section 310(d) of the Communications Act and not exempt therefrom as a pro forma transfer of control under § 1.948(c)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Example (for rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2)).</E>
                             An applicant for a common carrier license receives a foreign ownership ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2) that authorizes a foreign-organized company (“Foreign Company”) to hold a non-controlling 44 percent equity and voting interest in the applicant through Foreign Company's wholly-owned, U.S.-organized subsidiary, U.S. Corporation A, which holds the non-controlling 44 percent interest directly in the applicant. The remaining 56 percent of the applicant's equity and voting interests are held by its controlling U.S.-organized parent, which has no foreign ownership. After issuance of the ruling, Foreign Company forms a wholly-owned, foreign-organized subsidiary to hold all of Foreign Company's shares in U.S. Corporation A. There are no other changes in the direct or indirect foreign ownership of U.S. Corporation A. The insertion of the foreign-organized subsidiary into the vertical ownership chain between Foreign Company and U.S. Corporation A would not require prior Commission approval.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Insertion of new non-controlling foreign-organized companies.</E>
                             (1) Where a licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling specifically authorizes a named, foreign investor to hold a non-controlling interest in the licensee's controlling U.S. parent, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1), or in an intervening U.S.-organized entity that does not control the licensee, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2), the declaratory ruling shall permit the insertion of new, foreign-organized companies in the vertical ownership chain above the controlling U.S. parent, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1), or above an intervening U.S.-organized entity that does not control the licensee, for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2), without prior Commission approval where the foreign investor approved in the declaratory ruling maintains 100 percent ownership and control of any new foreign-organized company(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Insertion of new, foreign-organized companies in the vertical ownership chain.</E>
                             Where a licensee has received a foreign ownership declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2) and the declaratory ruling specifically authorizes a named, foreign investor to hold a non-controlling interest directly in the licensee (subject to the 20 percent aggregate limit on direct foreign investment), the declaratory ruling shall permit the insertion of new, foreign-organized companies in the vertical ownership chain of the approved foreign investor without prior Commission approval where the approved foreign investor maintains 100 percent ownership and control of any new foreign-organized company(ies).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Example (for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(1)).</E>
                             Licensee receives a foreign ownership declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) that authorizes a foreign-organized company (“Foreign Company”) to hold a non-controlling 30 percent equity and voting interest in Licensee's controlling, U.S. parent (“U.S. Parent A”). The remaining 70 percent equity and voting interests in U.S. Parent A are held by U.S.-organized entities which have no foreign ownership. After issuance of the declaratory ruling, Foreign Company forms a wholly-owned, foreign-organized subsidiary (“Foreign Subsidiary”) to hold all of Foreign Company's shares in U.S. Parent A. There are no other changes in the direct or indirect foreign ownership of U.S. Parent A. The insertion of Foreign Subsidiary into the vertical ownership chain between Foreign Company and U.S. Parent A would not require prior Commission approval.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Example (for declaratory rulings issued under § 1.5000(a)(2)).</E>
                             Licensee receives a foreign ownership declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2) that authorizes a foreign-organized entity (“Foreign Company”) to hold approximately 24 percent of Licensee's equity and voting interests, through Foreign Company's non-controlling 48 percent equity and voting interest in a U.S.-organized entity, U.S. Corporation A, which holds a non-controlling 49 percent equity and voting interest directly in Licensee. (A U.S. citizen holds the remaining 52 percent equity and voting interests in U.S. Corporation A, and the remaining 51 percent equity and voting interests in Licensee are held by its U.S.-organized parent, which has no foreign ownership. After issuance of the declaratory ruling, Foreign Company forms a wholly-owned, foreign-organized subsidiary (“Foreign Subsidiary”) to hold all of Foreign Company's shares in U.S. Corporation A. There are no other changes in the direct or indirect foreign ownership of U.S. Corporation A. The insertion of Foreign Subsidiary into the vertical ownership chain between Foreign Company and U.S. Corporation A would not require prior Commission approval.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Where a previously unapproved foreign-organized entity is inserted into the vertical ownership chain of a licensee, or its controlling U.S.-parent, without prior Commission approval pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the licensee shall file a letter to the attention of the Chief, Office of International Affairs, within 30 days after the insertion of the new, foreign-organized entity; or in the case of a broadcast licensee, the licensee shall file a letter to the attention of the Chief, Media Bureau, within 30 days after the insertion of the new, foreign-organized entity. The letter must include the name of the new, foreign-organized entity and a certification by the licensee that the entity complies with the 100 percent common ownership and control requirement in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The letter must also reference the licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling(s) by ICFS File No. 
                            <PRTPAGE P="17886"/>
                            and FCC Record citation, if available; or, if a broadcast licensee, the letter must reference the licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling(s) by LMS File No., Docket No., call sign(s), facility identification number(s), and FCC Record citation, if available. This letter notification need not be filed if the ownership change is instead the subject of a pro forma application or pro forma notification already filed with the Commission pursuant to the relevant broadcast service, wireless radio service rules or satellite radio service rules applicable to the licensee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">New petition for declaratory ruling required.</E>
                             A licensee that has received a foreign ownership declaratory ruling, including a U.S.-organized successor-in-interest to such licensee formed as part of a pro forma reorganization, or any subsidiary or affiliate relying on such licensee's declaratory ruling pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, shall file a new petition for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000 to obtain Commission approval before its foreign ownership exceeds the routine terms and conditions of this section, and/or any specific terms or conditions of its declaratory ruling.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Continuing compliance.</E>
                             (1) Except as specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, if at any time the licensee, including any successor-in-interest and any subsidiary or affiliate as described in paragraph (b) of this section, knows, or has reason to know, that it is no longer in compliance with its foreign ownership declaratory ruling or the Commission's rules relating to foreign ownership, it shall file a statement with the Commission explaining the circumstances within 30 days of the date it knew, or had reason to know, that it was no longer in compliance therewith. Subsequent actions taken by or on behalf of the licensee to remedy its non-compliance shall not relieve it of the obligation to notify the Commission of the circumstances (including duration) of non-compliance. Such licensee and any controlling companies, whether U.S.- or foreign-organized, shall be subject to enforcement action by the Commission for such non-compliance, including an order requiring divestiture of the investor's direct and/or indirect interests in such entities.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Any individual or entity that, directly or indirectly, creates or uses a trust, proxy, power of attorney, or any other contract, arrangement, or device with the purpose or effect of divesting itself, or preventing the vesting, of an equity interest or voting interest in the licensee, or in a controlling U.S. parent, as part of a plan or scheme to evade the application of the Commission's rules or policies under section 310(b) shall be subject to enforcement action by the Commission, including an order requiring divestiture of the investor's direct and/or indirect interests in such entities.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where the controlling U.S. parent of a broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, or aeronautical fixed radio station licensee or common carrier spectrum lessee is an eligible U.S. public company within the meaning of § 1.5000(e), or where the controlling U.S. parent of a broadcast, common carrier, aeronautical en route, or aeronautical fixed radio station licensee or common carrier spectrum lessee is a U.S. privately held company within the meaning of § 1.5000(d), the licensee may file a remedial petition for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) seeking approval of particular foreign equity and/or voting interests that are non-compliant with the licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling or the Commission's rules relating to foreign ownership; or, alternatively, the licensee may remedy the non-compliance by, for example, redeeming the foreign interest(s) that rendered the licensee non-compliant with the licensee's existing foreign ownership declaratory ruling. In either case, the Commission does not expect to take enforcement action related to the non-compliance subject to the requirements specified in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section and except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(i) The licensee shall notify the relevant Bureau by letter no later than 10 days after learning of the investment(s) that rendered the licensee non-compliant with its foreign ownership ruling or the Commission's rules relating to foreign ownership and specify in the letter that it will file a petition for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) or, alternatively, take remedial action to come into compliance within 30 days of the date it learned of the non-compliant foreign interest(s).</P>
                        <P>(ii) The licensee shall demonstrate in its petition for declaratory ruling (or in a letter notifying the relevant Bureau that the non-compliance has been timely remedied) that the licensee's non-compliance with the terms of the licensee's existing foreign ownership ruling or the foreign ownership rules was due solely to circumstances beyond the licensee's control that were not reasonably foreseeable to or known by the licensee with the exercise of the required due diligence.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Where the licensee has opted to file a petition for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1), the Commission will not require that the licensee's controlling U.S. parent redeem the non-compliant foreign interest(s) or take other action to remedy the non-compliance during the pendency of the licensee's petition. If the Commission ultimately declines to approve the petition, however, the licensee must have a mechanism available to come into compliance with the terms of its existing declaratory ruling within 30 days following the Commission's decision. The Commission reserves the right to require immediate remedial action by the licensee where the Commission finds in a particular case that the public interest requires such action—for example, where, after consultation with the relevant Executive Branch agencies, the Commission finds that the non-compliant foreign interest presents national security or other significant concerns that require immediate mitigation.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where a publicly traded common carrier licensee is an eligible U.S. public company within the meaning of § 1.5000(e), or where a common carrier licensee is a U.S. privately held company within the meaning of § 1.5000(d), the licensee may file a remedial petition for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2) seeking approval of particular foreign equity and/or voting interests that are non-compliant with the licensee's foreign ownership declaratory ruling or the Commission's rules relating to foreign ownership; or, alternatively, the licensee may remedy the non-compliance by, for example, redeeming the foreign interest(s) that rendered the licensee non-compliant with the licensee's existing foreign ownership declaratory ruling. In either case, the Commission does not, as a general rule, expect to take enforcement action related to the non-compliance subject to the requirements specified in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) and (f)(3)(ii) of this section and except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(i) For purposes of this paragraph, the provisions in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) through (f)(3)(iii) that refer to petitions for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(1) shall be read as referring to petitions for declaratory ruling under § 1.5000(a)(2).</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17887"/>
                        <P>(5) For all remedial petitions for declaratory ruling, as specified in paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section, the licensee must include all applicable information required by § 1.5001 for all interest holders in addition to identifying the non-compliant interest(s).</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06866 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17888"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>2 CFR Part 6001</CFR>
                <CFR>47 CFR Parts 54 and 64</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[GN Docket No. 19-309; FCC 26-18; FR ID 339027]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) proposes additional safeguards to protect against waste, fraud, and abuse, including additional mandatory reporting requirements, and proposes to extend the Commission's suspension and debarment framework to additional programs. A Final Rule relating to the Commission's adoption of revised suspension and debarment rules is published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are due on or before May 11, 2026 and reply comments are due on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to §§ 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates provided in the 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                         section above. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS). See Electronic Filing of Documents in Rulemaking Proceedings, 63 FR 24121 (1998). You may submit comments, identified by GN Docket No. 19-309, by any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filers:</E>
                         Comments may be filed electronically using the internet by accessing the ECFS: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/ecfs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Paper Filers:</E>
                         Parties who choose to file by paper must file an original and one copy of each filing.
                    </P>
                    <P>• Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial courier, or by the U.S. Postal Service. All filings must be addressed to the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                    <P>• Hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary are accepted between 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. by the FCC's mailing contractor at 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.</P>
                    <P>• Commercial courier deliveries (any deliveries not by the U.S. Postal Service) must be sent to 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701. Filings sent by U.S. Postal Service First-Class Mail, Priority Mail, and Priority Mail Express must be sent to 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554.</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">People With Disabilities:</E>
                         To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to 
                        <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                         or call the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Paula Silberthau, Attorney Advisor, Office of General Counsel, 202-418-1874, 
                        <E T="03">paula.silberthau@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This is a summary of the Commission's Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                    ) in GN Docket No. 19-309, FCC 26-18, adopted on March 26, 2026, and released on March 27, 2026. The complete text of this document is available for download at 
                    <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-18A1.pdf.</E>
                     Alternative formats are available for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format) by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                     or calling the Commission's Consumer and Government Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0503.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Ex Parte Presentations.</E>
                     The proceeding this document initiates shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     rules. Persons making 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations must file a copy of any written presentation or a memorandum summarizing any oral presentation within two business days after the presentation (unless a different deadline applicable to the Sunshine period applies). Persons making oral 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations are reminded that memoranda summarizing the presentation must (1) list all persons attending or otherwise participating in the meeting at which the 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentation was made, and (2) summarize all data presented and arguments made during the presentation. If the presentation consisted in whole or in part of the presentation of data or arguments already reflected in the presenter's written comments, memoranda or other filings in the proceeding, the presenter may provide citations to such data or arguments in his or her prior comments, memoranda, or other filings (specifying the relevant page and/or paragraph numbers where such data or arguments can be found) in lieu of summarizing them in the memorandum. Documents shown or given to Commission staff during 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     meetings are deemed to be written 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations and must be filed consistent with rule 1.1206(b). In proceedings governed by rule 1.49(f) or for which the Commission has made available a method of electronic filing, written 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations and memoranda summarizing oral 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations, and all attachments thereto, must be filed through the electronic comment filing system available for that proceeding, and must be filed in their native format (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     .doc, .xml, .ppt, searchable .pdf). Participants in this proceeding should familiarize themselves with the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Regulatory Flexibility Act.</E>
                     The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA) requires that an agency prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for notice and comment rulemakings, unless the agency certifies that “the rule will not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.” Accordingly, the Commission has prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) concerning the possible/potential impact of rule and policy proposals on small entities in the FCC document. The IRFA is found below and in Appendix C of the Commission's Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. The Commission invites the general public, particularly small businesses, to comment on the IRFA. Comments must be filed by the deadlines for comments on the Notice of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17889"/>
                    Proposed Rulemaking indicated on the first page of this document and must have a separate and distinct heading designating them as responses to the IRFA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Paperwork Reduction Act.</E>
                     This document contains proposed new or modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, will invite the general public to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</E>
                     as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the Commission seeks specific comment on how it might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act:</E>
                     Consistent with the Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act, Public Law 1189-9, a summary of the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking will be available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/proposed-rulemakings.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                <P>The Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) administers several congressionally-mandated programs, such as the Universal Service Fund (USF) and the Telecommunications Relay Services (TRS) program, that provide significant funding to close the digital divide and ensure that all Americans have access to communications services. In administering these important programs, it is incumbent upon the Commission to be a good steward of these funds, which are ultimately paid for by the American people. We must ensure that these limited dollars serve their intended purposes. Waste, fraud, and abuse frustrate the Commission's goals and undermines public trust in these programs. Bad actors who would seek to enrich themselves by siphoning these critical resources away from connecting rural households and businesses, schools and libraries, rural healthcare providers, low-income households, and people with disabilities have no place in these programs. As such, in a companion Report and Order, we adopted additional, critical tools which will allow us to promptly and efficiently take action to exclude or otherwise limit bad actors' participation in these programs. These changes, which received widespread support in the record, will align our processes with other agencies, incorporate current fraud prevention best practices, and, ultimately, distribute funds more responsibly.</P>
                <P>In the Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, we propose to update existing information collection mechanisms for affected programs to include a new certification that applicable program participants have read and complied with the rules we adopt in the Report and Order. We also seek comment on additional safeguards to enhance accountability. We also seek comment on whether applying the new rules to the Commission's Secure and Trusted Communications Networks Reimbursement Program (also referred to as the Supply Chain Reimbursement Program or, colloquially, Rip-and-Replace) to subsidize smaller carriers to remove and replace certain equipment that poses an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States, as well as to any future USF or TRS programs or National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program (NDBEDP) or similar financial assistance programs, will improve the sustainability of their funding for the benefit of those whom the programs serve.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Safeguards</HD>
                <P>In this Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, we seek comment on additional safeguards that could be added to the suspension and debarment framework adopted by the Report and Order. Specifically, we propose to update existing information collection mechanisms for affected programs to include a new certification that applicable program participants have read and complied with the rules we adopt in the Report and Order. We expect that this proposal will help streamline the implementation of the Guidelines and supplemental rules and decrease the potential for waste, fraud, and abuse by prompting participants to both familiarize themselves, and comply, with the adopted rules and providing additional tools to remedy noncompliance. We anticipate this approach to pose little additional burden given that those participating in Commission programs are already responsible for complying with the rules relating to those programs and this approach could help increase awareness of Commission rules among entities that might not otherwise conduct business before the Commission. We seek comment on this proposal and the benefits or burdens it may create, particularly as to any adjustments to alleviate any potential burden on small entities.</P>
                <P>We also propose adopting a mandatory disclosure requirement that would provide the agency with additional information concerning threats to program integrity, and other forms of waste, fraud, and abuse in our programs. Specifically, we propose to adopt the mandatory disclosure provision from OMB's Uniform Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance that would require any “applicant, recipient, or subrecipient of a Federal award [to] promptly disclose whenever . . . it has credible evidence of the commission of a violation of Federal criminal law involving fraud, conflict of interest, bribery, or gratuity violations” in connection with the award of Federal funds. 2 CFR 200.113. This provision would require applicants and recipients—often the first to learn of potential waste, fraud, and abuse—to proactively alert both the agency and the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) of any such credible evidence. We propose adoption of this requirement and propose modifications to the program certifications to require applicants and recipients to demonstrate their compliance with the provision when participating in our programs. We tentatively conclude that adoption of this requirement would better ensure program participants are actively assisting the agency in deterring and addressing waste, fraud, and abuse in its programs, and we seek comment on this proposal.</P>
                <P>Finally, we also seek comment on any additional safeguards, such as additional certifications, appointment of compliance officers in connection with any compliance plan, or other steps that the Commission may take to enhance its ability to promote greater accountability and policing among persons receiving financial assistance from Commission programs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Covered Programs</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed briefly above, in 2020, the Commission established the Supply Chain Reimbursement Program (SCRP) to subsidize smaller carriers to remove and replace certain equipment that poses an unacceptable risk to the national security of the United States. Although reimbursements are funded by a separate appropriation, the program is designed in part to prohibit Universal Service Fund support from being used for equipment and services which pose a threat to national security. Over the past six years, the Commission has processed over 50,000 claims for reimbursement and has approved approximately $1.3 billion in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17890"/>
                    disbursements to recipients. As the Suspension and Debarment NPRM preceded the creation of the SCRP, we did not seek comment on its inclusion as a covered program for the purposes of suspension and debarment.
                </P>
                <P>We recognize that the Secure Networks Act provided for a debarment-like remedy in the SCRP. Specifically, “[a]ny person or entity that violates the Reimbursement Program rules will also be banned from further participation in the [SCRP], and the person or entity may also be barred from participating in other Commission programs, including Universal Service support programs.” We seek comment on whether we should nonetheless extend the suspension and debarment rules we adopt today to this program, and if so, how extension of the suspension and debarment rules adopted in the Report and Order would support this program-specific statutory requirement. We also seek comment on any implementation issues, including whether there should be any program-specific changes as to how these rules are applied in the context of the SCRP, such as the definitions of primary and lower tier participants for those programs or the disclosure requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Future Programs</HD>
                <P>The Report and Order applies the suspension and debarment framework to the USF programs (including High-Cost, E-Rate, Lifeline, and Rural Health Care), TRS and NDBEDP. On occasion, the Commission establishes new support programs—funded by similar mechanisms and designed to mirror existing programs—including new models of High-Cost, pilot programs to evaluate future modifications to universal service, and modernized forms of TRS. To the extent the Commission creates new universal service programs, including additional forms of high cost support or additional pilot programs, or authorizes new forms of TRS or NDBEDP in the future, we propose that any such program will be governed by default by the suspension and debarment framework adopted in the Report and Order. We tentatively conclude that a default application of the suspension and debarment rules to any future USF or TRS programs or NDBEDP or similar financial assistance programs will improve the sustainability of their funding for the benefit of those whom the programs serve. Given the anticipated similarities between any future USF or TRS program and those currently in effect, we do not expect any significant burden on program participants if the suspension and debarment rules were also extended to these similarly-designed programs. We further anticipate that, to the extent that modifications for a specific program are appropriate, the Commission can consider such customization in adopting program-specific rules. We seek comment on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the policies and rules proposed in the Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                    ) assessing the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission requests written public comments on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA and must be filed by the deadlines for comments specified on the first page of the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM.</E>
                     The Commission will send a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM,</E>
                     including this IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration (SBA) Office of Advocacy.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Need for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Rules</HD>
                <P>The rules we propose in the Further Notice seek to revise the Commission's rules to include a certification requirement to transactions for the four USF programs (including High-Cost programs), the TRS program, and the NDBEDP, which are the Commission's primary permanent nonprocurement programs, as well as to other programs (collectively Covered Programs) to reflect that persons participating in those programs have read and agree to comply with the rules that the Commission adopted in its Report and Order above. The proposed certification could increase the likelihood that those receiving financial assistance from FCC-administered programs will be responsible stewards of these funds.</P>
                <P>Additionally, we propose to adopt the mandatory disclosure provision from the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Uniform Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance that would require applicants and recipients to proactively alert both the agency and the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) of any credible evidence of fraud in our programs. We also seek comment on whether to extend the suspension and debarment framework to the Supply Chain Reimbursement Program, as well as to any new universal service programs or modernized forms of TRS or NDBEDP the Commission may adopt in the future.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>The proposed action is authorized pursuant to sections 1, 2, 4, 218, 225, 254, 403, 616, and 620 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, section 7402, Title VII of the American Rescue Plan Act 2021, Public Law 117-2, 135 Stat. 4 (2021), and Section 904 of Division N, Title IX of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182, as amended by section 60502 of Division F, Title V of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Public Law 117-58, 135 Stat. 429 (2021), 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154, 218, 225, 254, 403, 616, and 620.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rules Will Apply</HD>
                <P>The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA. The SBA establishes small business size standards that agencies are required to use when promulgating regulations relating to small businesses; agencies may establish alternative size standards for use in such programs, but must consult and obtain approval from SBA before doing so.</P>
                <P>
                    Our actions, over time, may affect small entities that are not easily categorized at present. We therefore describe three broad groups of small entities that could be directly affected by our actions. In general, a small business is an independent business having fewer than 500 employees. These types of small businesses represent 99.9% of all businesses in the United States, which translates to 34.75 million businesses. Next, “small organizations” are not-for-profit enterprises that are independently owned and operated and not dominant in their field. While we do not have data regarding the number of non-profits that meet that criteria, over 99 percent of nonprofits have fewer than 500 employees. Finally, “small governmental jurisdictions” are defined as cities, counties, towns, townships, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17891"/>
                    villages, school districts, or special districts with populations of less than fifty thousand. Based on the 2022 U.S. Census of Governments data, we estimate that at least 48,724 out of 90,835 local government jurisdictions have a population of less than 50,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The rules proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                     will apply to small entities in the industries identified in the chart below by their six-digit North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes and corresponding SBA size standard. Based on currently available U.S. Census data regarding the estimated number of small firms in each identified industry, we conclude that the proposed rules will impact a substantial number of small entities. Where available, we also provide additional information regarding the number of potentially affected entities in the industries identified below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,10,xs68,11,11,11">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—2022 U.S. Census Bureau Data by NAICS Code</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Regulated industry
                            <LI>(footnotes specify potentially affected entities within </LI>
                            <LI>a regulated industry where applicable)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">NAICS code</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">SBA size standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total firms</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>small firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            % Small
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Telephone Apparatus Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>334210</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,250 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>155</ENT>
                        <ENT>136</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.74</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Radio and Television Broadcasting and Wireless Communications Equip Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>334220</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,250 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>155</ENT>
                        <ENT>136</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.74</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Communications Equipment Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>334290</ENT>
                        <ENT>800 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>310</ENT>
                        <ENT>294</ENT>
                        <ENT>94.84</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Software Publishers</ENT>
                        <ENT>513210</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,824</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,148</ENT>
                        <ENT>72.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                        <ENT>517111</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,403</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,027</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.95</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite)</ENT>
                        <ENT>517112</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,184</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>91.30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Telecommunications Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>517121</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>955</ENT>
                        <ENT>847</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.69</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Satellite Telecommunications</ENT>
                        <ENT>517410</ENT>
                        <ENT>$44 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>332</ENT>
                        <ENT>195</ENT>
                        <ENT>58.73</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Other Telecommunications</ENT>
                        <ENT>517810</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,673</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,007</ENT>
                        <ENT>60.19</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Libraries and Archives</ENT>
                        <ENT>519210</ENT>
                        <ENT>$21 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,030</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,891</ENT>
                        <ENT>93.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Custom Computer Programming Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>541511</ENT>
                        <ENT>$34 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>63,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,196</ENT>
                        <ENT>73.16</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Information Technology Value Added Resellers (Exception)</ENT>
                        <ENT>541519</ENT>
                        <ENT>150 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,570</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,182</ENT>
                        <ENT>70.72</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Computer Related Services (Except Information Technology Value Added Resellers)</ENT>
                        <ENT>541519</ENT>
                        <ENT>$34 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,570</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,152</ENT>
                        <ENT>70.46</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Management and General Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>541611</ENT>
                        <ENT>$24.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,1761</ENT>
                        <ENT>69,836</ENT>
                        <ENT>68.63</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Marketing Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>541613</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,507</ENT>
                        <ENT>34,127</ENT>
                        <ENT>67.57</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>541618</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,446</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,383</ENT>
                        <ENT>61.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Schools</ENT>
                        <ENT>611110</ENT>
                        <ENT>$20 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,088</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,087</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.99</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Physicians Except Mental Health Specialists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621111</ENT>
                        <ENT>$16 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>138,120</ENT>
                        <ENT>104,486</ENT>
                        <ENT>75.65</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Physicians—Mental Health Specialists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621112</ENT>
                        <ENT>$13.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,973</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>69.96</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Dentists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621210</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>121,011</ENT>
                        <ENT>105,588</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Chiropractors</ENT>
                        <ENT>621310</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>38,673</ENT>
                        <ENT>30,425</ENT>
                        <ENT>78.67</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Optometrists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621320</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,582</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,425</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.39</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Mental Health Practitioners Except Physicians</ENT>
                        <ENT>621330</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>39,395</ENT>
                        <ENT>30,210</ENT>
                        <ENT>76.68</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Physical Occupational &amp; Speech Therapists &amp; Audiologists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621340</ENT>
                        <ENT>$12.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>31,682</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,139</ENT>
                        <ENT>79.35</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Podiatrists</ENT>
                        <ENT>621391</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,546</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,737</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.64</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of All Other Miscellaneous Health Practitioners</ENT>
                        <ENT>621399</ENT>
                        <ENT>$10 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,775</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,206</ENT>
                        <ENT>61.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Family Planning Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621410</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,671</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>74.09</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Outpatient Mental Health and Substance Abuse Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621420</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,647</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,837</ENT>
                        <ENT>70.87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HMO Medical Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621491</ENT>
                        <ENT>$44.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>56</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>44.64</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Kidney Dialysis Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621492</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>516</ENT>
                        <ENT>367</ENT>
                        <ENT>71.12</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Freestanding Ambulatory Surgical and Emergency Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621493</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,092</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,544</ENT>
                        <ENT>74.59</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Other Outpatient Care Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621498</ENT>
                        <ENT>$25.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,942</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>80.07</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Medical Laboratories</ENT>
                        <ENT>621511</ENT>
                        <ENT>$41.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,527</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,525</ENT>
                        <ENT>77.87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Diagnostic Imaging Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>621512</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,717</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,537</ENT>
                        <ENT>74.98</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Home Health Care Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>621610</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>27,774</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,724</ENT>
                        <ENT>74.62</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ambulance Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>621910</ENT>
                        <ENT>$22.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,002</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,436</ENT>
                        <ENT>81.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Blood and Organ Banks</ENT>
                        <ENT>621991</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>371</ENT>
                        <ENT>258</ENT>
                        <ENT>69.54</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Other Miscellaneous Ambulatory Health Care Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>621999</ENT>
                        <ENT>$20.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,270</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,794</ENT>
                        <ENT>79.70</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Medical and Surgical Hospitals</ENT>
                        <ENT>622110</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,280</ENT>
                        <ENT>501</ENT>
                        <ENT>21.97</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Hospitals</ENT>
                        <ENT>622210</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>403</ENT>
                        <ENT>134</ENT>
                        <ENT>33.25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Specialty Hospitals—Except Psychiatric and Substance Abuse</ENT>
                        <ENT>622310</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>280</ENT>
                        <ENT>92</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Emergency and Other Relief Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>624230</ENT>
                        <ENT>$41.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>714</ENT>
                        <ENT>514</ENT>
                        <ENT>71.99</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Telecommunications Service Provider Data</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2024 Universal service monitoring report telecommunications service provider data
                            <LI>(data as of December 2023)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Affected entity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SBA size standard
                            <LI>(1,500 employees)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Total number 
                            <LI>FCC form </LI>
                            <LI>499A filers</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Small firms</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            % Small
                            <LI>entities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Incumbent Local Exchange Carriers (Incumbent LECs)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,175</ENT>
                        <ENT>917</ENT>
                        <ENT>78.04</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interexchange Carriers (IXCs)</ENT>
                        <ENT>113</ENT>
                        <ENT>95</ENT>
                        <ENT>84.07</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Local Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>222</ENT>
                        <ENT>217</ENT>
                        <ENT>97.75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17892"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Operator Service Providers (OSPs)</ENT>
                        <ENT>22</ENT>
                        <ENT>22</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Paging &amp; Messaging</ENT>
                        <ENT>59</ENT>
                        <ENT>59</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Toll Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>411</ENT>
                        <ENT>398</ENT>
                        <ENT>96.84</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Telecommunications Resellers</ENT>
                        <ENT>633</ENT>
                        <ENT>615</ENT>
                        <ENT>97.16</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,682</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,276</ENT>
                        <ENT>91.33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite)</ENT>
                        <ENT>585</ENT>
                        <ENT>498</ENT>
                        <ENT>85.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wireless Telephony</ENT>
                        <ENT>326</ENT>
                        <ENT>247</ENT>
                        <ENT>75.77</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,17">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—E-Rate Funding Data</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Affected entity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number receiving
                            <LI>E-Rate funding</LI>
                            <LI>commitments</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Schools</ENT>
                        <ENT>101,522</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Libraries</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,671</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Economic Impact and Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements for Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The RFA directs agencies to describe the economic impact of proposed rules on small entities, as well as projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirements and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record.</P>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM,</E>
                     the Commission seeks comment on its proposal to establish further protections to the suspension and debarment framework adopted by the Report and Order. We propose that applicable program participants certify that they have read and complied with the rules adopted in the Report and Order. To achieve this, we propose updating the existing information collection mechanisms for affected programs. The Commission also seeks comment on additional safeguards, including additional certifications, appointment of compliance officers in connection with any compliance plan, or other steps that the Commission may take to enhance its ability to promote greater accountability and policing among persons receiving financial assistance from Commission programs. Specifically, we propose to adopt the mandatory disclosure provision from the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Uniform Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance that would require applicants and recipients to proactively alert both the agency and the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) of any credible evidence “of a violation of Federal criminal law involving fraud, conflict of interest, bribery, or gratuity violations” in connection with the award of Federal funds. We also see comment on whether to apply the recently adopted suspension and debarment framework to the SCRP, as well as to any new universal service programs or modernized forms of TRS or NDBEDP.
                </P>
                <P>These proposals, if adopted, will help to streamline the implementation of the Guidelines and supplemental rules, and will aid the Commission in meeting its long-standing objective of decreasing the potential for waste, fraud, and abuse by prompting participants to both familiarize themselves, and comply, with the adopted rules and provide additional tools to remedy noncompliance.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission does not anticipate that the proposals set forth in the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                     will create additional economic, recordkeeping, or other compliance burdens on small entities seeking to comply with the proposed rules, should they be adopted. We note that entities receiving FCC financial assistance are already required to familiarize themselves with, and comply with, Commission rules governing participation in such programs. As a result, the proposed rules should not create additional burdens to small and other entities. While we do not anticipate that such entities will need to hire professionals to comply with the proposals outlined herein, we request comments from small and other entities that are specific to any potential burdens or costs small entities may incur in connection with these requirements, as well as any benefits that may be achieved.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Significant Alternatives Considered That Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of any significant alternatives to the proposed rules that would accomplish the stated objectives of applicable statutes, and minimize any significant economic impact on small entities. The discussion is required to include alternatives such as: “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”</P>
                <P>
                    In developing its proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM,</E>
                     the Commission considered alternatives that could minimize significant economic impact on small entities. As discussed above, we propose including a new certification to our existing information collection methods for those entities participating in USF programs. For example, we considered not adopting such a requirement; however, maintaining the status quo would not meet our objectives of streamlining both the Guidelines and supplemental rules implementation, and would also not serve the public's interest in decreasing the potential for waste, fraud, and abuse. Moreover, other alternatives beyond the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM'</E>
                    s proposal could prove to be more economically burdensome to comply with for program participants, some of which are small entities. The certification proposal in the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                     will both meet the Commission's objectives while minimizing administrative or other compliance costs to small entities. We propose to adopt the mandatory disclosure provision from OMB's Uniform Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance, and seek comment on alternatives that would ensure program participants are actively assisting the agency in deterring and addressing waste, fraud, and abuse. As we propose to apply the recently adopted 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17893"/>
                    suspension and debarment framework to the Supply Chain Reimbursement Program, as well as any new universal service programs or modernized forms of TRS or NDBEDP, we seek comment on other alternatives to improve the sustainability of their funding for the benefit of those whom the programs serve.
                </P>
                <P>
                    To assist in the Commission's evaluation of the economic impact on small entities, and to better explore options and alternatives, the Commission seeks comments from small entities and other interested parties on its proposal discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM.</E>
                     We expect to more fully consider the economic impact on small entities following our review of comments filed in response to the 
                    <E T="03">FNPRM</E>
                     in reaching our final conclusions and promulgating rules in this proceeding.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Federal Rules That May Duplicate, Overlap, or Conflict With the Proposed Rules</HD>
                <P>None.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06863 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign Agricultural Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>7 CFR Part 6</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 0551-AB04</RIN>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID USDA-2026-0067]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Dairy Tariff-Rate Quota Import Licensing Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS), USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; extension of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        On March 9, 2026, FAS published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         a notice of a proposed rule (91 FR 11174) entitled “Dairy Tariff-Rate Quota Import Licensing Program,” proposing to amend the regulation that provides for the issuance of annual licenses to import certain dairy articles under tariff-rate quotas (TRQs) as set forth in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States. The proposed rule provided for a 30-day comment period, which would have ended on April 8, 2026. FAS has determined that a 15-day extension on the comment period, until April 23, 2026, is appropriate. This extension will allow interested persons additional time to analyze the proposal and prepare their comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The comment period for the proposed rule published on March 9, 2026 (91 FR 11174) is extended. Comments are due on or before April 23, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for sending comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email: dairy-ils@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Include Docket Number USDA-2026-0067 in the subject line of the message.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dairy Import Programs, Multilateral Affairs, Trade Policy and Geographic Affairs, Foreign Agricultural Service, United States Department of Agriculture; 1400 Independence Avenue SW STOP 1070; Washington, DC 20250.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                         Dairy Import Programs, Multilateral Affairs, Trade Policy and Geographic Affairs, Foreign Agricultural Service, United States Department of Agriculture; 1400 Independence Avenue SW STOP 1070; Washington, DC 20250. Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number or Regulatory Information Number (RIN) for this proposed rule. Comments will be available for inspection online at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and at the mail address listed above between 8 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Elizabeth Riley, International Trade Specialist, Import Programs, Trade Policy and Geographic Affairs, Foreign Agricultural Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, (202) 720-1703; 
                        <E T="03">Elizabeth.riley@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 9, 2026, FAS published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (91 FR 11174) a proposed rule to amend the Dairy TRQ Import Licensing regulation, codified at 7 CFR 6.20 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     that provides for the issuance of licenses to import certain dairy articles under TRQs. The proposed rule stated that the comment period would close on April 8, 2026. FAS has received requests to extend the comment period. After reviewing the requests, the agency finds it appropriate to grant the requests and extend the comment period by an additional 15 days. An extension of the comment period will provide additional time for the public to prepare comments to address the matters raised by the proposed rule. Therefore, FAS is extending the comment period for the Dairy TRQ Import Licensing regulation from April 8, 2026, to April 23, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Daniel B. Whitley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Foreign Agricultural Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06873 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-10-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>10 CFR Part 37</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2025-1238]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3150-AL51</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Modernizing Requirements Relating to Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is conducting a review and wholesale revision of its regulations. As part of this initiative, the NRC is proposing to revise its regulations relating to physical protection and security of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by May 11, 2026. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration of only comments received before this date.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID NRC-2025-1238, at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         If your material cannot be submitted using 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         call or email the individuals listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document for alternate instructions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Do not include any personally identifiable information (such as name, address, or other contact information) or confidential business information that you do not want publicly disclosed. All comments are public records; they are publicly displayed exactly as received, and will not be deleted, modified, or redacted. Comments may be submitted anonymously. Follow the search instructions on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         to view public comments. You can read a plain language description of this proposed rule at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NRC-2025-1238.</E>
                         For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17894"/>
                        in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anita Gray, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, telephone: 301-415-7036, email: 
                        <E T="03">anita.gray@nrc.gov</E>
                         and Andrew Carrera, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, telephone: 301-415-1078, email: 
                        <E T="03">andrew.carrera@nrc.gov.</E>
                         Both are staff of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Obtaining Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Submitting Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Executive Order 14300: Ordering the Reform of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Specific Request for Comment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Regulatory Flexibility Certification</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Regulatory Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Backfitting and Issue Finality</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Cumulative Effects of Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X. Plain Writing</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XI. National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XII. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XIII. Coordination With NRC Agreement States</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XIV. Compatibility of Agreement States Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XV. Executive Orders</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XVI. Criminal Penalties</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XVII. Availability of Guidance</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XVIII. Availability of Documents </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Obtaining Information</HD>
                <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2025-1238 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                     Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and search for Docket ID NRC-2025-1238.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                     You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                     To begin the search, select “Begin ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                     For the convenience of the reader, instructions about obtaining materials referenced in this document are provided in the “Availability of Documents” section.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                     The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                     or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC encourages electronic comment submission through the Federal rulemaking website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    ). Please include Docket ID NRC-2025-1238 in your comment submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as well as enter the comment submissions into ADAMS. The NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove identifying or contact information.
                </P>
                <P>If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Executive Order 14300: Ordering the Reform of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
                <P>On May 23, 2025, President Donald J. Trump signed Executive Order (E.O.) 14300, “Ordering the Reform of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.” Section 5, “Reforming and Modernizing the NRC's Regulations,” requires the NRC to undertake a review and wholesale revision of its regulations and guidance documents as guided by the policies set forth in Section 2 of the E.O. 14300.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC and the 40 Agreement States are responsible for ensuring the safety and security of approximately 80,000 category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material used in medical, commercial, and research applications. The Agreement States are U.S. states that have entered into a formal agreement with the NRC under Section 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, to assume regulatory authority from the NRC over certain radioactive materials and activities within their states. The NRC considers category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material to be risk-significant quantities of radioactive material. These quantities pertain to 16 specific radioactive materials listed in Appendix A to title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR) part 37, “Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Materials.” The regulations in 10 CFR part 37 govern the physical protection and security requirements for these category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
                </P>
                <P>In response to E.O. 14300, the NRC initiated a review of the 10 CFR part 37 requirements and identified several proposed revisions to enhance the efficiency of the materials licensing and inspection process and reduce unnecessary regulatory burden on licensees related to the physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material while maintaining safety and security. In undertaking this review, the NRC was mindful of the current threat environment and the importance of security regulations being commensurate with that threat environment. These proposed changes are detailed in Section IV, “Discussion” of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What action is the NRC taking?</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to revise the 10 CFR part 37 regulations by removing or modifying physical protection requirements for category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The proposed changes would include:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Removing the Requirement in § 37.23(b)(2) That a Licensee Must Transmit Its Trustworthiness and Reliability Determination Certifications for Reviewing Officials to the NRC</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC is proposing to remove the requirement in § 37.23(b)(2) that after completing the background investigation on the reviewing official, the licensee must submit a certification to the NRC affirming that the designated reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable. Reviewing officials are the only individuals within a licensee's organization authorized to make trustworthiness and reliability determinations that allow individuals to have unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Under this proposed rule, licensees would still be required to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17895"/>
                    designate reviewing officials as trustworthy and reliable under oath or affirmation, but they would no longer be required to transmit those certifications to the NRC. The NRC would continue to verify compliance through routine inspections, thereby ensuring that the effectiveness of licensees' access authorization programs is maintained.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Removing the 10-Year Reinvestigation and Grandfathered Reinvestigation Requirements in § 37.25(b)(1) and (c)</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to remove the outdated grandfathering provision in § 37.25(b)(1). Currently, § 37.25(b)(1) allows certain individuals who were determined to be trustworthy and reliable for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material under the Fingerprint Orders, as defined in § 37.5, to continue to have access to this material without further investigation. The Fingerprint Orders, which were issued primarily in the mid-2000s in response to the events of September 11, 2001, expired on March 19, 2014 and are no longer applicable. The Fingerprint Orders were orders issued by the NRC or legally binding requirements issued by Agreement States that required certain licensees and applicants to submit fingerprints for background checks on individuals who have unescorted access to risk-significant quantities of radioactive material. The NRC allowed these previously approved determinations under the Fingerprint Orders to be grandfathered in because the agency recognized that many individuals had already been fingerprinted and approved under earlier security orders. Under the 10-year reinvestigation requirement in § 37.25(c), all individuals who were grandfathered in have already undergone at least one subsequent reinvestigation by licensees that includes fingerprinting and a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) identification and criminal history records check in accordance with § 37.27. Thus, the continued application of the grandfathering provision is no longer necessary, nor would its removal adversely affect the effectiveness of licensees' access authorization programs.</P>
                <P>Also, under § 37.25(c), licensees are currently required to conduct a reinvestigation every 10 years for any individual with unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The NRC is proposing to remove this 10-year reinvestigation requirement because it is unnecessary for the effectiveness of licensees' access authorization programs. Since the reinvestigation requirement in § 37.25(c) became effective on March 19, 2013, the reinvestigation process has not produced information leading to a licensee making a trustworthiness and reliability determination to revoke unescorted access from an individual based on results from a reinvestigation. In accordance with the existing § 37.23(e)(5), a licensee is required to remove unescorted access when a person no longer meets access authorization requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, § 37.23(e)(4) allows the reviewing official to terminate or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access authorization based on information obtained after the initial background investigation has been completed (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     without waiting for the 10-year reinvestigation). Therefore, the NRC believes that the removal of this requirement would not adversely affect the effectiveness of licensees' access authorization programs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Reducing the Required Frequency of Refresher Security Training in § 37.43(c)(3)</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to revise the refresher training requirement in § 37.43(c)(3), extending the frequency interval from not to exceed 12 months to at least every 3 years, and when significant changes are made to the security program. Currently, § 37.43(c)(3) requires each licensee to provide refresher training to all individuals implementing the security program at a frequency not to exceed 12 months and when significant changes have been made to the security program. Examples of significant changes include relocation of security zones, changes to physical security systems, and updates to response procedures. This revision would reduce unnecessary regulatory burden on licensees. In addition, because each licensee would still be required to provide refresher training to responsible individuals when significant changes are made to the security program, the effectiveness of the security program would be maintained.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Reducing the Required Frequency of Coordination With Local Law Enforcement Agencies (LLEA) in § 37.45(d)</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to revise the requirement in § 37.45(d) for licensees to coordinate with LLEAs, changing the frequency requirement from at least every 12 months to at least every 3 years, or when changes are made to the facility design or operation that adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage or diversion. Currently, § 37.45(d) requires licensees to coordinate with LLEAs at least every 12 months, or when changes to facility design or operation adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage, or diversion. Examples of such changes include relocation of a security zone, changes to access control points or physical barriers, and modifications to alarm systems. The purpose of LLEA coordination is to ensure that law enforcement understands the facility's layout, confirm response expectations and timelines, and facilitate effective communication during emergencies. Once those efforts are documented as is required under § 37.45(c), requiring licensees to coordinate with LLEAs annually is unnecessary unless conditions change. Moreover, licensees are still required to coordinate with LLEAs more frequently than every 3 years if changes are made that may affect the potential vulnerability of the material to theft, sabotage, or diversion. Therefore, this revision would reduce regulatory burden while ensuring that licensees maintain effective coordination with LLEAs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Removing Requirements for Weekly Verification of Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Materials and for Security Communications Capability in § 37.49(a)(3)(ii) and (c)</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC is proposing to remove the requirement in § 37.49(a)(3)(ii) that requires licensees that possess category 2 quantities of radioactive material to verify the presence of the material through physical checks, tamper indicating devices, use, or other means on a weekly basis. Originally, weekly verification by licensees was intended to mitigate insider threats by minimizing the time during which misuse or diversion of material could go undetected. However, many category 2 quantity of radioactive material sources—such as radiography devices—are routinely used in daily operations, resulting in frequent observation and handling of the source that effectively ensures that licensees can promptly detect and respond to attempted misuse or diversion of materials, thereby serving the same purpose as weekly verification. Given the low likelihood of inadvertent loss and the existing requirements under § 37.49 to monitor, detect, assess, and respond to unauthorized access or removal, the NRC considers the weekly verification requirement unnecessary to provide reasonable assurance of the security of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17896"/>
                    category 2 quantities of radioactive material from theft or diversion. For category 1 quantities of radioactive material, licensees would continue to be required to immediately detect any attempted unauthorized removal of the radioactive material from the security zone in accordance with § 37.49(a)(3)(i).
                </P>
                <P>The NRC is also proposing to remove the requirement in § 37.49(c) for continuous and alternative communication capabilities for personnel communication and electronic data transmission and processing. Currently, § 37.49(c)(1) requires licensees to maintain continuous capability for personnel communication and electronic data transmission and processing among site security systems. In addition, under § 37.49(c)(2), licensees must also provide alternative personnel communication and data transmission capabilities and processing, in case the primary means is lost. Licensees are already required under § 37.49 to maintain the ability to monitor, detect, assess, and respond to unauthorized removal of radioactive material. Specifically, under § 37.49(a)(1), the licensee must maintain a continuous monitoring and detection capability in the event of a loss of the primary power source or provide for an alarm and response when the capability to continuously monitor and detect unauthorized entries is lost. Therefore, the NRC considers the current specific requirement for continuous and alternative communication capabilities in § 37.49(c) unnecessary to provide reasonable assurance of the security of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material from theft or diversion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Removing Maintenance and Testing Requirements in §§ 37.43(c)(3)(iv) and 37.51</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to remove the requirement for a maintenance and testing program. Currently, § 37.51 requires licensees to implement a maintenance and testing program to ensure that intrusion alarms, associated communication systems, and other physical components of the systems used to secure or detect unauthorized access to radioactive material remain operable and capable of performing their intended function when needed. Under § 37.49, licensees are already required to monitor, detect, assess, and respond to unauthorized removal of radioactive material. To meet this performance-based requirement, systems used to secure or detect unauthorized access to radioactive material must remain operable and capable of performing their intended functions when needed. In practice, such systems are exercised during normal operations. Any failure—such as a malfunctioning sensor or communication issue—would impair licensees' ability to monitor, detect, assess, and respond, prompting timely corrective action by the licensees. Therefore, a separate maintenance and testing requirement in § 37.51 imposes an unnecessary regulatory burden on licensees.</P>
                <P>As a conforming change, the NRC is proposing to remove the associated training requirement in § 37.43(c)(3)(iv), as it would no longer be necessary in the absence of a required maintenance and testing program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Revising Requirements for Mobile Devices in § 37.53(b) To Allow Removal of Vehicle Keys</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to revise the language in § 37.53(b) to reflect advancements in vehicle ignition and disabling technologies by removing the prohibition on a licensee relying on key removal. Currently, § 37.53(b) requires each licensee that possesses mobile devices containing category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material in or on a vehicle or trailer to utilize a method to disable the vehicle or trailer when not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee, unless the health and safety requirements for a site prohibit the disabling of the vehicle. Section 37.53(b) further states that licensees are prohibited from relying on the removal of an ignition key to meet this requirement. The intent of this requirement in the current NRC regulations is to delay unauthorized removal of radioactive material contained in mobile devices by preventing the vehicle or trailer from leaving the licensee's control during vehicle theft. However, most modern vehicles now incorporate transponder (chip) keys or electronic fobs that are recognizable only by the vehicle's programmed computer and automatically disable the ignition system when removed, effectively immobilizing the vehicle. Only this specific transponder key or electronic fob can be used to enter and start the vehicle. The NRC has determined that a licensee may use this technology as an acceptable method to disable the vehicle. As a result, the NRC is proposing to remove the existing prohibition in § 37.53(b) on a licensee relying on key removal, which is outdated and does not reflect advancements in technology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Administrative Changes</HD>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to make minor nomenclature changes by revising the language in §§ 37.23, 37.25, 37.45, 37.49, and 37.53 to remove the word “shall” and add in its place the word, “must”.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Whom would this action affect?</HD>
                <P>The regulatory changes in this proposed rule would affect all radioactive materials licensees who possess, use, and transfer category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive materials.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Specific Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>The NRC is seeking advice and recommendations from the public on the proposed rule. The NRC is particularly interested in comments from the public on certain proposed changes under E.O. 14300 aimed at enhancing efficiency and reducing unnecessary regulatory burden related to the physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. No classified or safeguards information should be disclosed in comments. The NRC is particularly interested in comments with clear justifications and supporting rationales on the following issues:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Question #1:</E>
                     Are there significant unintended consequences associated with removing the requirement for licensees to provide certifications to the NRC under § 37.23(b)(2) that a reviewing official is trustworthy and reliable? Licensees would continue to be required to designate reviewing officials under oath or affirmation as trustworthy and reliable but would no longer be required to transmit the certifications to the NRC. Provide a rationale for your response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Question #2:</E>
                     What are the pros and cons of the NRC removing the requirement for 10-year reinvestigations under § 37.25(c) of individuals with unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material? Provide a rationale for your response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Question #3:</E>
                     Are there significant safety-related implications of changing the requirement in § 37.45(d) for licensees to coordinate with the LLEA from at least once every 12 months to at least once every 3 years? What should the required coordination frequency be? Please provide a rationale for your response.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Regulatory Flexibility Certification</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Commission certifies that this rule, if adopted, will not have a significant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17897"/>
                    economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, in accordance with section 605(b), the NRC is not preparing a regulatory flexibility certification analysis. The proposed rule affects NRC licensees that fall within the scope of the definition of “small entities” set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act or the size standards established by the NRC (§ 2.810), but it will impose no new burden on those “small entities.” As noted in Section VII, “Regulatory Analysis” of this document, the NRC expects that the proposed rule, if adopted, will reduce burden on “small entities.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC has prepared a draft regulatory analysis on this proposed rule. The analysis examines the costs and benefits of the alternatives considered by the NRC. The NRC has determined that the action in this proposed rule is expected to reduce regulatory burden and generate cost savings for licensees, the NRC and the Agreement States, when compared to the no-action alternative. The NRC requests public comment on the draft regulatory analysis. Comments on the draft regulatory analysis may be submitted to the NRC as indicated under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     caption of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Identification and Analysis of Alternative Approaches</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC identified two alternatives for this action: (1) no action (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     maintaining the status quo regulatory baseline), and (2) the proposed rulemaking to revise language in 10 CFR part 37 as discussed in Section IV. Under the no action alternative, the NRC would not publish this proposed rule and licensees would continue to comply with the existing regulations in 10 CFR part 37. However, this alternative would not realize the cost savings presented in Section VII.D. In addition, the NRC determined that the no-action alternative would not be consistent with the direction in Section 5 of E.O. 14300. The no-action alternative is considered as a baseline for comparing the incremental impacts of the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Assumptions and Data Used for Analysis</HD>
                <P>Throughout this analysis, various labor rates are used. These rates are used consistently for all the issues and their derivations are described below.</P>
                <P>
                    Licensee labor rates were obtained from National Wage Data available on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) website for year 2024 (
                    <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000</E>
                    ). Depending on the industry and the occupation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     manufacturing, health and safety, etc.), an appropriate mean hourly labor rate is selected. The rate is then increased using a multiplier of 1.6 to account for benefits (insurance premiums, pension, and legally required benefits). Because exact hourly rates would be difficult to obtain and may not be sufficiently recent, nationwide mean hourly rates are used for lower paid employees, such as clerical staff.
                </P>
                <P>All savings presented in this analysis are expressed in 2024 dollars, as the wage rate used for valuation is a lagging indicator. Using 2024 dollars ensures consistency throughout the analysis. The NRC's wage rate is currently based on 2024 data. Subject to Commission approval, the NRC staff will use the most recent wage rate data available at the time of final rule development for valuation purposes.</P>
                <P>The NRC used data from the regulatory analysis, “Regulatory Analysis for Final Rule: Physical Protection of Byproduct Material (10 CFR parts 20, 30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 39, 51, 71, and 73),” dated December 2011 (2011 regulatory analysis), which was associated with the 2013 final rule, dated March 19, 2013 (78 FR 16922). To align with this rulemaking, the original 2010 dollar values were adjusted to 2024 dollars using the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, applying an inflation factor of 1.39 as published by the BLS.</P>
                <P>Based on information obtained from the NRC's National Source Tracking System in 2025, the NRC estimates that approximately 960 licensees possessing category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material across the National Materials Program will be affected by this proposed rule. These licensees represent a diverse group, including pool-type irradiator operators; manufacturers and distributors; medical facilities using stereotactic radiosurgery devices; self-shielded irradiator users (such as those operating blood irradiators); teletherapy unit operators; radiographers; well loggers; broad scope licensees; radioisotope thermoelectric generator operators; and entities involved in the shipment or preparation for shipment of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Of the estimated 960 licensees, approximately 180 are NRC licensees, while the remaining 780 are licensed by Agreement States, a ratio equivalent of 1 NRC licensee to 4.3 Agreement State licensees. In addition, the NRC estimates that approximately 260 licensees are authorized to possess, use, or transfer category 1 quantities of radioactive material, and about 700 are authorized for category 2 quantities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Costs and Benefits of the Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>(1) The NRC is proposing to revise § 37.23(b)(2) by removing the requirement for licensees to submit a certification under oath or affirmation. The NRC anticipates that eliminating this requirement will result in cost savings for licensees. Currently, there are 40 Agreement States, each with its own process for implementing § 37.23(b)(2). As such, the NRC does not have data on the number of certifications submitted annually to the Agreement States.</P>
                <P>For this analysis, the NRC assumes that the number of certifications received by all Agreement States is proportional to the number received by the NRC, which is based on the ratio of the number of NRC licensees to the number of Agreement State licensees provided in Section C, “Assumptions and Data Used for Analysis.” The NRC currently receives approximately two certifications annually from its licensees. Based on the equivalent ratio for NRC licensees to Agreement State licensees, the NRC estimated that Agreement States collectively receive about nine certifications per year. Therefore, the total number of certifications submitted annually across both NRC and Agreement State licensees is estimated to be 11.</P>
                <P>
                    The NRC estimates that the development of each certification will require one hour of effort by a facility manager, using the BLS loaded wage rate for occupation code 11-3013 across all industries, which is $88.10 per hour. Accordingly, the NRC estimates the annual savings for Agreement State licensees at $793, with a total undiscounted 10-year savings of $7,929. For NRC licensees, the estimated annual savings is $176, with a 10-year total of $1,762 (undiscounted). In addition, the NRC estimates a cost savings for the NRC from the reduction in resources required to process certification documents. The NRC estimates that processing each affirmation document currently would take approximately 1 hour at a labor cost of $158 per hour. Therefore, eliminating this task would result in annual savings of $316 for the NRC. Over a 10-year period, the total undiscounted savings would be $3,160. The NRC assumes that the Agreement States would incur similar processing times and labor costs—1 hour per certification at $158 per hour. Based on the estimated number of 9 certifications 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17898"/>
                    per year, the annual savings for the Agreement States would be approximately $1,422, with a 10-year total of $14,220 (undiscounted).
                </P>
                <P>Combining the savings for licensees, the Agreement States, and the NRC, the total estimated savings over a 10-year period is $23,911 (undiscounted). The total 10-year net present value (NPV) at 7 and 3 percent discount is $16,794 and 20,396 respectively. Table 1 summarizes the combined savings for both industry and government.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees, Agreement States and NRC</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">7% Discount rate</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">3% Discount rate</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,235</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,321</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,088</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,254</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,952</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,188</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,824</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,124</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,705</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,063</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,593</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,002</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,489</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,944</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,392</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,888</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,301</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,833</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,215</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,779</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>23,911</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,794</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,396</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,391</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>(2) The NRC is proposing to remove the provision in § 37.25(c) that requires licensees to conduct a reinvestigation every 10 years for any individual with unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</P>
                <P>To estimate the potential industry savings from this proposed change, the NRC relied on data from the 2011 regulatory analysis, which detailed the costs associated with implementing reinvestigations. This historical data was used to reverse-engineer the original cost estimates into projected savings, since the proposed rule eliminates the reinvestigation requirement.</P>
                <P>According to the 2011 regulatory analysis, there were 1,400 NRC and Agreement State licensees, categorized by size as small, medium, and large, with employee counts of approximately 364 (26 percent), 826 (59 percent), and 210 (15 percent) respectively. These licensees collectively spend an estimated $536,111 annually on reinvestigations. For this analysis, the NRC used the same percentage breakdown based on the estimated 960 NRC and Agreement State licensees to calculate per-licensee reinvestigation costs. Because the 2011 cost estimations were in 2010 dollars, the NRC adjusted the dollar value to 2024 dollars using the appropriate inflation factor as described in Section C of this analysis. Given that reinvestigations occur on a 10-year cycle—matching the timeframe of this analysis—the NRC assumes all reinvestigations would occur within the same year. To calculate annual savings over a 10-year period, the staff multiplied the annual cost savings by 10. As a result, the removal of § 37.25(c) is estimated to save the industry approximately $5.361 million (undiscounted) over the 10-year period of analysis with an NPV of 7 and 3 percent at $3.756 million and $4.573 million respectively. Table 2 presents the detailed breakdown of these projected savings.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">7% Discount rate</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">3% Discount rate</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>$501,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>$520,496</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>468,260</ENT>
                        <ENT>505,336</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>437,626</ENT>
                        <ENT>490,617</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>408,996</ENT>
                        <ENT>476,327</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>382,240</ENT>
                        <ENT>462,454</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>357,233</ENT>
                        <ENT>448,984</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>333,863</ENT>
                        <ENT>435,907</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>312,021</ENT>
                        <ENT>423,211</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>291,609</ENT>
                        <ENT>410,884</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>272,532</ENT>
                        <ENT>398,917</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,361,108</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,765,418</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,573,134</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualize</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                        <ENT>536,111</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>(3) The NRC is proposing to revise the requirement under § 37.43(c)(3) for licensees to provide refresher training to individuals implementing the security program from not to exceed 12 months to at least every 3 years, and when significant changes are made to the security program. This change is expected to reduce the financial burden on licensees.</P>
                <P>
                    For this analysis, the NRC estimates that approximately 960 licensees would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17899"/>
                    be affected by the proposed change in § 37.43(c). According to the 2011 regulatory analysis, these licensees collectively spend an estimated $10.1 million (adjusted for inflation to 2024 dollars) annually on refresher training. By shifting from annual to triannual training, the industry is expected to save approximately $20.2 million over the two years in which training would no longer be required. No savings would occur in the third year, when training is required.
                </P>
                <P>Over a 10-year period, the NRC estimates total savings of $70.8 million (undiscounted), with discounted annualized savings of $7.2 million at a 7 percent discount rate. Table 3 provides a detailed breakdown of the 10-year savings associated with this provision.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">7% Ddiscount rate</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">3% Discount rate</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9,462,693</ENT>
                        <ENT>$9,830,176</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,843,638</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,543,860</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,724,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,996,003</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,219,043</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,733,984</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,305,392</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,232,617</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,892,889</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,992,832</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,125,081</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,147,078</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,534,011</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>70,875,567</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,595,108</ENT>
                        <ENT>60,863,484</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>7,203,605</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,135,057</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>(4) The NRC is proposing to revise the requirement under § 37.45(d) for licensees to coordinate with the LLEA from an annual to a triannual schedule, or when licensees make changes to the facility design or operation that adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage or diversion. This change is expected to reduce the administrative burden on the licensees and result in cost savings.</P>
                <P>For this analysis, the NRC assumes that coordination with the LLEA would currently require approximately 2 hours per year per licensee. While the NRC does not have comprehensive data on all facilities that would be affected by this proposed change, it will assess savings on a per-facility basis. Further, the NRC assumes that the LLEA coordination task would require 2 hours of effort per occurrence by a facility manager, using the BLS loaded wage rate for occupation code 11-3013, across all industries, which is $88.10 per hour. This would result in an annual coordination cost of approximately $176.20 per licensee. Assuming licensees coordinate with the LLEA only in the third year of each 3-year cycle following the rule's implementation and applying the per-licensee savings to the estimated 960 licensees, the annual industry savings during the first and second years—when coordination is not required—would be approximately $169,144. No savings would occur in the third year, when coordination with the LLEA is required. This analysis does not consider the costs of licensee coordination with LLEA that is initiated as needed due to changes made to the facility design or operation.</P>
                <P>Over a 10-year period, the total undiscounted savings from the proposed change to § 37.45(d) is estimated at $1.18 million. The annualized savings are projected to be an estimated $120,339 discounted at 7 percent. Table 4 provides a detailed breakdown of the 10-year savings associated with this provision.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            7%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            3%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>$158,078</ENT>
                        <ENT>$164,217</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,737</ENT>
                        <ENT>159,434</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>129,039</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,282</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>120,597</ENT>
                        <ENT>145,905</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>105,334</ENT>
                        <ENT>137,529</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>98,443</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,524</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>85,984</ENT>
                        <ENT>125,859</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,184,010</ENT>
                        <ENT>845,215</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,016,754</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>120,339</ENT>
                        <ENT>119,194</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="17900"/>
                <P>(5) The NRC is proposing to remove the requirement under § 37.49(a)(3)(C)(ii) for licensees possessing category 2 quantities of radioactive material to conduct weekly verification to confirm the material's presence.</P>
                <P>This requirement applies only to licensees who possess, use, or transfer category 2 quantities of radioactive material, which is estimated at 700 affected licensees. In addition, the NRC does not maintain specific data on which personnel perform these weekly verifications at each facility. For this analysis, the NRC assumes that the task would require 1 hour of effort per week by a facility manager, using the BLS loaded wage rate for occupation code 11-3013, across all industries, which is $88.10 per hour. Therefore, the estimated weekly cost per facility for this verification is $88.10, resulting in an annual cost of approximately $4,581 per licensee. Applying this per-licensee cost to the estimated 700 licensees, the removal of this requirement under § 37.49(a)(3)(c)(ii) is projected to yield total industry savings of approximately $32.1 million (undiscounted) over a 10-year period. When discounted at 7 percent, the annualized savings are estimated at $3.2 million. Table 5 provides a detailed breakdown of the projected 10-year savings resulting from this proposed change.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees Who Possess, Use, or Transfer Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            7%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            3%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,997,046</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,113,436</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,800,978</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,022,754</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,617,736</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,934,712</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,446,482</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,849,235</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,286,432</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,766,248</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,136,852</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,685,678</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,997,058</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,607,454</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,866,410</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,531,509</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,744,308</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,457,775</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,630,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,386,190</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>32,068,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>22,523,502</ENT>
                        <ENT>27,354,995</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,206,840</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>(6) The NRC is proposing to remove the requirement under § 37.51, which mandates that licensees implement a maintenance and testing program to ensure that intrusion alarms, associated communication systems, and other physical components used to secure or detect unauthorized access to radioactive material are maintained in operable condition and are capable of performing their intended function when needed.</P>
                <P>According to the existing regulations, equipment relied upon for security must be inspected and tested either at the manufacturer's recommended frequency or, if none is provided, at least annually (not to exceed 12 months). Because the NRC does not maintain data on manufacturer-recommended maintenance intervals, the NRC assumes that all licensees follow an annual maintenance and testing schedule. Further, the NRC assumes that this task would require 2 hours of effort annually by a facility manager, using the BLS loaded wage rate for occupation code 11-3013, across all industries, which is $88.10 per hour. Therefore, the estimated annual cost per licensee is $176. Applying this to the estimated 960 licensees, the total industry savings of approximately $1.69 million (undiscounted) over a 10-year period, with annualized savings of $169,144, discounted at 7 percent. Table 6 provides a detailed breakdown of the estimated 10-year savings resulting from the removal of this provision.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Combined Potential Savings for Licensees</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Total net cost savings (2024 dollars)]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Years</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            7%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            3%
                            <LI>Discount rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>$158,079</ENT>
                        <ENT>$164,218</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,737</ENT>
                        <ENT>159,435</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>138,072</ENT>
                        <ENT>154,791</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>129,039</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,283</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>120,598</ENT>
                        <ENT>145,905</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>112,708</ENT>
                        <ENT>141,656</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>105,335</ENT>
                        <ENT>137,530</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>98,444</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,524</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>92,003</ENT>
                        <ENT>129,635</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>85,984</ENT>
                        <ENT>125,859</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,691,443</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,187,999</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,442,835</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>169,144</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="17901"/>
                <P>(7) The NRC is proposing to revise the current language in § 37.53(b), which requires each licensee for devices in or on a vehicle or trailer containing category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material to utilize a method to disable the vehicle or trailer, other than removing the ignition key, when not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee, unless the health and safety requirements for a site prohibit the disabling of the vehicle.</P>
                <P>The NRC estimates that 57 NRC licensees currently implement § 37.53(b) and operate a category 1 or category 2 mobile fleet of vehicles. While the NRC does not maintain specific data on Agreement State licensees with similar fleets, it extrapolated—based on the NRC-to-Agreement State licensee ratio equivalent provided in Section C—that approximately 262 Agreement State licensees would also own such fleets. This results in an estimated total of 319 NRC and Agreement State licensees with category 1 or category 2 mobile fleets. The NRC assumes that, with the removal of § 37.53(b), licensees would no longer need to purchase vehicle disabling devices such as ignition kill switches or steering wheel clubs—methods commonly used to comply with current requirements, according to inspector experience. An internet search indicates that vehicle ignition kill switches cost approximately $300 and vehicle steering wheel clubs about $30. While some newer vehicles may come equipped with built-in vehicle disabling features, the NRC assumes that licensees are equally likely to buy any type of vehicle disabling device, using an average cost of $165 per unit.</P>
                <P>Based on Agreement State inspector input, the NRC further assumes that each licensee owns five vehicles and replaces its entire fleet every 5 years. Over a 10-year period, this means each licensee would avoid purchasing 10 vehicle disabling devices, totaling $1,650 in savings per licensee. Across all 319 licensees, this results in an estimated total industry savings of $526,350 (undiscounted) over 10 years, and an annualized savings of $48,967 when discounted at 7 percent. Table 7 provides a detailed breakdown of the estimated 10-year savings resulting from the removal of this provision.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Cost Savings From Vehicle Disabling Devices</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Years</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">7%</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">3%</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>$263,175</ENT>
                        <ENT>$200,775</ENT>
                        <ENT>$233,828</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>263,175</ENT>
                        <ENT>143,150</ENT>
                        <ENT>201,702</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>526,350</ENT>
                        <ENT>343,925</ENT>
                        <ENT>435,529</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>48,967</ENT>
                        <ENT>51,057</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Conclusions</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC's proposed rule would revise language in 10 CFR part 37 to modernize the requirements relating to physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The NRC has determined that the proposed updates are expected to reduce regulatory burden and generate cost savings for both Agreement State and NRC licensees, NRC, and Agreement State, when compared to the alternative of no-action (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the status quo). Based on the NRC's analysis, the potential industry savings over a 10-year period are estimated at approximately $111.7 million (undiscounted). The annualized savings are projected to be approximately $11.3 million discounted at 7 percent.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, the NRC estimates cost saving in 2024 dollars to be $11.3 million discounted at 7% in perpetuity.</P>
                <P>The NRC acknowledges that these estimates may be refined in the final rule as additional information is gathered regarding the rule's impact on industry operations.</P>
                <P>Table 8 summarizes the cumulative savings associated with the proposed changes in this rulemaking.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—Total Cumulative Savings for Licensees, NRC, and Agreement State in 2024 Dollars</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">7%</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">3%</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$14,208,712</ENT>
                        <ENT>$13,279,170</ENT>
                        <ENT>$13,794,866</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,208,712</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,410,439</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,393,073</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,914,486</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,195,387</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,582,309</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,208,712</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,839,758</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,624,256</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,471,887</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,318,255</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,483,576</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,914,486</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,608,387</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,278,321</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,208,712</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,848,471</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,552,983</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,208,712</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,269,599</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,216,488</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,914,486</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,129,221</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,000,128</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,471,887</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,356,773</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,768,443</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>111,730,789</ENT>
                        <ENT>79,255,461</ENT>
                        <ENT>95,694,443</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>11,284,195</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,218,308</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="17902"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. NRC Rulemaking Costs</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC would incur rulemaking costs for developing the final rule and associated final guidance. This would include reviewing and addressing public comments on the proposed rule and guidance, writing the final rule and final guidance, publishing the final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, and implementing the final rule. The NRC estimates a total of 2,500 hours for developing the final rule and guidance, with the associated undiscounted one-time cost of $395,000, or $369,159 when discounted at 7 percent.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Backfitting and Issue Finality</HD>
                <P>The NRC has determined that the backfitting provisions in §§ 50.109, 70.76, and 72.62, all entitled “Backfitting,” and the issue finality provisions in 10 CFR part 52, “Licenses, Certifications, and Approvals for Nuclear Power Plants,” do not apply to this proposed rule because it does not involve any provisions that will impose backfits as defined in 10 CFR chapter I or affect the issue finality of any approval issued under 10 CFR part 52. As a general matter, eliminating a requirement does not meet the definition of “backfitting” because such an act by the NRC would be a nonmandatory relaxation of an existing requirement. For the same reason, the elimination of a requirement would not affect the issue finality of a 10 CFR part 52 approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Cumulative Effects of Regulation</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC seeks to minimize potential negative consequences resulting from the cumulative effects of regulation. The NRC believes that the de-regulatory impacts of this rulemaking activity are unlikely to cause implementation challenges for stakeholders. In addition, during the pendency of this rulemaking, the NRC is deprioritizing issuance of regulatory actions that might influence the implementation date for the new rule requirements (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     orders, generic communications, license amendment requests, and inspection findings of a generic nature).
                </P>
                <P>To fully understand any potential cumulative effects of regulation implications that could result from this rulemaking, the NRC is asking the following questions. Response to these questions is voluntary and any input will be considered during development of the final rule.</P>
                <P>1. The NRC is proposing an effective date that will be 30 days after the date of publication of a final rule. Does this provide sufficient time to implement the proposed requirements? Please provide a rationale for your response.</P>
                <P>2. Are there unintended consequences related to this rulemaking and how should they be addressed? Please provide a rationale for your response.</P>
                <P>3. Please comment on the NRC's cost and benefit estimates in the regulatory analysis that support this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Plain Writing</HD>
                <P>The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31885). The NRC requests comment on this document with respect to the clarity and effectiveness of the language used.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
                <P>The NRC has prepared this environmental assessment (EA) in compliance with the NRC's environmental protection regulations in 10 CFR part 51, “Environmental Protection Regulations for Domestic Licensing and Related Regulatory Functions,” which implement the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA). This EA evaluates and documents the potential environmental impacts that may result from this proposed rulemaking, if ultimately promulgated as a final rule by the NRC. As described below, the NRC has determined under NEPA and the Commission's regulations in Subpart A of 10 CFR part 51 that there would be no significant impact associated with this proposed rulemaking action to revise regulations related to the physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>As discussed in Section IV, the proposed action would revise language in 10 CFR part 37 related to the physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Environmental Impacts of the Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rulemaking action would not change the type or quantity of personnel, equipment, or facilities already required under current 10 CFR part 37 regulations. The NRC staff expects licensee implementation of the rulemaking action if it becomes final to be procedural, taking place in an office setting, and relying on paper or an electronic (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     computer) screen to demonstrate compliance with revised 10 CFR part 37 regulations. In addition, the proposed rulemaking action would not authorize any site-specific action on the part of the NRC or licensees.
                </P>
                <P>Because the proposed rulemaking would not authorize any site-specific action, the NRC staff has determined that the proposed rulemaking action would not result in any significant direct, indirect, or cumulative effects on water resources, terrestrial and aquatic biota, air quality, or result in any land-use or socioeconomic changes. Similarly, the proposed rulemaking action does not have the potential to disturb critical habitats, affect any threatened or endangered species, or result in adverse effects to historic properties and cultural resources.</P>
                <P>In addition, the NRC has determined the proposed rulemaking action would not change radiation protection and emergency preparedness requirements or overall risk and would result in no new or different environmental effects. Additionally, licensees would continue to be required to comply with the radiation protection requirements in 10 CFR part 20, “Standards for Protection Against Radiation.”</P>
                <P>Therefore, the NRC concludes that the proposed changes in this rulemaking would have no significant impact on the environment.</P>
                <P>Moreover, if the Commission promulgates a final rule, the NRC would continue its current practice of conducting a separate evaluation, including the appropriate environmental review under NEPA, for each site-specific application to use, possess, or transfer category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material subject to 10 CFR part 37.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Environmental Impacts of the Alternative to the Proposed Agency Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the no-action alternative, the NRC would not pursue a rulemaking related to modernizing requirements relating to physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Under the no-action alternative, the NRC would continue to regulate the use, possession, and transfer of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material in accordance with the existing 10 CFR part 37 regulations. In addition, licensees would continue to be required to comply with the radiation dose requirements in 10 CFR part 20. Because neither the proposed rulemaking action, as stated in Section C, nor the no-action alternative would result in a significant impact to human health or the environment, there would be no difference in environmental effects between the no-action alternative and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17903"/>
                    the proposed agency action (rulemaking). However, the no-action alternative would not meet the purpose and need of the proposed agency action, as mandated by E.O. 14300, because it would not modernize the requirements relating to physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Agencies and Persons Consulted</HD>
                <P>The NRC developed the proposed rule and is requesting public comment on this draft EA. The agency will consider comments received on the docket as it develops the final rule and the final EA. The NRC will issue the final EA when it publishes the final rule.</P>
                <P>The NRC has determined that the proposed agency action would have no effect on Federally listed threatened or endangered species or critical habitat. Likewise, the NRC determined that the proposed rulemaking action would have no adverse effect on any historic property. Therefore, the NRC has determined that no further consultation is required under Section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended, or under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Conclusion and Finding of No Significant Environmental Impacts</HD>
                <P>The NRC has determined under NEPA and the Commission's regulations in Subpart A of 10 CFR part 51 that there would be no significant impact associated with this proposed rulemaking action to revise regulations related to the physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. This EA and finding of no significant impact can be tracked with the Council on Environmental Quality identification number EAXX-429-00-000-1770619846. The NRC describes the costs and benefits of the proposed rulemaking action compared to the no-action alternative in Section VII, “Regulatory Analysis,” of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XII. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule contains new or amended collections of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). The proposed rule would reduce the unnecessary regulatory burden for the existing information collections. This proposed rule has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review and approval of the paperwork requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of submission:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The title of the information collection:</E>
                     Modernizing Requirements Relating to Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material, Proposed Rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The form number if applicable:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">How often the collection is required or requested:</E>
                     Coordination with LLEAs would occur at least every 3 years, rather than at least every 12 months. The 10-year reinvestigation requirement in § 37.25(c) would be eliminated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Who will be required or asked to respond:</E>
                     All radioactive materials licensees who possess, use, and transfer category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive materials.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the number of annual responses:</E>
                     A reduction of 2,560 responses (320 reporting + 960 recordkeeping + 1,280 third-party disclosure).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of annual respondents:</E>
                     960 respondents (180 NRC licensees + 780 Agreement States licensees).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of hours needed annually to comply with the information collection requirement or request:</E>
                     A burden reduction of 3,120 hours (320 annual reporting hours + 240 recordkeeping hours + 2,560 third-party disclosure hours).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Consistent with E.O. 14300, the NRC is conducting a review and wholesale revision of its regulations. As part of this initiative, the NRC is proposing to revise its regulations to remove requirements relating to physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The proposed rule would remove the requirement for licensees to submit oath or affirmation certifications for reviewing officials to the NRC, as well as eliminate the 10-year reinvestigation mandate. Additionally, the required coordination frequency with LLEAs would be reduced from at least every 12 months to at least every 3 years, or when licensees make changes to the facility design or operation that adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage or diversion. Lastly, the obligation to maintain a maintenance and testing program, including related recordkeeping, would also be eliminated.
                </P>
                <P>The NRC is seeking public comment on the potential impact of the information collection contained in this proposed rule and on the following issues:</P>
                <P>1. Is the proposed information collection necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the NRC, including whether the information will have practical utility? Please explain your response.</P>
                <P>2. Is the estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection accurate? Please explain your response.</P>
                <P>3. Is there a way to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected? Please explain your response.</P>
                <P>4. How can the burden of the proposed information collection on respondents be minimized, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology?</P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the OMB clearance package is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML25287A035 or may be viewed free of charge by contacting the NRC's Public Document Room reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                     You may obtain information and comment on submissions related to the OMB clearance package by searching on 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket ID NRC-2025-1238.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments on any aspect of these proposed information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden and on the above issues, by the following methods: Federal rulemaking website: Go to 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and search for Docket ID NRC-2025-1238.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Mail comments to:</E>
                     FOIA, Library, and Information Collections Branch, Office of the Chief Information Officer, Mail Stop: T-6 A10M, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001 or to the OMB reviewer at OMB Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (3150-0214), Attention: Desk Officer for the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503.
                </P>
                <P>Submit comments by May 11, 2026. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC staff is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Protection Notification</HD>
                <P>The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the document requesting or requiring the collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XIII. Coordination With NRC Agreement States</HD>
                <P>
                    The working group that prepared this proposed rule included a representative from the Organization of Agreement States. Comments from the Agreement States representative were taken into 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17904"/>
                    consideration during the development of this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XIV. Compatibility of Agreement State Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the “Agreement State Program Policy Statement” approved by the Commission on October 2, 2017, and published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 18, 2017 (82 FR 48535), the NRC program elements (including regulations) required for adequacy and having a particular health and safety component are those that are designated as Categories A, B, C, D, NRC, and H&amp;S; and those required for compatibility include those regulations and other legally binding requirements designated as Compatibility Categories A, B, C, and D. Compatibility Category A are those program elements that include basic radiation protection standards and scientific terms and definitions that are necessary to understand radiation protection concepts. An Agreement State should adopt Category A program elements in an essentially identical manner in order to provide uniformity in the regulation of agreement material on a nationwide basis. Compatibility Category B pertains to a limited number of program elements that cross jurisdictional boundaries and should be addressed to ensure uniformity of regulation on a nationwide basis. The Agreement State program element should be essentially identical to that of NRC. Compatibility Category C are those program elements that do not meet the criteria of Category A or B, but the essential objectives of which an Agreement State should adopt to avoid conflict, duplication, gaps, or other conditions that would jeopardize an orderly pattern in the regulation of agreement material on a national basis. An Agreement State should adopt the essential objectives of the Category C program elements. Compatibility Category D are those program elements that do not meet any of the criteria of Category A, B, or C, above, and, therefore, are not required to be adopted by Agreement States for purposes of compatibility. Compatibility Category NRC are those program elements that address areas of regulation that cannot be relinquished to the Agreement States under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or provisions of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations.</E>
                     These program elements should not be adopted by the Agreement States. Category H&amp;S program elements are not required for purposes of compatibility; however, they have particular health and safety significance. The Agreement States should adopt the essential objectives of such program elements to maintain an adequate program.
                </P>
                <P>The NRC is proposing to remove the requirements in §§ 37.25(b)(1), 37.25(c), 37.49(a)(3)(ii), 37.49(c)(1), 37.49(c)(2), 37.51(a), and 37.51(b) from the 10 CFR part 37 regulations. As such, the associated compatibility categories of these provisions would also be removed. The Agreement States should also remove those requirements in this proposed rule from their regulations to maintain compatibility with the NRC program. The deleted requirements were designated as compatibility Categories B and C, which are required for cross-jurisdictional consistency or necessary to prevent gaps, duplications, or conflicts across the National Materials Program. Failure to remove these requirements will result in gaps and conflicts between programs in the National Materials Program that will negatively impact the uniformity of regulation on a nationwide basis.</P>
                <P>Compatibility categories for other provisions that are subject to amendment or reassignment would remain unchanged except for the requirements in § 37.45(d). The compatibility category for § 37.45(d) is reassigned from Category B to Category C because of the lack of cross-jurisdictional impacts from the engagement of local law enforcement by licensees and because the requirement is limited to each licensee's facility. As compatibility Category C, Agreement States' equivalent regulation must still adopt the essential objective of § 37.45(d), which is to require the licensee to coordinate with local law enforcement to provide a response in the event of a threat at the licensee's facility.</P>
                <P>The final rule would be a matter of compatibility between the NRC and the Agreement States, thereby providing consistency among Agreement State and NRC requirements. The compatibility categories are designated in the following table:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s35,r35,r50,xls40,xs40">
                    <TTITLE>Compatibility Table</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Section</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Change</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Subject</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Compatibility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Existing</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">New</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.23(b)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>Access authorization program requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.23(c)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>Access authorization program requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.25(b)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Background investigations</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.25(b)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend and Reassign</ENT>
                        <ENT>Background investigations</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.25(c)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Background investigations</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.43(c)(3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>General security program requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.43(c)(3)(iv)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>General security program requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.45(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>LLEA coordination</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.49(a)(3)(ii)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Monitoring, detection, and assessment</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.49(c)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Monitoring, detection, and assessment</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.49(c)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Monitoring, detection, and assessment</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.49(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend and Reassign</ENT>
                        <ENT>Monitoring, detection, and assessment</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.51(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Maintenance and testing</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.51(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Remove</ENT>
                        <ENT>Maintenance and testing</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10 CFR 37.53(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend</ENT>
                        <ENT>Requirements for mobile devices</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                        <ENT>B</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XV. Executive Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/about-nrc/regulatory/rulemaking/procedural-requirements.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review (as Amended by Executive Order 14215, Ensuring Accountability for All Agencies)</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has determined that this proposed rule is a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866. Accordingly, NRC submitted this proposed rule to OIRA for review. NRC is required to conduct an economic analysis in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17905"/>
                    accordance with section 6(a)(3)(B) of E.O. 12866. More can be found in Section VII, of this document, “Regulatory Analysis.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 14154: Unleashing American Energy</HD>
                <P>The NRC has examined this proposed rule and has determined that it is consistent with the policies and directives outlined in E.O. 14154.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 14192: Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</HD>
                <P>This action is a deregulatory action as defined by E.O. 14192. Details on the estimated costs of this proposed rule can be found in Section VII, of this document, “Regulatory Analysis.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 14270: Zero-Based Regulatory Budgeting To Unleash American Energy</HD>
                <P>E.O. 14270, “Zero-Based Regulatory Budgeting to Unleash American Energy,” requires the NRC to insert a conditional sunset date into all new or amended NRC regulations provided the regulations are (1) promulgated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA), the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (ERA), or the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended (NWPA); (2) not statutorily required; and (3) not part of the NRC's permitting regime. The NRC determined that the regulatory changes proposed in this rule are necessary for compliance with Executive Order 14300. Therefore, the NRC views this rulemaking to be outside the scope of Executive Order 14270 and did not insert conditional sunset dates for the regulatory changes in this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XVI. Criminal Penalties</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule includes Federal regulations that, if adopted, would be enforceable by criminal penalty, as authorized by Section 223 of the AEA. Therefore, per E.O. 14294, those regulations constitute “criminal regulatory offenses.”</P>
                <P>For the purposes of Section 223 of the AEA, the NRC is amending 10 CFR part 37 under one or more of Sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the AEA, except as noted in § 37.109(b). The applicability of criminal penalties to regulations in part 37 is set forth in § 37.109. Willful violations of 10 CFR part 37, other than those listed in § 37.109(b) (including as updated by this proposed rule), would be subject to criminal enforcement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XVII. Availability of Guidance</HD>
                <P>The NRC expects to update NUREG-2155, “Implementation Guidance for 10 CFR part 37 Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material,” Revision 2, dated March 2022, to conform with this rulemaking effort. To support an accelerated development schedule for this proposed rule, the updates will be made in a future revision of the guidance, rather than concurrently with this rulemaking. Interim guidance, in the form of frequently asked questions (FAQs), will be added to the NRC's public website.</P>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments on the draft FAQs by the methods outlined in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XVIII. Availability of Documents</HD>
                <P>The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons through one or more of the following methods, as indicated.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s150,r70">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Document</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            ADAMS accession No./web link/
                            <LI>
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                 citation
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">National Wage Data available on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) Web site for year 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2011 regulatory analysis, “Regulatory Analysis for Final Rule: Physical Protection of Byproduct Material (10 CFR Parts 20, 30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 39, 51, 71, and 73),” dated December 2011</ENT>
                        <ENT>ML112920114.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Final rule, “Physical Protection of Byproduct Material (10 CFR Parts 20, 30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 39, 51, 71, and 73),” dated March 19, 2013</ENT>
                        <ENT>78 FR 16922.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OMB Supporting Statement and Associated Burden Spreadsheet—10 CFR Part 37—Modernizing Requirements Relating to Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material Proposed Rule (OMB Clearance No. 3150-0214)</ENT>
                        <ENT>ML25287A035 (package).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NUREG-2155, “Implementation Guidance for 10 CFR Part 37 Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material,” Revision 2, dated March 2022</ENT>
                        <ENT>ML22083A141.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E.O. 14154, “Unleashing American Energy,” dated January 29, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>90 FR 8353.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E.O. 14173, “Ending Illegal Discrimination and Restoring Merit-Based Opportunity,” dated January 31, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>90 FR 8633.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E.O. 14300, “Ordering the Reform of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission,” dated May 29, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>90 FR 22587.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Draft FAQs for the Proposed Rule: Modernizing Requirements Relating to Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material</ENT>
                        <ENT>ML25287A030.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The NRC may post materials related to this document, including public comments, on the Federal rulemaking website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket ID NRC-2025-1238. In addition, the Federal rulemaking website allows members of the public to receive alerts when changes or additions occur in a docket folder. To subscribe: (1) navigate to the docket folder (NRC-2025-1238); (2) click the “Subscribe” link; and (3) enter an email address and click on the “Subscribe” link.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 10 CFR Part 37</HD>
                    <P>Byproduct material, Criminal penalties, Exports, Hazardous materials transportation, Imports, Licensed material, Nuclear materials, Penalties, Radioactive materials, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is proposing to amend 10 CFR part 37:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 37—PHYSICAL PROTECTION OF CATEGORY 1 AND CATEGORY 2 QUANTITIES OF RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 37 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 53, 81, 103, 104, 147, 148, 149, 161, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2073, 2111, 2133, 2134, 2167, 2168, 2169, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17906"/>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.13 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 37.13(b), remove section number “37.51,”</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>3. In § 37.23, revise paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.23 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Access authorization program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(2) Each licensee must name one or more individuals to be reviewing officials. After completing the background investigation on the reviewing official, the licensee must provide under oath or affirmation, a certification that the reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable by the licensee. The fingerprints of the named reviewing official must be taken by a law enforcement agency, Federal or State agencies that provide fingerprinting services to the public, or commercial fingerprinting services authorized by a State to take fingerprints.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) * * *</P>
                    <P>(1) Licensees may not initiate a background investigation without the informed and signed consent of the subject individual. This consent must include authorization to share personal information with other individuals or organizations as necessary to complete the background investigation. Before a final adverse determination, the licensee must provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is developed during the background investigation. Licensees do not need to obtain signed consent from those individuals that meet the requirements of § 37.25(b).</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>4. In § 37.25, revise paragraph (b) and remove paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.25 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Background investigations.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) Grandfathering. Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of part 73 of this chapter or the security orders for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk-significant material may have unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material without further investigation. The licensee must document that the individual was determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of part 73 of this chapter or a security order. Security order, in this context, refers to any order that was issued by the NRC that required fingerprints and an FBI criminal history records check for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk significant material such as special nuclear material or large quantities of uranium hexafluoride.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. In § 37.43, revise paragraph (c)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.43 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>General security program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) Refresher training must be provided at least every 3 years and when significant changes have been made to the security program. This training must include:</P>
                    <P>(i) Review of the training requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and any changes made to the security program since the last training;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Reports on any relevant security issues, problems, and lessons learned;</P>
                    <P>(iii) Relevant results of NRC inspections; and</P>
                    <P>(iv) Relevant results of the licensee's program review.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>6. In § 37.45, revise paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.45 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>LLEA coordination.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(d) The licensee must coordinate with the LLEA at least every 3 years, or when changes to the facility design or operation adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage, or diversion.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>7. In § 37.49, remove and reserve paragraph (a)(3)(ii), remove paragraph (c), and revise and redesignate paragraph (d) as paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.49 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Monitoring, detection, and assessment.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Response.</E>
                         Licensees must immediately respond to any actual or attempted unauthorized access to the security zones, or actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material at licensee facilities or temporary job sites. For any unauthorized access involving an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, the licensee's response must include requesting, without delay, an armed response from the LLEA.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.51 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>8. Remove and reserve § 37.51.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>9. In § 37.53, revise paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 37.53 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Requirements for mobile devices.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) For devices in or on a vehicle or trailer, unless the health and safety requirements for a site prohibit the disabling of the vehicle, the licensee must utilize a method to disable the vehicle or trailer when not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                      
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carrie Safford,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06877 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3763; Airspace Docket No. 26-AGL-4]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of Class E Airspace; Canton, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at Canton, OH. The FAA is proposing this action to support new instrument procedures and instrument flight rule (IFR) operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before May 26, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2026-3763 and Airspace Docket No. 26-AGL-4 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17907"/>
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Raul Garza Jr, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177; telephone (817) 222-5874.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Mercy Medical Center Heliport, Canton, OH, to support IFR operations at this airport.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it received on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for the address, phone number, and hours of operation). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the Federal Aviation Administration, Air Traffic Organization, Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace is published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These updates would be published subsequently in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 that would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface to within a 7.4-mile radius of Mercy Medical Center Heliport, Canton, OH.</P>
                <P>This action is the result of instrument procedures being developed for this airport to support IFR operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17908"/>
                    Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">AGL OH E5 Canton, OH [Establish]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Mercy Medical Center Heliport, OH</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat 40°48′45″ N, long 81°23′38″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.4-mile radius of Mercy Medical Center Heliport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06894 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3765; Airspace Docket No. 26-ASW-6]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of Class E Airspace; Mullin, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at Mullin, TX. The FAA is proposing this action to support new instrument procedures and instrument flight rule (IFR) operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before May 26, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2026-3765 and Airspace Docket No. 26-ASW-6 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Raul Garza Jr, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177; telephone (817) 222-5874.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Smoky Bend Ranch Airport, Mullin, TX, to support IFR operations at this airport.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it received on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for the address, phone number, and hours of operation). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the Federal Aviation Administration, Air Traffic Organization, Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace is published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These updates would be published subsequently in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17909"/>
                    service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 that would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface to within a 8.3-mile radius of Smoky Bend Ranch Airport, Mullin, TX.</P>
                <P>This action is the result of instrument procedures being developed for this airport to support IFR operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASW TX E5 Mullin, TX [Establish]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Smoky Bend Ranch Airport, TX</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 31°28′19″ N, long. 98°42′06″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within an 8.3-mile radius of Smoky Bend Ranch Airport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06927 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3764; Airspace Docket No. 26-AGL-5]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of Class E Airspace; Crown Point, IN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at Crown Point, IN. The FAA is proposing this action to support new instrument procedures and instrument flight rule (IFR) operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before May 26, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2026-3764 and Airspace Docket No. 26-AGL-5 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Raul Garza Jr., Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177; telephone (817) 222-5874.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Franciscan Health Crown Point Hospital Heliport, Crown Point, IN, to support IFR operations at this airport.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17910"/>
                    and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it received on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for the address, phone number, and hours of operation). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the Federal Aviation Administration, Air Traffic Organization, Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, OH 76177.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace is published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These updates would be published subsequently in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 that would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface to within a 6.9-mile radius of Franciscan Health Crown Point Hospital Heliport, Crown Point, IN.</P>
                <P>This action is the result of instrument procedures being developed for this airport to support IFR operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Policies and Procedures for Rulemakings” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">AGL IN E5 Crown Point, IN [Establish]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Franciscan Health Crown Point Hospital Heliport, IN</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 41°23′20″ N, long. 87°19′18″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.9-mile radius of Franciscan Health Crown Point Hospital Heliport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jerry J. Creecy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06907 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3372; Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-146]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Modification of Class E Airspace, Omak Airport, Omak, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to modify the Class E airspace area extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Omak Airport, Omak, WA. This action would support the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before May 26, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2026-3372 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17911"/>
                        and Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-146 using any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Bryantjay T. Toves, Federal Aviation Administration, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S. 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone (206) 231-3465.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify the Class E airspace area to support IFR operations at Omak Airport, Omak, WA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Northwest Mountain Regional Office of the Federal Aviation Administration, Air Traffic Organization, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E5 airspace area designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11K, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025. These updates would be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11K, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 due to the development of a special instrument approach procedure (IAP) at Omak Airport, Omak, WA: the Area Navigation (RNAV) (Global Positioning System [GPS]) M Runway (RWY) 35.</P>
                <P>The central radius of Class E airspace area should be extended by 0.8 miles to more appropriately contain the IFR departure and contain missed approach operations until reaching 1,200 feet above the surface. Additionally, the airspace should be modified to extend 2.2 east of the airport, as circling maneuvers are not authorized east of RWY 17/35.</P>
                <P>The Class E airspace area southern boundary should be modified to extend 9 miles, and the southwestern boundary to 12 miles, to more appropriately contain instrument arrivals to RWY 35 operating below 1,500 feet above the surface.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Order 2100.6B, “Rulemaking and Guidance Procedure” (March 10, 2025); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17912"/>
                    economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to  amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11K, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 4, 2025, and effective September 15, 2025, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">ANM WA E5  Omak, WA (Amended)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Omak Airport, WA</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 48°27′52″ N, long. 119°31′05″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within one mile either side of the airport's 189° bearing extending to 9 miles south, within two miles either side of the airport's 204° bearing extending to 12 miles southwest, and within a 5.1-mile radius excluding that airspace 2.2 miles east of the airport's 090° bearing.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Des Moines, Washington, on April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>B.G. Chew,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Group Manager, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06848 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>30 CFR Part 950</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[SATS No. WY-052-FOR; Docket ID: OSM-2026-0001;S1D1S SS08011000 SX064A000 266S180110;S2D2S SS08011000 SX064A000 26XS501520]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Wyoming Regulatory Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; public comment period and opportunity for public hearing on proposed amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSM) is announcing receipt of a proposed regulatory amendment to the Wyoming coal program (Wyoming program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Wyoming submitted this proposed amendment to us, on its own initiative, following the Wyoming Environmental Quality Council's (EQC) and Wyoming Governor's approval of the proposed changes to its Land Quality Division (LQD)—Coal Rules on September 17, 2025, and October 29, 2025, respectively. Through this amendment, Wyoming is proposing to recognize a specific type of reclamation bond estimate adjustment that would not be considered a bond release request.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We will accept written comments on this amendment until 4:00 p.m., Mountain Time (M.T.) May 11, 2026. If requested, we may hold a public hearing or meeting on the amendment on May 4, 2026. We will accept requests to speak at a hearing until 4:00 p.m., M.T. on April 24, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by SATS No. WY-052-FOR, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Attn: Jeffrey Fleischman, P.O. Box 11018, 100 East B Street, Room 4100, Casper, Wyoming 82602.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (307) 261-6552.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         The amendment has been assigned Docket ID: OSM-2026-0001. If you would like to submit comments, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All received submissions must include the agency name and docket number for this rulemaking. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Public Comment Procedures” heading of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to review copies of the Wyoming program, this amendment, a listing of any scheduled public hearings or meetings, and all written comments received in response to this document, you must go to the address listed below during normal business hours, Monday through Friday, excluding holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Attn: Jeffrey Fleischman, Field Office Director, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 100 East B Street, Casper, Wyoming 82602. Telephone: (307) 261-6550. Email: 
                        <E T="03">jfleischman@osmre.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may receive one free copy of the amendment by contacting OSMRE's Casper Field Office, or read the full text of the program amendment at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, you may review a copy of the amendment during regular business hours at the following location: Attn: Brandi O'Brien, Administrator, Wyoming Department of Environmental Quality, Land Quality Division, 200 West 17th Street, Suite 10 Cheyenne, Wyoming 82002. Telephone: (307) 777-7757. Email: 
                        <E T="03">brandi.obrien@wyo.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jeffrey Fleischman, Field Office Director, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 100 East B Street, Casper, Wyoming 82602. Telephone: (307) 261-6550. Email: 
                        <E T="03">jfleischman@osmre.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background on the Wyoming Program</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Description of the Proposed Amendment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment Procedures</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Procedural Determinations</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background on the Wyoming Program</HD>
                <P>Subject to OSM's oversight, section 503(a) of the Act permits a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its approved, State program includes, among other things, State laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations. See 30 U.S.C. 1253(a)(1) and (7).</P>
                <P>
                    On the basis of these criteria, the Secretary of the Interior conditionally approved the Wyoming program on November 26, 1980. You can find background information on the Wyoming program, including the Secretary's findings, the disposition of comments, and conditions of approval of the Wyoming program in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17913"/>
                    November 26, 1980, 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (45 FR 78637). You can also find later actions concerning the Wyoming program and program amendments at 30 CFR 950.10.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Description of the Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>
                    By letter dated January 15, 2026 (Administrative Record No. WY-052-01), Wyoming sent us an amendment to its program under SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1201 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). We found Wyoming's proposed amendment administratively complete on January 20, 2026. Wyoming submitted this proposed amendment to us, on its own initiative, following the Wyoming Environmental Quality Council's (EQC) and Wyoming Governor's approval of the proposed changes to its Land Quality Division (LQD)—Coal Rules on September 17, 2025, and October 29, 2025, respectively.
                </P>
                <P>At Wyoming Code of Wyoming Rules (WCWR) 20-0006-12, Section 2(e), which dictates Wyoming's requirements for bond adjustments, Wyoming first proposed to add “operational parameters” to its list of actions or circumstances that reduce the estimated reclamation cost for an operation. Second, Wyoming proposed to add another situation to its list of what would be considered a “bond adjustment” as opposed to a “bond release.” Wyoming's proposed language would allow a decrease in the volume of material required to reclaim a final cut, pit, or void created at a surface mining operation by the permit holder or their designated entities to be considered a “bond adjustment.”</P>
                <P>
                    The full text of the program amendment is available for you to read at the locations listed above under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     or at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Public Comment Procedures</HD>
                <P>Under the provisions of 30 CFR 732.17(h), we are seeking your comments on whether the amendment satisfies the applicable program approval criteria of 30 CFR 732.15. If we approve the amendment, it will become part of the Wyoming program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic or Written Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit written or electronic comments on the proposed rule during the 30-day comment period, they should be specific, confined to issues pertinent to the proposed regulations, and explain the reason for any recommended change(s). We appreciate any and all comments, but those most useful and likely to influence decisions on the final regulations will be those that either involve personal experience or include citations to and analyses of SMCRA, its legislative history, its implementing regulations, case law, other pertinent State or Federal laws or regulations, technical literature, or other relevant publications.</P>
                <P>
                    We cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    ) or sent to an address other than those listed (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) will be included in the docket for this rulemaking and considered.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Availability of Comments</HD>
                <P>Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment including your personal identifying information may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    If you wish to speak at a public hearing, contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     by 4:00 p.m. M.T. on April 24, 2026. If you are disabled and need reasonable accommodations to attend a public hearing, contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . We will arrange the location and time of the hearing with those persons requesting the hearing. If no one requests an opportunity to speak, we will not hold a hearing.
                </P>
                <P>To assist the transcriber and ensure an accurate record we request, if possible, that each person who speaks at the public hearing provide us with a written copy of their comments. The public hearing will continue until everyone scheduled to speak has been given an opportunity to be heard. If you are in the audience and have not been scheduled to speak and wish to do so, you will be allowed to speak after those who have been scheduled. We will end the hearing after everyone scheduled to speak, and others present in the audience who wish to speak, have been heard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Meeting</HD>
                <P>
                    If only one person requests an opportunity to speak, we may hold a public meeting rather than a public hearing. If you wish to meet with us to discuss the amendment, please request a meeting by contacting the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . All such meetings are open to the public and, if possible, we will post notices of meetings at the locations listed under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . We will make a written summary of each meeting a part of the administrative record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Procedural Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866—Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563—Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will review all significant rules. Pursuant to OMB guidance dated October 12, 1993 (OMB Memo M-94-3), the approval of State program amendments is exempted from OMB review under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Other Laws and Executive Orders Affecting Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>
                    When a State submits a program amendment to OSM for review, our regulations at 30 CFR 732.17(h) require us to publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     indicating receipt of the proposed amendment, its text or a summary of its terms, and an opportunity for public comment.
                </P>
                <P>We conclude our review of the proposed amendment after the close of the public comment period and determine whether the amendment should be approved, approved in part, or not approved. At that time, we will also make the determinations and certifications required by the various laws and executive orders governing the rulemaking process and include them in the final rule.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 30 CFR Part 950</HD>
                    <P>Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Marcelo Calle,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Regional Director, Unified Regions 5, 7-11.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06892 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4310-05-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R07-OAR-2026-1785; FRL-13279-01-R7]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Missouri; Revisions to Existing Rule 10 CSR 10-5.570; Control of Sulfur Emissions From Stationary Boilers</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17914"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve Missouri State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted on November 10, 2020, by the Missouri Department of Natural Resources (MoDNR). This proposed action will amend the SIP to address administrative changes to the State rule in the Missouri Code of State Regulations (CSR). Revisions include removal of references to a revoked state regulation and other minor administrative changes. The EPA is proposing to approve these changes because they are consistent with the Clean Air Act (CAA) and applicable EPA regulations. In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ,  we are approving the State's SIP revisions as a direct final rule without a prior proposed rule. If we receive no adverse comment, we will not take further action on this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by May 11, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2026-1785 to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA generally will not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ashley Eichman, Environmental Protection Agency, Region 7 Office, Air and Radiation Division, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219; telephone number: (913) 551-7762; email address: 
                        <E T="03">eichman.ashley@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This document proposes to take action on changes to the State rule at Title 10, Division 10 of the Code of State Regulations (CSR) 5.570, Control of Sulfur Emissions From Stationary Boilers, as revisions to the SIP previously approved at 40 CFR 52.1320(c). Revisions include removal of references to a revoked State regulation and other minor administrative changes. We have published a direct final rule approving the State's SIP revision in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , because we view this as a noncontroversial action and anticipate no relevant adverse comment. We have explained our reasons for this action in the preamble to the direct final rule. If we receive no adverse comment, we will not take further action on this proposed rule. If we receive adverse comment, we will withdraw the direct final rule and it will not take effect. We would address all public comments in any subsequent final rule based on this proposed rule. We do not intend to institute a second comment period on this action. Any parties interested in commenting must do so at this time. For further information, please see the information provided in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: March 31, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James Macy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 7.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06831 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>47 CFR Parts 2 and 25</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[SB Docket No. 26-54; FCC 26-13; FR ID 338749]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Spectrum Abundance for Weird Space Stuff</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission or we) looks to bring spectrum abundance for emergent space activities. “Emergent” or “emergent space operations” are those spacecraft or commercial operations in space that use radio spectrum for control of, or communications with, a spacecraft, but which are not communications satellites. Currently there is an acute shortage of usable and readily accessible spectrum for telemetry, tracking and command (TT&amp;C) functions that are essential for operating emergent spacecraft. Accordingly, this document seeks to clarify and expand the Commission's traditional regulatory classifications so that emergent space operations have more predictable access to spectrum. Additionally, this document proposes to add a secondary allocation for the Space Operation Service (SOS) in spectrum bands that could support emergent space activities, particularly in frequency bands allocated for non-Federal use that may be lightly used in certain geographic areas. This document also proposes to allow existing licensees to lease their spectrum to earth station licensees to provide SOS in connection with emergent spacecraft.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are due on or before May 11, 2026. Reply Comments are due on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated in the 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                         section above. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS). You may submit comments, identified by SB Docket No. 26-54, by any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filers.</E>
                         Comments may be filed electronically using the internet by accessing the ECFS: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/ecfs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Paper Filers.</E>
                         Parties who file by paper must include an original and one copy of each filing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial courier, or by the U.S. Postal Service. 
                        <E T="03">All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary are accepted between 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. by the FCC's mailing contractor at 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.</P>
                    <P>• Commercial courier deliveries (any deliveries not by the U.S. Postal Service) must be sent to 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Filings sent by U.S. Postal Service First-Class Mail, Priority Mail, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17915"/>
                        Priority Mail Express, must be sent to 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">People with Disabilities.</E>
                         To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to 
                        <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                         or call the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Stephen Duall, 202-418-1103, 
                        <E T="03">stephen.duall@fcc.gov</E>
                         or Brandon Padgett, 202-418-1377, 
                        <E T="03">brandon.padgett@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                    ), in SB Docket No. 26-54; FCC 26-13, adopted on March 26, 2026, and released on March 27, 2026. The full text of this document is available for public inspection online at 
                    <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-13A1.pdf.</E>
                     The full text of this document is also available for inspection and copying during business hours in the FCC Reference Center, 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554. To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities, send an email to 
                    <E T="03">FCC504@fcc.gov</E>
                     or call the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530 (voice), 202-418-0432 (TTY).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Ex Parte Presentations.</E>
                     This proceeding shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     rules. Persons making 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations must file a copy of any written presentation or a memorandum summarizing any oral presentation within two business days after the presentation (unless a different deadline applicable to the Sunshine period applies). Persons making oral 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations are reminded that memoranda summarizing the presentation must (1) list all persons attending or otherwise participating in the meeting at which the 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentation was made, and (2) summarize all data presented and arguments made during the presentation. If the presentation consisted in whole or in part of the presentation of data or arguments already reflected in the presenter's written comments, memoranda or other filings in the proceeding, the presenter may provide citations to such data or arguments in his or her prior comments, memoranda, or other filings (specifying the relevant page and/or paragraph numbers where such data or arguments can be found) in lieu of summarizing them in the memorandum. Documents shown or given to Commission staff during 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     meetings are deemed to be written 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     presentations and must be filed consistent with § 1.1206(b). Participants in this proceeding should familiarize themselves with the Commission's 
                    <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                     rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Regulatory Flexibility Analysis.</E>
                     The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), requires that an agency prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for notice and comment rulemakings, unless the agency certifies that “the rule will not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.” Accordingly, the Commission has prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) concerning the possible impact of the rule and policy changes contained in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     on small entities. The IRFA is set forth in Appendix A of the Commission document, 
                    <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-13A1.pdf.</E>
                     The Commission invites the general public, in particular small businesses, to comment on the IRFA. Comments must be filed by the deadlines for comments indicated on the first page of this document and must have a separate and distinct heading designating them as responses to the IRFA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Paperwork Reduction Act.</E>
                     The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     may contain new or proposed modified information collections. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to comment on any information collections contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), we seek specific comment on how we might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OPEN Government Data Act.</E>
                     The OPEN Government Data Act requires agencies to make “public data assets” available under an open license and as “open Government data assets,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     in machine readable, open format, unencumbered by use restrictions other than intellectual property rights, and based on an open standard that is maintained by a standards organization. This requirement is to be implemented “in accordance with guidance by the Director” of the OMB. The term “public data asset” means “a data asset, or part thereof, maintained by the federal government that has been, or may be, released to the public, including any data asset, or part thereof, subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).” A “data asset” is “a collection of data elements or data sets that may be grouped together,” and “data” is “recorded information, regardless of form or the media on which the data is recorded.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act.</E>
                     Consistent with the Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act, Public Law 118-9, a summary of the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     will be available on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/proposed-rulemakings.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Synopsis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                <P>1. In the geopolitical race to commercialize and dominate the Final Frontier, historic levels of private investment have paved the way for the engineering marvels and daring endeavors that now take place in outer space. Once the province of science fiction, American companies are now upgrading, relocating, and servicing satellites; manufacturing pharmaceuticals in space; building private inhabitable spacecraft; and conducting private robotic missions to the surface of the Moon. Emergent space operations like these depend on the use of radiocommunications for their spacecraft, but they are not the type of communications satellites that have traditionally commanded much of the Commission's regulatory attention.</P>
                <P>2. Spectrum is a critical component of all space operations. Even for spacecraft that do not provide radiocommunications services to the public, reliable spectrum access is mandatory for safety functions like telemetry, tracking, and command (TT&amp;C) to control spacecraft in orbit. American innovators, however, currently face an acute shortage of usable and readily accessible spectrum for TT&amp;C, and that spectrum crunch threatens to delay—or even prevent—the growth of domestic space technologies and jeopardize U.S. leadership in the booming global space economy.</P>
                <P>
                    3. This shortage of spectrum is the product of several interlocking factors. For one, spectrum for TT&amp;C is largely unavailable on a standalone basis, absent a separately authorized radiocommunications service. Emergent space innovations like inhabitable spacecraft and orbital laboratories, however, do not typically provide a separately authorized radiocommunications service. For another, the spectrum bands where TT&amp;C may be available on a standalone basis tend to be congested and occupied 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17916"/>
                    primarily by Federal users. And for another, even when the Commission does authorize a company's use of spectrum for standalone TT&amp;C, it occurs under a case-by-case review process that may involve extensive coordination and delay.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. The Commission is aggressively pursuing a policy of spectrum abundance in outer space. Earlier this year, we launched a proceeding to release up to 20,000 megahertz of spectrum for traditional connectivity services, including high-speed broadband from constellations in low-Earth orbit. The Commission has also begun a comprehensive revisiting its licensing and regulatory framework for space communications in the 
                    <E T="03">Space Modernization NPRM.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. Now, with this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                    ), we focus on bringing spectrum abundance to support cutting-edge, emergent ventures in space. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     pursues two paths towards abundance. 
                    <E T="03">First,</E>
                     we seek to clarify and expand our traditional regulatory classifications so that emergent operations have more predictable spectrum access. 
                    <E T="03">Second,</E>
                     we explore new spectrum bands that could support new use cases on a dedicated basis. In each path, our goal remains the same: provide a clear, reliable, and expeditious path to support the groundbreaking technologies and services that companies are developing in space. With the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     we look to find ways to use market-based principles to see spectrum resources put to more intensive use in the service of the space economy. By thinking creatively and expansively, we have the opportunity to go from zero non-Federal spectrum available today to support emergent space operations to at least 25 megahertz of such spectrum, and potentially much, much more, if all the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     are ultimately adopted.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Important Terminology and Definitions</HD>
                <P>6. To facilitate a precise discussion why emergent space operations may not have sufficient spectrum availability, we first clarify key terms and definitions currently used in our rules governing space communications.</P>
                <P>7. Under the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (Act), “[n]o person shall use or operate any apparatus for the transmission of energy or communications or signals by radio” from or within the areas specified in section 301 or on a mobile station within the jurisdiction of the United States without a license issued by the Commission. Although the Act does not define the term “signals,” it defines “communication by radio” as “the transmission by radio of writing, signs, signals, pictures, and sounds of all kinds, including all instrumentalities, facilities, apparatus, and services (among other things, the receipt, forwarding, and delivery of communications) incidental to such transmission.”</P>
                <P>8. Consistent with the Act, our rules state that “[n]o person shall use or operate apparatus for the transmission of energy or communications or signals by space or earth stations except under, and in accordance with, an appropriate authorization granted by the Federal Communications Commission.” Under our rules, a “space station” is a “station located on an object which is beyond, is intended to go beyond, or has been beyond, the major portion of the Earth's atmosphere.” An “earth station” is a “station located either on the Earth's surface or within the major portion of Earth's atmosphere and intended for communication: (1) With one or more space stations; or (2) With one or more stations of the same kind by means of one or more reflecting satellites or other objects in space.” Our rules define “radiocommunication” as “telecommunication by means of radio waves” and “telecommunication” as “any transmission, emission or reception of signs, signals, writings, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire, radio, optical or other electromagnetic systems.” Section 301 of the Act states that “[n]o person shall use or operate any apparatus for the transmission of energy or communications or signals by radio . . . except under and in accordance with this Act and with a license in that behalf granted under the provisions of this Act.” Accordingly, the transmission or reception of intelligence of any nature to or from a station beyond the majority of the Earth's atmosphere via radio waves is a space radiocommunication and, pursuant to our rules, requires an authorization by the Commission.</P>
                <P>9. Radiocommunications are classified and regulated as distinct kinds of “radiocommunication service,” defined as “a service . . . involving the transmission, emission and/or reception of radio waves for specific telecommunication purposes.” Those specific purposes are reflected in the radiocommunication services defined by our rules, such as the fixed-satellite service (FSS), mobile-satellite service (MSS), or broadcasting-satellite service (BSS). Whereas FSS, MSS, and BSS licensees use radio waves to provide voice, video, or data to consumers and businesses, other radiocommunication services do not. For example, the Earth exploration-satellite service (EESS) uses radio waves to obtain information about the Earth through active or passive sensors, as well as to collect and distribute that information.</P>
                <P>10. Some radiocommunication services, in particular, are critical for the operation of a spacecraft, but do not provide a service to the public. For example, the space operation service (SOS) is defined as “[a] radiocommunication service concerned exclusively with the operation of spacecraft, in particular space tracking, space telemetry, and space telecommand” and uses radio waves for the operation of spacecraft. Similarly, the space research service (SRS) is defined as “[a] radiocommunication service in which spacecraft or other objects in space are used for scientific or technological research purposes.” In both instances, the radiocommunication services are used to control and operate spacecraft, but are not themselves the services offered to the public. Space telemetry is defined as “[t]he use of telemetry for transmission for a space station of results of measurements made in a spacecraft, including those relating to the functioning of the spacecraft.” Space tracking is defined as the “[d]etermination of the orbit, velocity or instantaneous position of an object in space by means of radiodetermination, excluding primary radar, for the purpose of following the movement of the object.” Space telecommand is defined as “[t]he use of radiocommunication for the transmission of signals to a space station to initiate, modify or terminate functions of equipment on a space object, including the space station.”</P>
                <P>11. Thus, there are numerous space radiocommunication services provided for under our rules, some of which use radiocommunications to provide service directly to the public, and some of which are used to support operations of spacecraft. All of these services involve transmissions of signals and thus require authorization from the Commission under the Act, provided that the station at issue does not belong to and is not controlled by the United States government.</P>
                <P>
                    12. Another important point of terminology is the distinction between Federal and non-Federal operations and the effects of this distinction on allocations of radio spectrum. The Commission authorizes non-Federal operations, which include those by private commercial entities. Operations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17917"/>
                    conducted by agencies or entities of the U.S. federal government are Federal, and Congress has assigned the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA), which is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce, oversight of such operations. Together, the FCC and NTIA jointly manage the nation's radio spectrum resources in the public interest. The United States Table of Frequency Allocations (United States Table) contains allocations for both Federal (that is, U.S. federal government) and non-Federal (for example, private entities) use of radiocommunication services and is codified in § 2.106 of our rules. An “allocation” is an entry in the Table of Frequency Allocations (Allocation Table) of a given frequency band for the purpose of its use by one or more terrestrial or space radiocommunication services (or the radio astronomy service) under specified conditions. Any segment of the radio spectrum may be allocated to the federal and/or non-federal sectors either on an exclusive or shared basis for use by one or more radio services. Services may be allocated on a primary or secondary basis, and operations on a secondary basis must not cause harmful interference to operations on a primary basis and cannot claim protection from harmful interference from operations of a primary service.
                </P>
                <P>13. Non-federal operators may be authorized to use Federal frequency allocations, subject to coordination with the appropriate federal agency or agencies and conditions agreed upon by the Commission and NTIA, provided that such operations shall not cause harmful interference to Federal stations and that operations shall terminate should harmful interference occur. Thus, applications to operate non-Federal radiocommunication services in frequency bands that are allocated to Federal operations must first be coordinated with federal agencies and must not cause harmful interference to Federal operations.</P>
                <P>14. Lastly, there are important differences in the terms “spacecraft,” “satellite,” and “space station” under our rules. A “spacecraft” is defined as a “man-made vehicle which is intended to go beyond the major portion of the Earth's atmosphere.” Although “satellite” is defined as a spacecraft in orbit, it is often used informally to refer to the physical apparatus in space. A “space station” is essentially a station on a spacecraft, and a “station” is the transmitters or receivers (or combination thereof) on the spacecraft necessary for carrying on a radiocommunication service. Furthermore, a station is classified by the service in which it operates, so a space station operating in the fixed-satellite service is classified as an “FSS space station.” Thus, a spacecraft can be a satellite, and a satellite is a spacecraft, and there can be one or more space stations on a satellite or spacecraft. But under our rules, it is the transmitters and receivers that make up a space station that must be authorized by the Commission.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Spectrum Crunch for Emergent Space Operations</HD>
                <P>15. The Commission has observed a significant expansion in the commercial space industry in recent years, as well as the need for additional spectrum resources to conduct operations in space. Although the Commission has initiated proceedings to make spectrum abundant for satellites that provide radiocommunications services to the public, such as FSS, longstanding regulatory gaps currently constrain the availability of spectrum for new use cases. This “spectrum crunch” arises from several interlocking factors, discussed below.</P>
                <P>16. Spectrum used for emergent space operations may not clearly fall within an existing radiocommunication service. The Commission has received a growing number of applications to transmit or receive radiocommunications that do not involve the provision of radiocommunication services to the public. In each of these instances, the spacecraft is intended to provide services or engage in activities that are not radiocommunication services, such as in-space servicing, assembly, and manufacturing (ISAM), commercial habitable space stations, and lunar orbiters and landers. The spectrum needs of such applications are usually limited to radiocommunication services to conduct TT&amp;C functions necessary to command and control the spacecraft.</P>
                <P>17. Under our current rules and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Radio Regulations, spacecraft conduct TT&amp;C functions within the same frequency bands in which they are authorized to provide other radiocommunication services, such as FSS, MSS, BSS, or EESS. For this reason, licensees are generally authorized by the Commission to conduct TT&amp;C functions within frequency bands authorized for another allocated radiocommunications service. Because spacecraft used for emergent purposes such as lunar missions generally do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services, applicants seeking an FCC license to use spectrum to conduct TT&amp;C to control these spacecraft cannot clearly rely on the use of existing spectrum resources allocated for FSS, MSS, or EESS to command and control their spacecraft.</P>
                <P>18. Spectrum available for emergent space operations may be prioritized for Federal operations and can be difficult to access. In the past, activities in space were often conducted by governments, rather than private entities. In the United States, space activities that did not provide radiocommunication services to the public were typically conducted through government agencies, such as the National Aeronautical and Space Administration (NASA) or the Department of War (DoW). As observed in our discussion of terminology and definitions above, the Commission did not license these operations because these operations were controlled by federal agencies. Accordingly, these operations relied largely on spectrum allocated for Federal users in the United States Table.</P>
                <P>19. Today, as the American commercial space industry expands, there is an increasing reliance on private entities to conduct activities in space that in the past may have been conducted through government agencies. These activities are increasingly conducted either independently of government agencies, or under contractual arrangements with, or with funding from, government agencies. Because these activities are ultimately controlled by private entities, rather than government agencies, applicants are seeking licenses from the Commission for their use of radiofrequencies, particularly for radiocommunications to command and control their spacecraft. In doing so, the operations are categorized as non-Federal operations.</P>
                <P>
                    20. Because of the past reliance on the use of other allocated radiocommunication services, such as FSS, for the conduct of TT&amp;C functions for private entities, there are few explicit separate allocations for conducting command and control of spacecraft by non-Federal operators in the United States Table. The Commission's rules and the ITU Radio Regulations provide SOS and SRS allocations that support command and control of spacecraft. Current spectrum allocations for these services, however, are primarily for Federal use in the United States Table and are heavily used by Federal operations, including portions of the S-band allocated for Federal SOS operations in the 2025-2110 MHz (Earth-to-space), 2200-2290 MHz (space-to-Earth) bands, and portions of the X-band allocated for Federal SRS in the 8400-8450 MHz 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17918"/>
                    (space-to-Earth) and 8450-8500 MHz (space-to-Earth) bands.
                </P>
                <P>21. Many of the applications for Commission authority to operate radiocommunications to support ISAM and lunar operations have requested to operate in the same S-band and X-band allocations for SOS and SRS that are primarily and heavily used by Federal operators, as these bands support readily available, “off-the-shelf” antenna systems that are significantly more cost effective than designing and building customized antenna systems in-house. Access to these allocations by non-Federal operators, however, is subject to coordination and sharing requirements with Federal users, which can often take substantial time and effort to complete. In addition, the absence of a clearly defined regulatory path for access to SOS and SRS allocations used by Federal operations on a primary basis has led to a case-by-case licensing approach and to regulatory uncertainty.</P>
                <P>
                    22. Non-Federal spectrum bands that could support emergent operations are also congested. To address and facilitate the development of ISAM, the Commission previously sought comment in a notice of inquiry (
                    <E T="03">ISAM NOI</E>
                    ) and a notice of proposed rulemaking (
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                    ) on the needs of ISAM operators and proposed a potential streamlined regulatory framework for supporting such missions. The Commission has previously acknowledged the increasing variety of space missions and the need to modernize spectrum policies to accommodate these operations. Furthermore, in the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission tentatively concluded that various communication activities in support of ISAM could potentially operate within several existing service allocations and proposed to continue to review ISAM operators' requests for frequency use on a case-by-case basis. Although comments in response to the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                     support this tentative conclusion, they also indicate that existing service allocations may not be sufficient for ISAM, and that additional spectrum resources are needed, particularly in frequency bands that are allocated for use by non-Federal operations and that do not require extensive coordination with other spectrum users.
                </P>
                <P>
                    23. Commenters have identified multiple frequency bands that might be used to conduct TT&amp;C functions for spacecraft that do not also operate in other radiocommunication services, such as FSS or EESS. Almost all of the identified frequency bands, however, are currently used by a diverse range of existing non-Federal spectrum users, or are shared with or primarily used by Federal operations, which would still require extensive coordination with multiple spectrum users and would not provide a clear and reliable path for licensing by the Commission. We therefore focus the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     on proposals and alternatives that could provide a clear and reliable path in the near future for accessing additional spectrum resources for conducting TT&amp;C operations for spacecraft that are unable to conduct such operations under allocations for other radiocommunication services.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
                <P>24. We seek comment on steps that the Commission can take to make spectrum abundant for emergent space operations. These steps include providing regulatory clarity and leveraging existing spectrum allocations to support such operations. They also include unlocking new sources of usable spectrum by allowing existing Commission spectrum licensees to make their spectrum resources available in ways that are not currently permitted under our rules. Although we recognize that these are initial steps towards making spectrum abundant to support innovative new endeavors in space, we seek comment on the extent to which they may alleviate spectrum shortcomings, expedite the Commission's licensing, and facilitate innovation.</P>
                <P>
                    25. We seek comment on a variety of proposals and ideas in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                     Building upon the record in the ISAM proceeding, we propose to codify the potential use of frequency piggybacking. Another proposal herein is to review requests to operate space stations within specific service allocations on a case-by-case basis. Next, we seek comment on conducting TT&amp;C to support emergent operations in FSS bands on an unprotected, non-interference basis subject to coordination with other spectrum users, as well as what operations fall within our definition of TT&amp;C. We also seek comment on the types of applications that may seek to operate within the SRS allocation. We also propose to add a secondary allocation for SOS in the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplink and permit a version of 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     spectrum leasing of that band to earth station licensees. We seek comment on alternatives to these proposals and whether to extend this proposed leasing framework to other frequency bands. Lastly, we seek comment on whether licensed satellite operators should be authorized by rule to use their FCC-licensed satellites and intersatellite links to provide TT&amp;C and data downlinks to support emergent operations. We also seek comment on any alternatives that would be less burdensome for small entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    26. As observed above, the Commission has previously sought comment on radiofrequency use for non-communications satellites in the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NOI</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                     In this proceeding, we seek comment on proposals to make available additional spectrum resources not only in support of ISAM missions, but also for all emergent space operations. Because we are not proposing here to create spectrum allocations specifically and solely for use by ISAM or for lunar missions, we seek comment on proposals to allow increased and more efficient use of spectrum to support all space operations that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services to the public. Accordingly, we make alternative proposals regarding spectrum availability for ISAM and propose to no longer address spectrum use issues in the ISAM proceeding. Rather, we seek comment on whether to address the issues of spectrum availability to support ISAM missions through the proposals of this proceeding, rather than as part of the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM.</E>
                     We are not seeking comment in this proceeding on potential changes to how we process applications for authority to provide radiocommunication services or on other potential changes to our rules specific to the needs of ISAM operations. Although the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                     sought comment on possible modifications to our rules in order to facilitate the licensing and regulation of radiocommunications in support of ISAM missions, our focus today is on proposals and alternatives related to spectrum availability for all emergent space operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Establishing Regulatory Clarity for the Use of Existing Spectrum Allocations</HD>
                <P>
                    27. There is currently no radiocommunication service specifically dedicated for use by emergent space operations domestically or internationally. Accordingly, there is the need for clarity and certainty in the ability of operators to access other radiocommunication service allocations necessary to conduct their emergent operations in space. To that end, in addition to the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     for specific frequency bands that might be utilized more intensively to support TT&amp;C functions for emergent space operations, we propose to codify several 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17919"/>
                    Commission policies to provide additional regulatory clarity for these operators using existing radiocommunication service allocations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Authorizing by Rule Spectrum “Piggybacking” for Emergent Space Operations</HD>
                <P>
                    28. In the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM,</E>
                     the Commission recognized commenters' interest in allowing ISAM spacecraft to communicate in frequency bands already authorized for use by another spacecraft while the two spacecraft are connected or working together in close proximity to each other, also known as frequency “piggybacking.” Additionally the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                     noted that the piggybacking option has been authorized under existing part 25 rules in the past. There is unanimous support in response to the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                     for allowing frequency piggybacking for radiocommunications in support of ISAM operations, and frequency piggybacking has previously been authorized as an option for ISAM operators on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <P>29. Accordingly, we propose to codify the potential use of frequency piggybacking in our rules in order to provide regulatory clarity. We seek comment on how to codify the potential use of frequency piggybacking that provides regulatory clarity and certainty, but also recognizes that piggybacking may not be suitable for all types of operations. Furthermore, we seek comment on how such codification could be worded to address a wide-range of potential scenarios for frequency piggybacking, in order to provide both certainty and flexibility. As an example, comments have asked the Commission to clarify whether frequency piggybacking may be permissible for an operator whose client is an EESS operator. We tentatively conclude that this would be an acceptable scenario for frequency piggybacking. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion.</P>
                <P>30. We propose to codify that the Commission may authorize a space station to use the same frequencies as a separate, consenting spacecraft (that is, a “client” spacecraft) that is also authorized by the Commission or has obtained a grant of U.S. market access, provided that the applicant for the space station authorization certifies that the space station will be used for servicing, monitoring, or collaborating with the client spacecraft and that the operations will conform with the client spacecraft's ITU filings and licensed frequency parameters. We seek comment on this proposal. Specifically, we seek comment on how to define a client spacecraft and whether there are other instances in which we should allow piggybacking in addition to servicing, monitoring, or collaborating with a client spacecraft. Additionally, should licensees or grantees of U.S. market access engaged in spectrum piggybacking be required to provide the specific frequency information required by our rules to allow Space Bureau staff to confirm the operations are in conformance with the client's license or market access grant and ITU filings? Or would certification be sufficient? Similarly, should licensees or grantees be required to provide evidence of the other space station operator's consent to piggybacking operations, or is certification again sufficient? Is there anything else we should consider requiring from operators proposing to conduct piggybacking operations? We recognize there may also be additional considerations for operators seeking FCC authorization to conduct spectrum piggybacking with a non-U.S. licensed client that has not sought U.S. market access, and we seek comment on what certifications or demonstrations we should require in such instances in order to fulfill our international obligations, protect national security, and promote American innovation in space.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Authorizing Standalone TT&amp;C Within Existing FSS Allocations</HD>
                <P>31. We also seek comment on permitting licensees and market access grantees for emergent space operations to conduct TT&amp;C in FSS bands where TT&amp;C may already be provided within the radiocommunication service. As observed above, the Space Bureau routinely authorizes FSS space station licensees to conduct TT&amp;C in the same frequency bands that are allocated for FSS. Thus, we are confident that it is technically feasible to conduct TT&amp;C in frequency bands that are already allocated for FSS by non-Federal operators, and that there is likely to be readily-available earth station facilities and equipment to support TT&amp;C in these frequency bands. TT&amp;C operations licensed outside of our processing procedures for GSO or NGSO FSS are unable to claim protection from interference from, and are not permitted to cause harmful interference to, other licensed operators that are authorized within our processing procedures. Accordingly, we envision permission for such TT&amp;C operations licensed outside of processing procedures would be on an unprotected, non-interference basis, subject to coordination with other authorized spectrum users. We seek comment on the appropriate status of such TT&amp;C operations and whether such TT&amp;C operations can, in fact, be successfully coordinated with other authorized spectrum users to avoid harmful interference. We also seek comment on whether TT&amp;C for emergent space operations could be provided in frequency bands allocated for radiocommunication services such as MSS or BSS, which often require use of frequency division or planned bands in order to avoid interference among spectrum users. Would such frequency bands also be able to accommodate TT&amp;C for emergent space operations on an unprotected, non-interference basis?</P>
                <P>32. In addition, we seek comment on whether applicants could be granted authority to provide TT&amp;C as a form of FSS in bands allocated for non-Federal FSS. We observe that FSS is defined as a “radiocommunication service between earth stations at given positions, when one or more satellites are used; the given position may be a specified fixed point or any fixed point within specified areas; in some cases this service includes satellite-to-satellite links, which may also be operated in the inter-satellite service; the FSS may also include feeder links of other space radiocommunication services.” Is the ability to provide TT&amp;C within the definition of FSS analogous to the ability to provide feeder links in such an allocation (that is, one way uplinks that are not between earth stations)? We expect, however, that TT&amp;C provided as FSS would be limited to the provision of TT&amp;C on an unprotected, non-interference basis, subject to coordination with other spectrum users, outside of a first-come, first service procedure or a processing round. We seek comment on this expectation.</P>
                <P>33. We also seek comment to what extent operations on an unprotected, non-interference basis are suitable for TT&amp;C functions, which may be critical to the command and control of a spacecraft. What level of availability and reliability is needed for command and control? Would it be in the public interest to facilitate TT&amp;C operations without providing absolute certainty of non-interference? As an example, would TT&amp;C on an unprotected, non-interference basis be sufficient for certain operators, such as those conducting rendezvous and proximity operations (RPO) and docking, or those operating inhabitable spacecraft?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Refining the Definition of TT&amp;C</HD>
                <P>
                    34. Section 2.1 of our rules defines space telecommand as “[t]he use of radiocommunication for the transmission of signals to a space station to initiate, modify or terminate 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17920"/>
                    functions of equipment on a space object, including the space station.” And space telemetry is defined as “[t]he use of telemetry for transmission for a space station of results of measurements made in a spacecraft, including those relating to the functioning of the spacecraft.” The Commission has previously recognized that service allocations for TT&amp;C, may not be sufficient for certain operators, such as those conducting RPO and docking, or those operating inhabitable spacecraft. The Commission also tentatively concluded that the definition of TT&amp;C need not be so narrowly construed as to exclude data downlink operations. We seek comment on a potential Commission interpretation of the definitions of space telecommand and space telemetry to include downlink of video and other data during maneuvers such as RPO or docking with other spacecraft. Can such operations be accommodated within the existing typical narrowband parameters of TT&amp;C bands? Can operations for inhabitable spacecraft be accommodated in TT&amp;C bands? What other operations besides RPO and docking could function in TT&amp;C bands? If the Commission adopts an interpretation of the definitions of TT&amp;C to include data downlink for RPO, docking, and/or other operations, should we specifically modify the definitions in our rules or add footnotes to the United States Table? We also seek comment on whether explicitly permitting video and other wideband data communications in allocations used for TT&amp;C could crowd out existing narrowband TT&amp;C operations or make it more difficult to permit TT&amp;C operations on an unprotected, non-interference basis. We seek comment on these questions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Clarifying That Spectrum Use Supporting Emergent Space Operations May Fall Within Existing Service Allocations</HD>
                <P>
                    35. The Commission tentatively concluded in the 
                    <E T="03">ISAM NPRM</E>
                     that radiocommunications in support of various ISAM operations could fit within numerous existing service allocation definitions and that Commission staff would assess whether an applicant's proposed communications fall within the applicant's desired service allocation(s) on a case-by-case basis. Our rules define service allocations according to the ITU definitions, and we rely on these definitions when we consider requests for frequency authorization as part of our licensing process. Commenters were generally supportive of permitting the use of any service allocation for communications in support of ISAM operations so long as the operator can demonstrate that the communications justifiably fit within the existing service allocation definition.
                </P>
                <P>36. Although we propose to continue to review requests to operate space stations within specific service allocations on a case-by-case basis to assess whether the proposed communications can justifiably fit within the definition of the service allocation, we observe the record has generated a number of comments that support the need for greater regulatory clarity to spur innovation in this space. For example, some commenters raise concerns that without affirmative signals from the Commission, some radiocommunication allocations, including the space research service, may not be accessible to ISAM operators due to uncertainty regarding the scope of the allocation definitions and challenges coordinating use of this spectrum with Federal operators. Other commenters disagree whether EESS should be expressly excluded from case-by-case consideration for ISAM missions. Commenters are chiefly concerned with the potential for interference to the important services provided through EESS passive and active remote sensing, especially in the EESS passive bands where “the signals emitted by EESS (passive) sensors are very weak compared to those emitted by active communication services.”</P>
                <P>37. We recognize that interference protection is very important for the EESS operations that commenters highlight, and that EESS passive operations can be particularly vulnerable to interference. Allowing operators to request the use of a particular existing service allocation for communications, however, does not permit unfettered access to all frequency bands. The ITU has established stringent recommendations for the protection of passive sensors from interference through ITU-R Recommendation RS.2017 “Performance and interference criteria for satellite remote sensing.” Additionally, our rules require applicants proposing to use specific frequencies to demonstrate compliance with ITU rules and recommendations. It is not our view that merely allowing operators to apply for frequency authorization using frequency bands that are allocated for passive use would make such bands available only to operators engaging in active use. Additionally, we observe that many EESS active operations have demonstrated an ability to share spectrum without the creation of harmful interference to other operators through our small satellite licensing process, which numerous EESS providers have used since its introduction in 2019. We seek comment on this view and observation. Although we certainly take seriously any potential for harmful interference to existing users, we tentatively conclude that we need not preemptively exclude the EESS allocations from case-by-case consideration altogether at this time. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion.</P>
                <P>38. In addition to our tentative conclusion not to exclude operators from applying to use frequencies in any service allocation in which their operations could justifiably fit, we specifically seek comment on applicants seeking to operate within the SRS allocation. Given the nascent stage of many emergent space operations, we propose to consider communications supporting them, particularly when funded by NASA or other federal research agencies, as falling within the definition of SRS. We seek comment on this proposed approach and specifically on what other steps the Commission could take to promote regulatory certainty for these operators. For example, could the uncertainty be resolved by adding a footnote to the United States Table in frequency bands allocated for Federal SRS specifically to permit operations of non-Federal operations funded or contracted by NASA or other federal research agencies? We also seek comment on the language of any such footnote and what additional conditions on such operations may be needed to protect Federal SRS operators from harmful interference.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Unlocking More Spectrum for Emergent Space Operations</HD>
                <P>
                    39. We seek comments on ways that spectrum that is already allocated for non-Federal use could be made available to address the need for spectrum to support emergent space operations. In particular, we seek comment whether such spectrum can be identified in frequency bands that may currently be used intensively by non-Federal spectrum users in certain geographic areas (such as urban, high-population areas, particularly in the contiguous 48 states (CONUS), but that may not be used in other geographic areas (such as rural areas in CONUS, or outside of CONUS and in U.S. Territories and Possessions). In order to avoid the challenges of coordinating non-Federal use of spectrum bands that are allocated primarily to Federal use, we are particularly interested in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17921"/>
                    identifying spectrum bands that either are not shared with Federal users, or that are shared with, but not used intensively by, Federal users and are allocated on a secondary basis for Federal use.
                </P>
                <P>40. Although our focus is on the specific frequency bands discussed below, we also seek comment on whether there are any additional bands that could satisfy the criteria identified above and that could potentially be used more intensively to provide TT&amp;C for emergent space operations. In all cases, our objective is to allow more intensive and flexible use of spectrum in a way that avoids interference or economic harm to existing spectrum users.</P>
                <P>41. As part of this process, we seek comment generally on what changes to the United States Table and our rules would need to be made to effectuate such more intensive use domestically, and the specific manner in which those changes could be effectuated (for example, by creation of an allocation or through a footnote to the United States Table). In addition, we seek comment on whether the flexible use, leasing/secondary markets, and competitive bidding proposals discussed in the specific frequency bands below could also be applied to other frequency bands in order to make additional spectrum resources available for emergent space operations. We also generally seek comment on what, if any changes, are needed internationally to effectuate these changes, either through the ITU or through bi-lateral or multi-lateral agreements with other countries.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. 2320-2345 MHz Band</HD>
                <P>42. As an example of the type of more intensive spectrum use discussed above, we propose to add a secondary allocation for SOS (Earth-to-space) in the 2320-2345 MHz band in the non-Federal column of the United States Table, and to permit the existing exclusive licensee within this frequency band in the United States, SiriusXM, to lease portions of its spectrum to earth station licensees for command of spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services to the public. We discuss the history and current use of the 2320-2345 MHz band below, as well as the specifics of the proposal and possible alternatives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. History and Current Use</HD>
                <P>43. The history and current use of the 2320-2345 MHz band are important factors in proposing to make this spectrum available to address the needs of emergent space operations. The 2320-2345 MHz band occupies 25 megahertz of spectrum and is used to provide Satellite Digital Audio Radio Service (SDARS) in the United States, as well as parts of Canada. It is divided equally between two separate, but co-owned, SDARS networks, Sirius and XM. The Commission's rules define SDARS—commonly known as “satellite radio”—as “[a]radiocommunication service in which audio programming is digitally transmitted by one or more space stations directly to fixed, mobile, and/or portable stations, and which may involve complementary repeating terrestrial transmitters, telemetry, tracking and control facilities.” Thus, SDARS is primarily a satellite-delivered service in which programming is sent directly from satellites to subscriber receivers either at a fixed location or in motion.</P>
                <P>44. The Commission awarded licenses to provide SDARS within the United States by auction in 1997. XM and Sirius launched initial satellites and began commercial operations in 2001 and 2002, respectively. The two companies merged in 2008 to form a single company—Sirius XM Radio, Inc. (SiriusXM)—but the merged entity continues to operate the Sirius and XM systems as separate networks and there are still separate licenses for each system. Currently, SiriusXM and its subsidiary companies have licenses for geostationary-satellite orbit (GSO) space stations operating at the nominal 85° West Longitude (W.L.) and 115° W.L. orbital locations, which transmit in the space-to-Earth direction to subscriber terminals in the 2320-2345 MHz band, with fixed earth stations providing uplinks in the 7.025-7.075 GHz band. On-station TT&amp;C for SiriusXM's satellites is provided in the X-band for command uplinks and S-band for telemetry downlinks. SiriusXM reported it had approximately 32.8 million subscribers as of June 30, 2025.</P>
                <P>45. The 2320-2345 MHz band is part of a larger block of spectrum from 2305-2360 MHz that is divided between SDARS and Wireless Communications Services (WCS) licensees. In 1996, Congress directed that this block of spectrum be reallocated from Federal to non-Federal use and auctioned.</P>
                <P>46. Within the 2320-2345 MHz band, SiriusXM operates a network of terrestrial repeaters in the center portion of each of the two 12.5 megahertz assigned to Sirius and XM (2320.0-2332.5 MHz and 2332.5-2345 MHz). Because a direct line of sight is generally required to receive an acceptable satellite signal, ground-based terrestrial repeaters are used in many areas to re-transmit the same signals provided by satellites directly to subscribers in order to maintain adequate signal power. SiriusXM may also provide telemetry beacons in each of these assignments.</P>
                <P>47. Domestically, the 2320-2345 MHz band is allocated on a primary basis for non-Federal BSS, which includes SDARS. Footnote US327 to the United States Table states that the band is allocated to BSS (sound) and complementary terrestrial repeaters on a primary basis, and such use is limited to digital audio broadcasting. The United States Table provides Federal allocations for fixed service and radiolocation service on a secondary basis, subject to a footnote that recognizes the primary allocation for BSS (sound) and restricts radiolocation service in this band to the military services.</P>
                <P>48. Internationally, the 2300-2450 MHz band is allocated in ITU Regions 2 &amp; 3 to radiolocation services and fixed and mobile terrestrial services on a primary basis, and to the amateur service on a secondary basis. In ITU Region 1, the 2300-2450 MHz band is allocated to fixed and mobile services on a primary basis, and amateur and radiolocation services on a secondary basis. There are no allocations for satellite services internationally in the 2300-2450 MHz band in any of the three ITU regions, but international footnote 5.393 does allocate the 2310-2360 MHz band to BSS (sound) on a primary basis in Canada, the United States, and India. Currently, BSS (sound) in the 2310-2360 MHz band is being provided solely in the United States and parts of Canada through SiriusXM. The United States entered into bilateral agreements with Canada and Mexico regarding the provision of SDARS, which remain in force.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Suitability for Space Ops</HD>
                <P>
                    49. We tentatively find that three factors make the 2320-2345 MHz band particularly well suited for more intensive use for TT&amp;C in support of emergent space operations. First, the 2320-2345 MHz band is located within the S-band and is in relatively close spectrum proximity to the 2025-2110 MHz (Earth-to-space) and 2200-2290 MHz (space-to-Earth) bands already used for Federal space operations. As observed above, these two bands are frequently requested for TT&amp;C operations in support of ISAM and other spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services. Although there is significant separation between these Federal S-bands and the 2320-2345 MHz band, the propagation characteristics of the spectrum and the antennas and radios used to transmit and receive are expected to be similar 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17922"/>
                    for both the Federal S-bands and the 2320-2345 MHz band. Accordingly, we have reason to expect that, from a technical perspective, the 2320-2345 MHz could be readily used to provide space operation services in a manner adequately equivalent to the Federal S-bands. We seek comment on these observations and expectations.
                </P>
                <P>50. Second, there are very few spectrum users of the 2320-2345 MHz band in the United States. SiriusXM acquired exclusive use of the 2320-2345 MHz band at auction in 1997. No other non-Federal operators are licensed to operate in the 2320-2345 MHz band in the United States. Likewise, there are no primary allocations for Federal operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band. As such, we expect that the ability of new spectrum users to operate within the 2320-2345 MHz band in the United States are not heavily constrained by incumbent operations, other than the operations of SiriusXM and incumbent WCS operations in adjacent spectrum blocks. We seek comment on this expectation.</P>
                <P>51. Third, SiriusXM does not use the 2320-2345 MHz band uniformly throughout the United States. Because of the location of its satellites in geostationary orbit at the nominal 85° and 115° W.L. orbital locations, none of the existing SiriusXM satellites provide service to subscribers in Hawaii, or in the northern portions of Alaska, which we characterize as being north of Anchorage. For example, a review of the coverage footprints presented in the 2320-2345 MHz band downlinks for the newest SiriusXM satellites shows that neither satellite intends to use those downlinks in northern Alaska. This is not surprising given that satellites located on the equatorial plane, such as GSO satellites, appear very low on the horizon to earth stations located in far northern and southern latitudes and are susceptible to increased signal blockage and attenuation from such a low angle on the horizon. Similarly, SiriusXM satellites do not provide downlinks in the 2320-2345 MHz band to Hawaii or to U.S. Territories and Possessions in the Pacific, since the footprints of the service areas of existing SDARS satellites are focused on CONUS. Although SiriusXM may elect to provide service into northern Alaska, Hawaii, and U.S. Territories and Possessions in the future, currently it has not proven feasible to do so under its existing deployment of satellites. We seek comment on these observations.</P>
                <P>52. In addition, although the 25 megahertz of spectrum in the 2320-2345 MHz band is less than the spectrum available in the 2025-2110 MHz and 2200-2290 MHz bands, 25 megahertz could nonetheless provide meaningful additional spectrum resources for space operations. Currently, non-Federal operations do not have access to the full 85 megahertz of spectrum in the 2025-2110 MHz band due to its heavy use by Federal operations and the need to avoid particular frequencies within the Federal S-band altogether. As a result, only a portion of the Federal S-band is able to be coordinated for non-Federal use. Because TT&amp;C functions are not always transmitting and employ narrowband signals, often 100 kilohertz in bandwidth or less, we anticipate that a large number of TT&amp;C communications can be accommodated in the 25 megahertz of the 2320-2345 MHz band, particularly if multiple earth station uplink sites can be coordinated with SiriusXM. Accordingly, we tentatively conclude that making the 2320-2345 MHz band accessible for TT&amp;C could meaningfully supplement or replace, at least in part, the requested use for non-Federal operations in the Federal S-bands. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion and the reasoning that underlies it.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Proposal for Secondary Allocation for SOS in 2320-2345 MHz Band</HD>
                <P>53. We propose to create a secondary allocation for SOS in the 2320-2345 MHz band in the non-Federal column of the United States Table in the Earth-to-space direction. We propose a new allocation because the current allocations in the band in the United States Table do not provide for satellite communications other than BSS (sound) in the space-to-Earth direction. We also propose to add this allocation on a secondary basis to provide status for the TT&amp;C operations, but to make clear that they are secondary to the primary use of the band for BSS (sound) in the space-to-Earth direction. These two proposals balance the desire for more intensive use of the band for satellite communications with the need to protect the operations of SiriusXM in a band from harmful interference in which it is exclusively authorized to operate throughout the United States. We seek comment on these two proposals and on our objective in balancing the interests of more intensive spectrum use and the need to protect SiriusXM's use of the band.</P>
                <P>54. We tentatively conclude that an SOS allocation in the Earth-to-space direction is less likely to cause interference to SiriusXM's operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band than an allocation in the space-to-Earth direction. SiriusXM provides sensitive service links to subscribers in the 2320-2345 MHz band in the space-to-Earth direction. We observe that allowing other space stations to transmit in the 2320-2345 MHz band could risk causing harmful signal degradation to those service links, which could in turn cause subscribers to become dissatisfied with their service and to cancel their subscriptions to SiriusXM, causing significant economic harm to SiriusXM. Even if space stations were restricted by rule to transmitting solely into a particular geographic area where there are unlikely to be SiriusXM subscribers, such as northern Alaska, there remains the risk of disruption to SiriusXM's subscribers if a space station, even inadvertently, does not comply with that restriction and transmits over CONUS in the 2320-2345 MHz band. Earth-to-space operations in the 2320-2345 MHz bands can be more easily and reliably geographically restricted, with terrain and distance attenuating the risk of any interference from Earth-to-space use of the 2320-2345 MHz band into SiriusXM's downlink operations in the same band in CONUS. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion and the observations underlying it, as well as whether it may be possible to allow downlinks in the 2320-2345 MHz band through a secondary SOS allocation or footnote to the United States Table, without causing interference or economic harm to SiriusXM. We also propose that any applicant seeking Commission authority to operate an earth station in the 2320-2345 MHz band under this secondary allocation must certify that the proposed operations in the band have been coordinated with and approved by SiriusXM to ensure that SiriusXM's operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band are strongly safeguarded from interference. We seek comment on this certification proposal.</P>
                <P>
                    55. We also seek comment on whether any technical or legal requirements need to be adopted by the Commission and codified in our rules in order to provide reasonable certainty as to what kind of operations are permitted under this secondary allocation. For example, would power limits, antenna elevation angle restrictions, or further geographical limitations help to protect SiriusXM and spectrum users outside of the 2320-2345 MHz band from potential harmful interference from earth stations transmitting in the 2320-2345 MHz band? Would such limits and restrictions also provide certainty to potential spectrum lessees as to the parameters of what operations could be provided? We observe that our rules place power limits and out of band 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17923"/>
                    emission limits on SiriusXM terrestrial repeaters in the 2320-2345 MHz band in order to protect WCS licensees in adjacent bands from harmful interference. Could such power and out of band emission limitations be extrapolated to earth station operations in a way that provides similar protection to WCS licensees from earth station uplink transmissions in the 2320-2345 MHz band? Would limiting operations of earth stations to areas of northern Alaska mitigate the risk of harmful interference to spectrum users, particularly WCS licensees, in adjacent and nearby bands, given the sparse population density and rugged geography of northern Alaska? If so, how would we define these areas in a way that is objective and clear? We seek comment on these questions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Proposal To Permit Leased Spectrum in 2320-2345 MHz Band</HD>
                <P>56. We propose to permit SiriusXM to lease use of the 2320-2345 MHz band spectrum to earth station licensees that will use the frequencies to provide command uplinks in support of emergent space operations. This proposal aligns with, but is not identical to, the ability of wireless radio service licensees to lease spectrum under our existing secondary markets policy and rules. We seek comment on how the leasing proposal for the 2320-2345 MHz band aligns generally with our secondary markets policy and rules.</P>
                <P>57. In 2000, the Commission adopted a policy statement setting forth the Commission's plans for facilitating secondary markets for radio spectrum to allow and encourage licensees to make all or portions of their assigned frequencies and/or service areas available to other entities and uses. The Commission found that such secondary market transactions would complement the primary assignment function performed by the Commission through its spectrum auctions and licensing processes. It also found that, while secondary markets are not a substitute for finding additional spectrum when needed, and should not supplant spectrum allocation processes, a robust and effective secondary market for spectrum usage rights could help alleviate spectrum shortages by making unused or underutilized spectrum held by existing licensees more readily available to other users and uses and help to promote the development of new, spectrum efficient technologies.</P>
                <P>
                    58. The Commission first adopted rules to implement the secondary markets policy in 2003. Although the Commission expressly declined to adopt secondary market rules for satellite services at that time, it did establish rules whereby certain wireless radio service licensees could lease their spectrum to other entities under arrangements that are suited to the parties' respective needs. Under our existing secondary market rules, terrestrial wireless licensee lessors and their lessees have two spectrum leasing options that each provide different rights and responsibilities for the wireless licensee and lessee: 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfer leasing arrangements; and spectrum manager leasing arrangements. Under either leasing option, the lessor and the lessee may choose to enter into a long-term (more than one year) or short-term (one year or less) arrangement. Spectrum manager leasing arrangements generally do not require prior Commission approval; rather, the licensee/lessor must notify the Commission in advance of commencing operations. In contrast, 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfer spectrum leasing arrangements are typically subject to the Commission's general approval procedures, under which the Commission must grant the application prior to the parties putting the proposed spectrum leasing arrangement into effect.
                </P>
                <P>
                    59. We seek comment on whether a variation of the 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfer leasing arrangement may be an efficient and effective way to encourage SiriusXM to make the 2320-2345 MHz band available to earth station licensees on an expedited basis. As proposed above, any earth station licensee that seeks to operate in the 2320-2345 MHz band would have to certify that its proposed operations have been coordinated with and approved by SiriusXM in order to avoid harmful interference to SiriusXM's current and potential operations. We propose that no authorization for such uplinks will be accepted for filing absent such coordination and approval. We also propose that any existing authority to operate in the 2320-2345 MHz band will be conditioned on such coordination and approval, and the authority will terminate automatically unless the licensee maintains coordination with and approval by SiriusXM. Such coordination is likely to require expenditure of resources by SiriusXM, or the forgoing of future rights to operate in certain areas, for the benefit of third party spectrum users. As such, we tentatively conclude it is reasonable for SiriusXM to require financial compensation for the expenditures under these conditions. For these reasons, we tentatively conclude that SiriusXM and potential earth station licensees should be permitted to reach private arrangements suited to each party's needs, including financial consideration, in order to permit the use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for uplink TT&amp;C functions to support emergent space operations. Such private leasing arrangements would provide incentive for SiriusXM to make as much of its spectrum rapidly available for use by others as feasible, while still maintaining protection from interference for its own operations in the band. We seek comment on these tentative conclusions, proposals, and reasoning underlying them.
                </P>
                <P>
                    60. Under this leasing proposal, private spectrum leasing arrangements with SiriusXM can be made with earth station licensees for individual earth stations or for multiple earth stations. They also can be made for earth stations communicating with the earth station licensee's own space stations, or through an earth station licensee that provides Ground-Station-as-a-Service (GSaaS) for multiple third-party space stations. We seek comment on whether there are efficiencies to be gained from conducting TT&amp;C for emergent space operations as GSaaS, rather than having each space station license also build its own facilities for TT&amp;C. For example, these efficiencies could include reducing the overall number of earth stations that need to be constructed, coordinated, and licensed, or facilitating the ability of TT&amp;C to be provided on an unprotected and non-interference basis through a single GSaaS licensee acting as a 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     spectrum coordinator. We seek comment on these questions.
                </P>
                <P>61. We also propose that space stations can be authorized by the Commission to receive in the 2320-2345 MHz band without needing to certify that such use has been coordinated with and approved by SiriusXM, but such authority would be limited to reception of commands from earth stations licensed by the FCC or from earth stations located outside of the United States. For reception of commands in the 2320-2345 MHz from earth stations located outside the United States, we tentatively see no harm should such TT&amp;C uplinks be permitted outside the United States, since SiriusXM satellites do not receive in the 2320-2345 MHz band and there are no SiriusXM subscribers outside the United States, with the exception of Canada. We seek comment on these proposals for earth and space station applications in the 2320-2345 MHz band.</P>
                <P>
                    62. We also propose, unlike the spectrum leasing arrangements under our secondary markets policy and rules, lessees of the 2320-2345 MHz band will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17924"/>
                    be licensed for earth stations under the proposal made today. As proposed above, entities wishing to use the 2320-2345 MHz band to provide command uplinks must still obtain an earth station license from the Commission prior to transmitting in the band and will be subject to all licensing and regulatory requirements applicable to earth station licensees. A review of the license application will allow the Commission to review the lessee's qualifications under section 310 of the Act. We seek comment on this proposal and whether instead the Commission should seek to adopt the requirements for approving long and short term 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfers of control of spectrum under our spectrum leasing rules applicable to wireless radio services, which generally presume that no separate Commission license is needed to permit the operations using leased spectrum.
                </P>
                <P>
                    63. We also seek comment on whether a variation of the spectrum manager lease approach could be adopted in the 2320-2345 MHz band in which SiriusXM retains legal control and remains primarily responsible for ensuring lessees' compliance with our rules and policies We seek comment on whether requiring a license for the earth station operations in the leased spectrum would allow better assurance that interference is not caused to SiriusXM or other adjacent spectrum users and would allow the Commission to check compliance with any geographic areas restrictions on the use of the spectrum. The Commission would still review the qualifications of the lessees through their applications to operate earth stations using the leased spectrum, and the use of the leased spectrum would be expressly authorized by the Commission through the earth station licenses. As a result, we tentatively conclude that the 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfer lease approach (modified by requiring an earth station license) avoids the need for potentially complicated notification and eligibility requirements designed under the spectrum manager lease approach to address compliance of the lessee with our rules and policies. We seek comment on this approach and tentative conclusions, as well as whether we should adopt a spectrum manager approach instead of a 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfer approach.
                </P>
                <P>
                    64. We also seek comment on whether SiriusXM is obliged to lease or coordinate use by others of its exclusive use spectrum under the leased spectrum, secondary markets proposal above, or under any of the alternatives discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                     We also seek comment on whether the incentives provided by the leased spectrum, secondary markets proposal would make additional spectrum resources available more quickly and efficiently than a process that provides no incentives for SiriusXM to forego use of its exclusive use spectrum and to expend resources on coordination solely for the benefit of other potential spectrum users.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. International Issues</HD>
                <P>65. We seek comment on any international issues that may arise from our proposal to allow the use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks to non-communications satellites. We tentatively conclude that authorizing earth stations in the United States to transmit in the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplink would be unlikely to cause harmful interference to spectrum users in other countries that do not share borders with the United States. As observed above, only the United States, India, and Canada stated an intent to use this band for satellite communications, and only the United States and Canada are actually using the band for satellite communications. In the remainder of the world, this band is used for terrestrial fixed and mobile communications. The geographic distance between transmitting earth stations in the United States and the terrestrial operations of other countries is likely to attenuate greatly any in-band or out of band emissions, thereby avoiding interference to those terrestrial operations. We seek comment on this observation and the potential of interference to the terrestrial operations of other countries. In addition, the current bilateral agreements with Canada and Mexico do not address such Earth-to-space operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band. To what extent would the United States need to request changes to those agreements in order to implement the proposal, if it is adopted? We also seek comment on whether space stations could receive commands in the 2320-2345 MHz band, on either a protected or unprotected basis, consistent with the ITU Radio Regulations, absent an allocation for SOS in the International Table.</P>
                <P>66. We also seek comment on to what extent other countries might explore ways to authorize earth stations to provide command uplinks in the 2320-2345 MHz band if there is sufficient demand globally for such services. We observe that global networks of TT&amp;C facilities are often used for NGSO spacecraft that do not remain fixed relative to a location on the earth, unlike GSO spacecraft. Although the 2320-2345 MHz band is allocated on a primary basis for terrestrial fixed and mobile service in the rest of the world, and is not allocated for satellite communications, individual countries may be amenable to licensing earth stations at fixed locations to uplink in this band, if those uplinks would not cause harmful interference to terrestrial and mobile services in the band. Of course, this is a matter of decision for the regulatory authorities of other countries, but we seek comment on these observations and whether world-wide facilities are needed to provide TT&amp;C in the 2320-2345 MHz band to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services to the public.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Potential Alternatives</HD>
                <P>67. We seek comment on alternatives to the specific proposals above. In particular, we seek comment on whether allowing the use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks to non-communication satellites or spacecraft could be better effectuated through a non-governmental (NG) footnote to the United States Table than through a secondary allocation. For example, the footnote could state that “the frequency band 2320-2345 MHz can also be used for command uplinks to non-Federal space stations in the Earth-to-space direction.” If additional restrictions are desired on those operations, such as limiting them to a particular geographic area, those restrictions could be incorporated into the text of the footnote. In this regard, such restrictions may not be necessary in the footnote, since the footnote would only apply in the United States to non-Federal communications, such that any such transmitting earth stations conducting those communications would need to be licensed by the Commission and would have to comply with any Commission rules that could also set forth restrictions on use of the band. We seek comment on the possible advantages and disadvantages of allowing use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks in the Earth-to-space direction by footnote, in addition to or in lieu of a secondary allocation for SOS, and what should be the specific language of any such footnote.</P>
                <P>
                    68. We also seek comment on whether to allow earth stations to provide command uplinks to non-communications satellites in the 2320-2345 MHz band within a defined geographic area, such as an area of northern Alaska defined by latitude, without requiring coordination and approval of SiriusXM. If SiriusXM 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17925"/>
                    satellites do not currently provide service into these areas, there may not be need for coordination and approval prior to operations to avoid harmful interference to SiriusXM operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band. Although such a process would obviate the need for SiriusXM to lease spectrum or to spend resources reviewing coordination requests, is it possible to adequately define the area of operations where coordination would not be necessary? Is it possible to foresee and address potential cases of harmful interference in advance and to adopt rules to prevent them, rather than relying on the parties to address potential harmful interference concerns on a case-by-case basis, and to reach an arrangement suitable to both parties? Does such a process take into account the fact that SiriusXM maintains the ability to provide service in all of the United States? We seek comment on these questions.
                </P>
                <P>69. In addition, we seek comment on whether there are other market mechanisms, such as competitive bidding, that could be used to effectuate the efficient and expeditious use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks consistent with statutory limitations. For example, could the Commission auction earth station licenses to operate in the United States, using the 2320-2345 MHz band spectrum that may not be internationally allocated for satellite communications? We seek comment on whether more intensive use of the band could be effectuated by auctioning the use to bidders who value the spectrum the highest for operations in a particular geographic area, for example by auctioning the use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks in a specific geographic area to a single earth station licensee. If so, how would we define those geographic areas? Are any restrictions or other limitations needed on what entities are eligible to bid for the spectrum use in a geographic area? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <P>
                    70. We also seek comment on our statutory authority to use auctions to authorize earth station operations using the 2320-2345 MHz band. The Open-market Reorganization for the Betterment of International Telecommunications Act, enacted in 2000 (ORBIT Act), prohibits the Commission from assigning orbital locations or spectrum used for the provision of international or global satellite communications services through competitive bidding (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     auctions). This prohibition, codified at 47 U.S.C. 765f, was intended to prevent the imposition of auction-based licensing regimes on international satellite operators, which could lead to burdensome and duplicative auction requirements in multiple jurisdictions. We ask for comment on these questions in the specific context of our proposals to authorize earth stations to provide command uplinks to non-communication satellites and spacecraft in the 2320-2345 MHz band. Does the fact that the proposal does not seek to use competitive bidding for orbital locations comport with both the letter and intent of the ORBIT Act? Does the fact that SiriusXM provides SDARS service into Canada in the 2320-2345 MHz band transform the band into spectrum “that is used for the provision of international or global satellite communications services,” even though the purpose for which the 2320-2345 MHz band could be used is not SDARS, but SOS, which is not currently being provided in the 2320-2345 MHz band anywhere in the world? Are SOS or TT&amp;C “international or global satellite communications services” as that term is used in the ORBIT Act?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Possible Application to Other Frequency Bands</HD>
                <P>71. We seek comment on whether there are frequency bands, besides the 2320-2345 MHz band, that are allocated for non-Federal use that could be used more intensively to address the need for spectrum for emergent space operations. Although the 2320-2345 MHz band appears particularly promising due to the exclusive use of the band by a single non-Federal licensee, low level of use by Federal operations, and the proximity of the spectrum to existing S-band spectrum that is in high demand, we seek comment on whether there are other frequency bands that also possess these characteristics. In particular, we seek comment on whether frequency bands adjacent to the 2320-2345 MHz band could also be made available, in the same or similar manner as the proposals for the 2320-2345 MHz band, for the provision of command uplinks to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz</HD>
                <P>72. On each side of the 2320-2345 MHz band that is used for SDARS subscriber downlinks are five megahertz of spectrum that served as “guard band” spectrum between SDARS and WCS operations in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands. These two spectrum bands, known as WCS Blocks C &amp; D, were acquired by SiriusXM in 2024. We seek comment on whether these two 5-megahertz spectrum bands could also be used to provide command uplinks similar to the proposed use in the 2320-2345 MHz band.</P>
                <P>
                    73. If the 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz bands were to be used to provide command uplinks similar to the proposed use of the 2320-2345 MHz band, the same mechanisms—adding a secondary allocation for SOS or by adding a footnote to the non-Federal column of the United States Table—could be used to implement such use. Likewise, we propose that any use of the bands by applicants for earth station licenses would require certification that the proposed operations have been coordinated with and approved by SiriusXM and subject to any spectrum leasing regimes that may be adopted for the 2320-2345 MHz band. We seek comment on the use of the 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz bands for uplink commands to non-communications satellites. We also seek comment on use of these bands under any of the alternatives discussed above. In addition, footnote US100 provides for use of the 2345-2360 MHz band for Federal aeronautical telemetering and associated telecommand operations for flight testing of manned or unmanned aircraft, missiles, or major components thereof, on a secondary basis to WCS. Would additional technical or geographic restrictions on earth station uplinks in the 2345-2350 MHz band be necessary to protect such Federal secondary allocations from harmful interference? Footnote US97 states that WCS base stations in the 2305-2320 MHz band must be subject to a coordination agreement with NASA prior to operations within 145 kilometers of Goldstone, California. Would additional technical or geographic restrictions be necessary to protect the NASA radioastronomy site in Goldstone from harmful interference in the 2315-2320 MHz band, as required for WCS base stations operating in that band under footnote US97? Would a requirement for prior coordination of any earth stations seeking to provide command uplinks in the 2315-2320 MHz band within 145 kilometers of Goldstone be adequate to provide the same level of protection that NASA currently has for WCS operations in the 2305-2320 MHz band? The near adjacent 2360-2395 MHz band is allocated on a primary basis for Federal and non-Federal aeronautical mobile telemetry (AMT) for flight testing, and WCS base station operations in the 2345-2360 MHz band must be coordinated to ensure AMT receive stations are protected. Would additional technical or geographic restrictions on earth station uplinks in the 2345-2350 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17926"/>
                    MHz band be necessary to protect Federal and non-Federal flight test operations in the 2360-2395 MHz band from harmful interference caused by SOS out-of-band emissions? We also seek comment on the impact that use of the 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz bands for command uplinks could have on the proposed use of these bands by SiriusXM for the provision of public safety communication services originating from SiriusXM satellites.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz</HD>
                <P>74. We seek comment on whether a secondary allocation for SOS could also be made in the 2310-2320 MHz band and 2350-2360 MHz band in the non-Federal column of the United States Table in the Earth-to-space direction and whether to allow WCS licensees, particularly AT&amp;T, to lease the use of the spectrum that they acquired through competitive bidding to earth station licensees to provide uplink commands to non-communications satellites in a manner similar to that proposed for the 2320-2345 MHz band.</P>
                <P>75. As observed above, the 2320-2345 MHz band is part of a larger block of spectrum from 2305-2360 MHz that is divided between WCS and SDARS licensees. Within this block of spectrum, 2305-2310 MHz is allocated on a primary basis to non-Federal operations in the fixed, mobile (except aeronautical mobile), and radiolocation services. There is also a secondary non-Federal allocation for the amateur service. There are no Federal allocations in 2305-2310 MHz, although footnote G122 provides that Federal operations may be authorized on a non-interference basis to authorized non-Federal operations and shall not constrain the implementation of any non-Federal operation. In addition, footnote US97 states that space-to-Earth operations in the 2305-2310 MHz band are prohibited, and that WCS base stations in the 2305-2320 MHz band must be subject to a coordination agreement with NASA prior to operations within 145 kilometers of Goldstone, California.</P>
                <P>76. The 2310-2320 MHz band has primary allocations for non-Federal fixed, mobile, and radiolocation services, as well as a primary allocation for BSS (sound). There are secondary allocations in this band for Federal fixed, mobile, and radiolocation services. The 2310-2320 MHz band also is subject to footnote US97. Footnote US100 also provides for use of the band for Federal aeronautical telemetering and associated telecommand operations for flight testing of manned or unmanned aircraft, missiles, or major components thereof, on a secondary basis to WCS, and that 2312.5 MHz is shared on a co-equal basis by Federal stations for telemetering and associated telecommand operations of expendable and reusable launch vehicles. Footnote US100 also provides that other Federal mobile telemetering uses may be provided in the 2310-2320 MHz band on a non-interference basis to all other uses authorized pursuant to footnote US100.</P>
                <P>77. The 2345-2360 MHz band has the same allocations as the 2310-2320 MHz band, and is also subject to footnotes G2, US100, and US327. Provisions of footnote US100 that made the 2324-2360 MHz band available for non-Federal aeronautical telemetering and telecommand flight testing operations on a secondary basis to WCS expired on January 1, 2020.</P>
                <P>78. WCS was established in 1997. Mutually exclusive initial applications for WCS in the 2305-2320 MHz and 2345-2360 MHz bands are subject to competitive bidding, and in 1997 the Commission auctioned and issued 128 WCS licenses. WCS licenses are issued by FCC market areas and channel blocks, with 12 Regional Economic Area Groupings (REAG) and 52 Major Economic Areas (MEA). Blocks A (2305-2310 MHz and 2350-2355 MHz) and B (2310-2315 MHz and 2355-2360 MHz) are issued by MEAs, and blocks C (2315-2320 MHz) and D (2345-2350 MHz) are issued by REAGs. AT&amp;T currently holds all WCS licenses in Blocks A and B. Thus, similar to SiriusXM in the 2320-2345 MHz band, AT&amp;T has exclusive use of the Block A and B licenses in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands.</P>
                <P>79. We seek comment on whether, for the same reasons discussed above for the 2320-2345 MHz band, the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands could be well suited for more intensive use for command uplinks in support of emergent space operations. First, the two bands are also relatively close in proximity to the Federal S-band spectrum that is currently being requested for command and control of ISAM and other spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services to the public. In addition, allowing leased use of the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands for command uplinks would provide nearly contiguous 45 megahertz of S-band spectrum, or 55 megahertz of contiguous S-band spectrum if the 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz bands were also allowed leased use for command uplinks. Second, there are relatively few existing licensed users of the bands, with AT&amp;T having exclusive, or near exclusive use, of the bands in the United States. Finally, similar to the situation with SiriusXM, AT&amp;T does not operate in Blocks A and B uniformly throughout its licensed areas, and there may be geographical areas where earth stations may be able to transmit without causing harmful interference to AT&amp;T's current or future operations. We expect that this may be particularly true in remote and rural areas, such as northern Alaska. We seek comment on these observations and expectations.</P>
                <P>80. We also seek comment on whether the same general framework could be implemented for making spectrum available in the 2305-2320 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands that was discussed for the 2320-2345 MHz band, that is, adding a secondary allocation for SOS in the bands or alternatively adding a footnote to the United States Table to permit SOS in the bands, and allowing AT&amp;T to lease use of its spectrum in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands (Blocks A and B) to earth station licensees to provide command uplinks to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services, subject to a certification by the earth station licensee that the proposed operations have been coordinated with and approved by AT&amp;T. We observe that the Commission already permits leased access to WCS spectrum, including that held currently by AT&amp;T, through secondary market mechanisms, although those mechanisms are limited to the provision of wireless radio services and do not apply to use of the spectrum by earth stations to provide SOS. We seek comment on what changes to our rules would be necessary to permit AT&amp;T to lease use of its Block A and B WCS spectrum for use by earth station licensees to provide command uplinks in support of emergent space operations. Are there any concerns for such leasing of spectrum by AT&amp;T that are not implicated by the proposed leasing of the 2320-2345 MHz band by SiriusXM? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <P>
                    81. We also seek comment on whether there should be any technical or geographic restrictions or limitations on the use of the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands that are different from technical or geographic restrictions in the 2320-2345 MHz band. For example, footnote US100 provides for use of the 2310-2320 MHz band and 2345-2360 MHz band for Federal aeronautical telemetering and associated telecommand operations for flight testing of manned or unmanned aircraft, missiles, or major components thereof, on a secondary basis to WCS. We also seek comment on whether coordination with Aerospace and Flight Test Radio 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17927"/>
                    Coordinating Council (AFTRCC) and Federal AMT coordinators would be needed to protect AMT operations in the 2360-2395 MHz band, much as WCS base stations operating in the 2350-2360 MHz band must coordinated today with AFTRCC. Would additional technical or geographic restrictions on earth station uplinks in these bands be necessary to protect such Federal secondary allocations from harmful interference? Similarly, would additional technical or geographic restrictions be necessary to protect the NASA radioastronomy site in Goldstone from harmful interference in the 2305-2320 MHz band, as required for WCS base stations operating in that band under footnote US97? Would a requirement for prior coordination of any earth stations seeking to provide command uplinks in the 2305-2320 MHz band within 145 kilometers of Goldstone be adequate to provide the same level of protection that NASA currently has for WCS operations in the 2305-2320 MHz band? Would new earth station uplink operations be compatible with sensitive Moon bounce operations conducted under the amateur radio service in the 2305-2310 MHz band? We also seek comment on whether it may be possible to allow downlinks in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands through a secondary SOS allocation or footnote to the United States Table, without causing interference or economic harm to WCS licensees or other authorized Federal or non-Federal spectrum users in the same or adjacent spectrum bands.
                </P>
                <P>82. We also seek comment on any international issues that may arise from our proposal to allow the use of the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands for command uplinks to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services. We observe that these bands are subject to the same allocations internationally as the 2320-2345 MHz band. Are any differences expected in the potential for interference to spectrum users outside of the United States from those addressed above in the context of our proposal for the 2320-2345 MHz band? Would any changes to the current bilateral agreements with Canada and Mexico be needed to address Earth-to-space operations in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands that would not be needed to address such operations in the 2320-2345 MHz band? Could stations could receive commands in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands, on either a protected or unprotected basis, consistent with the ITU Radio Regulations, absent an allocation for SOS in the International Table? To what extent might other countries explore ways to authorize earth stations to provide command uplinks in the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands if there is sufficient demand globally for such services? If other countries allow use of these bands for SOS, could such frequencies be considered to be spectrum “that is used for the provision of international or global satellite communications services” under the ORBIT Act? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <P>83. We also seek comment on whether any future auctions involving WCS license that are currently in inventory might specifically address the ability of future WCS licensees to lease spectrum to earth station licensees to provide command uplinks to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services. We observe that there are ten WCS licenses in the Pacific Island REAG that are in the Commission's inventory of spectrum. Would the value of such licenses be increased in an auction if the winner would also be able to lease spectrum to earth station licensees to provide command uplinks to spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services? Would the ability of earth station licensees to provide such command uplinks in the Pacific Islands be useful in creating a global network of TT&amp;C facilities that are often used for NGSO spacecraft? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Intersatellite Links</HD>
                <P>84. We seek comment on whether licensed satellite operators should be authorized by rule to use their FCC-licensed satellites and intersatellite links to provide TT&amp;C and data downlinks in support of emergent space operations, without the need to file a modification or obtain additional authorization from the Commission. We expect that such authorization could provide additional spectrum because it will allow the use of off-the-shelf equipment, such as MSS user terminals, and already established ground and space infrastructure. Additionally, we expect such authorization could open up a new avenue of business for established NGSO or GSO space station licensees if there is a regulatory framework for clear authorization for these kinds of radiofrequency communications. We seek comment on these expectations.</P>
                <P>85. Many spacecraft that are used to test technologies or perform experiments on-orbit do not have large antennas. This is largely due to financial and launch constraints, and the need for satellites to be small. Since the spacecraft are not intended to provide radiocommunication service to the public, much of a spacecraft's mass could be taken up by non-radio equipment, such as robot arms or other tools, and radios and antennas will need to be as small as possible. As a result, many small satellites and experimental satellites rely on intersatellite links whereby one satellite sends data and TT&amp;C information to the ground via another satellite system. The Commission has experience with this kind of arrangement for experimental part 5 satellite applications and Iridium companion filings. In this arrangement, an experimental satellite operator files a part 5 application for experimental authority and the other satellite system then files a companion application for part 5 experimental authority to communicate with the other experimental satellite using its constellation that is licensed under part 25. We observe that this can be a cost-effective way for many new companies to deploy experimental satellites because they do not have to invest in large antennas or an extensive ground station network. We seek comment on this observation.</P>
                <P>86. We seek comment on allowing space stations already licensed by the Commission to use intersatellite links to provide TT&amp;C and payload data downlinks and uplinks to and from spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services. Are there any concerns with allowing satellite operators to communicate with such spacecraft via intersatellite links without the need to file a modification? Should we require these operators, like Iridium, to file a notification that they consent to the communications as part of the license application, or should the obligation fall on the applicant to certify that the other satellite system operator has consented to the intersatellite links? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <P>
                    87. Additionally, should we limit or identify the specific frequency bands in which intersatellite links may be used in connection with spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication service? We expect that satellite operators already licensed to use specific frequencies for intersatellite links, like Iridium, are best placed to coordinate the use of their licensed spectrum and determine the amount of capacity they have to provide intersatellite links to other spacecraft. Should we allow operators to use these intersatellite links in any frequency band in which their satellite partner (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Iridium would be the satellite 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17928"/>
                    partner for part 5 experimental satellites described above) is licensed and willing to offer the intersatellite service? It is also likely that other satellite operators besides Iridium will be able to offer this proposed intersatellite link service if the Commission provides a regulatory pathway. Are there additional interference concerns that need to be considered if multiple NGSO or GSO satellite operators are providing intersatellite links in support of emergent space operations? We seek comment on these questions.
                </P>
                <P>88. We also seek comment on how to address international coordination of such intersatellite links, given the absence of an international allocation for inter-satellite links and the ongoing discussion of intersatellite links at recent World Radio Conferences (WRC). Should we only allow intersatellite links in bands that are allocated internationally for intersatellite links? Should we allow intersatellite links as a non-conforming use provided that applicants provide compatibility showings? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <P>89. Finally, we seek comment on any other changes to our rules or allocations under the United States Table that would be necessary to facilitate the ability of spacecraft to communicate with existing commercial communications satellites in NGSO or GSO to relay TT&amp;C or payload data. How would any changes to existing rules and allocations be consistent with studies or initiatives that have been made internationally, particularly at the WRC regarding this type of activity? What further steps would be necessary to allow this domestically and/or internationally? We seek comment on these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Benefits and Costs</HD>
                <P>90. The rules we propose, if adopted, will make additional spectrum available for spacecraft engaged in TT&amp;C functions while also promoting efficiency by clarifying our rules concerning TT&amp;C. In particular, we expect that our proposals would significantly reduce costly federal coordination for TT&amp;C missions by making available a non-federal alternative. We estimate that total cost savings from this and other proposals would amount to approximately $6.8 million per year. We therefore tentatively conclude that the proposed rules are in the public interest. We seek comment on these findings.</P>
                <P>
                    91. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     first proposes or seeks comment on codifying several Commission policies to provide additional regulatory clarity for these operators. This includes (1) codification of frequency piggybacking; (2) allowing additional applications for frequencies for emergent space operations under existing service allocations; (3) permitting TT&amp;C functions within existing radiocommunication service allocations; and (4) refining the definition of TT&amp;C. To the extent that lack of clarity in our rules has prevented stakeholders from engaging in certain TT&amp;C operations, we could anticipate real benefits of providing stakeholders with regulatory clarity. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion.
                </P>
                <P>92. We find that the proposal to add a secondary allocation for SOS in the 2320-2345 MHz band will benefit the public by reducing regulatory costs. The proposal could potentially eliminate costly coordination with NTIA to use Federal bands for TT&amp;C by giving a non-Federal alternative. While leasing the 2320-2345 MHz band may entail a payment to SiriusXM, this payment is a pure transfer from the operator to SiriusXM and so has no effect on total costs and benefits. Negotiating with SiriusXM would generate some new costs, but these would be smaller than the costs of coordinating with NTIA or else operators would not seek to negotiate with SiriusXM. Further, operators could set up a longstanding contract with SiriusXM, limiting negotiation during the term of the contrast. By contrast, at present, to the extent that operators are unable to conduct TT&amp;C functions within non-Federal bands such as those for FSS, MSS, BSS, or EESS, operators must engage in frequency coordination with NTIA to use the S-band or other Federal allocations of spectrum on a case-by-case basis. We also believe that the proposal has the potential to generate additional space operations by expanding the total bandwidth available to space operators and allowing operations that may not have been justified by the costs and uncertainty of NTIA coordination, which is not guaranteed to result in approval. We seek comment on these observations.</P>
                <P>93. We estimate the magnitude of the annual regulatory cost savings to be $8.2 million. We estimate this by assuming the NTIA coordination process is handled on the operator's side by a team of two lawyers and two engineers. We assume they work through the application process over two months, which we approximate as eight forty-hour workweeks or three hundred and twenty work hours for each worker. We estimate that the lawyers have an hourly compensation of $106.10/hour and that the engineers have an hourly compensation of $94.64. Total compensation for one space operator's team in an NTIA coordination is therefore $128,473.60. We estimate on the NTIA side, a team of three government employees handle the coordination. We estimate the average government hourly compensation is $80.67, so the total NTIA team compensation for the coordination process is $77,443.20. The total labor costs of coordination combining both private and public expenses is $205,916.80. Based on the number of application requests in the Federal S-band (2025-2110 MHz) from 2021 to 2025, we estimate the future average for such applications to be about 80. Not all of these applications are related to TT&amp;C, and we assume that some operators will rely on non-Federal bands or prefer to continue coordinating with NTIA, so we estimate that only 50% of applications, 40 annually, will be replaced by leases in the 2320-2345 MHz band. Multiplying this number by the per coordination labor costs results in a total annual labor cost saving of approximately $8.2 million. Total benefits would equal the economic value of additional operations allowed by the new spectrum plus the cost savings. Given the uncertain nature of additional operations, we do not estimate them here, such that $8.2 million is a lower bound on benefits. We seek comment on this methodology.</P>
                <P>
                    94. We estimate additional negotiation costs by assuming every negotiation between a space operator and SiriusXM is handled by two teams of two lawyers. Using the 2025-2110 MHz band allows operators to avoid the complex coordination needed for other bands, so that we assume no engineers are involved and the negotiation time falls to two weeks. With these assumptions, and the earlier assumption of hourly compensation for lawyers being $106.10/hour, total negotiations costs for each lease is only $33,952.00. Assuming, again, 40 leases leads to total negotiation costs of approximately $1.4 million. These costs are likely to be front-loaded because we predict negotiations will result in long-term contracts, allowing operators to bypass such costs for a number of years. The long-run average negotiation cost is likely lower than $1.4 million, so $1.4 million represents an upper bound on costs. The lower bound of $8.2 million for benefits is higher than the upper bound of $1.4 million for costs, so we tentatively conclude that the benefits of the 2320-2345 MHz band proposal will exceed its costs and be at least $6.8 million, annually. We seek comment on this methodology.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17929"/>
                </P>
                <P>95. We postpone until a later date estimating the benefits and costs associated with possible secondary allocations in addition to the 2320-2345 MHz band. Currently, we do not have a specific proposal on how to implement other secondary allocations, so it is not possible to estimate benefits or costs at this time. We seek comment on this tentative conclusion.</P>
                <P>96. Although we only seek comment on whether satellite operators should be authorized by rule to use their FCC-licensed satellites and intersatellite links to provide TT&amp;C and data downlinks to spacecraft, we can tentatively estimate benefits as costs avoided from no longer needing to file modification applications. Currently, there are about 25 annual applications for experimental modifications for TT&amp;C related activities, so we will assume that number of applications going forward. Applications involve labor costs from a lawyer, which we estimate to be 1.5 hours of work at a total hourly compensation of $106.10/hour. We will assume the avoided fee is equal to $140, the modification fee for experimental licenses. Total benefit from the intersatellite links proposal is then approximately $7.4 thousand, which is a lower bound given potentially higher future demand for intersatellite links and additional space operations that might be spurred on by lower costs. We predict no costs would result from simply reducing application requirements, so we conclude that the net benefit of the intersatellite links proposal also has a lower bound of $7.4 thousand. While this is positive, it is only a small increase relative to the net benefits of the 2320-2345 MHz band proposal, so to avoid an impression of false precision, we do not add this to the net benefit total. We seek comment on this methodology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    97. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the policies and rules proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     assessing the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission requests written public comments on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA and must be filed by the deadlines for comments specified on the first page of the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                     The Commission will send a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     including the IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration (SBA) Office of Advocacy. In addition, the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     and IRFA (or summaries thereof) will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Need for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    98. In the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     we initiate this rulemaking proceeding seeking comment on ways in which to make additional spectrum available to support emergent space operations. We continue our efforts to identify spectrum or ways in which spectrum can be used more efficiently to support emergent space operations. We therefore propose to establish regulatory clarity for the use of existing spectrum allocations in support of emergent space operations, and to codify certain Commission policies to provide further regulatory clarity. We also propose to make additional non-Federal spectrum available for TT&amp;C in support of emergent space operations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    99. The primary objectives of the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     are to identify additional spectrum for spacecraft that conduct emergent space operations and to identify ways in which existing allocated spectrum can be used more efficiently to support such spacecraft. To that end, the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     proposes to codify the use of frequency piggybacking to allow certain spacecraft engaged in servicing a client spacecraft to operate in frequency bands consistent with the client's authorized radiofrequency communications. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     seeks comment on how to codify the potential use of frequency piggybacking, how such codification might be structured to accommodate a broad range of scenarios while ensuring both regulatory certainty and operational flexibility, and whether additional use cases—beyond servicing, monitoring, or collaborating with a client spacecraft—should also be considered for piggybacking. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     also proposes to refine the definition of “TT&amp;C” to encompass radiofrequency usage by spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services and to permit TT&amp;C within existing radiocommunication service allocations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    100. Finally, the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     proposes to add a secondary allocation for space operation service (SOS) (Earth-to-space) in the 2320-2345 MHz band in the non-Federal column of the U.S. Table of Frequency Allocations (United States Table), and allow leasing of spectrum by the exclusive licensee within this frequency band in the U.S., to earth station licensees for command of spacecraft that do not otherwise provide radiocommunication services. The secondary allocation proposal includes a requirement for applicants to seek authority from the Commission to operate an earth station in the 2320-2345 MHz band under secondary allocation, and to certify that their proposed operations have been coordinated with, and approved by, the exclusive licensee within this frequency band to safeguard the existing operations from interference. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     seeks comment on the proposed certification requirement, and on whether there are additional non-Federally allocated spectrum bands such as the 2315-2320 MHz and 2345-2350 MHz bands, and the 2305-2315 MHz and 2350-2360 MHz bands, that could be used in support of emergent space operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>101. The proposed action is authorized pursuant to sections 4(i), 4(j), 7(a), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, 312, 316, and 332 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, U.S.C. 154(i), 154(j), 157(a), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, 312, 316, and 332.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rules Will Apply</HD>
                <P>102. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the SBA. A “small business concern” is one in which: (1) is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA. The SBA establishes small business size standards that agencies are required to use when promulgating regulations relating to small businesses; agencies may establish alternative size standards for use in such programs, but must consult and obtain approval from SBA before doing so.</P>
                <P>
                    103. Our actions, over time, may affect small entities that are not easily categorized at present. We therefore describe three broad groups of small entities that could be directly affected herein. In general, a small business is an independent business having fewer than 500 employees. These types of small business represent 99.9% of all businesses in the United States, which translates to 34.75 million businesses. Next, “small organizations” are not-for-profit enterprises that are independently 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17930"/>
                    owned and operated and not dominant in their field. While we do not have data regarding the number of non-profits that meet that criteria, over 99 percent of nonprofits have fewer than 500 employees. Finally, “small governmental jurisdictions” are defined as cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts with populations of less than fifty thousand. Based on the 2022 U.S. Census of Governments data, we estimate that at least 48,724 out of 90,835 local government jurisdictions have a population of less than 50,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    104. The rules proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     will apply to small entities in the industries identified in the chart below by their six-digit North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes and corresponding SBA size standard. Based on currently available U.S. Census data regarding the estimated number of small firms in each identified industry, we conclude that the proposed rules will impact a substantial number of small entities. Where available, we also provide additional information regarding the number of potentially affected entities in the industries identified below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,r30,7,7,13">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Regulated industry</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS
                            <LI>code</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">SBA size standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Small
                            <LI>firms</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">% Small firms in industry</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                        <ENT>517111</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,403</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.027</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.95</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Satellite Telecommunications</ENT>
                        <ENT>517410</ENT>
                        <ENT>$44 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>332</ENT>
                        <ENT>195</ENT>
                        <ENT>88.69</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Other Telecommunications</ENT>
                        <ENT>517810</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,673</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,007</ENT>
                        <ENT>60.19</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Discussion of Significant Alternatives Considered That Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>105. The RFA directs agencies to describe the economic impact of proposed rules on small entities, as well as projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirements and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record.</P>
                <P>
                    106. In the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     we seek to make additional spectrum available for certain types of spacecraft and satellite operators, and do not propose to change the way the space station licensing process works. By clarifying the use of existing allocations and permitting TT&amp;C on a non-interference basis as proposed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     we may reduce the time and expense for small and other entities associated with acquiring spectrum access. Further, these clarifications and the codification of practices such as frequency piggybacking and spectrum leasing should lower barriers to entry, eliminate the need for small entities to file requests for waiver of the United States Table (47 CFR 2.106) to access certain spectrum, and allow small entities to avoid lengthy coordination with Federal users making the application process easier and avoid some legal and administrative costs. We estimate a total cost savings of approximately $6.8 million annually from the proposals discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    107. Notwithstanding the benefits of streamlined access to spectrum, small and other entities would be subject to complying with certification and coordination requirements to lease spectrum from incumbent licensees, and are likely to incur new costs in the form of lease payments to incumbent licensees. Small and other entities seeking to lease spectrum would also be required to obtain their own earth station license from the Commission, and would be subject to the applicable reporting, recordkeeping, and compliance obligations for licensees. Additionally, while the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     will reduce regulatory complexities, burdens and costs, small entities may incur compliance costs and may need to engage the assistance of professionals such as engineers, lawyers or consultants to meet their obligation to demonstrate technical compliance with spectrum use parameters, negotiate leasing agreements and certify coordination with incumbent licensees, and to assist with filings involving coordination with Federal users or international obligations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    108. If the proposals in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     are adopted, we expect the overall burden for small and other entities to be less than under our current requirements. Adding a secondary allocation for SOS in the 2320-2345 MHz band has the potential to eliminate costly coordination with the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) to use Federal bands for TT&amp;C by giving small and other entities a non-Federal alternative. Further, while leasing 2320-2345 MHz band spectrum may require small and other entities to negotiate with, and make lease payments to, the exclusive licensee in the band, SiriusXM, we anticipate that these costs would be significantly lower than those associated with any individual NTIA coordination effort, since leasing spectrum will eliminate the need for engineering coordination. We estimate the annual regulatory cost savings from the elimination of NTIA coordination will be $8.2 million. By eliminating NTIA coordination, we estimate that small and other entities will each save $128,473.60 in legal and engineering compensation costs. Our estimate assumes an operator's NTIA coordination process uses two lawyers and two engineers working through the application process over a two months period—eight forty-hour workweeks or three hundred and twenty work hours for each worker, with an hourly compensation rate of $106.10/hour for the lawyers, and $94.64 for the engineers. The total calculated compensation for an operator's NTIA coordination is therefore $128,473.60. Additional cost savings may be realized by small and other operators by establishing long-term contracts reducing the need for ongoing negotiations during the contract period. In contrast, frequency coordination with NTIA for each specific use case is required under the current process.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Discussion of Significant Alternatives Considered That Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>109. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of any significant alternatives to the proposed rules that would accomplish the stated objectives of applicable statutes, and minimize any significant impact on small entities. The discussion is required to include alternatives such as: “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”</P>
                <P>
                    110. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     proposes ways to identify more spectrum for spacecraft 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17931"/>
                    that conduct emergent space operations and to make it easier for operators of these spacecraft to apply for and use spectrum. We consider some alternatives that would minimize the economic impact on small entities while achieving our goal of expanding spectrum availability for space operations in an evolving space industry and economy. These alternatives would balance regulatory certainty with flexibility, and could enable small entities to access spectrum more efficiently and affordably.
                </P>
                <P>111. We generally propose to continue reviewing requests to operate space stations within specific service allocations on a case-by-case basis to assess whether the proposed communications can justifiably fit within the definition of the service allocation; however, we consider and seek comment on allowing TT&amp;C operations within existing service allocations, provided the operations fit within the service allocation definition. Another option upon which we seek comment is allowing licensees and market access grantees to conduct TT&amp;C in any band where TT&amp;C may already be provided within the radiocommunication service. Allowing such flexible use of existing allocations would avoid the need for new rulemakings to create new allocations or conduct spectrum reallocation. We also consider and seek comments on whether to grant applicants authority to provide fixed-satellite service (FSS) in bands allocated for non-Federal FSS, limited to the provision of TT&amp;C on an unprotected, non-interference basis, subject to coordination with other spectrum users, outside of a first-come, first service procedure or a processing round.</P>
                <P>
                    112. While our proposed allowance of spectrum leasing in the 2320-2345 MHz band discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     would have certification and coordination requirements for lessees, we consider and propose allowing space station authorization in the 2320-2345 MHz band with a certification and coordination requirement in the limited circumstance of reception of commands from earth stations licensed by the Commission, or from earth stations located outside of the United States. We also consider and seek comment on allowing earth stations to provide command uplinks to non-communications satellites and spacecraft in the 2320-2345 MHz band within a defined geographic area, such as an area of northern Alaska defined by latitude, without requiring coordination and approval. These approaches offer regulatory flexibility and would minimize the need for complex coordination which could lower compliance costs for small and other entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    113. Our proposal for spectrum leasing would still require small and other entities that want to use the 2320-2345 MHz band to provide command uplinks to obtain an earth station license from the Commission prior to transmitting in the band, and lessees would be subject to all licensing and regulatory obligations applicable to earth station licensees. As an alternative, we seek comment on whether to adopt the more extensive requirements for approving long and short term 
                    <E T="03">de facto</E>
                     transfers of control of spectrum under the Commission's spectrum leasing rules applicable to Wireless Radio Services and other wireless licensees. Adoption of this approach presumes no additional license authorization is required from the Commission to allow the operations using leased spectrum.
                </P>
                <P>
                    114. Other alternatives we consider and seek comment on in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     include whether a non-governmental (NG) footnote to the United States Table is a better method than our proposed secondary allocation allowance to permit use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks to non-communications satellites, and whether competitive bidding or alternative market-based approaches can be employed to promote the efficient and timely use of the 2320-2345 MHz band for command uplinks, consistent with statutory limitations. We specifically inquire whether earth station licenses to operate in the U.S. using the 2320-2345 MHz band—spectrum that is not internationally allocated for satellite communications—could be auctioned by the Commission. If we decide to use an auction process, as in prior auctions, small entity bidding credits could be made available to promote competitive entry for small entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    115. To assist with our evaluation of the economic impact on small entities that may result from the proposals and matters upon which we seek comment in this proceeding, the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     seeks alternative proposals, and requests information from small and other licensees. We expect to consider more fully the economic impact on small entities following its review of comments filed in response to the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     including any costs and benefits information. Alternative proposals and approaches from commenters may help the Commission further minimize the economic impact on small entities. Our evaluation of the comments filed in this proceeding will shape the final conclusions we reach, the final alternatives we consider, and the actions we ultimately take in this proceeding to minimize any significant economic impact that may occur on small entities from the final rules that are ultimately adopted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    116. The 
                    <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                     seeks comment from all interested parties. Small entities are encouraged to bring to our attention any specific concerns that they may have with the proposals outlined in the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Federal Rules That May Duplicate, Overlap, or Conflict With the Proposed Rules</HD>
                <P>117. None.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Ordering Clauses</HD>
                <P>
                    118. 
                    <E T="03">It is ordered,</E>
                     pursuant to sections 4(i), 4(j), 7(a), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, 312, 316, 332 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 154(j), 157(a), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, 312, 316, 332, that the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM is adopted.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    119. 
                    <E T="03">It is further ordered</E>
                     that the Commission's Office of the Secretary 
                    <E T="03">shall send</E>
                     a copy of the 
                    <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                     including the IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for the SBA Office of Advocacy.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06865 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17932"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding: whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments regarding this information collection received by May 11, 2026 will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rural Utilities Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Substantially Underserved Trust Areas (SUTA), 7 CFR 1700, Subpart D.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0572-0147.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     The 2008 Farm Bill (Pub. L. 110-246, codified at 7 U.S.C. 906f) authorized the Substantially Underserved Trust Area (SUTA) initiative. The SUTA initiative gives the Secretary of Agriculture certain discretionary authorities relating to financial assistance terms and conditions that can enhance the financing possibilities in areas that are underserved by certain Rural Utilities Service (RUS) electric, water and waste, telecommunications and broadband programs. The SUTA initiative identifies the need for the program and improves the availability of RUS programs to reach trust areas when they are determined by the Secretary of Agriculture (such authority has been delegated to the Administrator of RUS) to be substantially underserved, as set forth in the regulations at 7 CFR part 1700, subpart D. RUS programs that are affected by this provision include: Rural Electrification Loans and Guaranteed Loans, New ERA and PACE Loans and Grants and High-Cost Energy Grants; Water and Waste Disposal Loans, Guaranteed Loans and Grants; Rural Broadband Loans, Loan/Grant Combinations, and Loan Guarantees; Community Connect Program and Rural eConnectivity Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     RUS provides loans, loan guarantee and grant programs for rural electric, water and waste, and telecommunications and broadband infrastructure. Eligible applicants notify RUS in writing, at the time of application, that it seeks consideration under the requirements of 7 CFR 1700, subpart D. The data covered by this collection are those materials necessary to allow the agency to determine applicant and community eligibility, and an explanation and documentation of the high need for the benefits of the SUTA provisions. Without this information RUS would not be able to make a prudent loan decision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     State, Local or Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     72.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Reporting: On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     2160.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Levi S. Harrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06790 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Child Nutrition Programs: Income Eligibility Guidelines</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces the Department's annual adjustments to the Income Eligibility Guidelines to be used in determining eligibility for free and reduced-price meals, free milk, and Summer Electronic Benefit Transfer (EBT) benefits for the period from July 1, 2026 through June 30, 2027. These guidelines are used by schools, institutions, and facilities participating in the National School Lunch Program (and Commodity School Program), School Breakfast Program, Special Milk Program for Children, Child and Adult Care Food Program, and Summer Food Service Program, as well as for States and Indian Tribal Organizations that administer the Summer EBT for Children Program. The annual adjustments are required by section 9 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act. The guidelines are intended to direct benefits to those children most in need and are revised annually to account for changes in the Consumer Price Index.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>July 1, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Penny Burke, Program Monitoring and Operational Support Division, Child Nutrition Programs, Food and Nutrition Service, United States Department of Agriculture, 1320 Braddock Place, Suite 401, Alexandria, Virginia 22314. Tel. (720) 822-8597.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This action is not a rule as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) and thus is exempt from the provisions of that Act.</P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), no recordkeeping or reporting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17933"/>
                    requirements have been included that are subject to approval from the Office of Management and Budget.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The affected programs are listed in the Assistance Listings (
                    <E T="03">https://sam.gov/</E>
                    ) under No. 10.553, No. 10.555, No. 10.556, No. 10.558, and No. 10.559 and are subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. (See 2 CFR part 415).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to sections 9(b)(1), 13A(h)(2), and 17(c)(4) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1758(b)(1), 42 U.S.C. 1762(h)(2), and 42 U.S.C. 1766(c)(4)), and sections 3(a)(6) and 4(e)(1)(A) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1772(a)(6) and 1773(e)(1)(A)), the Department annually issues the Income Eligibility Guidelines for free and reduced-price meals for the National School Lunch Program (7 CFR part 210), the Commodity School Program (7 CFR part 210), School Breakfast Program (7 CFR part 220), Summer Food Service Program (7 CFR part 225), and Child and Adult Care Food Program (7 CFR part 226), free milk in the Special Milk Program for Children (7 CFR part 215), and program benefits in the Summer EBT Program (7 CFR part 292). These eligibility guidelines are based on the Federal income poverty guidelines and are stated by household size. The guidelines are used to determine eligibility for free and reduced-price meals, free milk, and Summer EBT benefits in accordance with applicable program rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Definition of Income</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Department's policy as provided in the Food and Nutrition Service publication, Eligibility Manual for School Meals, “income,” as the term is used in this notice, means income before any deductions such as income taxes, Social Security taxes, insurance premiums, charitable contributions, and bonds. It includes the following: (1) monetary compensation for services, including wages, salary, commissions or fees; (2) net income from nonfarm self-employment; (3) net income from farm self-employment; (4) Social Security; (5) dividends or interest on savings or bonds or income from estates or trusts; (6) net rental income; (7) public assistance or welfare payments; (8) unemployment compensation; (9) government civilian employee or military retirement, or pensions or veterans payments; (10) private pensions or annuities; (11) alimony or child support payments; (12) regular contributions from persons not living in the household; (13) net royalties; and (14) other cash income. Other cash income would include cash amounts received or withdrawn from any source including savings, investments, trust accounts, and other resources that would be available to pay the price of a child's meal.</P>
                <P>
                    “Income,” as the term is used in this notice, does 
                    <E T="03">not</E>
                     include any income or benefits received under any Federal programs that are excluded from consideration as income by any statutory prohibition. Furthermore, the value of meals, milk, or EBT benefits to children shall not be considered as income to their households for other benefit programs in accordance with the prohibitions in section 12(e) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act and section 11(b) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1760(e) and 1780(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Income Eligibility Guidelines</HD>
                <P>The following are the Income Eligibility Guidelines to be effective from July 1, 2026 through June 30, 2027. The Department's guidelines for free meals and milk, and reduced price meals were obtained by multiplying the year 2026 Federal income poverty guidelines by 1.30 and 1.85, respectively, and by rounding the result upward to the next whole dollar.</P>
                <P>This notice displays only the annual Federal poverty guidelines issued by the Department of Health and Human Services because the monthly and weekly Federal poverty guidelines are not used to determine the Income Eligibility Guidelines. The chart details the free and reduced price eligibility criteria for monthly income, income received twice monthly (24 payments per year), income received every two weeks (26 payments per year), and weekly income.</P>
                <P>Income calculations are made based on the following formulas: monthly income is calculated by dividing the annual income by 12; twice monthly income is computed by dividing annual income by 24; income received every two weeks is calculated by dividing annual income by 26; and weekly income is computed by dividing annual income by 52. All numbers are rounded upward to the next whole dollar. The numbers reflected in this notice for a family of four in the 48 contiguous States, the District of Columbia, Guam, and the territories represent an increase of 2.6 percent over last year's level for a family of the same size.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Section 9(b)(1) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1758 (b)(1)).
                </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="17934"/>
                    <GID>EN09AP26.001</GID>
                </GPH>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17935"/>
                    <NAME>Patrick A. Penn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Under Secretary, Food, Nutrition, and Consumer Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06842 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; 60-Day Public Comment Request for the Study Food Price Data Collection in the Non-Contiguous States and U.S. Territories</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion (CNPP), Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), United States Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection for the Food Price Data Collection in the Non-Contiguous States and U.S. Territories Study. This is a new information collection request. The U.S. Department of Agriculture's Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) uses information on current food prices for several applications related to research, policy, and consumer education. Accurate food price data are crucial for informing federal nutrition and agricultural policies such as the Thrifty Food Plan (TFP), which estimates the cost of a healthy diet. The purpose of this study is to fill a gap in existing food price data by collecting and estimating the prices of foods and beverages in the TFP market basket in seven States and Territories: Alaska, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI), Hawaii, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be sent to: Kevin Kuczynski, Food and Nutrition Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1320 Braddock Place, Floor 4, Suite 4080, Alexandria, VA 22314. Comments may also be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">kevin.kuczynski@usda.gov.</E>
                         Comments will also be accepted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for submitting comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or copies of this information collected should be directed to Kevin Kuczynski by phone at 703-305-2153 or email at 
                        <E T="03">kevin.kuczynski@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Food Price Data Collection in the Non-Contiguous States and U.S. Territories.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0584-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     Not yet determined.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     New collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) uses information on current food prices for several applications related to research, policy, and consumer education. An important application of data on food prices is in calculating cost adjustments to the Thrifty Food Plan (TFP) to reflect the food prices in specific areas of the country as required by law. Retail scanner data reflect the best source of information on food prices currently available for adjusting the cost of the TFP to reflect local food prices. However, existing retail scanner data in specific locations are limited—particularly in the U.S. Territories of Puerto Rico, Guam, the U.S. Virgin Islands, American Samoa, and Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI)—and increasing levels of aggregation present in the scanner data could limit future analyses for Alaska and Hawaii.
                </P>
                <P>The purpose of this study is to answer the question, “What are the prices of foods and beverages in the TFP market basket in each of the non-contiguous States and U.S. Territories?” and to explore development and application of a standardized approach for collecting sufficiently representative food price data. Study objectives include:</P>
                <P>1. Develop a detailed plan for collecting representative food price data in each of the non-contiguous States and U.S. Territories.</P>
                <P>2. Collect food price data in each of the non-contiguous States and U.S. Territories using the data collection approach developed.</P>
                <P>The study will use multiple methods to gather food price data, including: (1) Electronic retailer data (retailer-provided sales data from point-of-sale system, retailer-provided price data from inventory management system, commercial scanner data); (2) WIC EBT data; (3) Web scraped data (from retailer website); and (4) In-store survey data (field data collection).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Members of the public affected by the data collection include: (1) State and local governments, (2) business for-profit agencies, and (3) business not-for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">State and local governments:</E>
                     Staff from the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories (2 States and 5 U.S. territories) will participate in data collection activities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Business for-profit agencies:</E>
                     Staff from 244 retailers in the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories (39 in Alaska, 31 in American Samoa, 30 in CNMI, 36 in Guam, 40 in Hawaii, 42 in Puerto Rico, and 26 in U.S. Virgin Islands) will participate in the study.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Business not-for-profit organizations:</E>
                     Staff from 21 organizations in the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories will participate in the study.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents</E>
                     The total estimated number of respondents for the study is 1,299: 546 staff representing State and local government agencies, 732 staff from business for-profit organizations, and up to 21 business not-for-profit organizations. We anticipate all State government staff to be responsive to outreach. Of the 753 businesses contacted (732 for-profit and 21 not-for-profit), we anticipate 258 to be responsive and 495 to be nonresponsive. The breakdown of respondents follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">State and local staff:</E>
                     Of the 21 State staff contacted to participate in the study (7 SNAP/NAP staff, 7 WIC staff, 7 Department of Health Staff), 21 staff are estimated to participate in the study and 0 to be nonresponsive. Of the 525 local SNAP/NAP staff contacted to participate in the study, 525 are estimated to participate in the study and 0 to be nonresponsive.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Business for-profit organizations:</E>
                     Of the 732 business for-profit organizations contacted to participate in the study, 244 are estimated to participate in the study and 488 to be nonresponsive.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17936"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Business not-for-profit organizations:</E>
                     Of the 21 business not-for-profit organizations contacted to participate in the study, 14 are estimated to participate in the study and 7 to be nonresponsive.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     3.2 (3.9 for responsive participants and 2.0 for nonresponsive participants). The estimated breakout is as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">State SNAP/NAP staff (7):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses per State SNAP/NAP staff is 7.0. The 7 staff from the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories will receive an introductory recruitment email from the study team, will receive an email from the study team asking for retailer contact information, will share retailer contact information, will send an introductory email to retailers and local partners on behalf of the project team, will send an introductory email to SNAP/NAP local staff on behalf of the project team, and will take part in pre data collection follow up emails/phone calls.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">WIC State agency staff (7):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses per State WIC staff is 6.0. The 7 staff from the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories will receive an introductory recruitment email from the study team, will be asked to share retailer contact information, and will share WIC EBT data.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Department of Health staff (7):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses per State Department of Health staff is 2.0. The 7 staff from the 7 non-contiguous States and Territories will receive an introductory recruitment email from the study team and will share retailer contact information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Local SNAP/NAP staff (525):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses per local SNAP/NAP staff is 1.0. Up to 525 staff will receive study introduction letters from their State SNAP/NAP director.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Business for-profit organizations (732):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses per retailers/corporate chains is 10.0 for responsive organizations (244 organizations) and 2.0 for non-responsive organizations (488 organizations).
                </P>
                <P>a. All 732 organizations will receive two recruitment emails, one from the State SNAP/NAP director and one from the study team accompanied by a one-page summary.</P>
                <P>b. Of those 732 organizations, 244 will be identified as priority retailers/corporate chains and will receive an informational webinar email and webinar reminder email. We estimate that 61 of the 244 participating organizations will attend the webinar. In addition, these 244 organizations will receive a follow up email confirming participation and participate in a data collection planning call.</P>
                <P>c. We anticipate having to conduct follow-up phone calls with up to 150 of the priority stores that are not responsive; we anticipate having to call each of these stores up to 3 times.</P>
                <P>d. 134 organizations will participate in in-person recruitment.</P>
                <P>e. 122 organizations will complete the paperwork required to receive an honoraria for participation.</P>
                <P>f. Of the 244 responsive organizations, 128 will participate in the in-store survey pre-visit phone call and in-store survey.</P>
                <P>g. Of the 244 responsive organizations, 75 will provide scanner data. We anticipate that some of these organizations will be corporate chains that can provide scanner data for multiple retailers within the sample of 244.</P>
                <P>h. Of the 244 responsive organizations, 9 will participate in web scraping.</P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Business not-for-profit organizations (21):</E>
                     The estimated number of responses for not-for-profit organizations is 2.0 for responsive organizations and 2.0 for non-responsive organizations. All 21 organizations will receive a notification email, one-page study information sheet, and request for retailer contact information. The 14 organizations that are responsive will share existing retailer contact information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     4,096 (3,106 annual responses for responsive participants and 990 annual responses for nonresponsive participants).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.44 hours (0.61 hours for responsive participants and 0.16 hours for nonresponsive participants).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     Estimated total annual burden on respondents and nonrespondents: 2,056.2 hours (1,894.1 hours for responsive participants and 162.2 hours for nonresponsive participants). See table 1 for the estimated total annual burden for each respondent type.
                </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="341">
                    <PRTPAGE P="17937"/>
                    <GID>EN09AP26.000</GID>
                </GPH>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Patrick A. Penn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Under Secretary, Food, Nutrition and Consumer Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06845 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Wisconsin Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Wisconsin Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public business meeting via Zoom at 3:30 p.m. CT on Tuesday, April 28, 2026. The purpose of this meeting is to vote on the Committee's study topic.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, April 28, 2026, from 3:30 p.m.-5 p.m. Central Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_huKgi7pSREG2o_Mgsk1New.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 160 143 1982.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ana Victoria Fortes, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 681-0857.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda: (Note: Final meeting agenda will be available prior to the meeting date.)</E>
                     This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any charges incurred. Callers will incur no charge for calls when they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Corrine Sanders, Support Specialist, at 
                    <E T="03">csanders@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Ana Victoria Fortes at 
                    <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 681-0857.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via the file sharing website, 
                    <E T="03">www.box.com,</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">https://usccr.app.box.com/s/r6wz3kfxa5jdlrg44ycky0x4w4tbuhzs</E>
                    ) as well as at 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov.</E>
                     Persons 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17938"/>
                    interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06893 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[B-38-2026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone 39—Dallas/Fort Worth, Texas; Application for Reorganization (Expansion of Service Area) Under Alternative Site Framework</SUBJECT>
                <P>An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport Board, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 39, requesting authority to reorganize the zone to expand its service area under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on April 7, 2026.</P>
                <P>FTZ 39 was approved by the FTZ Board on August 17, 1978 (Board Order 133, 43 FR 37478, August 23, 1978), reorganized under the ASF on January 15, 2010 (Board Order 1660, 75 FR 4355, January 27, 2010), and its service area was expanded on May 16, 2014 (Board Order 1939, 79 FR 30079, May 27, 2014) and on March 28, 2023 (Board Order 2141, 88 FR 19246, March 31, 2023). The zone currently has a service area that includes Dallas, Tarrant, Kaufman, Collin, Grayson, Denton, Hunt and Hill Counties, Texas.</P>
                <P>The applicant is now requesting authority to expand the service area of the zone to include Parker, Palo Pinto and Jack Counties, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the expanded service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed expanded service area is adjacent to the Dallas/Fort Worth Customs and Border Protection Port of Entry.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.</P>
                <P>
                    Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary and sent to: 
                    <E T="03">ftz@trade.gov.</E>
                     The closing period for their receipt is June 8, 2026. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted through June 23, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the application will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information Section” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via 
                    <E T="03">www.trade.gov/ftz.</E>
                     For further information, contact Camille Evans at 
                    <E T="03">Camille.Evans@trade.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06841 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[B-39-2026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone 136—Brevard County, Florida; Application for Reorganization (Expansion of Service Area) Under Alternative Site Framework</SUBJECT>
                <P>An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Canaveral Port Authority, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 136, requesting authority to reorganize the zone to expand its service area under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on April 7, 2026.</P>
                <P>FTZ 136 was approved by the FTZ Board on March 16, 1987 (Board Order 349, 52 FR 9904, March 27, 1987) and reorganized under the alternative site framework on June 18, 2012 (Board Order 1837, 77 FR 38270, June 27, 2012). The zone currently has a service area that includes Brevard County, Florida.</P>
                <P>The applicant is now requesting authority to expand the service area of the zone to include Lake and Osceola Counties, Florida, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the expanded service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed expanded service area is adjacent to the Orlando Customs and Border Protection Port of Entry.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.</P>
                <P>
                    Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary and sent to: 
                    <E T="03">ftz@trade.gov.</E>
                     The closing period for their receipt is June 8, 2026. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted through June 23, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the application will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information Section” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via 
                    <E T="03">www.trade.gov/ftz.</E>
                     For further information, contact Camille Evans at 
                    <E T="03">Camille.Evans@trade.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06874 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[S-198-2026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone 274; Application for Subzone; Phillips 66 Company; Billings, Montana</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the City and County of Butte-Silver Bow, grantee of FTZ 274, requesting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17939"/>
                    subzone status for the facility of Phillips 66 Company, located in Billings, Montana. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on April 6, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed subzone (210 acres) is located at 401 South 23rd Street, Billings, Montana. No authorization for production activity has been requested at this time. The proposed subzone would be subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 274.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Qahira El-Amin of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.</P>
                <P>
                    Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary and sent to: 
                    <E T="03">ftz@trade.gov.</E>
                     The closing period for their receipt is May 19, 2026. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted through June 3, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the application will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information Section” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via 
                    <E T="03">www.trade.gov/ftz.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For further information, contact Qahira El-Amin at 
                    <E T="03">Qahira.El-Amin@trade.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06839 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Report of Requests for Restrictive Trade Practice or Boycott</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection, request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments by email to Nancy Kook, IC Liaison, Bureau of Industry and Security, at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@bis.doc.gov</E>
                         or to 
                        <E T="03">PRAcomments@doc.gov</E>
                        ). Please reference OMB Control Number 0694-0012 in the subject line of your comments. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to Nancy Kook, IC Liaison, Bureau of Industry and Security, phone 202-482-2440 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@bis.doc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>This information is used to monitor requests for participation in foreign boycotts against countries friendly to the U.S. The information is analyzed to note changing trends and to decide upon appropriate action to be taken to carry out the United States' policy of discouraging United States persons from participating in foreign restrictive trade practices and boycotts directed against countries friendly to the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>Electronic.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0694-0012.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission, extension of a current information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     412.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1 hour to 1 hour and 30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     482.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public:</E>
                     0.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     EAR Sections 764.5, and 764.7.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Compliance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06900 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-33-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Voluntary Self-Disclosure of Antiboycott Violations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection, request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17940"/>
                        reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments by email to Nancy Kook, IC Liaison, Bureau of Industry and Security, at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@bis.doc.gov</E>
                         or to 
                        <E T="03">PRAcomments@doc.gov</E>
                        ). Please reference OMB Control Number 0694-0132 in the subject line of your comments. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to Nancy Kook, IC Liaison, Bureau of Industry and Security, phone 202-482-2440 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@bis.doc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>Voluntary self-disclosures allow BIS to conduct investigations of the disclosed incidents faster than would be the case if BIS had to detect the violations without such disclosures. As a result, BIS is able to devote more of its resources to detecting non-disclosed violations. The information obtained through this collection may also provide leads to uncover other violations. In some cases, the information might be shared with other law enforcement agencies investigating suspected violations of the ECRA and the EAR or, in appropriate instances, agencies investigating violations of other statutes or with foreign governments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>Paper.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0694-0132.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission, extension of a current information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     15.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     10 to 600 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,220.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public:</E>
                     0.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Sections 4812(b)(7) and 4814(b)(1)(B) of the Export Control Reform Act (ECRA).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06901 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-33-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Rescission of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Based upon the timely withdrawal of all review requests, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is rescinding the administrative reviews covering the periods of review (PORs) of the antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders identified in the table below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable April 9, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Brenda E. Brown, AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     based upon timely requests for review, Commerce initiated administrative reviews of certain companies for the PORs and the AD and CVD orders listed in the table below. All requests for these reviews have been timely withdrawn.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 21459 (July 25, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 41043 (August 22, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 46173 (September 25, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         91 FR 229 (January 5, 2026); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         91 FR 3421 (January 27, 2026); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         91 FR 8186 (February 20, 2026); 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         91 FR 11274 (March 9, 2026); and 
                        <E T="03">Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews,</E>
                         91 FR 15951 (March 31, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The letters withdrawing the review requests may be found in Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rescission of Review</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the parties that requested the review withdraw their review requests within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation for the requested review. All parties withdrew their requests for the reviews listed in the table below within the 90-day deadline. No other parties requested administrative reviews of these AD/CVD orders for the PORs noted in the table. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce is rescinding, in their entirety, the administrative reviews listed in the table below.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17941"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s200,22">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Period of review</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">AD Proceedings</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Germany: Cold-Drawn Mechanical Tubing of Carbon and lloy Steel, A-428-845 </ENT>
                        <ENT>6/1/2024-5/31/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Taiwan: Mattresses, A-583-873 </ENT>
                        <ENT>3/1/2024-6/30/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Netherlands: Hot-Rolled Steel Flat Products, A-421-813 </ENT>
                        <ENT>10/1/2024-9/30/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">The People's Republic of China:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Diamond Sawblades and Parts Thereof, A-570-900 </ENT>
                        <ENT>11/1/2024-10/31/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Fresh Garlic, A-570-831 </ENT>
                        <ENT>11/1/2024-10/31/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Multilayered Wood Flooring, A-570-970 </ENT>
                        <ENT>12/1/2024-11/30/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Stilbenic Optical Brightening Agents, A-570-972 </ENT>
                        <ENT>5/1/2024-4/30/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">CVD Proceedings</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Canada: 
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Utility Scale Wind Tower, C-122-868 
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2024-12/31/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Germany: Forged Steel Fluid End Blocks, C-428-848 </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2025-12/31/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Italy: Certain Pasta, C-475-819 </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2024-12/31/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">The People's Republic of China:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Certain Passenger Vehicle and Light Truck Tires, C-570-017 </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2024-12/31/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Truck and Bus Tires, C-570-041 </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2025-12/31/2025</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Certain Pea Protein, C-570-155 </ENT>
                        <ENT>9/19/2023-12/31/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Lightweight Thermal Paper, C-570-921 </ENT>
                        <ENT>1/1/2024-12/31/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping and/or countervailing duties on all appropriate entries during the PORs noted above for each of the listed administrative reviews at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping or countervailing duties, as applicable, required at the time of entry, or withdrawal of merchandise from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of this recission notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     for rescinded administrative reviews of AD/CVD orders on countries other than Canada and Mexico. For rescinded administrative reviews of AD/CVD orders on Canada or Mexico, Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 41 days after the date of publication of this recission notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in accordance with 19 CFR 356.8(a).
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         In the rescission of administrative review notice published on February 13, 2026 (91 FR 6812), Commerce inadvertently listed the case above. This notice serves as a correction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Importers</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of merchandise subject to AD orders of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification Regarding Administrative Protective Order (APO)</HD>
                <P>This notice also serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in these segments of these proceedings. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06857 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-489-840]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet From the Republic of Türkiye: Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2023</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to certain producers/exporters of common alloy aluminum sheet (aluminum sheet) from the Republic of Türkiye (Türkiye) during the period of review (POR) January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable April 9, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Charles DeFilippo or Jacob Saude, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3797 or (202) 482-0981, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 8, 2025, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Due to the lapse in appropriations and the Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17942"/>
                    in administrative proceedings by 47 days.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, due to a backlog of documents that were electronically filed via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) during the Federal Government shutdown, on November 24, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by an additional 21 days.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On February 4, 2026, Commerce extended the time period for issuing the final results of this review by 53 days.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the deadline for the final results is now April 6, 2026.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet from the Republic of Türkiye: Preliminary Results of the Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2023,</E>
                         90 FR 38453 (August 8, 2025) (Preliminary Results), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum (PDM).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Deadlines Affected by the Shutdown of the Federal Government,” dated November 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Tolling of all Case Deadlines,” dated November 24, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Extension of Deadline for Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review,” dated February 4, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For a description of the events that occurred since the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results, see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via ACCESS. ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov.</E>
                     In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/public/FRN oticesListLayout.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the Administrative Review of the Countervailing Duty Order on Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet from Türkiye; 2023,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (Issues and Decision Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                    Scope of the Order 
                    <E T="51">6</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet from Bahrain, India, and the Republic of Turkey: Countervailing Duty Orders,</E>
                         86 FR 22144 (April 27, 2021) (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The products covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are aluminum sheet from Türkiye. For a full description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order, see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>All issues raised in the parties' briefs are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. The topics discussed and issues raised by parties to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum are listed in the appendix to this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on comments received from interested parties and record information, we made certain changes from the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     regarding the subsidy calculations for Assan Aluminyum Sanayi ve Ticaret A.S., Kibar Holding A.S., Kibar Dis Ticaret A.S., and Kibar Americas, Inc. (collectively, Assan), and Teknik Aluminyum Sanayi A.S. (Teknik). For a discussion of these changes, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce conducted this administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each subsidy program found countervailable, Commerce finds that there is a subsidy, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a government-provided financial contribution that gives rise to a benefit to the recipient, and that the subsidy is specific.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For a full description of the methodology underlying all of Commerce's conclusions, including any determination that relied upon the use of adverse facts available, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         sections 771(5)(B) and (D) of the Act regarding financial contribution; section 771(5)(E) of the Act regarding benefit; and section 771(5A) of the Act regarding specificity.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rate for Non-Selected Companies Under Review</HD>
                <P>
                    The Act and Commerce's regulations do not directly address the establishment of a rate to be applied to companies not selected for individual examination when Commerce limits its examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the Act. Generally, Commerce looks to section 705(c)(5) of the Act, which provides instructions for determining the all-others rate in an investigation, for guidance when calculating the rate for companies that were not selected for individual examination in an administrative review. Section 777A(e)(2) of the Act provides that “the individual countervailable subsidy rates determined under subparagraph (A) shall be used to determine the all-others rate under section 705(c)(5) {of the Act}.” Under section 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act, the all-others rate is normally “an amount equal to the weighted average of the countervailable subsidy rates established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     countervailable subsidy rates, and any rates determined entirely {on the basis of facts available}.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, to determine the rate for companies not selected for individual examination, Commerce's practice is to weight average the net subsidy rates for the selected mandatory respondents, excluding rates that are zero, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     or based entirely on facts available.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In this case, Commerce found a 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     rate for Teknik. Therefore, the only rate that is not zero, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     or based entirely on facts otherwise available is the rate calculated for Assan. Consequently, the rate calculated for Assan is also assigned as the rate for the non-selected companies.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Certain Pasta from Italy: Final Results of the 13th (2008) Countervailing Duty Administrative Review,</E>
                        75 FR 37386, 37387 (June 29, 2010).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Review</HD>
                <P>
                    We determine that the following net countervailable subsidy rates exist for the period January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         This rate is applicable to Assan Aluminyum Sanayi ve Ticaret A.S. and its cross-owned companies Kibar Americas, Inc. and Kibar Dış Ticaret A.S.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s40,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Producer/exporter</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Subsidy rate
                            <LI>(percent </LI>
                            <LI>
                                <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Assan Aluminyum Sanayi ve Ticaret A.S 
                            <SU>9</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Teknik Aluminyum Sanayi A.S</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0.33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Non-Selected Companies Under Review</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * (
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Disclosure</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to disclose the calculations performed for these final results to interested parties within five days after public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise covered by this review. Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with section 751(a)(1) of the Act, Commerce also intends to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17943"/>
                    instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amounts shown for the companies listed above on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this administrative review. Because the rate calculated for Teknik is 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     no cash deposit will be required on shipments of the subject merchandise entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the all-others rate or the most recent company-specific rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit requirements, effective upon publication of these final results, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order (APO)</HD>
                <P>This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation subject to sanction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>Commerce is issuing these final results and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        III. Scope of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        IV. Changes Since the 
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Subsidies Valuation Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Analysis of Programs</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Discussion of the Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Whether to Apply Adverse Facts Available (AFA) to the GOT</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Whether the Corporate Tax Reduction for Manufacturers Program is Countervailable</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 3: Whether the BITT—Tax Exemption for Export Loans Program is Countervailable</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 4: Whether the BITT—Tax Exemption on Foreign Exchange Transactions Program is Countervailable</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 5: Whether to Revise the Methodology with Regard to Assan's Countervailable Benefits from Income Tax Incentives Under the Regional Investment Incentive Scheme (RIIS) and Research and Development (R&amp;D) Law</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 6: Whether to Exclude Intercompany Sales from Assan's Sales Denominators</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 7: Whether to Adjust the Calculation of Assistance to Offset Costs Related to Antidumping Duty (AD)/CVD Investigations for the Final Results</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 8: Whether to Apply High Inflation Adjustments to the CVD Rate Calculations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 9: Whether to Offset Teknik's AD Cash Deposit Rate by the Amount of Any Export Subsidies Calculated in this Review</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Recommendation</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06878 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF664]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Marine Mammals; File No. 29107</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; receipt of application.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that Susana Caballero, Ph.D., Nova Southeastern University, 8000 North Ocean Drive, Dania Beach, Florida 33004, has applied in due form for a permit to conduct research on marine mammals and marine mammal parts that are imported, exported, or received.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page, 
                        <E T="03">https://apps.nmfs.noaa.gov,</E>
                         and then selecting File No. 29107 from the list of available applications. These documents are also available upon written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Written comments on this application should be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Please include File No. 29107 in the subject line of the email comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jennifer Skidmore and Shasta McClenahan, Ph.D., (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the regulations governing the taking and importing of marine mammals (50 CFR part 216), the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the regulations governing the taking, importing, and exporting of endangered and threatened species (50 CFR parts 222-226), and the Fur Seal Act of 1966, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1151 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The applicant requests a 7-year permit to study genetic diversity, population structure, and connectivity of marine mammals in Florida, the Caribbean, South America, and Antarctica. Research activities in Florida, Puerto Rico, and Antarctica will include behavioral observations, photography, filming, close approaches for eDNA sampling, and unintentional harassment. In addition, the applicant may biopsy sample animals in Puerto Rico and Antarctica including humpback whales (
                    <E T="03">Megaptera novaeangliae</E>
                    ), Clymene dolphins (
                    <E T="03">Syenella clymene</E>
                    ), bottlenose dolphins (
                    <E T="03">Tursiops truncatus</E>
                    ), Atlantic spotted dolphins (
                    <E T="03">Stenella frontalis</E>
                    ), pantropical spotted dolphins (
                    <E T="03">Stenella attenuata</E>
                    ), leopard seal (
                    <E T="03">Hydrurga leptonyx</E>
                    ), Southern elephant seal (
                    <E T="03">Mirounga leonina</E>
                    ), and crabeater seal (
                    <E T="03">Lobodon carcinophaga</E>
                    ). The applicant will also import, export, and receive parts taken under other authorizations from cetaceans and pinnipeds (except for walrus) worldwide. See the application for numbers of animals requested by location, species or taxa group, life stage, and procedure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), an initial determination has been made that the activity proposed is categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , NMFS is forwarding copies of the application to the Marine Mammal Commission and its Committee of Scientific Advisors.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17944"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Shannon Bettridge,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Marine Mammal and Sea Turtle Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06840 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF656]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Marine Mammals; File No. 29467</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; receipt of application.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that Jing Guo, University of Rochester, HH425 Hutchison Hall, Rochester, NY 14627 has applied in due form for a permit to import, export, and receive cetacean parts for scientific research.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page, 
                        <E T="03">https://apps.nmfs.noaa.gov,</E>
                         and then selecting File No. 29467 from the list of available applications. These documents are also available upon written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Written comments on this application should be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Please include File No. 29467 in the subject line of the email comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Shasta McClenahan, Ph.D., or Jennifer Skidmore, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the regulations governing the taking and importing of marine mammals (50 CFR part 216), the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and the regulations governing the taking, importing, and exporting of endangered and threatened species (50 CFR parts 222-226).
                </P>
                <P>The applicant requests an 8-year permit to develop cell lines and study the molecular mechanisms underlying exceptional longevity, stress resistance, and cancer suppression. Parts from up to 60 individual cetaceans may be imported, exported, and received annually.</P>
                <P>
                    In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), an initial determination has been made that the activity proposed is categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , NMFS is forwarding copies of the application to the Marine Mammal Commission and its Committee of Scientific Advisors.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Shannon Bettridge,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Marine Mammal and Sea Turtle Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06871 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF669]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Gulf of America; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of webinar.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 98 assessment process for Gulf red snapper will consist of a Data Workshop, a series of assessment webinars, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR 98 Assessment Webinar VIII will be held May 1, 2026, from 10 a.m. until 1 p.m., Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">www.sedarweb.org.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The meeting will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. Those interested in participating should contact Julie A. Neer at SEDAR (See 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ) to request an invitation providing webinar access information. Please request webinar invitations at least 24 hours in advance of each webinar.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie A. Neer, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 571-4366; email: 
                        <E T="03">Julie.neer@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with the National Marine Fisheries Service and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process. SEDAR is a participatory process for developing, evaluating and reviewing information used for fisheries management advice. This multi-step process for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region may include (1) a Data stage, and (2) an Assessment stage, and (3) a Review stage. Each stage produces a report summarizing decisions made during that stage. A final stock assessment report is produced at the end of a SEDAR process documenting data sets used, model configurations and the opinions from the independent peer review. Participants for SEDAR projects are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and National Marine Fisheries Service Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants may include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies.</P>
                <P>The items of discussion during the Assessment Webinar VIII are as follows: Participants will review the assessment modelling work to date and make final recommendations.</P>
                <P>
                    Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17945"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06875 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF615]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) application contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. The EFP would allow federally permitted fishing vessels to fish outside fishery regulations in support of exempted fishing activities proposed by the Gloucester Marine Genomics Institute. Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for proposed EFPs.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before April 24, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit written comments by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: nmfs.gar.efp@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Include in the subject line “GMGI 2026 Lobster Genomics EFP”.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All comments received are a part of the public record and may be posted for public viewing without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “anonymous” as the signature if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Caroline Potter, Fishery Resource Management Specialist, 
                        <E T="03">Caroline.Potter@noaa.gov,</E>
                         (978) 281-9325.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gloucester Marine Genomics Institute submitted a complete application for an EFP to conduct commercial fishing activities that the regulations would otherwise restrict. This EFP would exempt the participating vessels from the following Federal regulations:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Requested Exemptions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">CFR citation</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Regulation</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Need for exemption</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">50 CFR 697.20(c)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lobster Mutilation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Landing legs from ovigerous female lobsters.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r150">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Project Summary</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Project title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Genomic population structure of American lobster in U.S. waters for stock delineation</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project start</ENT>
                        <ENT>06/01/2026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project end</ENT>
                        <ENT>09/30/2027.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project objectives</ENT>
                        <ENT>To assess spatial stock structure and signals of natural selection of American lobster to improve management unit delineations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project location</ENT>
                        <ENT>Statistical Areas 515, 562, 526, 537, and 616.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Number of vessels</ENT>
                        <ENT>Maximum of 8.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Number of trips</ENT>
                        <ENT>Approximately 6.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Trip duration (days)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total number of days</ENT>
                        <ENT>Approximately 18.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Gear type(s)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lobster pots.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Number of tows or sets</ENT>
                        <ENT>30 per trip.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Duration of tows or sets</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Project Narrative</HD>
                <P>This project would assess spatial stock structure and signals of natural selection of American lobster by using a population genomics approach. The intention is for the project to assist in improving management unit delineations for lobster in the Gulf of Maine, Georges Bank, and Southern New England regions. To achieve this, the project sets four aims: (1) Improve the chromosome-level reference genome assembly for the American lobster; (2) build collaborative partnerships with commercial lobstermen and regional lobster biologists by collecting lobster tissue samples from U.S. waters and one Canadian location; (3) assess genetic population structure and interpret responses to regional and environmental conditions recorded within the genome; and (4) disseminate results to the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission's American Lobster Technical Committee to improve stock delineations and management strategies.</P>
                <P>
                    Samples would be collected at six locations throughout the Gulf of Maine, Georges Bank/Great South Channel, and Southern New England. At each of the six locations, fishermen would fish for lobster using standard lobster pots, which would be configured and set consistent with offshore lobster fishing practices. This fishing activity is planned to be conducted as part of the fishermen's regular fishing activity. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17946"/>
                    Legal lobsters that are harvested during the trips would be landed for sale. For each late-stage egg-bearing female, the fishermen would remove for collection the smallest walking leg. After recording carapace length and latitude/longitude, the female would be released. A maximum of 240 samples would be collected from across the 6 locations, with a target sample size of 25 at each location. One trip would be taken for each location with each trip lasting 3 days.
                </P>
                <P>If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the year. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David R. Blankinship,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06793 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF662]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered Species; File No. 29414</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; receipt of application.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given that Jesse Senko, Ph.D., Arizona State University, School of Ocean Futures, 777 E. University Dr., Tempe, AZ 85281, has applied in due form for a permit to take green (
                        <E T="03">Chelonia mydas</E>
                        ), hawksbill (
                        <E T="03">Eretmochelys imbricata</E>
                        ), Kemp's ridley (
                        <E T="03">Lepidochelys kempii</E>
                        ), leatherback (
                        <E T="03">Dermochelys coriacea</E>
                        ), loggerhead (
                        <E T="03">Caretta caretta</E>
                        ), and olive ridley (
                        <E T="03">L. olivacea</E>
                        ) sea turtles for purposes of scientific research.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page, 
                        <E T="03">https://apps.nmfs.noaa.gov,</E>
                         and then selecting File No. 29414 from the list of available applications. These documents are also available upon written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Written comments on this application should be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Please include File No. 29414 in the subject line of the email comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request via email to 
                        <E T="03">NMFS.Pr1Comments@noaa.gov.</E>
                         The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Amy Hapeman or Erin Markin, Ph.D., (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and the regulations governing the taking, importing, and exporting of endangered and threatened species (50 CFR parts 222-226).
                </P>
                <P>The applicant proposes to develop and test technologies to reduce sea turtle bycatch in pound nets and gillnets in North Carolina waters. Researchers would capture sea turtles in pound nets and gillnets and perform the following procedures before their release: handling, measuring, photography, and flipper and passive integrated transponder tagging. The applicant also requests to perform this suite of post-capture procedures on animals that are legally incidentally caught in the Virginia pound net fishery in the Chesapeake Bay. Researchers would annually take up to 175 green, 4 hawksbill, 110 Kemp's ridley, 9 leatherback, 245 loggerhead, 4 olive, and 10 unidentified sea turtles across both locations and projects combined. Dr. Senko also requests unintentional mortality for up to two green, two loggerhead, one Kemp's ridley, one hawksbill, one leatherback, and one olive ridley sea turtles over the life of the permit during netting operations in North Carolina. The permit would be valid for 5 years.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Shannon Bettridge,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Marine Mammal and Sea Turtle Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06830 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF486]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska; Central Gulf of Alaska Rockfish Program Cost Recovery Fee Notice</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of standard prices and fee percentage.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS publishes the standard ex-vessel prices and fee percentage for cost recovery under the Central Gulf of Alaska (GOA) Rockfish Program (Rockfish Program). This action is intended to provide participants in a rockfish cooperative with the standard prices and fee percentage for the 2025 fishing year, which was authorized from April 1 through November 15. The fee percentage is 3.00 percent. The fee payments were due from each rockfish cooperative on or before February 15, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Valid on April 9, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Dana Whitely, 907-586-7231.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The rockfish fisheries are conducted in Federal waters near Kodiak, Alaska by trawl and longline vessels. Regulations implementing the Rockfish Program are set forth at 50 CFR part 679. Exclusive harvesting privileges are allocated as quota share under the Rockfish Program for rockfish primary and secondary species. Each year, NMFS issues rockfish primary and secondary species cooperative quota (CQ) to rockfish quota share holders to authorize harvest of these species. The rockfish primary species are northern rockfish, Pacific ocean perch, and dusky rockfish. The rockfish secondary species include Pacific cod, rougheye rockfish, shortraker rockfish, sablefish, and thornyhead rockfish. Rockfish cooperatives began fishing under the Rockfish Program in 2012.</P>
                <P>
                    The Rockfish Program is a limited access privilege program established under the provisions of section 303A of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). Sections 303A and 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act require NMFS to collect fees to recover 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17947"/>
                    the actual costs directly related to the management, data collection and analysis, and enforcement of any limited access privilege program. Therefore, NMFS is required to collect fees for the Rockfish Program under sections 303A and 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act also limits the cost recovery fee so that it may not exceed 3.00 percent of the ex-vessel value of the fish harvested under the Rockfish Program.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Standard Prices</HD>
                <P>NMFS calculates cost recovery fees based on standard ex-vessel value prices, rather than actual price data provided by each rockfish CQ holder. Use of standard ex-vessel prices is allowed under sections 303A and 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. NMFS generates a standard ex-vessel price for each rockfish primary and secondary species on a monthly basis to determine the average price paid per pound (lb) for all shoreside processors receiving rockfish primary and secondary species CQ. Rockfish processors that receive and purchase landings of rockfish CQ groundfish must submit, on an annual basis, a volume and value report for the period April 1 to November 15 (50 CFR 679.5(r)(10)(ii)).</P>
                <P>Regulations at 50 CFR 679.85(b)(2) require the Regional Administrator to publish rockfish standard ex-vessel values during the first quarter of each calendar year. The standard prices are described in U.S. dollars per pound for rockfish primary and secondary species CQ landings made during the previous year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Fee Percentage</HD>
                <P>NMFS assesses a fee on the standard ex-vessel value of rockfish primary species and rockfish secondary species CQ harvested by rockfish cooperatives in the Central GOA and waters adjacent to the Central GOA when rockfish primary species caught by a cooperative are deducted from the Federal total allowable catch. The rockfish entry level longline fishery and trawl vessels that opt out of joining a cooperative are not subject to cost recovery fees because those participants do not receive rockfish CQ. Specific details on the Rockfish Program's cost recovery provision may be found in the implementing regulations set forth at 50 CFR 679.85.</P>
                <P>NMFS informs, by letter, each rockfish cooperative of the fee percentage applied to the previous year's landings and the total amount due. Fees are due on or before February 15 of each year. Failure to pay on time would result in the permit holder's rockfish quota share becoming non-transferable, and the person would be ineligible to receive any additional rockfish quota share by transfer. In addition, cooperative members will not receive any rockfish CQ the following year until full payment of the fee is received by NMFS.</P>
                <P>
                    NMFS calculates and publishes in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the fee percentage in the first quarter of each year according to the factors and methods described in Federal regulations at 50 CFR 679.85(c)(2). NMFS determines the fee percentage that applies to landings made in the previous year by dividing the total Rockfish Program management, data collection and analysis, and enforcement costs (direct program costs) during the previous year by the total standard ex-vessel value of the rockfish primary species and rockfish secondary species for all rockfish CQ landings made during the previous year (fishery value). NMFS captures the direct program costs through an established accounting system that allows staff to track labor, travel, contracts, and procurement. Fee collections in any given year may be less than or greater than the direct program costs and fishery value for that year, as the fee percentage is established by regulation in the first quarter of the calendar year based on the program costs and the fishery value of the previous calendar year.
                </P>
                <P>Using the fee percentage formula described above, the estimated percentage of program costs to value for the 2025 calendar year is 3.05 percent of the standard ex-vessel value; since this is higher than the statutory cap, the fee percentage is capped at 3.00 percent. Program costs for 2025 decreased by 35 percent compared to 2024 costs and the fishery value increased by approximately 60 percent resulting in a lower estimated fee percentage.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,xs40,8">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Standard Ex-Vessel Prices by Species for the 2025 Rockfish Program Season in Kodiak, Alaska</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Month</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Average price/lb</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dusky Rockfish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Northern Rockfish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pacific Cod</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.32</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.29</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pacific Ocean Perch</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rougheye Rockfish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sablefish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.06</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Shortraker Rockfish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Thornyhead Rockfish</ENT>
                        <ENT>April</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>May</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>June</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.16</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>July</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>August</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>September</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>October</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>November</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 773 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     3631 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     Public Law 108-447; Public Law 111-281.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David R. Blankinship,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06870 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17948"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; West Coast Fisheries Participation Survey</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on December 10, 2025, during a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     West Coast Fisheries Participation Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0648-0749.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Regular submission. A revision and extension of a current information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     908.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     0.25 (15 minutes).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     227 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This request is for a revision and extension of an existing information collection. This survey updates the 2023 survey to remove a question regarding identity in underserved groups and provide multiple choice answer options for two questions that were previously open-ended in order to reduce response time.
                </P>
                <P>This collection is sponsored by the Northwest Fisheries Science Center (NWFSC), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. The overall purpose of collecting these data is to develop stakeholder-based societal inputs relative to fisheries participation, but these survey data will also increase the capacity of NOAA to respond effectively to relevant mandates and executive orders that guide social science activities within the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MFCMA) and its National Standard 8, and the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).</P>
                <P>Fishing livelihoods are both centrally dependent on ecosystems and part of the forces acting on these ecosystems, including resident marine species. Alongside social factors like economics and management, fisheries population fluctuations shape fishing livelihoods. However, the decisions fishermen make regarding which fisheries to access and when to access them are not fully understood, particularly within the food web frameworks offered up by ecosystem-based approaches to research and management. An understanding and predictive capacity for these movements of fishermen across fisheries in the context of ecological and social variability presents a significant gap in management-oriented knowledge. Managing fisheries in a way that enhances their socioeconomic value, mitigates risks to ecosystems and livelihoods, and facilitates sustainable adaptation, requires this fundamental knowledge.</P>
                <P>For this reason, the NWFSC seeks to conduct a follow-up U.S. mail survey, replicating the surveys administered during 2017, 2020, and 2023. This survey updates the 2023 survey to remove a question regarding identity in underserved groups and provide multiple choice answer options for two questions that were previously open-ended in order to reduce response time. The survey will be voluntary, and contacted individuals may decline to participate. Respondents will be asked to answer questions about their motivations for fishing and factors that affect participation in the suite of West Coast commercial fisheries. Fishing and non-fishing employment information will also be collected. This survey is essential because data on smaller scale fishing practices, values, participation decisions and fishing livelihoods are sparse; yet, they are critical to the development of fishery ecosystem models that account for non-pecuniary fishing benefits, as well as the ways in which fishing practices shape individual and community well-being.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Every three years.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MFCMA) and its National Standard 8, and NEPA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view the Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering either the title of the collection or the OMB Control Number 0648-0749.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Compliance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06902 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF658]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of webinar.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                         The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 103 assessment process of Caribbean Alternate Assessment Methods will consist of a Development Workshop, a series of Assessment Webinars, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P> The SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 3 will be held from 1 p.m. until 4 p.m. EST April 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">www.sedarweb.org.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 3 will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from or completed prior to the time established by this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Emily Ott, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 302-8434. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Emily.Ott@safmc.net</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <PRTPAGE P="17949"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                     The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with the National Marine Fisheries Service and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process. SEDAR is a participatory process for developing, evaluating and reviewing information used for fisheries management advice. This multi-step process for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region may include (1) a Data stage, and (2) an Assessment stage, and (3) a Review stage. Each stage produces a report summarizing decisions made during that stage. A final stock assessment report is produced at the end of a SEDAR process documenting data sets used, model configurations and the opinions from the independent peer review. Participants for SEDAR projects are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and National Marine Fisheries Service Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants may include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies.  The items of discussion in the SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 3 are as follows: Continue fisheries independent data review, ecosystem and life history data review, morphometrics data base. Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.  Special Accommodations  These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop. 
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06876 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF671]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>North Pacific Albacore United States Stakeholder Meeting; Meeting Announcement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS announces a U.S. stakeholder meeting to discuss North Pacific albacore (NPALB) management. This meeting is intended to provide updates from the February stakeholder webinar and gather stakeholder input to prepare for potential discussions at the 2026 annual meetings of the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC) and Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission Northern Committee (WCPFC NC) related to management of NPALB fisheries. The meeting topics are described under the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The virtual meeting will be held on May 21, 2026, from 9 a.m. to 1 p.m. HST (12 p.m. to 4 p.m. PDT). You must complete the registration process by May 14, 2026, if you plan to attend the meeting (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you plan to attend the meeting, which will be held by webinar, please register at 
                        <E T="03">https://forms.gle/GN1x1QvnuRzXBAdj9.</E>
                         Instructions for attending the meeting will be emailed to meeting participants before the meeting occurs.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Valerie Post, Pacific Islands Regional Office at 
                        <E T="03">valerie.post@noaa.gov;</E>
                         1-323-372-2946 or Tyler Lawson, West Coast Region Office at 
                        <E T="03">tyler.lawson@noaa.gov;</E>
                         1-503-230-5421.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In 2025, the WCPFC NC requested the International Scientific Committee on Tuna and Tuna-like Species in the North Pacific Ocean (ISC) to provide estimates of the historical impact of each fleet group on the NPALB stock to guide discussions on potential fleet-specific reductions if stock biomass were to fall below the threshold reference point as mandated by the harvest strategy. This stakeholder meeting is intended to discuss this topic, review preliminary results of the 2026 stock assessment for NPALB, gather stakeholder input, and prepare for anticipated discussions at the IATTC and WCPFC NC in 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NPALB U.S. Stakeholder Meeting Topics</HD>
                <P>The meeting agenda will be distributed to participants in advance of the meeting. The meeting agenda will include a discussion on the executive summary of the 2026 NPALB stock assessment and updated estimates by the ISC of the historical impact of fleet groups. The meeting agenda will also discuss translating fishing intensity into catch and/or effort limits for NPALB, and potential modifications to the harvest strategy. Additionally, a timeline of important events leading up to the 2026 meeting of the WCPFC NC will be discussed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be indicated when registering for the meeting (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) by May 14, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 951 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and 16 U.S.C. 6901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David R. Blankinship,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06853 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Patent and Trademark Office</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: PTO-P-2026-0199]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>PCT Informed Examination Request Pilot Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO or Office) is implementing the PCT Informed Examination Request (PIER) Pilot Program to assess the inventory and efficiency impacts of requiring an applicant to request examination in view of applicable Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) international phase work products. The USPTO will select certain 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17950"/>
                        national stage patent applications for the program. In an application selected for the program, the USPTO will issue a requirement for information referencing the applicable international phase work products and requiring the applicant to indicate whether the applicant opts to: proceed with examination (with the option to place the application in better condition for examination by filing a preliminary amendment), delay examination, or expressly abandon the application in view of the international phase work products. The applicant must respond to the requirement for information to avoid abandonment of the application. The USPTO expects that requiring applicants to indicate that examination is desired upon review of international phase work products present in the application file will contribute to efforts to reduce inventory and pendency.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The USPTO will select applications to participate in the PIER Pilot Program beginning April 9, 2026 until April 9, 2027. The USPTO may extend the program to select additional patent applications if it determines that more information is needed to evaluate the effectiveness of the program. The USPTO may, at its sole discretion, terminate the program for any reason, including factors such as workload and resources needed to administer the program, feedback from the public, and effectiveness of the program. If the program is terminated, the USPTO will notify the public on its website.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Erin M. Harriman, Senior Legal Advisor, at (571) 272-7747; Eugenia A. Jones, Senior Legal Advisor, at (571) 272-7727; or Kristie A. Mahone, Senior Legal Advisor, at (571) 272-9016, all from the Office of Patent Legal Administration, Office of the Deputy Commissioner for Patents or via email addressed to 
                        <E T="03">PIERPilot@uspto.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The PIER Pilot Program is designed to assess the inventory and efficiency impacts of requiring applicants to request examination in view of applicable Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) international phase work products. The USPTO will select certain applications for the program, as identified in Part I of this notice, from the inventory of unexamined national stage applications.</P>
                <P>For selected applications that entered the national stage under 35 U.S.C. 371, the USPTO will issue a requirement for information pertaining to the international phase work products in the national stage file. International phase work products include the International Search Report (ISR) and any opinion expressed in a Written Opinion (WO) or International Preliminary Report on Patentability (IPRP). Thus, the requirement for information will reference applicable PCT international phase work products in the application file and require the applicant to indicate, based on review of international phase work products present in the application file, whether the applicant opts to proceed with the national phase of examination, delay the national phase of examination under the program, or expressly abandon the national stage application.</P>
                <P>If the applicant desires to proceed with examination of an application selected for the program, the applicant must submit a timely and complete reply to the requirement for information using the reply form described in Part IV of this notice. The reply form references applicable PCT international work products and provides the applicant with the ability to indicate whether the applicant opts to: proceed with examination, delay examination for 12 months from the date of receipt of the request to delay examination, or expressly abandon the application. A delay in examination under the program provides the applicant with additional time to consider the value and commercial potential of their invention at no additional cost. If the applicant opts to proceed with examination, with or without delay, the applicant may additionally opt to place the application in better condition for examination by filing a preliminary amendment. Alternatively, if the applicant opts not to proceed with examination, the applicant may file a request to expressly abandon the application. A complete reply to a requirement for information issued under the program requesting examination will result in the application being placed on an examiner's docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part I. Pilot Program Eligibility</HD>
                <P>The USPTO will select certain unexamined national stage applications for the PIER Pilot Program intermittently until the close of the program. To be selected for the program, the application must be an international application that entered the national stage under 35 U.S.C. 371. Applications filed under 35 U.S.C. 111(a), including plant applications, design applications, and reissue applications, will not be selected.</P>
                <P>Applications entered into the program are at the sole discretion of the USPTO. The USPTO will not grant any petition to participate, abstain, or be removed from the program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part II. International Phase Work Products for Applications Entering the National Stage Under 35 U.S.C. 371</HD>
                <P>
                    For selected applications that have entered the national stage, the USPTO will issue a requirement for information as discussed in Part III of this notice. Typically, a national stage application file includes the International Search Report (ISR) and the Written Opinion prepared by the International Searching Authority (WO/ISA). The ISR lists the prior art with relevancy indicators (in the form of citation categories as provided for in WIPO Standard ST. 14), and the WO/ISA provides a preliminary, non-binding assessment of patentability in view of the ISR references. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     sections 1893.03(e) and 1845 of the Manual of Patent Examining Procedure (MPEP) (9th Edition, Rev. 01.2024, November 2024). The national stage file may also contain any Supplemental International Search (SIS) requested by the applicant. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 1856. Further, if the applicant timely filed a demand for preliminary examination under Chapter II of the PCT, the International Preliminary Report on Patentability (IPRP) (Chapter II of the PCT) will also be included in the national stage file. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 1893.03(e).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part III. Pilot Program Requirement for Information Under 37 CFR 1.105</HD>
                <P>
                    Only national stage applications that have completed pre-examination processing will be selected for the program. In selected applications, the USPTO will issue a requirement for information under 37 CFR 1.105 that will be placed in the file. A requirement for information issued under the program is an Office action under 35 U.S.C. 132, but not a first action on the merits. The requirement for information will set a two-month period for reply, which the applicant may extend for up to six months in accordance with 37 CFR 1.136(a). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 704.13.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A requirement for information under the program will require the applicant to indicate whether the applicant opts to proceed with examination, delay examination for 12 months from the date of receipt of the request to delay examination, or expressly abandon the application in accordance with 37 CFR 1.138. To avoid abandonment of an application selected for the program, the applicant must submit a complete and timely reply using the USPTO form described in Part IV of this notice. A complete reply to a requirement for information requesting to proceed with examination will result in the application being placed on an examiner's docket. A complete reply 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17951"/>
                    requesting delay of examination will result in the application being placed on an examiner's docket after the expiration of the 12-month delay period. Thus, an applicant who desires to prosecute the application will have greater control as to when their application will be examined.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A delay of examination under the PIER Pilot Program is distinct from a suspension or deferral request under 37 CFR 1.103. The option to delay examination under the program affords the applicant a non-terminable 12-month period after the date of receipt of the request to delay examination under the program to assess the viability of the invention, without the processing fee required for a suspension or deferral of examination. The Office will treat the request for the 12-month delay of examination as a failure of an applicant to engage in reasonable efforts to conclude processing or examination of an application under 35 U.S.C. 154(b)(2)(C)(i) and (iii) and 37 CFR 1.704(c). The delay period begins on the date of the receipt of the request to delay examination and ends on the one year anniversary date of the request. In addition, the mailing of the requirement under 37 CFR 1.105 will be considered the date that the Office met the requirement of 35 U.S.C. 154(b)(1)(A)(i) and 37 CFR 1.702(a)(1). If the applicant desires to avoid further prosecution costs, the applicant may request to expressly abandon the application under 37 CFR 1.138(a) in reply to the requirement for information. The applicant may also file a petition under 37 CFR 1.138(c) for express abandonment to avoid publication of the application. However, such a petition must be submitted as a separate request (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     form PTO/AIA/24A) accompanying the reply to the requirement for information. A petition for express abandonment under 37 CFR 1.138(c) generally will not be effective to stop publication of the application unless it is recognized by the appropriate Office personnel more than four weeks prior to the projected publication date. Where an applicant files a request to expressly abandon the application under 37 CFR 1.138(a) in reply to the requirement for information, such a request will still be granted (if properly signed) even if the petition under 37 CFR 1.138(c) cannot be granted. Because a requirement for information is an action under 35 U.S.C. 132, express abandonment under 37 CFR 1.138(d) to obtain a refund of the search and excess claims fees is unavailable. A registered practitioner acting in a representative capacity is not authorized to sign an express abandonment except when filing a continuing application. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     37 CFR 1.138(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part IV. Replying to a Pilot Program Requirement for Information</HD>
                <P>
                    An applicant must use form PTO/SB/478 to reply to a requirement for information under the program. If filing the PTO/SB/478 electronically in Patent Center (at 
                    <E T="03">https://patentcenter.uspto.gov</E>
                    ), the applicant must use the document description provided on the form to ensure that the appropriate area of the USPTO is notified of the reply. Under 5 CFR 1320.3(h), Form PTO/SB/478 does not collect “information” within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Use of the form will enable the USPTO to quickly identify and timely process the applicant's reply. The form will be available at: 
                    <E T="03">www.uspto.gov/PatentForms.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Form PTO/SB/478 includes a reference to applicable PCT international work products. The form also includes a series of selectable checkboxes for the applicant to indicate whether a request is being made to proceed with examination, delay examination, or expressly abandon the application. If the applicant opts to proceed with examination (including after the 12-month delay), the applicant may additionally file a preliminary amendment in compliance with 37 CFR 1.115. Alternatively, if the applicant selects the option to expressly abandon the application, it is recommended that, in addition to selecting the express abandonment checkbox, the applicant also include a separate request for express abandonment under 37 CFR 1.138, (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     form PTO/AIA/24) to facilitate processing. As discussed above, a registered practitioner acting in a representative capacity is not authorized to sign an express abandonment except when filing a continuing application. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     37 CFR 1.138(b). Therefore, the only time the USPTO will accept form PTO/SB/478 with the express abandonment box selected and signed by an individual who is acting in a representative capacity is when a separate letter of express abandonment is also submitted indicating that the application is expressly abandoned in favor of a continuing application (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     form PTO/AIA/24). In all other instances, when the express abandonment box is selected, form PTO/SB/478 must be signed by an individual authorized under 37 CFR 1.33(b)(1) or (b)(3), that is by the patent practitioner of record, or by the applicant who is not a juristic entity. See MPEP 711.01 for more information on express abandonment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, as discussed above, the applicant may also file a petition under 37 CFR 1.138(c) for express abandonment to avoid publication of the application. However, such a petition must be submitted as a separate request (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     form PTO/AIA/24A). See Part V of this notice for information on treatment of an incomplete reply to a requirement for information under the program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Prior to selecting the express abandonment checkbox (Item 2c) on the PTO/SB/478, it is imperative that the attorney or agent of record exercise every precaution in ascertaining that the abandonment of the application is in accordance with the desires and best interests of the applicant. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 711.01. Note that where the applicant deliberately permits an application to become abandoned, the abandonment of such application is considered to be a deliberately chosen course of action, and the resulting delay cannot be considered as “unintentional” within the meaning of 37 CFR 1.137. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 711.03(c), subsection II.C.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part V. Internal Processing of an Applicant's Reply to a Pilot Program Requirement for Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Failure to timely submit a complete, properly signed PTO/SB/478 will result in abandonment of the application. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 711.02. USPTO personnel will review PTO/SB/478 and any accompanying documents (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     preliminary amendment, petition under 37 CFR 1.138(c)).
                </P>
                <P>In order for an applicant's reply to be considered complete, the PTO/SB/478 must be properly signed and only one of the provided checkboxes must be selected. Note that a reply under 37 CFR 1.105(a)(3) that states that the information required to be submitted is unknown to or is not readily available would not be considered a proper reply because, if the applicant has not determined whether they would like to move forward with examination, the applicant has the option to delay examination for a period of 12 months.</P>
                <P>
                    An incomplete or improperly signed PTO/SB/478 will be handled in substantially the same manner as an amendment not fully responsive to a non-final Office action. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 704.12(c) and MPEP 714.03. If an applicant's reply is a 
                    <E T="03">bona fide</E>
                     attempt to advance action on the application, the applicant will be notified of the deficiency and may be given a shortened statutory period of two months to provide a fully responsive reply. Extensions of this time period set 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17952"/>
                    by the notice of nonresponsive reply will be permitted under 37 CFR 1.136(a), but in no way can any extension carry the date for reply to this notice beyond the maximum period of six months set by statute. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     35 U.S.C. 133. However, any further nonresponsive reply typically will not be treated as 
                    <E T="03">bona fide</E>
                     and, therefore, the time period set in the prior notice will continue to run.
                </P>
                <P>If the applicant has submitted a complete reply opting to proceed with examination, the application will be placed on an examiner's docket. Alternatively, if an applicant's complete reply includes a request for delay of examination, the USPTO will notify the applicant that the request to delay examination under the program has been approved. Once a request to delay examination under the program has been approved, the applicant will not be permitted to terminate the delay period early. The application will be docketed for examination after the expiration of 12 months from the date of receipt of the request to delay examination under the program.</P>
                <P>
                    When examining an application that entered the national stage under 35 U.S.C. 371, the examiner will consider all U.S patent applications, U.S. patent application publications, and U.S. pending applications cited in the ISR and stored in the USPTO's Image File Wrapper (IFW) system. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     MPEP 609.03. Other cited documents will be considered by the examiner if form PCT/DO/E.O./903 indicates that the ISR and the copies of such documents are present in the national stage file. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     The examiner is not required to list references cited in the ISR on a PTO-892 and there is no requirement for the applicant to separately list the references. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     References cited in the PCT international phase will only be printed on a resulting patent if the applicant cites the references on an IDS in compliance with 37 CFR 1.97 and 1.98. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     and MPEP 609.06.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Part VI. Evaluation of the Pilot Program</HD>
                <P>
                    The pilot program is designed to assess the inventory and efficiency impacts of requesting examination in view of applicable PCT international phase work products. The USPTO plans to evaluate how requiring an applicant who desires to prosecute an application to request examination in view of international phase work products in the application file impacts an applicant's decision making and application inventory, as well as the quality and efficiency of examination. During or after the pilot program, the USPTO anticipates providing an avenue for participants to provide feedback regarding the pilot program. As applicable, the USPTO will follow the GAO's Leading Practices for Effective Pilot Design, including: (1) establishing clear objectives; (2) collecting relevant data; (3) evaluating outcomes; (4) considering scalability; and (5) ensuring stakeholder communication. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     GAO, 
                    <E T="03">Data Act: Section 5 Pilot Design Issues Need to Be Addressed to Meet Goal of Reducing Recipient Reporting Burden,</E>
                     GAO-16-438 (Washington, DC; April 19, 2016).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>John A. Squires,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Under Secretary of Commerce for Intellectual Property and Director of the United States Patent and Trademark Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06903 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-16-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION OF FINE ARTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Per 45 CFR Chapter XXI § 2102.3, the next meeting of the U.S. Commission of Fine Arts is scheduled for April 16, 2026, at 9:00 a.m. and will be held in the Commission offices at the National Building Museum, Suite 312, Judiciary Square, 401 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20001-2728. Items of discussion may include buildings, infrastructure, parks, memorials, and public art.</P>
                <P>
                    Draft agendas and additional information regarding the Commission are available on our website: 
                    <E T="03">www.cfa.gov.</E>
                     Inquiries regarding the agenda, as well as any public testimony, and requests to submit written or oral statements should be addressed to Thomas Luebke, Secretary, U.S. Commission of Fine Arts, at the above address; by emailing 
                    <E T="03">cfastaff@cfa.gov;</E>
                     or by calling 202-504-2200. Individuals requiring sign language interpretation for the hearing impaired should contact the Secretary at least 10 days before the meeting date.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated March 5, 2026 in Washington, DC.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Zakiya N. Walters,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrative Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06855 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6330-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Proposed Deletions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed deletions from the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Committee is proposing to delete products and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before: May 09, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Deletions</HD>
                <P>The following product(s) and service(s) are proposed for deletion to the Procurement List:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Product(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1005-01-470-3006—Case, Carrying, M240</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1005-01-526-8280—Carrying strap</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Chautauqua County Chapter, NYSARC, Jamestown, NY
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE, W4GG HQ US ARMY TACOM
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4210-00-542-3480—Hose, Fire, Lightweight, Lined, White, 1″ x 50′</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         NEWVIEW Oklahoma, Inc., Oklahoma City, OK
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSEGENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FSS GREATER SOUTHWEST ACQUISITI
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8415-00-105-0605—Cover, M1 Helmet, Woodland Camouflage</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Lions Volunteer Blind Industries, Inc., Morristown, TN
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE, DLA TROOP SUPPORT
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8415-01-549-4944—Cover, Lightweight Helmet w/Pad System, Camouflage, XS/S</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8415-01-549-4946—Cover, Lightweight Helmet w/Pad System, Camouflage, M/L</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8415-01-549-4948—Cover, Lightweight Helmet w/Pad System, Camouflage, XL</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Lions Volunteer Blind Industries, Inc., Morristown, TN
                        <PRTPAGE P="17953"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEFENSE LOGISTICS AGENCY, DLA TROOP SUPPORT
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE ARMY, W6QK ACC-APG NATICK
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7920-01-487-5023—Cleaner, Griddle, Handle, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7930-01-487-5022—Cleaner, Griddle, Replacement, 3.2 oz, BX/40</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7930-01-488-5450—Cleaner, Griddle, Replacement, 1 Qt</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Beacon Lighthouse, Inc., Wichita Falls, TX
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Total Government Requirement
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FSS GREATER SOUTHWEST ACQUISITI
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-089-9084—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-090-9827—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-090-9828—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-090-9829—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 20″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-091-8958—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-091-8959—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-091-8961—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-091-8962—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-092-8502—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-092-8505—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-094-0033—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-095-7831—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 20″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0001—Pad, Floor, Burnishing, Animal Hair, Gray, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0011—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0012—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 13″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0013—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 14″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0018—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0020—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0035—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 15″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0036—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0038—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0046—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0048—Handle, Applicator, Scrubber, Baseboard</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7910-00-NIB-0049—Pad, Baseboard Scrubber, Polishing, White, 4
                        <FR>3/4</FR>
                        ″ x 10″
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0054—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0056—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-NIB-0058—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-382-8049—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-432-9020—Pad, Floor, Burnishing, Animal Hair, Gray, 20″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-4962—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 14″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-4963—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Animal Hair, Beige, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7910-01-512-4966—Pad, Baseboard Scrubber, Polishing, Blue, 4
                        <FR>3/4</FR>
                        ″ x 10″
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5932—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 13″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5934—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 12″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5935—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 13″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5936—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 13″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5938—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 17″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5939—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 15″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5940—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Polyester, Brown, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5941—Pad, Floor, Burnishing, Animal Hair, Gray, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5943—Pad, Floor, Burnishing, Animal Hair, Gray, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5944—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5945—Pad, Floor, Burnishing, Animal Hair, Gray, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5946—Pad, Floor, Polishing, Polyester, White, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5947—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5948—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5949—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Polyester, Red, 17″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-01-512-5951—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Polyester, Blue, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-7990—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-7991—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 14″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-7996—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-7997—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9900—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 17″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9901—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9903—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 14″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9904—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 15″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9905—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9910—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9911—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 21″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9913—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9914—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9916—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 16″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9917—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 15″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9918—Pad, Floor, Stripping, Nylon, Black, 14″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9922—Pad, Floor, Scrubbing, Nylon, Green, 22″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9924—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 19″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9925—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 18″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7910-00-820-9926—Pad, Floor, Buffing, Nylon, Tan, 17″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Beacon Lighthouse, Inc., Wichita Falls, TX
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Total Government Requirement
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FSS GREATER SOUTHWEST ACQUISITI
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Office Supply Store
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory for:</E>
                         VA Medical Center, 4150 Clement Street, Building 6 Room 118, San Francisco, CA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Associated Industries for the Blind, Milwaukee, WI
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS, NAC
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06868 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Additions and Deletions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Additions to and deletions from the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action adds service(s) to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities and deletes product(s) from the Procurement List previously furnished by such agencies.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date added to and deleted from the Procurement List:</E>
                         Additions: April 26, 2026; Deletion: May 09, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Addition</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 29, 2026 the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled (operating as the U.S. AbilityOne Commission) published an initial notice of proposed additions to the Procurement List. (91 FR 3866) The Committee determined that the service listed below is suitable for procurement by the Federal Government and has added this service 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17954"/>
                    to the Procurement List as a mandatory purchase for the contracting activity listed. In accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.3(b), the mandatory purchase requirement is limited to the contracting activity at the location listed, and in accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.2, the Committee has authorized the nonprofit agency listed as the authorized source of supply.
                </P>
                <P>After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the service(s) and impact of the additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the service(s) listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">End of Certification</HD>
                <P>1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.</P>
                <P>2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the service(s) to the Government.</P>
                <P>3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service(s) deleted from the Procurement List.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">End of Certification</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the following service(s) are added to the Procurement List:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Services(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Logistics Support Service
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory for:</E>
                         US Air Force, Los Angeles Space Force Base, El Segundo, CA,483 N Aviation Blvd., El Segundo, CA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         PRIDE Industries, Roseville, CA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE AIR FORCE, FA2816 SMC PKO
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    The Committee finds good cause to dispense with the 30-day delay in the effective date normally required by the Administrative Procedure Act. See 5 U.S.C. 553(d). This addition to the Committee's Procurement List is effectuated because of the expiration of the Department of the Air Force's Base Logistics Services, Los Angeles Air Force Base, El Segundo, CA contract. The Federal customer contacted and has worked diligently with the AbilityOne Program to fulfill this service need under the AbilityOne Program. To avoid performance disruption, and the possibility that the Department of the Air Force will refer its business elsewhere, this addition must be effective on April 26, 2026, ensuring timely execution for a May 1, 2026, start date. The Committee published an initial notice of proposed Procurement List addition in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on January 29, 2026 (91 FR 3866) but did not receive any comments. This addition will not create a public hardship and has limited effect on the public at large. Rather, this addition will create new jobs for other affected parties—people with significant disabilities in the AbilityOne program who otherwise face challenges locating employment. Moreover, this addition enables the Federal customer to continue operations without interruption.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Deletion</HD>
                <P>On March 5, 2026 (91 FR 10798), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List. This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3.</P>
                <P>After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the product(s) listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification</HD>
                <P>I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:</P>
                <P>1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.</P>
                <P>2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the product(s) to the Government.</P>
                <P>3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products(s) deleted from the Procurement List.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">End of Certification</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the following product(s) are deleted from the Procurement List:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Product(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8470-01-303-8947—Suspension—Assembly, GT/Parachutist</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF DEFENSE, DLA TROOP SUPPORT
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        7510-01-484-1754—Binder, Round Ring, Pockets, Camouflage, 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        ″ Capacity, Letter Size
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         South Texas Lighthouse for the Blind, Corpus Christi, TX
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Total Government Requirement
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS, STRATEGIC ACQUISITION CENTER
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FAS ADMIN SVCS ACQUISITION BR(2
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NSN(s)—Product Name(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8110-01-437-4425—Mailing Tube, 18″ x 2″</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Tarrant County Association for the Blind, Fort Worth, TX
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Total Government Requirement
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FAS ADMIN SVCS ACQUISITION BR(2
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7045-01-568-4205—USB Flip Drive, Water Resistant, Silver/Black, 8GB</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7045-01-568-4210—USB Flash Drive, 256-Bit SES Encryption, Water Resistant, Silver/Black, 8GB</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         North Central Sight Services, Inc., Williamsport, PA
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory For:</E>
                         Total Government Requirement
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         GSA/FAS ADMIN SVCS ACQUISITION BR(2
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06881 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">U.S. INTERNATIONAL DEVELOPMENT FINANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[DFC-012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comments Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Development Finance Corporation (DFC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, agencies are required to publish a Notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notifying the public that the agency is renewing an existing information collection for OMB review and approval and requests public review and comment on the submission. The agencies received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional thirty (30) days for public comments to be submitted. Comments are being solicited on the need for the information; the accuracy of the burden estimate; the quality, practical utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize reporting the burden, including automated collected techniques and uses of other forms of technology.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17955"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and requests for copies of the subject information collection may be sent by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Carla Cooper, Agency Submitting Officer, U.S. International Development Finance Corporation, 1100 New York Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20527.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: fedreg@dfc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and agency form number or OMB form number for this information collection. Electronic submissions must include the agency form number in the subject line to ensure proper routing. Please note that all written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Agency Submitting Officer: Carla Cooper, (202) 926-7241.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The agency received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice published in 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     volume 91 page 4908 on February 3, 2026. Upon publication of this notice, DFC will submit to OMB a request for approval of the following information collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary Form Under Review</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Application for Debt Finance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency Form Number:</E>
                     DFC-012.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Form Number:</E>
                     3015-0001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once per request of investor.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     20.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     0.5 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     10 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The DFC Economic Questionnaire is provided to DFC investors to complete information for planned revenues and exports of goods. The resulting answers determine the sector of analysis to assess risk to the U.S. economy of DFC support for a project.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lisa Wischkaemper,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrative Counsel, Office of the General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06806 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3210-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2026-SCC-1255]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Joint Consolidation Loan Separation Application</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by searching the Docket ID number ED-2026-SCC-1255. Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by selecting the Docket ID number or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. If the 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         site is not available to the public for any reason, the Department will temporarily accept comments at 
                        <E T="03">ICDocketMgr@ed.gov.</E>
                         Please include the docket ID number and the title of the information collection request when requesting documents or submitting comments. Please note that comments submitted after the comment period will not be accepted. Written requests for information or comments submitted by postal mail or delivery should be addressed to Carolyn Rose, U.S. Department of Education, Federal Student Aid, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20202-1200.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, (202) 453-5967.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Joint Consolidation Loan Separation Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0182.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households; Private Sector; State, Local, and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     74,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     24,050.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Joint Consolidation Loan Separation Act (JCLSA), amended the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) to allow joint consolidation co-borrowers to apply to separate an existing joint Direct Consolidation Loan or Federal Consolidation Loan into individual Direct Consolidation Loans. The HEA, as amended by the JCLSA, requires joint consolidation loan borrowers to apply to the U.S. Department of Education if they wish to separate an existing joint consolidation loan into one or more individual Direct Consolidation Loans.
                </P>
                <P>The One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) signed into law on July 4, 2025, made statutory changes to Sections 455(d), 455(e), 455(g), and 455(q) that impact the terms and conditions and borrowers' rights and responsibilities for Direct Loans (including consolidation loans) received on or after July 1, 2026. This is a request for a revision of this collection to align with the requirements of the OBBBA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ross Santy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06888 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17956"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2026-SCC-1222]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program (Direct Loan Program) Promissory Notes and Related Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by searching the Docket ID number ED-2026-SCC-1222. Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by selecting the Docket ID number or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. If the 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         site is not available to the public for any reason, the Department will temporarily accept comments at 
                        <E T="03">ICDocketMgr@ed.gov.</E>
                         Please include the docket ID number and the title of the information collection request when requesting documents or submitting comments. Please note that comments submitted after the comment period will not be accepted. Written requests for information or comments submitted by postal mail or delivery should be addressed to Carolyn Rose, U.S. Department of Education, Federal Student Aid, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20202-1200.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, (202) 453-5967.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program (Direct Loan Program) Promissory Notes and related forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households; Private Sector; State, Local, and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     12,422,843.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     6,211,424.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Section 455(i) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (the HEA) requires the U.S. Department of Education (the Department) to develop, print, and distribute a standard promissory note to schools that participate in the William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program (Direct Loan Program).
                </P>
                <P>The One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) signed into law on July 4, 2025, made statutory changes to Sections 455(a), 455(d), 455(e), 455(g), and 455(q) that impact borrower eligibility, terms and conditions, and borrowers' rights and responsibilities for Direct Loans received on or after July 1, 2026. Additionally, previous provisions regulated in 34 CFR 685.209 effective July 1, 2024, were invalidated as a result of court actions on March 10, 2026. This is a request for a revision of this collection to align the promissory note with the requirements of the OBBBA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ross Santy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06890 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2026-SCC-1091]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Native American Language (NAL@ED) Application Package (1894-0001)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing an extension without change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. 
                        <E T="03">Reginfo.gov</E>
                         provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Donna Bussell, 202-453-6813.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17957"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Native American Language (NAL@ED) Application Package (1894-0001).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1810-0731.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     An extension without change of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State, Local, and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     50.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Office of Indian Education (OIE) of the U.S. Department of Education (ED) requests an extension of the information collection clearance for the Native American Language Program Grant Application (ALN84.415B), a competitive grant program authorized under Title VI, Part A, of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, as amended (ESEA).
                </P>
                <P>The grant applications submitted for this program are evaluated on the basis of how well an applicant addresses the selection criteria and are used to determine applicant eligibility and amount of award for projects selected for funding. The criteria are not expected to change prior to a future competition.</P>
                <P>This collection is being submitted under the Streamlined Clearance Process for Discretionary Grant Information Collections (1894-0001). Therefore, the 30-day public comment period notice will be the only public comment notice published for this information collection.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ross Santy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06889 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 26-30-LNG]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Cove Point LNG, LP; Application for Blanket Authorization To Export Previously Imported Liquefied Natural Gas to Non-Free Trade Agreement Countries on a Short-Term Basis</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Hydrocarbons and Geothermal Energy Office, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Hydrocarbons and Geothermal Energy Office (HGEO) (formerly the Office of Fossil Energy and Carbon Management (FECM)) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice (Notice) of receipt of an application (Application), filed on March 16, 2026, by Cove Point LNG, LP (Cove Point). Cove Point requests blanket authorization to export liquefied natural gas (LNG) previously imported into the United States by vessel from foreign sources in a volume equivalent to 70 billion cubic feet (Bcf) of natural gas on a cumulative basis over a two-year period. Cove Point filed the Application under the Natural Gas Act (NGA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Protests, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention, as applicable, requests for additional procedures, and written comments are to be filed as detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filing by Email (Strongly Encouraged): fergas@hq.doe.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail, Hand Delivery, or Private Delivery Services (e.g., FedEx, UPS, etc.):</E>
                         U.S. Department of Energy (EX-31), Office of Global Energy Security, Hydrocarbons and Geothermal Energy Office, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-056, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
                    </P>
                    <P>Due to potential delays in DOE's receipt and processing of mail sent through the U.S. Postal Service, we encourage respondents to submit filings electronically to ensure timely receipt.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        Jennifer Wade or Peri Ulrey, U.S. Department of Energy (EX-31), Office of Global Energy Security, Office of Strategic Resources, Hydrocarbons and Geothermal Energy Office, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-4749 or (202) 586-7893, 
                        <E T="03">jennifer.wade@hq.doe.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">peri.ulrey@hq.doe.gov.</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        Ajoke Agboola, U.S. Department of Energy (GC-76), Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Energy Delivery and Resilience, Forrestal Building, Room 6D-033, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (240) 805-2147, 
                        <E T="03">ajoke.agboola@hq.doe.gov</E>
                    </FP>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Cove Point requests a short-term blanket authorization to export LNG that has been previously imported into the United States from foreign sources for a two-year period commencing on July 8, 2026. Cove Point states that it will export the LNG from the existing Cove Point LNG Terminal located in Calvert County, Maryland, to any country with the capacity to import LNG via ocean-going carrier and with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy. This includes both countries with which the United States has entered into a free trade agreement (FTA) requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas (FTA countries) and all other countries (non-FTA countries). This Notice applies only to the portion of the Application requesting authority to export the LNG to non-FTA countries pursuant to section 3(a) of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b(a). Cove Point states that its existing blanket re-export authorization, set forth in DOE/FECM Order No. 5142 (Docket No. 24-30-LNG), is scheduled to expire on July 7, 2026, and therefore Cove Point requests the term of the new authorization to commence on the earlier of July 8, 2026, or the date of issuance of the new authorization. Cove Point further states that it does not seek authorization to export domestically produced natural gas or LNG.</P>
                <P>
                    Cove Point requests this authorization on its own behalf and as agent for other parties that hold title to the LNG at the time of export. Additional details can be found in Cove Point's Application, posted on the DOE website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.energy.gov/sites/default/files/2026-03/2026%20Cove%20Point%20Short%20Term%20Re-Export%20Application%203-16-26.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">DOE Evaluation</HD>
                <P>In reviewing the Application, DOE will consider any issues required by law or policy under NGA section 3(a), DOE's regulations, and any other documents deemed appropriate. Parties that may oppose the Application should address these issues and documents in their comments and/or protests, as well as other issues deemed relevant to the Application.</P>
                <P>
                    The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     requires DOE to give appropriate consideration to the environmental effects of its proposed decisions. No final decision will be issued in this proceeding until DOE has met its NEPA responsibilities.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment Procedures</HD>
                <P>
                    In response to this Notice, any person may file a protest, comments, or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention, as applicable, addressing the Application. Interested parties will be provided 30 days from the date of publication of this Notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any person wishing to become a party to this proceeding evaluating the Application must file a motion to intervene or notice of intervention.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17958"/>
                    filing of comments or a protest with respect to the Application will not serve to make the commenter or protestant a party to this proceeding, although protests and comments received from persons who are not parties will be considered in determining the appropriate action to be taken on the Application. All protests, comments, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention must meet the requirements specified by DOE's regulations in 10 CFR part 590, including the service requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         10 CFR 590.303.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) Submitting the filing electronically at 
                    <E T="03">fergas@hq.doe.gov;</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) Mailing the filing to the Office of Global Energy Security at the address listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section; or
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) Hand delivering the filing to the Office of Global Energy Security at the address listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For administrative efficiency, DOE prefers filings to be filed electronically. All filings must include a reference to “Docket No. 26-30-LNG” or “Cove Point LNG, LP Application” in the title line. Filings must be submitted in English to be considered.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Executive Order 14224 of March 1, 2025, 
                        <E T="03">Designating English as the Official Language of the United States,</E>
                         90 FR 11363 (Mar. 6, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">For electronic submissions:</E>
                     Please include all related documents and attachments (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     exhibits) in the original email correspondence. Please do not include any active hyperlinks or password protection in any of the documents or attachments related to the filing. All electronic filings submitted to DOE must follow these guidelines to ensure that all documents are filed in a timely manner.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Application, and any filed protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and comments will be available electronically on the DOE website at 
                    <E T="03">www.energy.gov/hgeo/regulation.</E>
                </P>
                <P>A decisional record on the Application will be developed through responses to this Notice by parties, including the parties' written comments and replies thereto. Additional procedures will be used as necessary to achieve a complete understanding of the facts and issues. If an additional procedure is scheduled, notice will be provided to all parties. If no party requests additional procedures, a final Order may be issued based on the official record, including the Application and responses filed by parties pursuant to this Notice, in accordance with 10 CFR 590.316.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amy Sweeney,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Global Energy Security, Office of Strategic Resources.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06836 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Closed Meetings To Implement Voluntary Agreements and Related Plans of Action Under the Defense Production Act</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Nuclear Energy, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of closed meetings and Defense Production Act Steering Committee meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The notice announces a series of closed meetings held pursuant to the Defense Production Act to discuss the implementation of its Voluntary Agreement and potential accompanying Plans of Action with entities involved in the nuclear fuel industry.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for further details.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The committee meetings were held virtually (Teams). The DPA Steering Committee Meeting was held hybrid.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Sarah McPhee-Charrez, Chief of Staff, Nuclear Fuel Cycle, Office of Nuclear Energy, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, Telephone: (202) 587-1092. Email: 
                        <E T="03">sarah.mcphee@nuclear.energy.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 708 of the Defense Production Act (“DPA”) (50 U.S.C. 4558) and consistent with the regulations set out at 10 CFR part 821, the Department of Energy (“DOE”) hereby gives notice that a series of closed meetings were held to discuss the implementation of a Voluntary Agreement and any subsequent Plans of Action regarding each of the listed topics. DOE determined that these meetings were likely to disclose information treated as trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential. As a result, DOE determined that the matters discussed in these meetings fell within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), thereby necessitating their closure to the public.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 1:</E>
                     Reactors Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 10, 2026, March 2026, March 17, 2026, March 24, 2026, and March 31, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">11:00 a.m.-11:45 a.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 2:</E>
                     Recycling and Reprocessing Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 17, 2026, March 24, 2026, and March 31, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">11:45 a.m.-12:45 p.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 3:</E>
                     Mining and Milling Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 3, 2026, March 10, 2026, March 17, 2026, March 24, and March 31, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1:00 p.m.-1:30 p.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 4:</E>
                     Utilities Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 5, 2026, March 12, 2026, and March 19, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1:00 p.m.-2:00 p.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 5:</E>
                     Fabrication and Deconversion Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 19, 2026, and March 22, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2:00 p.m.-3:00 p.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 6:</E>
                     Enrichment Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 5, 2026, March 11, 2026, March 18, and March 25, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">10:00 a.m.-10:30 a.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting 7:</E>
                     Conversion Meeting
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 5, 2026, March 11, 2026, March 18, 2026, and March 25, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">11:00 a.m.-11:45 a.m. Virtual (Teams)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">DPA Steering Committee Meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">March 26, 2026.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8:30 a.m.-12:00 p.m. Hybrid (Teams) and (In Person)</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document of the Department of Energy was signed on April 6, 2026, by Theodore J. Garrish, Assistant Secretary, Nuclear Energy, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Treena V. Garrett,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06833 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17959"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-83-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tait Electric Generating Station, LLC, Lee County Generating Station, LLC, Hull Street Energy, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Joint Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of Tait Electric Generating Station, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5166.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-84-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tenaska Energy, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of Tenaska Energy, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5172.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-200-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 4, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 4, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5156.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-201-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 3, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 3, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5157.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-202-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 2, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5158.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-203-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 1, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Bexar ProjectCo 1, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5159.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-204-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 7, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 7, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5160.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-205-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 6, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 6, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5161.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-206-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 5, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 5, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5162.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-207-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 4, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 4, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5163.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-208-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 3, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 3, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5164.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-209-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 2, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5165.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG26-210-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 1, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Arroyo ProjectCo 1, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5168.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1156-006.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Florida Power &amp; Light Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Second Supplemental Amendment to 9.22.25 Compliance Filing to be effective 4/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5187.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-951-000; ER26-265-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp, PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Informational Filing of EDAM Go-Live Date of PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/1/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260401-5533.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2035-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Cheyenne Light, Fuel and Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amended and Restated Network Operating Agreement to be effective 4/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/3/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260403-5145.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2036-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Cheyenne Light, Fuel and Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amended NOA and Restated Network Integration Transmission Agreement to be effective 4/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2037-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Original NSA, Service Agreement No. 7976; Queue No. AC1-208 to be effective 6/6/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5035.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2038-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     New England Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Cancellation of Market Based Rate Tariff of New England Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     3/31/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260331-5563.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/21/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2039-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Original NSA, Service Agreement No. 7975; Queue No. AF1-094 to be effective 6/6/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5037.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2040-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 4732 Crooked Creek GIA to be effective 3/13/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5047.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2041-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-04-06_SA 4720 NIPSCO-Hoosier 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17960"/>
                    Line-Honey Creek MPFCA (AF1-207 AF2-078) to be effective 3/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5070.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2042-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Notice of Cancellation of WMPA, Service Agreement No. 6160; Queue No. AG1-362 to be effective 6/6/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5110.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2043-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of Colorado.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Formula Rate Charges and Transmission Formula Rate Charges for 2024 Post-Retirement Benefits Other than Pensions of Public Service Company of Colorado.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/1/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260401-5532.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2044-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-04-06_SA 4735 METC-DTE GIA (E0018) to be effective 3/27/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5138.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2045-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of New Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Annual Filing of Post-Employment Benefits Other than Pensions for 2024 of Public Service Company of New Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     3/31/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260331-5565.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/21/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2046-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Black Hills Colorado Electric, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Certificate of Concurrence for PSCo Subentity Reserve Sharing Agreement to be effective 4/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     4/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260406-5186.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 4/27/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06859 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP26-148-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Texas Eastern Transmission, LP; Notice of Application and Establishing Intervention Deadline</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on March 23, 2026, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern), 915 N Eldridge Pkwy., Suite 1100, Houston, Texas 77079, filed an application under section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization for its Longwall Mining Panel M2/M3 Project (Project). The Project consists of excavating, elevating, and replacing certain segments of four existing pipelines: (i) 1.2 miles of Line 10 (30-inch-diameter), (ii) 1.1 miles of Line 15 (30-inch-diameter), (iii) 1.2 miles of Line 25 (36-inch-diameter), and (iv) 0.9 miles of Line 30 (36-inch-diameter) and associated appurtenant facilities in Richhill Township, Greene County, Pennsylvania. Line 10, Line 15, and Line 25 will stay within their existing right-of-way (ROW) for the duration of this monitoring period. Line 30 will be relocated primarily along the existing ROW from previously abandoned pipelines. No new permanent ROW is proposed for any portion of this Project. The Project will maintain the safe and efficient operation of its certificated facilities during longwall mining activities planned by CONSOL Energy, Inc. as early as first quarter of 2028. The Project proposes no change to certificated design capacities or maximum allowable operating pressures. Texas Eastern estimates the total cost of the Project to be $142.2 million, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Brian Kim, Director Regulatory, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP, P.O. Box 1642 Houston, Texas 77251-1642, by phone at (713) 627-4059, or by email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.kim@enbridge.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental review and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or environmental assessment (EA) for this proposal. The filing of an EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17961"/>
                    the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.9.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Water Quality Certification</HD>
                <P>Texas Eastern stated that a water quality certificate under section 401 of the Clean Water Act is required for the project from Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection (PADEP) Regional Permit Coordination Office. When available, Texas Eastern should submit to the Commission a copy of the request for certification for the Commission authorization, including the date the request was submitted to the certifying agency, and either (1) a copy of the certifying agency's decision or (2) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 27, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.</P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Comments</HD>
                <P>Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Protests</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 385.211 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations under the NGA, any person 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     may file a protest to the application. Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 385.2001 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations. A protest may also serve as a motion to intervene so long as the protestor states it also seeks to be an intervenor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10(a)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.211.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Persons include individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities. 18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.2001.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 27, 2026.</P>
                <P>There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-148-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     under the link to Documents and Filings. Using eComment is an easy method for interested persons to submit brief, text-only comments on a project;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. With eFiling, you can provide comments in a variety of formats by attaching them as a file with your submission. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Comment on a Filing”; or
                </P>
                <P>(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP26-148-000).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.</P>
                <P>The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Interventions</HD>
                <P>
                    Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations under the NGA 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by the intervention deadline for the project, which is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 27, 2026. As described further in Rule 214, your motion to intervene must state, to the extent known, your position regarding the proceeding, as well as your interest in the proceeding. For an individual, this could include your status as a landowner, ratepayer, resident of an impacted community, or recreationist. You do not need to have property directly impacted by the project in order to intervene. For more information about motions to intervene, refer to the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/resources/guides/how-to/intervene.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-148-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Intervention.” The eFiling feature includes a document-less intervention option; for more information, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/document-less-intervention.pdf.;</E>
                     or
                </P>
                <P>(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP26-148-000.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17962"/>
                    Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Brian Kim, Director Regulatory, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP, P.O. Box 1642 Houston, Texas 77251-1642, or by email (with a link to the document) at 
                    <E T="03">brian.kim@enbridge.com.</E>
                     Any subsequent submissions by an intervenor must be served on the applicant and all other parties to the proceeding. Contact information for parties can be downloaded from the service list at the eService link on FERC Online. Service can be via email with a link to the document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All timely, unopposed 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely, and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The applicant has 15 days from the submittal of a motion to intervene to file a written objection to the intervention.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(b)(3) and (d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tracking the Proceeding</HD>
                <P>
                    Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link as described above. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intervention Deadline:</E>
                     5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 27, 2026.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06886 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 7883-020]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Powerhouse Systems, LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Terms and Conditions, and Prescriptions</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     Subsequent Minor License.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     7883-020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date Filed:</E>
                     October 2, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Powerhouse Systems, LLC (Powerhouse).
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Weston Dam Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     On the Upper Ammonoosuc River in Coos County, New Hampshire.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 791(a)-825(r).
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Kelly Maloney, Vice President of Regulatory Compliance, Relevate Power, LLC, 230 Park Avenue, Suite 447, New York, NY 10169; telephone at (207) 233-1995 or email 
                    <E T="03">kelly.maloney@relevatepower.com;</E>
                     or Allison Frechette, Manager, Regulatory and Licensing, Relevate Power, LLC, P.O. Box 1086, Wilton, ME 04294; telephone at (207) 320-1440 or email at 
                    <E T="03">af@relevatepower.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Eric Fitzpatrick, Project Coordinator, New England Branch, Division of Hydropower Licensing; telephone at (202) 502-8584; email at 
                    <E T="03">eric.fitzpatrick@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing motions to intervene, protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary prescriptions:</E>
                     on or before June 5, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time; Deadline for filing reply comments: July 20, 2026, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, and prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx.</E>
                     Commenters can submit brief comments up to 10,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/QuickComment.aspx.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852. All filings must clearly identify the project name and docket number on the first page: Weston Dam Project (P-7883-020).
                </P>
                <P>The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.</P>
                <P>k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">Project Description:</E>
                     The Weston Dam Project includes a 220-foot-long, 15.5-foot-high concrete-covered stone and timber crib dam (Weston Dam) that consists of the following sections: (a) a 120-foot-long concrete cap spillway topped with 4.5-foot-high wooden flashboards with a crest elevation of 867.7 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum of 1929 (NGVD 29) at the top of the flashboards; (b) a 60-foot-long right abutment section on the northwest side of the spillway with two slide gates; and (c) a 40-foot-long left abutment section on the southeast side of the spillway with a 20-foot-long, 15-foot-wide gatehouse and two slide gates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The dam creates an impoundment with a surface area of 30 acres and a storage capacity of 115 acre-feet at an elevation of 867.7 feet NGVD 29. On the right abutment, there is a 10.83-foot-wide, 20-foot-high intake structure that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17963"/>
                    includes a trashrack with 2-inch clear bar spacing. Water flows directly from the intake to a 36.5-foot-long, 36-foot-wide powerhouse that contains two Kaplan turbine-generator units. Water is discharged back into the Upper Ammonoosuc River directly from the turbines. There is no bypassed reach at the project.
                </P>
                <P>Electricity generated at the project is transmitted to the electrical grid via two 0.48 kilovolt (kV) generator leads; three 0.48/34.5-kV transformers; and a 34.5-kV, 300-foot-long transmission line. The minimum and maximum hydraulic capacities of the turbine-generator units are 50 and 550 cubic feet per second (cfs), respectively. The average annual energy production of the project from 2013 through 2022 was 2,357 megawatt-hours.</P>
                <P>The current license requires Powerhouse to operate the project in an instantaneous run-of-river mode to protect fish and wildlife resources, such that project outflow approximates inflow. Powerhouse maintains the impoundment at the flashboard crest elevation of 867.7 feet NGVD 29.</P>
                <P>Under a subsequent license, Powerhouse proposes to continue the project as a run-of-river facility and does not propose any new PM&amp;E measures.</P>
                <P>
                    m. A copy of the application is available for review on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the project's docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document (P-7883). For assistance, contact FERC at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or TTY (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.</P>
                <P>All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST,” “MOTION TO INTERVENE,” “COMMENTS,” “REPLY COMMENTS,” “RECOMMENDATIONS,” “TERMS AND CONDITIONS,” or “PRESCRIPTIONS;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed on the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.</P>
                <P>
                    You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    o. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>p. The applicant must file the following on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 5, 2026: (1) a copy of the water quality certification; (2) a copy of the request for certification, including proof of the date on which the certifying agency received the request; or (3) evidence of a waiver of water quality certification.</P>
                <P>q. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on May 6, 2026.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06883 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP26-75-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Texas Eastern Transmission, LP; Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment for the Line 31 Expansion Project</SUBJECT>
                <P>On January 23, 2026, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) filed an application in Docket No. CP26-75-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Line 31 Expansion Project (Project) and would provide up to an additional 125,000 dekatherms per day (Dth/d) of firm incremental natural gas transportation capacity on a segment of Texas Eastern's mainline pipeline system.</P>
                <P>On February 6, 2026, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's environmental document for the Project.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the Project and the planned schedule for the completion of the environmental review.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EA will be issued for a 30-day comment period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For tracking purposes under the National Environmental Policy Act, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1773325462.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule for Environmental Review</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Issuance of EA June 15, 2026</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    90-day Federal Authorization Decision Deadline 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     September 13, 2026
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission's deadline applies to the decisions of other federal agencies, and state agencies acting under federally delegated authority, that are responsible for federal authorizations, permits, and other approvals necessary for proposed projects under the Natural Gas Act. Per 18 CFR 157.22(a), the Commission's deadline for other agency's decisions applies unless a schedule is otherwise established by federal law.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17964"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Project Description</HD>
                <P>
                    Texas Eastern proposes to construct and operate approximately 10.2 miles of 36-inch-diameter pipeline (Line 31 Pipeline Loop), 1.6 miles of 16-inch-diameter pipeline (Line 14-P Lateral), a new compressor station (Ridgeline Compressor Station), and a new meter and regulator station (Ridgeland Meter and Regulator Station) in Madison County, Mississippi. The Line 31 Pipeline Loop would connect to Texas Eastern's Lines 14 and 18 at two new 30-inch-diameter crossover valves. The Line 14-P Lateral is connecting to Lines 14 and 18 and extending southward to a terminus at an interconnect with Entergy Mississippi, LLC's proposed Traceview Advanced Power Station (Traceview) in Madison County. The Ridgeland Meter and Regulator Station would be installed at milepost 1.6 of the Line 14-P Lateral and at an interconnect with Traceview. Texas Eastern would also construct the new Ridgeland Compressor Station which would contain three compressor units, each having a capacity of about 1,500 horsepower. Additional aboveground facilities would include main line valves, inspection gauge pig 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     launcher/receivers, and cathodic protection along Line 31 Pipeline Loop and the Line 14-P Lateral.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Pig launchers are essential devices in pipeline systems that facilitate the introduction of pipeline inspection gauges (pigs) for maintenance, cleaning, and inspection purposes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 4, 2026, the Commission issued a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues for the Proposed Line 31 Expansion Project</E>
                     (Notice of Scoping). The Notice of Scoping was sent to affected landowners; federal, state, and local government agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. In response to the Notice of Scoping, the Commission received comments from a potentially affected landowner. The primary issues raised include public safety, potential effects on ecosystems, soil compaction, compensation, property values, water resources, aquatic species, and cultural resources. All substantive comments will be addressed in the EA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the Project is available from the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). Using the “eLibrary” link, select “General Search” from the eLibrary menu, enter the selected date range and “Docket Number” excluding the last three digits (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     CP26-75), and follow the instructions. For assistance with access to eLibrary, the helpline can be reached at (866) 208-3676, TTY (202) 502-8659, or at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                     The eLibrary link on the FERC website also provides access to the texts of formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rule makings.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06887 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP26-156-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization and Establishing Intervention and Protest Deadline</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on March 27, 2026, El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C. (EPNG), P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944, filed in the above referenced docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208, and 157.210 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and EPNG's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-435-000, for authorization to construct a 9-mile-long, 30-inch-diameter pipeline loop and appurtenances in Hudspeth County, Texas (Permian West Expansion Project or Project). The Project is designed to create an additional 82,229 dekatherms per day of firm transportation service, varying based on segment and month, on EPNG's Line No. 1100 system. EPNG estimates the cost of the Project to be $31,472,195, all as more fully set forth in the request which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions concerning this request should be directed to Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C., P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944, by phone at (719) 667-7517, or by email at 
                    <E T="03">Francisco_Tarin@kindermorgan.com</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file a protest to the project, you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding, and you can file comments on the project. There is no fee or cost for filing protests, motions to intervene, or comments. The deadline for filing protests, motions to intervene, and comments is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 5, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.</P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Protests</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's regulations under the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17965"/>
                    NGA,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     any person 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or the Commission's staff may file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed or if a protest is filed and then withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request for authorization will be considered by the Commission.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.205.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Persons include individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities. 18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 157.205(e) of the Commission's regulations,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and must be submitted by the protest deadline, which is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 5, 2026. A protest may also serve as a motion to intervene so long as the protestor states it also seeks to be an intervenor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.205(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Interventions</HD>
                <P>Any person has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.</P>
                <P>
                    To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations under the NGA 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by the intervention deadline for the project, which is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 5, 2026. As described further in Rule 214, your motion to intervene must state, to the extent known, your position regarding the proceeding, as well as your interest in the proceeding. For an individual, this could include your status as a landowner, ratepayer, resident of an impacted community, or recreationist. You do not need to have property directly impacted by the project in order to intervene. For more information about motions to intervene, refer to the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/resources/guides/how-to/intervene.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>All timely, unopposed motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1). Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Comments</HD>
                <P>Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 5, 2026. The filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">How To File Protests, Interventions, and Comments</HD>
                <P>There are two ways to submit protests, motions to intervene, and comments. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-156-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your protest, motion to intervene, and comments by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Protest”, “Intervention”, or “Comment on a Filing”; or 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Additionally, you may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                         under the link to Documents and Filings. Using eComment is an easy method for interested persons to submit brief, text-only comments on a project.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(2) You can file a paper copy of your submission by mailing it to the address below. Your submission must reference the Project docket number CP26-156-000.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other method:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of submissions (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C., P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944, or by email (with a link to the document) at 
                    <E T="03">Francisco_Tarin@kindermorgan.com.</E>
                     Any subsequent submissions by an intervenor must be served on the applicant and all other parties to the proceeding. Contact information for parties can be downloaded from the service list at the eService link on FERC Online.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tracking the Proceeding</HD>
                <P>
                    Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link as described above. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06885 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. EL26-55-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Tucson Electric Power Company; UNS Electric, Inc.; UniSource Energy Development Company; Tucson Electric Power Company: Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On April 3, 2026, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL26-55-000 pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e, instituting an investigation to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17966"/>
                    determine whether Tucson Electric Power Company, UNS Electric, Inc. and UniSource Energy Development Company's market-based rate authority in the Tucson Electric balancing authority area is unjust, unreasonable, unduly discriminatory or preferential, or otherwise unlawful. 
                    <E T="03">Tucson Electric Power Company,</E>
                     195 FERC ¶ 61,008 (2026).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The refund effective date in Docket No. EL26-55-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>Any interested person desiring to be heard in Docket No. EL26-55-000 must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate, with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.214 (2025), within 21 days of the date of issuance of the order.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document. From FERC's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the FERC's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFile” link at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                     In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06860 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 803-129]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pacific Gas and Electric Company; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment</SUBJECT>
                <P>On February 6, 2026, Pacific Gas and Electric Company filed an application for a temporary variance from the minimum flow requirements for the DeSabla-Centerville Project No. 803. The project is located on Butte Creek, West Branch Feather River, and their tributaries in Butte County, California. The project occupies federal lands managed by the U.S. Forest Service and Bureau of Land Management.</P>
                <P>The licensee requests that the instantaneous minimum flow requirement in the West Branch Feather River, below Hendrick Head Dam, of 15 cubic feet per second (cfs) in a normal water year and 7 cfs in a dry water year, be temporarily modified to 7 cfs over 48 hours regardless of water year type. In Philbrook Creek, below Philbrook Reservoir, it requests that the instantaneous minimum flow requirement of 2 cfs in both normal and dry water years be temporarily modified to between 1 and 2 cfs over 48 hours. The modifications would begin on May 4, 2026, and continue through September 30, 2026, however, in the event that water storage in Philbrook Reservoir has not exceeded 2,116 acre-feet by April 1, 2026, the licensee would commence modifications in Philbrook Creek sometime between April 1, 2026, and May 4, 2026, if supported by the California Department of Fish and Wildlife, National Marine Fisheries Service, and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. The licensee states that the temporary variance would maximize the delivery of flows released from Philbrook to Butte Creek by eliminating the need to release additional buffer flows to ensure the requisite instantaneous minimum instream flows are always met. The proposed variance would help preserve cold water storage in Philbrook Reservoir, increase flow to Butte Creek via the Hendricks Canal, and decrease water residence time in the DeSabla Forebay, thus providing additional water to Butte Creek during the hot summer months to minimize high temperature effects to Central Valley spring-run Chinook salmon, and to preserve water for release later in the summer months towards the end of their holding period when the situation is most critical. A Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions to Intervene, and Protest was issued on February 26, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) under the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) for the project.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commission staff plans to issue an EA by May 29, 2026. Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1773149143.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Ms. Joy Kurtz at (202) 502-6760 or 
                    <E T="03">joy.kurtz@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06884 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-SFUND-2004-0006; FRL12918-01-OLEM]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Request; Comment Request: Community Right-To-Know Reporting Requirements Under Sections 311 and 312 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act (EPCRA), EPA ICR Number 1352.17 OMB Control Number 2050-0072</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17967"/>
                        information collection request (ICR), “Community Right-to-Know Reporting Requirements under Sections 311 and 312 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)” (EPA ICR Number 1352.17 OMB Control Number 2050-0072) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through August 31, 2026. This document allows 60 days for public comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-SFUND-2004-0006, to EPA online using 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (our preferred method) or by mail to: EPA Docket Center, Environmental Protection Agency, Mail Code 28221T, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460. EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jennifer Barre, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Mail Code 5303T, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-9026; email address: 
                        <E T="03">barre.jennifer@epa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through August 31, 2026. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    This document allows 60 days for public comments. Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or in person at the EPA Docket Center, WJC West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC. The telephone number for the Docket Center is (202) 566-1744. For additional information about EPA's public docket, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate forms of information technology. EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval. At that time, EPA will issue another 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     document to announce the submission of the ICR to OMB and the opportunity to submit additional comments to OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The authority for these requirements is sections 311 and 312 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) of 1986 (42 U.S.C. 11011, 11012). EPCRA section 311 requires owners and operators of facilities subject to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) to submit a list of chemicals or Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) (for those chemicals that exceed thresholds, specified in 40 CFR part 370) to the State Emergency Response Commission (SERC) or Tribal Emergency Response Commission (TERC), Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC) or Tribal Emergency Planning Committee (TEPC), and the local fire department (LFD) with jurisdiction over their facility. This is a one-time requirement unless a facility becomes subject to the regulations or has updated information on the hazardous chemicals that were already submitted by the facility. EPCRA section 312 requires owners and operators of facilities subject to the OSHA HCS to submit an inventory form (for those chemicals that exceed the thresholds, specified in 40 CFR part 370) to the SERC (or TERC), LEPC (or TEPC), and LFD with jurisdiction over their facility. This inventory form, the Tier II Emergency and Hazardous Chemical Inventory Form, is to be submitted on or before March 1 of each year and must include the inventory of hazardous chemicals present at the facility in the previous calendar year. Currently, all states require facilities to submit the Federal Tier II form or the state-equivalent, including electronic submission.
                </P>
                <P>The burden estimates, numbers and types of respondents, wage rates and unit and total costs for this ICR renewal will be revised and updated if needed during the 60-day comment period while the ICR Supporting Statement is undergoing review at OMB.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form numbers:</E>
                     Tier I Emergency and Hazardous Chemical Inventory Form, EPA Form No. 8700-29, Tier II Emergency and Hazardous Chemical Inventory Form, EPA Form No. 8700-30.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Manufacturers and non-manufacturers required to have available a MSDS (or Safety Data Sheet (SDS)) under the OSHA HCS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Mandatory (sections 311 and 312 of EPCRA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     471,787 facilities (total). This figure includes 3,052 LEPCs and SERCs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     Annual.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated burden:</E>
                     $6,963,271 hours per year (includes LEPCs and SERCs). Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.03(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated cost:</E>
                     $306,735,727 per year, includes $1,715,094 annualized capital or operation &amp; maintenance costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Changes in estimates:</E>
                     The burden hours are likely to stay substantially the same. Any change in burden or cost resulting from the 60-day OMB review period will be described and explained in this section when the updated ICR Supporting Statement is completed.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Andrew Baca,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06898 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[CERCLA-03-2026-0081-CR; FRL 13175-01-R3]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed CERCLA Cost Recovery Settlement for the Safety Light Corporation Site, Bloomsburg, Columbia County, Pennsylvania</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with section 122(h) of the Comprehensive 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17968"/>
                        Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA), notice is hereby given by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 3, of a proposed cost recovery settlement agreement (Settlement) pursuant to CERCLA with Isolite Corporation (Settling Party) relating to the Safety Light Corporation Superfund Site (Site), located in Bloomsburg, Columbia County, Pennsylvania.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for copies of the proposed Settlement and submission of comments must be made via electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">R3_ORC_Mailbox@epa.gov.</E>
                         Comments should reference the Safety Light Corporation Superfund Site, Bloomsburg, Columbia County, Pennsylvania, Index No. CERCLA-03-2026-0081-CR in the subject line of the message. For those unable to communicate via electronic mail, please contact the EPA employee identified below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jefferie Garcia, Assistant Regional Counsel, CERCLA Branch 2, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 3, 1600 John F. Kennedy Blvd., Philadelphia, PA 19103. Email: 
                        <E T="03">garcia.jefferie@epa.gov.</E>
                         Telephone: 215-814-2697.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Settling Party will pay to the EPA $600,000.00, plus an additional sum for interest on that amount calculated through the date of publication of the notice of this Settlement Agreement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Settlement includes a covenant by the EPA not to sue or to take administrative action against the Settling Party pursuant to section 106 and 107(a) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9606 and 9607(a), with regard to the Site. For thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, the EPA will receive written comments relating to the proposed Settlement. The EPA will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the proposed Settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations that indicate that the proposed Settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate. The EPA's response to any comments received will be available for public inspection by request. Please see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document for instructions.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Paul Leonard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Superfund &amp; Emergency Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 3.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06908 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-1270; FR ID 339936]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to Office of Management and Budget</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments should be sent to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. Your comment must be submitted into 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         per the above instructions for it to be considered. In addition to submitting in 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         also send a copy of your comment on the proposed information collection to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email to 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">Nicole.Ongele@fcc.gov.</E>
                         Include in the comments the OMB control number as shown in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) go to the web page 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         (2) look for the section of the web page called “Currently Under Review,” (3) click on the downward-pointing arrow in the “Select Agency” box below the “Currently Under Review” heading, (4) select “Federal Communications Commission” from the list of agencies presented in the “Select Agency” box, (5) click the “Submit” button to the right of the “Select Agency” box, (6) when the list of FCC ICRs currently under review appears, look for the Title of this ICR and then click on the ICR Reference Number. A copy of the FCC submission to OMB will be displayed.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-1270.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Protecting National Security Through FCC Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 5640.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently-approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for profit entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     3,500 respondents; 6,584 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.5-12 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Annual, semiannual, and recordkeeping requirements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17969"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Mandatory and required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 
                    <E T="03">47 U.S.C. 1603-1604.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     20,236 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $472,500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     The Communications Act of 1934, as amended, requires the “preservation and advancement of universal service.” 
                    <E T="03">47 U.S.C. 254(b).</E>
                     The information collection requirements reported under this collection are the result of the Commission's actions to promote the Act's universal service goals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On November 22, 2019, the Commission adopted the 
                    <E T="03">Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs,</E>
                     WC Docket No. 18-89, Report and Order, Order, and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 34 FCC Rcd 11423 (2019) (
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                    ). The 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                     prohibits future use of Universal Service Fund (USF) monies to purchase, maintain, improve, modify, obtain, or otherwise support any equipment or services produced or provided by a company that poses a national security threat to the integrity of communications networks or the communications supply chain.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On March 12, 2020, the President signed into law the Secure and Trusted Communications Networks Act of 2019 (Secure Networks Act), 
                    <E T="03">Public Law 116-124,</E>
                     133 Stat. 158 (2020) (codified as amended at 
                    <E T="03">47 U.S.C. 1601-1609</E>
                    ), which, among other measures, directs the FCC to establish the Secure and Trusted Communications Networks Reimbursement Program (Reimbursement Program). This program is intended to provide funding to providers of advanced communications service for the removal, replacement and disposal of certain communications equipment and services that poses an unacceptable national security risk (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     covered equipment and services) from their networks. The Commission has designated two entities—Huawei Technologies Company (Huawei) and ZTE Corporation (ZTE), along with their affiliates, subsidiaries, and parents—as covered companies posing such a national security threat. 
                    <E T="03">See Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs—Huawei Designation,</E>
                     PS Docket No. 19-351, Memorandum Opinion and Order, 35 FCC Rcd 14435 (2020); 
                    <E T="03">Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs—ZTE Designation,</E>
                     PS Docket No. 19-352, Memorandum Opinion and Order, DA 20-1399 (PSHSB rel. Nov. 24, 2020).
                </P>
                <P>
                    On December 10, 2020, the Commission adopted the Second Report and Order implementing the Secure Networks Act, which contained new information collection requirements. 
                    <E T="03">See Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs,</E>
                     WC Docket No. 18-89, Second Report and Order, 35 FCC Rcd 14284 (2020) (
                    <E T="03">Second Report and Order</E>
                    ). These requirements allow the Commission to receive, review and make eligibility determinations and funding decisions on applications to participate in the Reimbursement Program that are filed by certain providers of advanced communications service. These information collection requirements also assist the Commission in processing funding disbursement requests and in monitoring and furthering compliance with applicable program requirements to protect against waste, fraud, and abuse. Participation in the Reimbursement Program is voluntary, but compliance with the information collection requirements is required to obtain Reimbursement Program support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On August 3, 2021, the Wireline Competition Bureau (Bureau) released a Public Notice adopting procedures for filing and processing applications submitted for the Reimbursement Program. These procedures largely tracked the procedural rules previously adopted by the Commission in the 
                    <E T="03">Second Report and Order,</E>
                     but also adopted a new requirement that Reimbursement Program participants notify the Commission of changes in ownership, to ensure accurate information is on file for participants and to help protect the Reimbursement Program against waste, fraud, and abuse.
                </P>
                <P>In 2023, the Bureau updated the submission requirements for FCC Form 5640 by deleting an existing question and adding a new one asking program participants to describe in detail how they have spent Reimbursement Program funds, which allowed the Bureau to satisfy its statutory obligations to collect information about how Reimbursement Program funds have been spent, including detailed accounting of the covered communications equipment and services permanently removed and disposed of, and the replacement equipment or services purchased, rented, leased, or otherwise obtained using Reimbursement Program funds. The Bureau determined that FCC Form 5640 required this revision in order to elicit the information necessary for the Bureau to better satisfy its statutory obligations.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06867 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings: Notice of Meeting Held With Less Than Seven Days' Advance Notice</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P>1:00 p.m. on April 7, 2026.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting was held in the FDIC Board Room, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC, with less than seven days' advance notice and was webcast to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS:</HD>
                    <P>Open to public observation via webcast.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b), notice is given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's Board of Directors met in open session to consider the following matters:</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion Agenda</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:</E>
                     GENIUS Act Requirements and Standards for FDIC-Supervised Permitted Payment Stablecoin Issuers and Insured Depository Institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:</E>
                     Anti-Money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Final Rule:</E>
                     Prohibition on Use of Reputation Risk by Regulators.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary Agenda</HD>
                <P>Minutes of Board of Directors' Meeting Previously Distributed.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information, please contact Debra A. Decker, Executive Secretary, FDIC, at 
                        <E T="03">FDICBoardMatters@fdic.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 552b.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Washington, DC, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <FP>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</FP>
                    <NAME>Debra A. Decker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06897 Filed 4-7-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6714-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17970"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[CMS-3483-PN]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Medicare and Medicaid Programs: Application From DNV Healthcare USA Inc. for Continued CMS-Approval of Its Hospital Accreditation Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice with request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice acknowledges the receipt of an application from DNV Healthcare USA Inc. (DNV) for continued recognition as a national accrediting organization for its hospital accreditation program to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid programs.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To be assured consideration, comments must be received at one of the addresses provided below, no later than May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>In commenting, please refer to file code CMS-3483-PN.</P>
                    <P>Comments, including mass comment submissions, must be submitted in one of the following three ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):</P>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">Electronically.</E>
                         You may submit electronic comments on this regulation to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/CMS-2026-1288.</E>
                         Follow the “submit a comment” instructions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">By regular mail.</E>
                         You may mail written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3483-PN, P.O. Box 8010, Baltimore, MD 21244-8010.
                    </P>
                    <P>Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.</P>
                    <P>
                        3. 
                        <E T="03">By express or overnight mail.</E>
                         You may send written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3483-PN, Mail Stop C4-26-05, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>Joann Fitzell, (410) 786-4280.</P>
                    <P>Lillian Williams, (410) 786-8636.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inspection of Public Comments:</E>
                     All comments received before the close of the comment period are available for viewing by the public, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post all comments received before the close of the comment period on the following website as soon as possible after they have been received: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the search instructions on that website to view public comments. CMS will not post on 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     public comments that make threats to individuals or institutions or suggest that the commenter will take actions to harm an individual. CMS continues to encourage individuals not to submit duplicative comments. We will post acceptable comments from multiple unique commenters even if the content is identical or nearly identical to other comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>Under the Medicare program, eligible beneficiaries may receive covered services from a Medicare-participating hospital, provided certain requirements are met. Section 1861(e) of the Social Security Act (the Act) establishes distinct criteria for facilities seeking designation as a hospital. Regulations concerning provider agreements are at 42 CFR part 489 and those pertaining to activities relating to the survey and certification of facilities are at 42 CFR part 488. The regulations at 42 CFR part 482 specify the minimum conditions that a hospital must meet to participate in the Medicare program.</P>
                <P>Generally, to enter into an agreement with Medicare, a hospital must first be certified by a state survey agency (SA) as complying with the conditions or requirements set forth in part 482 of our regulations. Thereafter, the hospital is subject to regular surveys by an SA to determine whether it continues to meet these requirements. However, there is an alternative to surveys by SAs.</P>
                <P>Section 1865(a)(1)(A) of the Act provides that, if a provider entity demonstrates through accreditation by a Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) approved national accrediting organization (AO) that all applicable Medicare conditions are met or exceeded, we will deem those provider entities to have met the requirements. Accreditation by an AO is voluntary and is not required for Medicare participation.</P>
                <P>If an AO is recognized by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) as having standards for accreditation that meet or exceed Medicare requirements, any provider entity accredited by the national accrediting body's approved program would be deemed to meet the Medicare conditions (CMS generally refers to its recognition of an AO's equivalency to CMS standards as “deeming authority”). A national AO applying for approval of its accreditation program under part 488, subpart A, must provide CMS with reasonable assurance that the AO requires accredited provider entities to meet requirements that are at least as stringent as the Medicare conditions. Our regulations concerning the approval of AOs are set forth at §§ 488.4 and 488.5. The regulation at § 488.5(e)(2)(i) permits CMS to approve or reapprove an AO application for a period not to exceed 6 years.</P>
                <P>DNV's current term of approval for their hospital deeming program expires September 26, 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. CMS Approval of Accreditation Organizations</HD>
                <P>Section 1865(a)(2) of the Act and our regulations at § 488.5 require CMS' review of a national AO's application consider, among other factors, the applying AO's requirements for Medicare-equivalent accreditation; survey procedures; resources for conducting required surveys; capacity to furnish information for use in enforcement activities; monitoring procedures for provider entities found not in compliance with the conditions or requirements; and ability to provide CMS with the necessary data for validation. CMS approves or denies an AO's application based on an assessment of the factors stated previously, which may include, but are not limited to, a review of the information required to be submitted by the AO, interviews with AO staff, an evaluation of the AO's survey process and findings, or other activities necessary to determine that the AO meets the requirements set forth at §§ 488.4 and 488.5.</P>
                <P>Section 1865(a)(3)(A) of the Act further requires that we publish, within 60 days of receipt of an organization's complete application, a notice identifying the national accrediting body making the request, describing the nature of the request, and providing at least a 30-day public comment period. We have 210 days from the receipt of a complete application to publish notice of approval or denial of the application.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this proposed notice is to inform the public of DNV's request for continued approval of its hospital Medicare-equivalent accreditation program. This notice also solicits public comment on whether DNV's requirements meet or exceed the Medicare conditions of participation (CoPs) for hospitals.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17971"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Evaluation of Request</HD>
                <P>DNV submitted all the necessary materials to enable us to make a determination concerning its request for continued approval of its hospital Medicare-equivalent accreditation program. This application was determined to be complete on February 28, 2026. Under section 1865(a)(2) of the Act and our regulations at § 488.5 (Application and re-application procedures for national accrediting organizations), our review and evaluation of DNV will be conducted in accordance with, but not necessarily limited to, the following factors:</P>
                <P>• An assessment of the equivalency of DNV's standards for hospitals as compared with CMS' hospital CoPs.</P>
                <P>• An assessment of DNV's survey process.</P>
                <P>• The comparability of DNV's processes to those of state agencies, including survey frequency, and the ability to investigate and respond appropriately to complaints against accredited facilities.</P>
                <P>• DNV's processes and procedures for monitoring a hospital found out of compliance with DNV's program requirements.</P>
                <P>• DNV's capacity to report deficiencies to the surveyed facilities and respond to the facility's plan of correction in a timely manner.</P>
                <P>• DNV's capacity to provide CMS with information extracted from each accreditation survey for a specified provider or supplier as part of its data submissions.</P>
                <P>• An assessment of DNV's financial viability.</P>
                <P>• DNV's agreement to provide CMS with a copy of the most current accreditation survey together with any other information related to the survey as we may require (including corrective action plans).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Collection of Information Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     documents, we are not able to acknowledge or respond to them individually. We will consider all comments we receive by the date and time specified in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of this preamble, and, when we proceed with a subsequent document, we will respond to the comments in the preamble to that document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Mehmet Oz, having reviewed and approved this document, authorizes Vanessa Garcia, who is the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Liaison, to electronically sign this document for purposes of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Vanessa Garcia,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison, Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06861 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0033]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Information Collection Activity; Office of Refugee Resettlement Annual Survey of Refugees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Refugee Resettlement, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services seeks an extension to the existing data collection for the Annual Survey of Refugees (ASR) (Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0033; Expiration Date: October 30, 2026) through 2027. The ASR is a yearly sample survey of refugee households entering the U.S. in the previous 5 fiscal years (FYs). There are no changes currently requested to the form, but ACF intends to submit a revision request in 2027 for future annual requests.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due</E>
                         June 8, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ACF is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. You can obtain copies of the proposed collection of information and submit comments by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Data from the ASR are used to meet the Office of Refugee Resettlement's (ORR) congressional reporting requirements, as set forth in the Refugee Act of 1980, section 413(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act. ORR makes survey findings available to the public and uses findings for the purposes of program planning, policy-making, and budgeting. There are no changes to the survey. Information collection materials will be translated into 20 languages. ACF acknowledges that English is the official language and authoritative version of all federal information and will note this on the translated material.
                </P>
                <P>This request is for an extension to allow ORR to complete the 2025 ASR and to field the 2026 ASR. Changes to the 2025 ASR, which is currently in process, at this time would be problematic for data quality and cost efficiencies. Maintaining the current survey safeguards compliance with congressional requirements, preserves the validity of the data, and avoids operational disruptions that could undermine the completion and credibility of the 2025 ASR. There are ongoing efforts to test the feasibility of an online survey and based on the findings of these tests, revisions will be proposed to the ASR that are expected to reduce burden. While those efforts are completed and integrated for future years, ORR proposes to use the current version of the ASR for 2025 and 2026. A revision request will be submitted in 2027 to implement changes.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     The ASR secures a nationally representative sample of refugee households arriving in the United States in the previous 5 FYs.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,11,12,12,10">
                    <TTITLE>Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Introduction Letter and Postcard</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="17972"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Annual Survey of Refugees</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>.83</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,245</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,320</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: Section 413 [8 U.S.C. 1523].)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06809 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-46-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0060]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Information Collection Activity; Annual Report on Households Assisted by the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program (LIHEAP)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Community Services, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Community Services (OCS), Division of Energy Assistance, is requesting to reinstate the Annual Report on Households Assisted by the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program (LIHEAP) (LIHEAP Household Report; Office of Management and Budget (OMB) #: 0970-0060). The current OMB expiration date is March 31, 2026. Submission of the completed report is one requirement for LIHEAP grant recipients applying for federal LIHEAP block grant funds; the next report is due September 2026. OCS proposes changes to reduce the number of items requested and, therefore, related administrative and reporting burden.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments due June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ACF is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. You can obtain copies of the proposed collection of information and submit comments by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico are required by the Low-Income Energy Assistance Act of 1981 (42 U.S.C. 8624, sec. 2610) to report statistics for the previous federal fiscal year on the following:
                </P>
                <P>• Assisted and applicant households, by type of LIHEAP assistance and funding source;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households receiving nominal payments of $50 or less, by funding source;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households receiving only utility payment assistance, by funding source; this information will automatically be transferred to the grant recipient's Performance Data Form;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households, regardless of the type(s) of LIHEAP assistance or funding source, excluding households that only receive nominal payments of $50 or less;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households, by type of LIHEAP assistance and funding source, having at least one vulnerable member who is at least 60 years or older, disabled, or 5 years old or younger;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households, by type of LIHEAP assistance and funding source, with at least one member age 2 years or under;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households, by type of LIHEAP assistance and funding source, with at least one member ages 3 years through 5 years;</P>
                <P>• Assisted households, regardless of the type(s) of LIHEAP assistance or funding source, having at least one member 60 years or older, disabled, or 5 years old or younger.</P>
                <P>Indian tribal grant recipients are required to submit data only on the number of households, by funding source, receiving heating, cooling, energy crisis, and/or weatherization benefits. To account for this difference, tribal grant recipients use the Annual LIHEAP Household Report. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Short Format</HD>
                <P>The information is being collected for the department's annual LIHEAP report to Congress. The data also provides information about the need for LIHEAP funds. Finally, the data are used in the calculation of LIHEAP performance measures under the Government Performance and Results Act of 1993. The data elements will allow for the accuracy of measuring LIHEAP targeting performance and LIHEAP cost efficiency.</P>
                <P>OCS proposes revisions to reduce the administrative burden and length of form. The proposed revisions include the following:</P>
                <P>• Remove reporting requirements related to sex, race, and ethnicity, which are not required for statutory LIHEAP reporting or performance measurement.</P>
                <P>• Remove data elements associated with supplemental LIHEAP funding provided under the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act and the American Rescue Plan Act, as these funding sources have expired and are no longer applicable to ongoing program operations.</P>
                <P>Additionally, OCS proposes to adjust the burden estimates to no longer account for burden at the household level. This report is an administrative request for grant recipients, and the LIHEAP statute gives grant recipients flexibility on how they collect household data.</P>
                <P>Overall, these targeted changes reduce respondent burden, improve clarity of reporting instruments, and ensure the collection remains focused on current statutory and programmatic requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     State governments, tribal governments, U.S. territories, and the District of Columbia.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17973"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Estimates:</E>
                     Burden estimates have been updated to reflect the changes described above, which include revisions to the report as well as an adjustment to the burden estimates for respondents, to reduce burden at the household level. This burden has been reduced by analyzing fiscal year 2026 LIHEAP Model Plans to calculate how grant recipients determine eligibility. Based on LIHEAP Model Plans, 25 of the 52 state grant recipients use categorical eligibility to determine LIHEAP household eligibility. LIHEAP categorical eligibility makes a household automatically income-eligible for energy assistance if 
                    <E T="03">any</E>
                     member receives benefits from programs like Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or Supplemental Security Income, bypassing the typical income test, though income is still used to set benefit amounts. This simplifies and reduces the burden on households. Based on past average data, those 25 states make up about 55 percent of all assisted households. To calculate this burden, we used an estimate for the annual number of LIHEAP household applicants multiplied by an average of 
                    <FR>1/3</FR>
                     of an hour to provide the data required by the Household Report. The estimated time per response for the short format, completed by tribal governments in some small territories, was reduced from 10 hours to six hours per response. The long format, completed by all states, District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico, was reduced from 67 hours to 41 hours per response.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,11,13,12,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual number
                            <LI>of responses</LI>
                            <LI>per respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average hour
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Long Format</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,132</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Short Format</ENT>
                        <ENT>133</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>798</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Household Application</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,160,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,848,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Annual Burden Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,850,930</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 8629 and 45 CFR 96.82.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06804 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-80-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0550]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Information Collection Activity; Office of Refugee Resettlement Unaccompanied Refugee Minors Program Application and Withdrawal of Unaccompanied Refugee Minors Program Application or Declination of Unaccompanied Refugee Minors Program Placement Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Refugee Resettlement, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Refugee Resettlement (ORR) is requesting a 3-year extension with revisions of the Unaccompanied Refugee Minors (URM) Program Application and Withdrawal of URM Program Application or Declination of URM Program Placement Forms (Office of Management and Budget #0970-0550, expiration July 31, 2026). Revisions were made to reduce burden and streamline information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments due June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ACF is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. You can obtain copies of the proposed collection of information and submit comments by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     The URM Program Application is completed on behalf of unaccompanied minors in the U.S. who are applying for entry into the URM Program. The application includes biographical data and information on the child's needs to support placement efforts. The Withdrawal of URM Program Application or Declination of URM Program Placement Forms are completed when a child is no longer interested in entering the URM Program or is not interested in entering the placement he/she was offered. These forms will be translated into Spanish, French, and other languages as appropriate. ACF acknowledges that English is the official language and authoritative version of all federal information and will note this on the translated material. Proposed revisions include reducing the number of open-ended text box questions by 67 percent, changing the format of other questions to allow for quicker responses, cutting unnecessary questions, and revising instructions for enhanced clarity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Case managers, attorneys, or other representatives working with unaccompanied minors who may be eligible for the URM Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Estimates:</E>
                     Proposed revisions to the URM Program application are expected to reduce the average burden hours per respondent by 33 percent. The estimated total number 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17974"/>
                    of respondents over the next 3 years is expected to be fewer than previously estimated. Overall, estimated total annual burden hours are reduced by 48 percent.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,11,12,12,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">URM Program Application</ENT>
                        <ENT>350</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>350</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Withdrawal of Application or Declination of Placement Forms</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>358</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     8 U.S.C. 1522(d).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06805 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-89-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Office of Management and Budget #:0970-0160]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Procedures for Requests From Tribal Lead Agencies To Use Child Care and Development Fund Funds for Construction or Major Renovation of Child Care Facilities</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Child Care, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for Public Comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) is proposing to resume collecting data for the Procedures for Requests from Tribal Lead Agencies to use Child Care and Development Fund (CCDF) Funds for Construction or Major Renovation of Child Care Facilities. This information collection was previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget. The Office of Child Care (OCC) is proposing to extend approval of the information collection with changes, significantly reducing the burden for Tribal Lead Agencies and clarifying requirements.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due May 11, 2026.</E>
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202604-0970-002.</E>
                         You can also obtain copies of the proposed collection of information by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all emailed requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 9858m(c)(6) of the Child Care and Development Block Grant (CCDBG) Act allows Tribal Lead Agencies to use CCDF funds for construction or major renovation of child care facilities. A Tribal Lead Agency, including those that have consolidated their CCDF program into an approved plan under the Indian Employment, Training and Related Services Consolidation Act of 2017, also known as Public Law 102-477, must first request and receive approval from ACF before using CCDF funds for construction or major renovation. The CCDBG Act requires ACF to develop and implement uniform procedures for the solicitation and consideration of such requests. This Program Instruction (PI) sets forth the uniform procedures.
                </P>
                <P>The PI was reorganized and content streamlined to improve readability and user-friendliness. Language was revised to be consistent and reduce redundancies. The updated PI removed requirements not required by statute, regulation, grants policy, or directly supportive of OCC's understanding of the scope of the project. Citations and definitions were updated.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Tribal Child Care Lead Agencies acting on behalf of tribal governments
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Estimates:</E>
                     This version of the PI includes 19 fewer pages and 5 fewer requirements than the previously approved version, resulting in a decrease in the estimated burden time per respondents from about 20 hours per response to 6 hours per response. OCC estimates it will receive approximately 20 requests per year from 266 eligible Tribal Lead Agencies.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual 
                            <LI>number</LI>
                            <LI>of respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total number of responses
                            <LI>per </LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours per </LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Construction and Major Renovation Set-Aside Request Submission</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Construction and Major Renovation Application Development and Submission</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="17975"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 9858(c)(6).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06795 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-87-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Funded Extension for the Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement and Delta States Network Development Programs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of funded extension.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HRSA provides grants through two programs seeking a 1-year funded extension: The Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program (Quality) provides support to rural primary care providers for the planning and implementation of quality improvement activities that improve the quality and delivery of rural health care services. This funded extension extends Quality's 21 award recipients from cohort fiscal year 2022, HRSA-22-093, for a one-time 1-year period (August 1, 2026, to July 31, 2027). The current cohort was funded for a 4-year project period (August 1, 2022, to July 31, 2026). The statutory authority for this program allows for funding up to 5 years. The Delta States Network Development Program (Delta States) funds organizations located in the eight Delta states through planning, implementation, and development of integrated health care networks. This funded extension extends Delta State's 12 award recipients from cohort fiscal year 2023, HRSA-23-031, for a one-time 1-year period (August 1, 2026, to July 31, 2027). The current cohort was funded for a 3-year project period (August 1, 2023, to July 31, 2026). The statutory authority for this program allows for funding up to 5 years.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Katherine Lloyd, Deputy Director, Community-Based Division, Federal Office of Rural Health Policy, Health Resources and Services Administration, at 
                        <E T="03">klloyd@hrsa.gov</E>
                         and (301) 443-2933.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intended Recipients of the Award:</E>
                     33 (21 Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program awards and 12 Delta States Network Development Program awards).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Amount of Non-Competitive Award:</E>
                     $15,928,583 ($3,987,189 for Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program and $11,941,394 for Delta States Network Development Program).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Project Period:</E>
                     August 1, 2026, to July 31, 2027 (both programs).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Assistance Listing Number:</E>
                     93.912 (both programs).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Award Instrument:</E>
                     Grant (both programs).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Section 330A, Public Health Services Act, (42 U.S.C. 254c(g)) for Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program and Section 330A(f), Public Health Services Act, (42 U.S.C. 254c(f)) for Delta States Network Development Program.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,r50,13">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Recipients and Award Amounts for the Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Grant No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Award recipient name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">City, state</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Award
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46015</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cascade Medical Center Hospital District</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cascade, ID</ENT>
                        <ENT>$10,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47061</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dublin City Schools</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dublin, GA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46016</ENT>
                        <ENT>El Centro Family Health</ENT>
                        <ENT>Espanola, NM</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47062</ENT>
                        <ENT>El Dorado County Community Health Center</ENT>
                        <ENT>Placerville, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46017</ENT>
                        <ENT>Five Rivers Medical Center, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pocahontas, AR</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47063</ENT>
                        <ENT>Holzer Health System</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gallipolis, OH</ENT>
                        <ENT>199,732</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47064</ENT>
                        <ENT>Innis Community Health Center, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Batchelor, LA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46023</ENT>
                        <ENT>Klickitat County Public Hospital District #2</ENT>
                        <ENT>White Salmon, WA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47065</ENT>
                        <ENT>Logan-Mingo Area Mental Health, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Logan, WV</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46018</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mainline Health Systems, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dermott, AR</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46019</ENT>
                        <ENT>Margaretville Memorial Hospital</ENT>
                        <ENT>Margaretville, NY</ENT>
                        <ENT>199,967</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46020</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mendocino Coast Clinics, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fort Bragg, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46021</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mountain Valleys Health Centers</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bieber, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46022</ENT>
                        <ENT>Neighborhood Health Center, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Richmond, IN</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46024</ENT>
                        <ENT>County of Sheridan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hoxie, KS</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46025</ENT>
                        <ENT>Teche Action Board, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Franklin, LA</ENT>
                        <ENT>197,732</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46026</ENT>
                        <ENT>ThedaCare Medical Center—Waupaca, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Waupaca, WI</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46027</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tri-County Health Network</ENT>
                        <ENT>Telluride, CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH47066</ENT>
                        <ENT>UPMC Kane</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kane, PA</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46028</ENT>
                        <ENT>Westchester-Ellenville Hospital, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ellenville, NY</ENT>
                        <ENT>200,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G20RH46029</ENT>
                        <ENT>White River Health System, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Batesville, AR</ENT>
                        <ENT>177,758</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,r50,13">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Recipients and Award Amounts for the Delta States Network Development Program</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Grant No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Award recipient name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">City, state</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Award
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49280</ENT>
                        <ENT>Arcare</ENT>
                        <ENT>Augusta, AR</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,132,080</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49281</ENT>
                        <ENT>Arkansas Rural Health Partnership</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lake Village, AR</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,075,476</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49282</ENT>
                        <ENT>Baptist Health Deaconess Madisonville, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Madisonville, KY</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,132,080</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49283</ENT>
                        <ENT>Big Springs Medical Association, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ellington, MO</ENT>
                        <ENT>905,664</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49284</ENT>
                        <ENT>Delta Health Alliance, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stoneville, MS</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,018,872</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49285</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Health Enrichment Network</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oakdale, LA</ENT>
                        <ENT>962,268</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49286</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hospital Service District 1 A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Delhi, LA</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,188,684</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49287</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jefferson Comprehensive Health Center, Inc</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fayette, MS</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,071,440</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49288</ENT>
                        <ENT>Methodist Le Bonheur Community Outreach</ENT>
                        <ENT>Memphis, TN</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,018,872</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17976"/>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49289</ENT>
                        <ENT>Rural Alabama Prevention Center</ENT>
                        <ENT>Eutaw, AL</ENT>
                        <ENT>962,268</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49290</ENT>
                        <ENT>Southern Illinois University</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carbondale, IL</ENT>
                        <ENT>851,046</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">D60RH49291</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Mississippi County Health Department</ENT>
                        <ENT>Charleston, MO</ENT>
                        <ENT>622,644</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Justification:</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program</HD>
                <P>This funding provided a one-time 1-year extension of funding to 21 Small Health Care Provider Quality Improvement Program awardees with a budget period of August 1, 2026, through July 31, 2027. This extension will allow these awardees to build on past and ongoing projects supported by HRSA to promote quality improvement and the delivery of cost-effective, coordinated health care services in rural primary care settings. Project activities that will be extended during the 1-year budget period include expanded capacity for essential health care services and increased financial sustainability for services that increase care coordination, enhance chronic disease management, and improve overall health outcomes for rural patients.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Delta States Network Development Program</HD>
                <P>This funding provided a one-time 1-year extension of funding to 12 Delta States Network Development Program awardees with a budget period of August 1, 2026, through July 31, 2027. This extension will allow these awardees to build on past and ongoing projects supported by HRSA to (1) achieve efficiencies; (2) expand access to, coordinate, and improve the quality of basic health care services and associated health outcomes in rural areas within the eight rural Mississippi Delta Region states (Alabama, Arkansas, Illinois, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, Missouri, and Tennessee); and (3) strengthen the rural health care system as a whole. Project activities that will be extended during the 1-year budget period include innovative strategies that address delivery of preventative and clinical health services for individuals with, or at risk of, developing chronic diseases that disproportionally affect the rural Mississippi Delta communities. Awardees will continue to collaborate with network partners in the planning, delivery, and evaluation of health care services to implement sustainable health care programs that improve population health, health outcomes, and demonstrate value to the local rural communities.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Thomas J. Engels,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06802 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Topics in Aging, Neurological, Mental and Behavioral Health.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 5-6, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Varsha Shukla, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20817, (301) 594-2407, 
                        <E T="03">Varsha.shukla@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Clinical Trials: Cardiovascular and Respiratory Topics.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 5, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Rupali Das, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 594-0023, 
                        <E T="03">rupali.das@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Member Conflict: Topics in Cancer Genetics, Gene Regulation and Oncogenesis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 5, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Wing-hang Tong, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (302) 402-0360, 
                        <E T="03">tongw@mail.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Genes, Genomes and Genetics.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 5, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         12:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Lisa A. Dunbar, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">lisa.dunbar@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Member Conflict: Topics in Pathogenic Eukaryotes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 5, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         12:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Frank S. De Silva, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">fdesilva@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Clinical Care, Disease Management and Health Outcomes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 6-7, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                        <PRTPAGE P="17977"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Karen Nieves Lugo, Ph.D., MPH, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 402-1366, 
                        <E T="03">karen.nieveslugo@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; PAR-23-145: Maximizing Investigators' Research Award.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 6, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Laureen Elizabeth Connell, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Dr., Room 710K, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 480-3629, 
                        <E T="03">connelle@csr.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; NIH Support for Conferences and Scientific Meetings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 6, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Trinh T. Tran, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-5843, 
                        <E T="03">trinh.tran@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Radiation Therapy, Radiopharmaceuticals, and Radiobiology Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         May 6, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Susan Lynn Spence, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">susan.spence@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06801 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Eye Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, National Eye Institute.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the National Eye Institute, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Board of Scientific Counselors, National Eye Institute.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         April 27, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate personnel qualifications and performance, and competence of individual investigators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Eye Institute, 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         David M. Schneeweis, Ph.D., Acting Scientific Director, National Eye Institute, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room 6A22, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-451-6763, 
                        <E T="03">David.schneeweis@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nei.nih.gov/about/advisory-committees,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rosalind M. Niamke,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06800 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Extension of Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: TSA Canine Training Center Adoption Application</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Transportation Security Administration, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces that the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has forwarded the Information Collection Request (ICR), Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number 1652-0067, abstracted below, to OMB for review and approval of an extension of the currently approved collection under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. The collection involves gathering information from individuals who wish to adopt a TSA canine through the TSA Canine Training Center (CTC) Adoption Program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Send your comments by May 11, 2026. A comment to OMB is most effective if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Christina A. Walsh, TSA PRA Officer, Information Technology, TSA-11, Transportation Security Administration, 6595 Springfield Center Drive, Springfield, VA 20598-6011; telephone (571) 227-2062; email 
                        <E T="03">TSAPRA@tsa.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    TSA published a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments, of the following collection of information on August 4, 2025, 90 FR 36448. TSA did not receive any comments on the notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17978"/>
                    available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov</E>
                     upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—
                </P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;</P>
                <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection Requirement</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     TSA Canine Training Center Adoption Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1652-0067.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Forms(s):</E>
                     TSA Form 433, 
                    <E T="03">Adoption Application.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals seeking to adopt a TSA canine.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The TSA Canine Program is a Congressionally-mandated program that operates as a partnership among TSA; aviation, mass transit, and maritime sectors; and state and local law enforcement. TSA operates the TSA CTC Adoption Program in accordance with the Federal Management Regulations. TSA established the CTC to train and deploy explosive detection canine teams for TSA and for local, state, and federal agencies in support of daily activities that protect the transportation domain. Canines that attrit out of the CTC Program and are not repurposed for other government uses may be placed for adoption. TSA operates the TSA CTC Adoption Program to find suitable individuals or families to adopt the canines and to provide good homes. Individuals seeking to adopt a TSA canine must complete the Adoption Application. This collection of information allows the TSA CTC Adoption Program to collect personal information from the applicants to determine their suitability to adopt a TSA canine.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Number of Respondents:</E>
                     300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     50.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christina A. Walsh,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, Information Technology, Transportation Security Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06880 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7109-N-04; OMB Control No. 2577-0303]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Public Housing Capital Fund Amendments to the Annual Contributions Contract</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Public and Indian Housing, (PIH).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments Due Date:</E>
                         June 8, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection can be sent within 60 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Interested persons are also invited to submit comments regarding this proposal and comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Dawn Martin, Program Analyst, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dawn Martin, Program Analyst, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314; email 
                        <E T="03">PIH-PRAPublicComments@hud.gov,</E>
                         telephone (202) 402-6488. This is not a toll-free number. HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Martin.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Public Housing Capital Fund Amendments to the Annual Contributions Contract.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Number:</E>
                     2577-0303.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     HUD-52840A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of the need for the information and proposed use:</E>
                     Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) are required to submit information to HUD in connection with their grantee duties to operate and maintain/modernize public housing dwelling units and other real property under the United States Housing Act of 1937 (1937 Act) (42 U.S.C. 1437, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Section 9 of the 1937 Act permits the Secretary of HUD to make grants (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     annual contributions) to PHAs to achieve and maintain the low-income character of public housing projects. The Secretary is required to embody the provisions for such annual contributions in an agreement (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the ACC). Applicable regulations are 24 CFR part 905 for Public Housing Capital Fund Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Public Housing Agencies.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,10,12,8,8,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">ACC provisions/HUD form</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Burden hours
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>hour</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            ($)
                            <LI>Total cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1. Amend ACC for Capital Fund Finance</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>108</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5.175</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2. Amend ACC for Annual Capital Fund Formula Grant via form HUD 52840-A</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,770</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,803</ENT>
                        <ENT>47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>517,680</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3. Amend ACC for Emergency Capital Fund Grant</ENT>
                        <ENT>38</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>99</ENT>
                        <ENT>47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,744</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4. Amend ACC Capital Fund for Safety and Security</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>98</ENT>
                        <ENT>47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,696</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5. Amend ACC to Recapture Annual Capital Fund Formula Grant via form HUD 52840-A</ENT>
                        <ENT>123</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>640</ENT>
                        <ENT>47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>30,669</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="17979"/>
                        <ENT I="01">6. Amend ACC for Energy Performance Contract</ENT>
                        <ENT>38</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>194</ENT>
                        <ENT>47.92</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,296</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,054</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>11,942</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>572,261</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Solicitation of Public Comment</HD>
                <P>This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Authority</HD>
                <P>Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Laura Kunkel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Policy, Programs, and Legislative Initiatives.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06835 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7095-N-01; OMB Control No.: 2529-0011]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Comment Request Housing Discrimination Complaint Form HUD-903</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity (FHEO), HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments Due Date:</E>
                         June 8, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection can be submitted within 60 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Interested persons are also invited to submit comments regarding this proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and can be sent to: Charles McNally, Director of Program Standards and Compliance, Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity (FHEO), Department of Housing and Urban Development, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314 or email at 
                        <E T="03">FHEO903Comments@hud.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Charles McNally, Director of Program Standards and Compliance, Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity (FHEO), Department of Housing and Urban Development, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314; telephone number (212) 542-7530 (this is not a toll-free number), or email at 
                        <E T="03">Charles.McNally@hud.gov.</E>
                         HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>HUD is requesting this renewal for an information collection that expired on September 30, 2025, to the OMB for review, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 [44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended].</P>
                <P>
                    The “Housing Discrimination Complaint” previously known as the “Report Housing Discrimination” Form (HUD-903) is used for the collection of pertinent information from persons or entities who wish to file housing discrimination complaints with HUD/FHEO under § 810(a) of the Fair Housing Act of 1968 (Act), as amended [42 U.S.C. 3601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     and 24 CFR part 103, subparts A and B] and/or under other Federal civil rights laws administratively enforced by FHEO. Effective as of October 1, 2022, FHEO is also authorized to file and investigate complaints alleging violations of the 2022 reauthorization of the 
                    <E T="03">Violence Against Women Act</E>
                     (VAWA) [34 U.S.C. 12491-12495]. Accordingly, FHEO requested and received OMB's emergency approval to revise the previously approved “Report Housing Discrimination” Form by adding information necessary to inform the public, including potential VAWA complainants/survivors, about FHEO's new VAWA enforcement authority. On January 20, 2023, FHEO also published Notice FHEO-2023-01: “
                    <E T="03">Notice to Public Regarding FHEO Enforcement Authority and Procedures: Violence Against Women Act 2022 (VAWA).”</E>
                     Notice FHEO-2023-01 describes FHEO's procedures for conducting intake, filing, investigating, and resolving VAWA complaints. FHEO has also established a “Your Rights Under the Violence Against Women Act (VAWA)” web page that provides detailed guidance (including Notice FHEO-2023-01) for potential VAWA complainants/survivors, at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/hud-partners/fair-housing-vawa.</E>
                </P>
                <P>HUD's Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity (FHEO) staff uses the currently-approved Form HUD-903 information collection at the intake stage of case processing to verify that a person or entity has standing as an aggrieved person to file a complaint under the Fair Housing Act (“Act”); that the respondent is covered by the requirements of the Act; that the subject dwelling and/or transaction is covered by the requirements of the Act; that the alleged discriminatory activity is prohibited under the Act (subject matter jurisdiction); and that the alleged discriminatory activity occurred within the Act's one-year statute of limitations for filing a complaint with HUD. The currently approved Form complies with the procedures described in HUD's Fair Housing Act regulation at 24 CFR part 103, subpart B, Subsections 103.10, 103.15, 103.20, 103.25, 103.30, 103.35, and 103.40.</P>
                <P>
                    The Form HUD-903 will not increase the information collection burden for aggrieved persons. The Form asks an aggrieved person to provide their full 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17980"/>
                    name; address; phone and/or email contact information; and alternative contact information. The Form also asks the aggrieved person to answer eight (8) preliminary questions that may establish HUD's authority (jurisdiction) to investigate a housing discrimination complaint. The form now includes a signature field to declare under penalty of perjury that the form submitter read the complaint and that it is true and correct to the best of their knowledge.
                </P>
                <P>The updated Form HUD-903 will not increase the total annual burden hours for aggrieved persons who submit the Form to HUD via the internet. Therefore, HUD does not believe that the time for completing the online version of the Form will exceed the current 45-minute time limit for internet submissions.</P>
                <P>
                    This Notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed extension of approval for a currently approved collection of information concerning alleged discriminatory housing practices under the Fair Housing Act [42 U.S.C. 3601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ]. The Fair Housing Act prohibits discrimination in the sale, rental, occupancy, advertising, and insuring of residential dwellings; and in residential real estate-related transactions; and in the provision of brokerage services, based on race, color, religion, sex, handicap [disability], familial status, or national origin. The Fair Housing Act also makes it unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any person who has (1) exercised their fair housing rights; or (2) aided or encouraged another person to exercise their fair housing rights.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any person who claims to have been injured by a discriminatory housing practice, or any person who believes that they will be injured by a discriminatory housing practice that is about to occur, may file a complaint with HUD not later than one (1) year after the alleged discriminatory housing practice(s) occurred or terminated. FHEO designed the “Housing Discrimination Complaint” Form HUD-903 to promote consistency in the documents that, by statute, must be provided to persons or entities against whom complaints are filed [“
                    <E T="03">respondents”</E>
                    ], and for the general public's information and convenience. Section 103.25 of HUD's Fair Housing Act regulation describes the information that must be included in each complaint filed with HUD. For purposes of meeting the Act's one-year time limitation for filing complaints with HUD, complaints need not be initially submitted on the Form that HUD provides. “Housing Discrimination Complaint” Form HUD-903 may be submitted to HUD in person, by mail, or via the internet. HUD must implement and enforce VAWA consistent with, and in a manner that provides, the rights and remedies provided for in the Fair Housing Act. 34 U.S.C. 12494(c); 12495(d). FHEO staff uses the information provided on the Form to verify HUD's authority to investigate the aggrieved person's allegations under the Fair Housing Act and/or under other Federal civil rights laws that FHEO administratively enforces.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Proposed Revised Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Housing Discrimination Complaint.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2529-0011.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal of a previously approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     HUD-903.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of the need for the information and proposed use:</E>
                </P>
                <P>FHEO uses the “Housing Discrimination Complaint”, formerly the “Report Housing Discrimination” Form HUD-903, to collect pertinent information from persons wishing to file housing discrimination complaints with HUD under the Fair Housing Act. The Fair Housing Act makes it unlawful to discriminate in the sale, rental, occupancy, advertising, or insuring of residential dwellings; or to discriminate in residential real estate-related transactions; or in the provision of brokerage services, based on race, color, religion, sex, handicap [disability], familial status, or national origin. The Fair Housing Act also makes it unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any person who has (1) exercised their fair housing rights; or (2) aided or encouraged another person to exercise their fair housing rights.</P>
                <P>
                    The “Housing Discrimination Complaint” Form HUD-903 facilitates the collection of pertinent information from persons or entities who wish to file housing discrimination complaints with HUD under § 810(a) of the Fair Housing Act of 1968 (Act), as amended [42 U.S.C. 3601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     and 24 CFR part 103, subparts A and B]. Any person who claims to have been injured by a discriminatory housing practice, or any person who believes that they will be injured by a discriminatory housing practice that is about to occur, may file a complaint with HUD not later than one (1) year after the alleged discriminatory housing practice occurs or terminates. FHEO staff uses the information to verify that the person or entity has standing as an aggrieved person to file a complaint under the Act; that the respondent is covered by the requirements of the Act; that the subject dwelling and/or transaction is covered by the requirements of the Act; that the alleged discriminatory activity is prohibited under the Act (subject matter jurisdiction); and that the alleged discriminatory activity occurred within the Act's one-year statute of limitations for filing a complaint with HUD. This information is subsequently used to notify persons or entities that have been accused of engaging in discriminatory housing practices [“
                    <E T="03">respondents”</E>
                    ], as required under 42 U.S.C. 3610(1)(B)(ii) of the Act, and under 24 CFR§ 103.202(a) of HUD's Fair Housing Act regulation. FHEO also uses this Form to establish HUD's authority to conduct investigations under other Federal civil rights authorities, including, but not limited to, Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 [42 U.S.C. 2000d-2000d-7]; Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4151-4153); Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 [29 U.S.C. 794]; Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 [42 U.S.C. 12101-12103; 12131-12134]; Section 109 of Title I of the Housing &amp; Community Development Act of 1974 [42 U.S.C. 5309]; the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 [42 U.S.C. 6101-6107]; Title IX of the Education Amendments Act of 1972 [20 U.S.C. 1681-83, 85-88]; and under the 2022 reauthorization of the Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) [34 U.S.C. 12491-12495].
                </P>
                <P>
                    To further public education about unlawful housing discrimination, the Form also contains a non-exhaustive list of activities that are prohibited under the Fair Housing Act and under VAWA. Electronic versions of the Form are currently available on FHEO's web page in English at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/helping-americans.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Form may be submitted to HUD by mail, electronically via the internet, or presented in person to HUD's Regional and/or Field FHEO Offices. HUD/FHEO staff uses this information collection as a source of pertinent data for the HUD Enforcement Management System [“HEMS”], HUD's electronic Fair Housing Act complaint processing database. FHEO uses the HEMS database to conduct intake/assessment of housing discrimination claims; to perfect and generate jurisdictional complaints; to develop investigative plans; to store factual evidence obtained during complaint investigations; to document conciliation efforts under § 810(b) of the Act and voluntary compliance efforts under other Federal civil rights authorities; to generate Final Investigative Reports and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17981"/>
                    Determinations of Reasonable Cause and Determinations of No Reasonable Cause under §§ 810(b) and 810(g) of the Act; and to generate digital case files for administrative enforcement actions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency form number:</E>
                     Form HUD-903.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Members of affected public:</E>
                     Individuals or households; businesses or other for-profit, not-for-profit institutions; State, Local, or Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimation of the total number of hours needed to prepare the information collection, including the number of respondents, frequency of response, and hours of responses:</E>
                     During FY 2025, HUD/FHEO staff received 50,413 submissions of potential complaint information via the internet. Due to recent changes to the intake process, HUD staff now receive approximately 98% of all forms via the internet. As such, FHEO estimates that HUD FHEO receives 51,442 forms each year. HUD estimates that an aggrieved person takes approximately 45 minutes to complete the HUD 903 Form. HUD/FHEO staff uses the information collected from the HUD-903 Form to generate a formal housing discrimination complaint in the HEMS database. This complaint is subsequently signed by the aggrieved person(s) under penalty of perjury and is served on the respondent(s) by personal service or by certified mail, as required under 24 CFR 103.202(a) of HUD's Regulation implementing the Act.
                </P>
                <P>Each aggrieved person will complete the HUD 903 Form to report an incident of housing discrimination on a one-time basis. Therefore, HUD estimated the annual burden hours for this information collection at 38,581.5 hours.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    51,441 
                    <E T="03">Forms</E>
                     × (1 
                    <E T="03">frequency per person</E>
                    ) × (0.75 
                    <E T="03">hours per form</E>
                    ) = 38,581.5
                    <E T="03"> hours</E>
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annualized cost burden to complainants:</E>
                     HUD does not provide postage-paid mailers for this information collection. Accordingly, persons who choose to submit the HUD-903 Form to HUD by regular mail must pay the United States Postal Service's (USPS's) prevailing First-Class Postage rate. At the time of this Notice, the annualized cost burden per person, based on a one-time submission of this Form to HUD via the USPS's First-Class Postage rate is Seventy-Eight Cents ($0.78) per person. Aggrieved persons may also submit the Form to HUD in person or electronically via the internet.
                </P>
                <P>There are no additional annualized cost burdens to aggrieved persons or record keepers resulting from this information collection.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Status of the proposed information collection:</E>
                     Proposed extension of a currently approved information collection of pertinent information from aggrieved persons wishing to file housing discrimination complaints with HUD.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Solicitation of Public Comments</HD>
                <P>This Notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the performance of the agency's functions;</P>
                <P>(2) Whether the agency's estimate of burdens imposed by the information collection is accurate;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burdens of the information collection on aggrieved persons, including the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Authority</HD>
                <P>Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Charles McNally,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Program Standards and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06834 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R1-ES-2026-0992; FXES11130100000-267-FF01E00000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered Species; Receipt of Recovery Permit Applications</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of receipt of permit applications; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, have received applications for permits to conduct activities intended to enhance the propagation and survival of endangered species under the Endangered Species Act. We invite the public and local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies to comment on these applications. Before issuing the requested permits, we will take into consideration any information that we receive during the public comment period.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments will be accepted on or before May 11, 2026. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        , below) must be received by 11:59 p.m. eastern time on the closing date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To ensure your comment is received and considered, you must submit it using one of the methods identified in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section of this document. Comments submitted through any method not authorized in this document, or sent to an address not listed here, will not be considered.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Document availability:</E>
                         Submit a request for copies of the applications and related documents by one of the following methods. All requests should specify the applicant name and application number (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dana Ross, ES001705):
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: permitsR1ES@fws.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Mail:</E>
                         Tanya Sommer, Threatened and Endangered Species Program Manager, Ecological Services, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Pacific Regional Office, 911 NE 11th Avenue, Portland, OR 97232-4181.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment submission:</E>
                         All submissions must include the docket number [FWS-R1-ES-2026-0992] for this document. You must submit comments using one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic submission:</E>
                         Federal eRulemaking Portal at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         In the Search box, enter FWS-R1-ES-2026-0992, which is the docket number for this action. Then click the Search button. On the resulting page, you may submit a comment by clicking on “Comment.” Please ensure that you have found the correct document before submitting your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Public Comments Processing, Attn: Docket No. FWS-R1-ES-2026-0992, Policy and Regulations Branch, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments submitted through any method not authorized in this document, or sent to an address not listed here, will not be considered. We will not accept comments via email, fax, or hand delivery. We are not required to consider comments that are submitted after the comment period ends or that are submitted via a method outside of these instructions. Comments 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17982"/>
                        containing profanity, vulgarity, threats, or other inappropriate content will not be considered.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Karen Colson, Regional Recovery Permit Coordinator, Ecological Services, (503) 231-6283 (telephone); 
                        <E T="03">permitsR1ES@fws.gov</E>
                         (email). Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on applications for permits under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). The requested permits would allow the applicants to conduct activities intended to promote recovery of a species listed as endangered under the ESA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>With some exceptions, the ESA prohibits activities that constitute take of listed species unless a Federal permit is issued that allows such activity. The ESA's definition of “take” includes such activities as pursuing, harassing, trapping, capturing, or collecting, in addition to hunting, shooting, harming, wounding, or killing.</P>
                <P>A recovery permit issued by us under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA authorizes the permittee to conduct activities with endangered or threatened species for scientific purposes that promote recovery or for enhancement of propagation or survival of the species. These activities often include such prohibited actions as capture and collection. Our regulations implementing section 10(a)(1)(A) for these permits are found in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 50 CFR 17.22 for endangered wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.32 for threatened wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.62 for endangered plant species, and 50 CFR 17.72 for threatened plant species.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Permit Applications Available for Review and Comment</HD>
                <P>Proposed activities in the following permit requests are for the recovery and enhancement of propagation or survival of the species in the wild. The ESA requires that we invite public comment before issuing the requested permits. Accordingly, we invite local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies and the public to submit written data, views, or arguments with respect to these applications. The comments and recommendations that will be most useful and likely to influence agency decisions are those supported by quantitative information or studies.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs60,r50,r60,r50,r50,r40">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Application No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Applicant, city, state</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Take activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Permit action</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ES72088A-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Pacific Islands Fisheries Science Center, Honolulu, HI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Green sea turtle (
                            <E T="03">Chelonia mydas</E>
                            ), Hawksbill sea turtle (
                            <E T="03">Eretmochelys imbricata</E>
                            ), Leatherback sea turtle (
                            <E T="03">Dermochelys coriacea</E>
                            ), and Loggerhead sea turtle (
                            <E T="03">Caretta caretta</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Hawai'i, American Samoa, Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Republic of the Marshall Islands, Republic of Palau, and Pacific Remote Islands Areas</ENT>
                        <ENT>Survey, monitor, capture, handle, excavate nests, collect eggs, captive rear hatchlings, biosample, identify, tag, deploy data loggers in nests, attach biotelemetry devices and satellite transmitters, release, research, including reproduction, food, and growth rates, and salvage</ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ES19045C-5</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hawaii Division of Forestry and Wildlife; Honolulu, HI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            No common name (NCN) (
                            <E T="03">Eua zebrina</E>
                            ) and NCN (
                            <E T="03">Ostodes strigatus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>American Samoa</ENT>
                        <ENT>Survey and biosample</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PER26029064</ENT>
                        <ENT>Woodland Park Zoological Gardens, Seattle, Washington</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Island marble butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Euchloe ausonides insulanus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Washington</ENT>
                        <ENT>Collect/capture, handle, captive rear, release, salvage, and emergency relocate</ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="17983"/>
                        <ENT I="01">ES40123A-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>U.S. Army Garrison, Pohakuloa Training Area, Hilo, Hawaii</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            No common name (NCN) (
                            <E T="03">Asplenium peruvianum var. insulare</E>
                            ), Menzies ballart/heau (
                            <E T="03">Exocarpos menziesii</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Festuca hawaiiensis</E>
                            ), honohono (
                            <E T="03">Haplostachys haplostachya</E>
                            ), kio'ele (
                            <E T="03">Kadua coriacea</E>
                            ), aupaka (
                            <E T="03">Isodendrion hosakae</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Lipochaeta venosa</E>
                            ) also known as nehe 
                            <E T="03">(Melanthera venosa</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Neraudia ovata</E>
                            ), po'e (
                            <E T="03">Portulaca sclerocarpa</E>
                            ), 'ihi (
                            <E T="03">Portulaca villosa</E>
                            ), ma'oli'oli (
                            <E T="03">Schiedea hawaiiensis</E>
                            ), anunu (
                            <E T="03">Sicyos macrophyllus</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Silene lanceolata</E>
                            ), pōpolu kū mai (
                            <E T="03">Solanum incompletum</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Spermolepis hawaiiensis</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Stenogyne angustifolia var. angustifolia</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Tetramolopium arenarium</E>
                            ), NCN (
                            <E T="03">Vigna o-wahuensis</E>
                            ), and 'e (
                            <E T="03">Zanthoxylum hawaiiense</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Hawai'i</ENT>
                        <ENT>Collect plants and propagules for propagation, outplanting, and herbarium specimens</ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew with changes.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            'Akē'akē or Band-rumped Storm-petrel (
                            <E T="03">Hydrobates castro</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Hawai'i</ENT>
                        <ENT>Survey and monitor with detector dog, nest cameras, and acoustic recording devices, predator control, and salvage</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Availability of Comments</HD>
                <P>Written comments we receive become part of the administrative record associated with this action. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. All submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Next Steps</HD>
                <P>
                    If we decide to issue a permit to any of the applicants listed in this notice, we will publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    We publish this notice under section 10(c) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tanya Sommer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Threatened and Endangered Species Program Manager, Pacific Region.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06798 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[2560102DM; DS6CS00000; DLSN00000.000000; DX6CS25; OMB Control Number 1084-0033]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Private Rental Survey</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Office of the Secretary, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Office of the Secretary, Department of the Interior are proposing to renew an information collection without change.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Phil Parkovich, Quarters Rental Program Manager, DOI—Interior Business Center, One Denver Federal Center, Bldg. 48, Denver, CO 80235 or by email to 
                        <E T="03">philip_parkovich@ibc.doi.gov.</E>
                         Please reference Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 1084-0033 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Phil Parkovich, Quarters Rental Program Manager, DOI—Interior Business Center, One Denver Federal Center, Bldg. 48, Denver, CO 80235, by telephone at 303-
                        <PRTPAGE P="17984"/>
                        969-7164, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">philip_parkovich@ibc.doi.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), all information collections require approval under the PRA. We may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personally identifiable information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personally identifiable information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Title 5 of the U.S. Code section 5911 authorizes Federal agencies to provide housing for Government employees under specified circumstances. In compliance with OMB Circular A-45 (Revised), Rental and Construction of Government Quarters, a review of private rental market housing rates is required at least once every 5 years to ensure that the rental, utility charges, and charges for related services to occupants of Government Furnished Housing (GFH) are comparable to corresponding charges in the private sector. To avoid unnecessary duplication and inconsistent rental rates, the Department of the Interior, Office of the Secretary, Interior Business Center (on behalf of the Office of Acquisition and Property Management), conducts housing surveys in support of employee housing management programs for the Departments of the Interior (DOI), Agriculture, Commerce, Homeland Security, Justice, Transportation, Health and Human Services, Veterans Affairs, and other agencies. In this survey, two collection forms are used for rental unit data: OS-2000 covering “Houses—Apartments—Mobile Homes,” and OS-2001 covering “Trailer Spaces.”
                </P>
                <P>Respondents are typically property management companies or significant property owners in specific communities and are contacted by email or telephone. They may provide the rental unit information requested in OS-2000 and OS-2001 verbally, update rental data collected during a previous survey, enhance/complete rental data gathered from published sources, or provide printouts/lists of rental units they manage.</P>
                <P>This collection of information provides data that is essential for DOI and the other Federal agencies to manage GFH in accordance with the requirements of OMB Circular A-45 (Revised). If this information were not collected from the public, DOI and the other Federal agencies providing GFH would be required to use professional real estate appraisals of private market rental costs, again, in accordance with OMB Circular A-45, but at an increased cost to the taxpayer.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Private Rental Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1084-0033.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     OS-2000 and OS-2001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Renewal without change of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses and other for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     1,883.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     OS-2000: 3,180; OS-2001: 359; Total: 3,539.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     6 minutes for OS-2000 and 4 minutes for OS-2001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     342 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     Once per respondent every fourth year. Three or four of 16 total survey regions are surveyed every year. Therefore a respondent or business may potentially be surveyed every fourth year, if the exact same unit is surveyed again four years later. In addition, if an individual respondent or business is a significant rental property manager or rental property owner in the community, they may provide multiple responses in the same survey. Approximately 63% of respondents furnish more than one rental unit (OS-2000 and OS-2001). About 60% of respondents validate published data (tax records, advertisement, etc.), 30% update their previous survey data, and 10% furnish a new OS-2000 or OS-2001. Participation is optional.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Parrillo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06895 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4334-63-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[2560102DM; DS6CS00000; DLSN00000.000000; OMB Control Number 1090-0012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Improving Customer Experience (OMB Circular A-11, Section 280 Implementation)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17985"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Department of the Interior are proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Jeffrey Parrillo, Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1849 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20240; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">DOI-PRA@ios.doi.gov</E>
                        . Please reference OMB Control Number 1090-0012 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Jeffrey Parrillo, Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1849 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20240; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">DOI-PRA@ios.doi.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at 202-208-7072. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), all information collections require approval under the PRA. We may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     A modern, streamlined and responsive customer experience means: raising government-wide customer experience to the average of the private sector service industry; developing indicators for high-impact Federal programs to monitor progress towards excellent customer experience and mature digital services; and providing the structure (including increasing transparency) and resources to ensure customer experience is a focal point for agency leadership.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection activity provides a means to garner customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner in accordance with the Administration's commitment to improving customer service delivery as discussed in Section 280 of OMB Circular A-11 at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2018/06/s280.pdf</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>As discussed in OMB guidance, agencies should identify their highest-impact customer journeys (using customer volume, annual program cost, and/or knowledge of customer priority as weighting factors) and select touchpoints/transactions within those journeys to collect feedback.</P>
                <P>
                    These results will be used to improve the delivery of Federal services and programs. It will also provide government-wide data on customer experience that can be displayed on 
                    <E T="03">www.performance.gov</E>
                     to help build transparency and accountability of Federal programs to the customers they serve.
                </P>
                <P>As a general matter, these information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.</P>
                <P>The Department of the Interior will only submit collections if they meet the following criteria.</P>
                <P>• The collections are voluntary;</P>
                <P>• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;</P>
                <P>• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;</P>
                <P>• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;</P>
                <P>• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;</P>
                <P>• Information gathered is intended to be used for general service improvement and program management purposes</P>
                <P>
                    • Upon agreement between OMB and the agency, all or a subset of information may be released as part of A-11, Section 280 requirements on 
                    <E T="03">performance.gov</E>
                    . Summaries of customer research and user testing activities may be included in public-facing customer journey maps.
                </P>
                <P>• Additional release of data must be done in coordination with OMB.</P>
                <P>These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the Agency, its customers and stakeholders, and OMB as it monitors agency compliance on Section 280. These responses will inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on services will be unavailable.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Improving Customer Experience (OMB Circular A-11, Section 280 Implementation).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1090-0012.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households, Businesses and Organizations, State, Local or Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     146,384.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17986"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     146,384.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     Varied, dependent upon the possible response time to complete a questionnaire or survey may be 3 minutes up to 90 minutes to participate in an interview based on the data collection method used.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     13,876.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Parrillo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06899 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4334-63-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7054; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042548; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: The Field Museum, Chicago, IL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Field Museum intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Helen Robbins, The Field Museum, 1400 S DuSable Lake Shore Drive, Chicago, IL 60605, email 
                        <E T="03">hrobbins@fieldmuseum.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Field Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 2,064 cultural items have been requested for repatriation from Apache, Coconino, Navajo, Gila, and Yavapai Counties, Arizona for repatriation. These 2,064 objects of cultural patrimony are from one accession that has been approved for repatriation. They mostly consist of ceramic vessels such as food bowls, cooking pots, jars, vases, mugs, and ladles Also present are bone, shell, and stone tools, such as awls, arrow points, axes, projectiles, and other implements; stone items such as mortars, beads.; and jewelry.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information:</E>
                     The requested items are part of Accession 745, (now known as the Frank J. Wattron Collection) and was acquired in 1901 by the Field Columbian Museum, (now known as the Field Museum). Frank J. Wattron removed or purchased the requested items between July 1898 and April 1899 from various sites affiliated with the Hopi Tribe in northeastern Arizona, including Chevelon, Homolovi I, Homolovi II, Holbrook, Hopi Buttes, Mesa Redondo, Round Valley, San Cosmos, Tanner Springs, and Taylor. All items in this request are archaeological and identified in Field Museum records as Hopi. Based on consultation, and academic research, however, these sites are jointly affiliated with the Hopi Tribe of Arizona and Zuni Tribe of New Mexico. There is no known presence of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat any of the cultural items.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Field Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 2,064 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Hopi Tribe of Arizona.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Field Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Field Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06811 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7062; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042557; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Navy Region Southwest has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="17987"/>
                        associated funerary objects in this notice to John O'Connor, Ph.D., RPA, Cultural Resources Manager, Naval Base Ventura County, 311 Main Road, Building 632, Point Mugu, CA 93042, email 
                        <E T="03">john.t.oconnor88.civ@us.navy.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Department of the Navy, Navy Region Southwest, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least five individuals have been identified. The 363 associated funerary objects are animal bones, bone tools, shell fishhooks, shell beads, stone beads, stone pendants, stone tools, stone bowls, and stone mortars &amp; pestles. From 1905 to 1962, human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from San Nicolas Island, California by several individuals and eventually donated to the Navy Region Southwest Cultural Resources Management Program. There are no records that indicate any potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains or associated funerary items; however, an unknown type of glue was used to mount the remains representing one individual and 264 funerary objects were glued in a shadowbox.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Department of the Navy, Navy Region Southwest has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of five individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 363 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the La Jolla Band of Luiseno Indians, California; Pala Band of Mission Indians; Pauma Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pauma &amp; Yuima Reservation, California; Pechanga Band of Indians (previously listed as Pechanga Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pechanga Reservation, California); Rincon Band of Luiseno Indians (previously listed as Rincon Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of Rincon Reservation, California); Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California; and the Soboba Band of Luiseno Indians, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Department of the Navy, Navy Region Southwest must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Department of the Navy, Navy Region Southwest is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06820 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7073; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042577; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Bruce Museum Inc., Greenwich, CT</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Bruce Museum, Inc. intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten J. Reinhardt, the Bruce Museum, One Museum Drive Greenwich, CT 06830, email 
                        <E T="03">kreinhardt@brucemuseum.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Bruce Museum, Inc., and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of five cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The five scared objects are two umbilical cord holders (one is a pair), two hand drums, and one rattle.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">I.02025</E>
                     Red cotton fabric, stuffed, and tied into the shape of a lizard. Exterior wrapped with a string of beads, mainly white, mixed with red, green, blue, and yellow. Pairs of tin tinklers with remnant red feathers attached. Contents unknown. No testing to determine contents was performed. Undocumented acquisition history or cultural affiliation, geographical location is considered to be the Great Plains.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">16123.a-.b</E>
                     Pair of attached, flat, diamond shaped, stuffed, beaded, sinew sewn, tanned hide, umbilical cord containers. Top beaded in bands of light blue, yellow, red, green, blue, &amp; pink; tin cones with remnant horsehair at end 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17988"/>
                    of four looped buckskin strings; remnant red quill wrap on strings. Contents unknown, no testing to determine contents was performed. Undocumented acquisition history or cultural affiliation, geographical location is considered to be the Great Plains.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">00158.10</E>
                     Hand drum. Single piece bent wood circular frame, bison skin head. Perimeter painted blue; at center is a wide-eyed bison head with wavy lines below, and two concentric blue discs, connected by a blue wavy line. Made at Fort Peck, c.1889, by Siyosapa, aka Dr. Black Prairie Chicken, Hunkpapa Lakota/Yanktonai Nakota. Donated to the Bruce in 1927, from the collection of William H. Tallmadge who served as a Special Indian Agent from 1888-1889.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">00158.11</E>
                     Hand drum. Single piece bent wood circular frame, bison skin heads. Two bison horns attached to top by nails and rawhide lace. Perimeter painted in concentric circles of blue and green. Center is a narrow-faced bison, blue outline, red face, eyes, nostrils, and mane. Made at Fort Peck, c.1889, by Siyosapa, aka Dr. Black Prairie Chicken, Hunkpapa Lakota/Yanktonai Nakota. Donated to the Bruce in 1927, from the collection of William H. Tallmadge who served as a Special Indian Agent from 1888-1889.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">00407.33</E>
                     Rattle. Gourd and painted hide (likely bison scrotum) containing pebbles; wood handle wrapped in ribbon. Painted in deep blue: skeletal face wearing a hood. Attributed to the Bird collection, gifted in 1938, more likely part of the Tallmadge collection, see above.
                </P>
                <P>No potentially hazardous materials were used to treat any of the cultural items.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Bruce Museum, Inc. has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The five sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Assiniboine and Sioux Tribes of the Fort Peck Indian Reservation, Montana.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Bruce Museum, Inc. must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Bruce Museum, Inc. is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06829 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7063; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042558; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Naval Base Coronado has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Richard G. Bark, Senior Region Archaeologist, 750 Pacific Highway, Floor 12, San Diego, CA 92132, email 
                        <E T="03">richard.g.bark.civ@us.navy.mil</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Department of the Navy, Naval Base Coronado, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least four individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Originally removed from San Nicolas Island, California on behalf of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation between 1900-1930s, the individuals were acquired by the Department of Anthropology, Columbia University at an unknown date. Columbia University donated the individuals to Garvies Point Museum and Preserve on January 22, 1970. There are no records that indicate any potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least 26 individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. A total of two individuals were removed from San Clemente Island, California by an unknown individual at an unknown date and came into the collection of Mrs. E.L. Doran at a later unknown date. In 1917, the individuals were purchased from Mrs. E.L. Doran by A.E. Pace on behalf of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation. In 1956, the individuals were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. A total of two individuals were removed from San Clemente Island, California by an unknown individual at an unknown date, and were accessioned by the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation at a later unknown date. In 1956, the individuals were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. The remaining 22 individuals were removed from San Clemente Island, California in 1923 by Ralph Glidden under sponsorship of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation. In 1956, the individuals were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. Records from the New York University College of Dentistry indicate the crania 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17989"/>
                    representing three individuals are covered in a shellac-like material; however, there are no other records that indicate any potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Department of the Navy, Naval Base Coronado has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 30 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the La Jolla Band of Luiseno Indians, California; Pala Band of Mission Indians; Pauma Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pauma &amp; Yuima Reservation, California; Pechanga Band of Indians (previously listed as Pechanga Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pechanga Reservation, California); Rincon Band of Luiseno Indians (previously listed as Rincon Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of Rincon Reservation, California); Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California; and the Soboba Band of Luiseno Indians, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Department of the Navy, Naval Base Coronado must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Department of the Navy, Naval Base Coronado is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06821 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7068; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042562; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Case Western Reserve University Cleveland, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Case Western Reserve University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Jennifer Kangas Berendt, Assistant Director of Agreements, Office of Research and Technology Management, Case Western Reserve University, 10900 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44106, email 
                        <E T="03">jxb1173@case.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Case Western Reserve University and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing two individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Notes for one skull state it was found by Wetmore Hodges on May 5, 1934 in a trench which he called “Burial #23” in Goleta, about two miles of north of Santa Barbara. Notes for the second skull state it is a “Prehistoric Amerind skull from Santa Barbara, California.” The identity of the individuals is unknown. No known presence of potentially hazardous materials.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Case Western Reserve University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Case Western Reserve University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. Case Western Reserve University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17990"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06824 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7064; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042560; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Defense, Department of the Navy, Naval Base Ventura County has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to John O'Connor, Ph.D., RPA, Cultural Resources Manager, Naval Base Ventura County, 311 Main Road, Building 632, Point Mugu, CA 93042, email 
                        <E T="03">john.t.oconnor88.civ@us.navy.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Department of the Navy, Naval Base Ventura County, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, three individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. Originally removed from San Nicolas Island, California on behalf of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation between 1900-1930s, the individuals were acquired by the Department of Anthropology, Columbia University at an unknown date. Columbia University donated the individuals to Garvies Point Museum and Preserve on January 22, 1970. There are no records that indicate any potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 78 individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. A total of six individuals were removed from San Nicolas Island, California by an unknown individual at an unknown date and in 1956 they were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. A total of 12 individuals were removed from San Nicolas Island, California by an unknown individual at an unknown date and came into the collection of Mrs. E.L. Doran at a later unknown date. In 1917, the individuals were purchased from Mrs. E.L. Doran by A.E. Pace on behalf of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation. In 1956, the individuals were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. The remaining 60 individuals were removed from San Clemente Island, California in 1921-1922 by Ralph Glidden under sponsorship of the Museum of the American Indian, Heye Foundation. In 1956, the individuals were transferred to Dr. Theodore Kazamiroff of the New York University College of Dentistry. There are no records at the New York University College of Dentistry indicating any potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Department of the Navy, Naval Base Ventura County has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 81 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the La Jolla Band of Luiseno Indians, California; Pala Band of Mission Indians; Pauma Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pauma &amp; Yuima Reservation, California; Pechanga Band of Indians (previously listed as Pechanga Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pechanga Reservation, California); Rincon Band of Luiseno Indians (previously listed as Rincon Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of Rincon Reservation, California); Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California; and the Soboba Band of Luiseno Indians, California</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Department of the Navy, Naval Base Ventura County must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Department of the Navy, Naval Base Ventura County is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06822 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7056; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042553; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Vermont, Burlington, VT</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="17991"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Vermont has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Margaret Tamulonis, Fleming Museum of Art, University of Vermont, 61 Colchester Avenue, Burlington, VT 05405, email 
                        <E T="03">margaret.tamulonis@uvm.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Vermont, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 10 individuals have been identified. The 100 associated objects include 33 lots of pottery, 22 lots of faunal remains, and 45 lots of lithics. The items include pottery, vessels, faunal remains, assorted lithics, antler, and assorted pottery sherds. Some of the items were collected by members of the avocational Champlain Valley Archaeological Society from the Rivers site in the 1938-1939 and deposited at the University of Vermont in the 1930s. The collection also includes cultural materials (but not human remains) excavated by the University of Vermont in 1972. The Rivers Site (VT-AD-2) is located on the Otter Creek River in Ferrisburgh, Vermont, at the mouth of the Dead Creek tributary. Based on consultation, the Rivers site area is a known burial complex located on the ancestral lands of the Stockbridge-Munsee Community.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Vermont has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 10 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 100 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Vermont must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Vermont is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06816 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7072; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042576; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: North Carolina State University, Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design, Raleigh, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Lee Chavis-Tartaglia, North Carolina State University, Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design, 1903 Hillsborough Street, Campus Box 7330, Raleigh, NC 27695, email 
                        <E T="03">lgtartag@ncsu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of six cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The six mea kapu (sacred objects) are “Polynesian tapa cloth” kapa, ca. 1929, “Hawaiian bark cloth” kapa, ca. pre-1993, and four “bark cloth samples,” ca. pre-1993. All of these items came to the Gregg Museum as gifts and donations in 1986 and 1993, respectively. The “Polynesian tapa cloth” kapa, accession number 1986.013.001, was bought by the donor in 1929. It was folded for sixty years and contains fragile crease lines. The “Hawaiian bark cloth” kapa, accession number 1993.018.173, as well as the “bark cloth samples,” were brought in with a larger collection from the donations of A. Harvey Schreter. Based on consultation with the Native Hawaiian Organization Hui Iwi 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17992"/>
                    Kuamo'o, the Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design identifies this item as a sacred object of the Kingdom of Hawai'i. Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design records indicate no known hazardous substances.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The six sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Hui Iwi Kuamo'o.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Gregg Museum of Art &amp; Design is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06828 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7055; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042552; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Channel Islands National Park, Ventura, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, National Park Service, Channel Islands National Park (CHIS) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribe in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Ethan McKinly, Superintendent, Channel Islands National Park, 1901 Spinnaker Drive, Ventura, CA 93001, email 
                        <E T="03">ethan_mckinley@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Superintendent, CHIS and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 40 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 40 unassociated funerary objects are two stone scrapers, two stone bowls, one stone biface, one stone pestle, 18 shell ornaments, one bone bead, eight shell beads, one bone tool, one stone plummet, one digging stick weight, one lot of black seeds, one shell fragment, and two fishhook blanks. In the 1870's Stephen Bowers and William George Willoughby were actively collecting and excavating burials on the Channel Islands located off the coast of California. Items from Bowers and Willoughby's collections were initially housed at the Smithsonian Institution in the late 1870's and later transferred to Wesleyan University's Natural History Museum. Cultural affiliation was determined based on the following types of information: anthropological, archeological, geographic, historical, oral tradition, and Native American traditional knowledge. The presence of any potentially hazardous substances on these cultural items is unknown.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>CHIS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 40 unassociated funerary objects described above are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, CHIS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. CHIS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06815 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17993"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7060; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042555; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: The University of Texas at Austin, Texas Archeological Research Laboratory, Austin, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Texas at Austin, Texas Archeological Research Laboratory (TARL) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jessica Ulmer, The University of Texas at Austin Texas Archaeological Research Laboratory, 1 University Station, R7500, Austin, TX 78712, email 
                        <E T="03">jessica.ulmer@austin.utexas.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of TARL, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The four associated funerary objects are two faunal remains fragments and two non-cultural rocks.</P>
                <P>In 1986, Native American human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from site 41EP25 in El Paso County, Texas, by the Texas Archeological Society led by Thomas O'Laughlin. These human remains and associated funerary objects were accessioned at TARL in 2004. The human remains have evidence of glue residue and modern textile adherence.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>TARL has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The four objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Ysleta del Sur Pueblo.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, TARL must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. TARL is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06818 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7053; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042551; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Kansas State Historical Society (KSHS) has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Dr. Nicole Klarmann, Kansas State Historical Society, 6425 SW 6th Avenue, Topeka, KS 66615-1099, email 
                        <E T="03">kshs.nagpra@ks.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the KSHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified from Wyandotte County, KS (UBS 1998-16). No associated funerary objects are present. Partial remains from Bonner Springs were given to law enforcement and originally considered a forensic case in 1998. After it was determined that they were not, they were transferred to KSHS in 2004. To our knowledge, no known hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17994"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The KSHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Kaw Nation, Oklahoma and the Shawnee Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the KSHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The KSHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06814 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7071; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042564; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Sonoma State University has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 E Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email 
                        <E T="03">tworkk@sonoma.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. The 1,660 associated funerary objects are modified faunal bone, unmodified faunal bone, shell beads, modified obsidian, historics, unmodified shell, flaked stone debitage, petrified wood, groundstone, and modified stone tools. The individuals and associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1082 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. Due to planned road widening at the site, Sonoma State University conducted a survey, drilled auger borings, and excavated two units in 1980. The resulting material has resided at Sonoma State University since that time. During Tribal consultation two individuals were identified associated with the work done in 1980. In 1982, additional items were collected during monitoring of a driveway construction at CA-SON-1082. Since 1982 the material from this monitoring has resided at Sonoma State University.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. The 8,167 lots of associated funerary objects are modified obsidian, groundstone, unmodified shell, flaked stone tools, modified faunal bone, quartz crystals, daub, petrified wood, lithics, charmstones, unmodified stone, flaked stone debitage, modified shell, clay, soil, unmodified faunal bone, ash, float samples, lithics, historics. The individual and associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-977, CA-SON-978, CA-SON-979, and CA-SON-980 in Santa Rosa, California in Sonoma County. Due to planned construction of a holding pond, in 1977 Sonoma State University engaged in field testing at the sites within the construction area, CA-SON-977, CA-SON-978, CA-SON-979, CA-SON-980. Work done included surface survey, auger borings, and excavation at all four sites. In the catalog, remains from an individual are listed from CA-SON-978, but no further information was able to be located. Since 1977, the results of this work have been held at Sonoma State University. Later, items from CA-SON-979 were donated by Michael Joerger in 1979. Further circumstances of the acquisition are unknown. Since 1979 the cultural items have resided at Sonoma State University.</P>
                <P>The 167 lots of associated funerary objects are flaked stone debitage, modified stone tools, ground stone tools, unmodified faunal bone, historic material. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1347 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed from the site during three different archaeological projects. The first occurrence was in 1981, during the Palms EIR Project. Additional cultural material was removed in 1990 and 1995. Additional information as to why material was removed during these occurrences was not located. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since their removal.</P>
                <P>
                    The four lots of associated funerary objects are shell beads and obsidian. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-874 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed from the site during the Sebastopol Laguna site survey. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1976.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17995"/>
                </P>
                <P>The 14 lots of associated funerary objects are flaked stone tools, flaked stone debitage, and shell beads. The associated funerary were removed from CA-SON-1105/H in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The cultural items were removed during a property survey. The items include flaked stone tools, flaked stone debitage, and shell beads. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1978.</P>
                <P>The four lots of associated funerary objects are lithics, historic material, unmodified faunal bone, and unmodified shell. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-721 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. Additional information as to why the material was removed from the site was not located. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1973.</P>
                <P>The seven lots of associated funerary objects are modified stone tools and flaked stone debitage. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1074 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed from the site during a property survey. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>The seven lots of associated funerary objects are modified obsidian and flaked debitage. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1102 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed from the surface during the Ragel Ranch survey. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1978.</P>
                <P>The two lots of associated funerary objects are modified stone tools. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1317 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. Additional information as to why the cultural material was collected was not located. The items include modified stone tools. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1981.</P>
                <P>The two lots of associated funerary objects are flaked stone debitage and modified stone tools. The associated funerary objects were removed from the Harader Property Burnside Road project in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county and then donated to the university. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since their donation in 1982.</P>
                <P>The one lot of associated funerary objects is unmodified obsidian. The associated funerary objects were removed during a property survey at the Baumgrass Property in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. The items include unmodified obsidian from a float sample. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1983.</P>
                <P>The seven lots of associated funerary objects are unmodified obsidian. The associated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1301 in Sebastopol, California in Sonoma county. Additional information as to why the material was removed was not located. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1986.</P>
                <P>In the case of missing cultural items, all items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the cultural items and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the items being treated with hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Sonoma State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 10,042 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06826 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7078; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042565; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 E Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email 
                        <E T="03">tworkk@sonoma.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Sonoma State University, and additional information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17996"/>
                    on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 79,001 cultural items have been requested for repatriation.</P>
                <P>A total of two lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-945 and CA-LAK-946 near Lakeport, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during the Big Valley Village Survey. The items are flaked stone tools. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1978.</P>
                <P>A total of 29 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-803, CA-LAK-805H, CA-LAK-806 and CA-LAK-807 near Soda Bay, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during the Clear Lake Shoreline Survey. The items are ground stone tools and stone lithic samples. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>A total of 32 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-810, CA-LAK-812, CA-LAK-813 and the Long Tule site near Lakeport, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during the Clear Lake Shoreline Survey. The items are ground stone tools, stone lithic samples, flaked stone tools, historic period items, unmodified shell, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>A total of 923 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-950H near Soda Bay, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the site during the Cole Creek Bridge replacement. The items are ground stone tools, flaked stone tools, historic period items, unmodified faunal bone, unmodified shell, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 2011.</P>
                <P>A total of 77 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-53, CA-LAK-121, and CA-LAK-216H near Lakeport, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during a Lake County cultural resource survey. The items are flaked stone tools, unmodified faunal bone, unmodified shell, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1973.</P>
                <P>A total of 8,844 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-215 near Lakeport, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the site during the Lakeport Test Excavation. The items are ground stone tools, flaked stone tools, historic period items, modified faunal bone, unmodified faunal bone, unmodified shell, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1989.</P>
                <P>A total of 154 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-205, CA-LAK-206, and CA-LAK-946 near Finley, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the site during the South Lake Shore Community Sewer Project. The items are ground stone tools, flaked stone tools, historic period items, modified faunal bone, unmodified faunal bone, modified shell, unmodified shell, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1984.</P>
                <P>A total of 68,930 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-48 southeast of Kelseyville, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the site during the South Lake Shore Community Sewer Project. The items are ground stone tools, flaked stone tools, historic period items, modified faunal bone, unmodified faunal bone, modified shell, unmodified shell, botanical samples, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1984.</P>
                <P>A total of three lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-47 near Lakeport, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during a cultural resource survey. The items are flaked stone tools, debitage, and historic material. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1978.</P>
                <P>A total of seven lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-LAK-1128 near Kelseyville, Lake County California. The cultural items were removed from the sites during the Union Oil Kelsey Creek project. The items are flaked stone tools and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1983.</P>
                <P>In the case of missing cultural items, any additional items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the cultural items and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the items being treated with hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Sonoma State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 79,001 lots of objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Big Valley Band of Pomo Indians of the Big Valley Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06827 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="17997"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7051; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042549; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: University of California, Berkeley, Berkeley, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of California, Berkeley intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Alexandra Lucas, Government and Community Relations, Office of the Chancellor, University of California, Berkeley, 200 California Hall, Berkeley, CA 94720, email
                        <E T="03">nagpra-ucb@berkeley.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of California, Berkeley, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>In 1907, with the financial sponsorship of Phoebe A. Hearst, 14 unassociated funerary objects were removed from Augustine Reservation, Riverside County, California by Alfred L. Kroeber and accessioned into the University of California Museum of Anthropology (today the Phoebe A Hearst Museum of Anthropology) that same year. The 14 unassociated funerary objects include baskets, worked stone, and a vessel.</P>
                <P>Collections and collection spaces at the Phoebe A. Hearst Museum of Anthropology were treated with substances for preservation and pest control, some potentially hazardous. No records have been found to date at the Museum to indicate whether or not chemicals or natural substances were used prior to 1960.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of California, Berkeley has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 14 unassociated funerary objects described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Augustine Band of Cahuilla Indians, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of California, Berkeley must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of California, Berkeley is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06812 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7052; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042550; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Kansas State Historical Society (KSHS) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Nicole Klarmann, Kansas State Historical Society, 6425 SW 6th Avenue, Topeka, KS 66615-1099, email 
                        <E T="03">kshs.nagpra@ks.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the KSHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified from Republic County, KS (UBS 2025-13). No associated funerary objects are present. Human remains were found on a sandpit near the Republican River and conveyed to the Kansas Bureau of Investigation. The KBI transferred the remains to Washburn University for forensic analysis who then sent them to KSHS on December 9, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified from Saline County, KS (UBS 2026-01a-b). No associated funerary objects are present. These remains have minimal provenience information but were identified in the collections at the Rolling Hills Zoo in Salina, KS. The zoo 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17998"/>
                    transferred the remains to KSHS on January 8, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, four individuals have been identified from Franklin County, NE (UBS 2025-15). The 278 associated funerary objects include shell beads and fragments, bone beads, and ceramic fragments. An individual from Herington, KS gave his collection to the Herington County Historical Society in 1986. They transferred it to KSHS in 2025. Some of the items and remains may have an unspecified glue or plaster of Paris present.</P>
                <P>Unless stated above and to our knowledge, no hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The KSHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of seven individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 278 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Pawnee Nation of Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the KSHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The KSHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06813 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7061; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042556; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Disposition: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, St. Louis, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, intends to carry out the disposition of human remains and associated funerary objects removed from Federal or Tribal lands to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization with priority for disposition in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If no claim for disposition is received by April 9, 2027, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jenna Domeischel, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, 1222 Spruce Street, ATTN: CEMVS-EC-Z, St. Louis, MO 63103, email 
                        <E T="03">jenna.domeischel@usace.army.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, and additional information on the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the identifications in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>The Caldwell Creek site (23WE779) is located in Wayne County, Missouri, and was identified through looting activities associated with an Archaeological Resources Protection Act violation occurring in 2001 and 2002. The collection is currently housed at the Illinois State Museum in Springfield, Illinois. Based on the information available, human remains representing, at least, one individual have been reasonably identified. The 127 associated funerary objects are one lot of mussel shell fragments, one lot of miscellaneous faunal fragments, seven projectile points, two hematite, one groundstone celt, one lithic scraper, 76 lithics, one lot of mixed screen material, one lot of mixed faunal and lithic material, five burned limestone, one turtle carapace, one unmodified sandstone, nine biface fragments, eight cobbles, five bifaces, three faunal bone fragments, three lots of soil, and one lot of miscellaneous lithics.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 127 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• The Osage Nation has priority for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Claims for Disposition</HD>
                <P>
                    Written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the appropriate official identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . If no claim for disposition is received by April 9, 2027, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects. Claims for disposition may be submitted by:
                    <PRTPAGE P="17999"/>
                </P>
                <P>1. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows that they have priority for disposition.</P>
                <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing claims for disposition are received, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, must determine the most appropriate claimant prior to disposition. Claims for joint disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single claim and not competing claims. The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, St. Louis District, is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3002, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06819 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7059; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042554; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology, Columbia, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Candace Sall, University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology, 1020 Lowry Street, Columbia, MO 65211, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@missouri.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The 15 lots of the total 1,202 associated funerary objects include one lot each of pottery fragments, fired clay fragments, debitage, flake tools, hafted bifaces, bifaces, cores, stone axe, groundstone fragments, hammerstones, unmodified rocks, faunal fragments, shell fragments, charcoal sample, and soil sample. The individual and associated funerary objects described in this notice were removed from Site 23OR21, Pigman Mound, in Oregon County, Missouri. The site was excavated in 1959 and 1960, and the collection was brought to the University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology at an unknown date by unknown persons. No known hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 1,202 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and The Osage Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Missouri, Museum of Anthropology is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06817 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7067; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042561; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Case Western Reserve University Cleveland, OH</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Case Western Reserve University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18000"/>
                        human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Jennifer Kangas Berendt, Assistant Director of Agreements, Office of Research and Technology Management, Case Western Reserve University, 10900 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44106, email 
                        <E T="03">jxb1173@case.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Case Western Reserve University and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The skull is notated as being from a 4-year-old boy, from Newcomb, New Mexico (near Gallup), and was donated by Mrs. A.J. Newcomb in 1930. The identity of the individuals is unknown. No known presence of potentially hazardous materials.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Case Western Reserve University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Navajo Nation, Arizona, New Mexico, &amp; Utah.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Case Western Reserve University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. Case Western Reserve University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06823 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7050; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042547; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Field Museum, Chicago, IL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Field Museum intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to June Carpenter, Field Museum, 1400 S Lake Shore Drive, Chicago, IL 60605, email 
                        <E T="03">jcarpenter@fieldmuseum.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Field Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 24 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 24 objects of cultural patrimony are five feast mats, seven woven bags, and 12 items that constitute a sacred bundle. George Dorsey collected the items from the Osage Reservation in 1901. They were accessioned by the Field Museum that same year. There is no known presence of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Field Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 24 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and The Osage Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Field Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Field Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18001"/>
                    notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06810 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N7070; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0042563; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, sacred objects, and/or objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 E Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email 
                        <E T="03">tworkk@sonoma.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 1,672 lots of cultural items have been requested for repatriation. Of the cultural items being requested 1,485 lots are unassociated funerary objects and 187 lots are sacred objects.</P>
                <P>A total of one lot of sacred objects was removed from CA-MRN-216 in Marin county, California. Information as to how and why the cultural material ended up as Sonoma State University is not available. The items include modified obsidian. Notes suggest that the cultural material has been at the university since at least 1997.</P>
                <P>A total of 870 lots of unassociated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-906 in Graton, California in Sonoma county. This previously unrecorded site was recorded during vegetation clearing for the creation of the Russian River Marin Water project creating an aqueduct connecting Sonoma and Marin counties. The items include flaked stone debitage, flaked stone tools, ground stone tools, fire cracked rock, unmodified faunal bone, historic material, and unmodified shell. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1976.</P>
                <P>A total of 13 lots of sacred objects were removed from Graton, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed during the Storm Engineering/Graton Survey. The items include flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1976.</P>
                <P>A total of eight lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-914 in Graton, California in Sonoma county. The cultural material was removed from the surface during an archaeological survey. The items include modified stone tools and flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>A total of 27 lots of sacred objects were removed from the McBail Property in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. Information as to how and why the cultural material ended up as Sonoma State University is not known. The items include modified obsidian, modified stone, historics, unmodified shell, and unmodified faunal bone. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1980.</P>
                <P>A total of 576 lots of unassociated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-377 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. A portion of the items from CA-SON-377 were brought to Sonoma State University in 1985 under unknown circumstances. The items have resided at Sonoma State University since that time. In 1986 a surface archaeological investigation took place at the site due to planned development. The items removed have resided at Sonoma State University since that time. The items include groundstone, modified stone tools, flaked stone debitage, unmodified shell, unmodified faunal bone, charcoal, clay, fire affected rock, ochre, petrified wood, unmodified stone, organics, and historics.</P>
                <P>A total of 28 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-199 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. Information as to how and why the cultural material ended up as Sonoma State University is not known. The items include modified obsidian, flaked stone debitage, unmodified faunal bone, and unmodified shell. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1987.</P>
                <P>A total of three lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-400 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material appears to have been accepted by the university in 1974 and according to records was the result of an excavation done in 1968. The items were loaned to the Petaluma Museum and returned in 1985. Following the return of the items they were reaccessioned under a different number. The items include petrified wood sticks.</P>
                <P>A total of 33 lots of sacred objects were removed from the Two Rock Survey area, which includes CA-SON-1027, CA-SON-1028, and CA-SON-1031H, in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey of the area. The items include modified obsidian, flaked stone debitage, and historics. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>A total of two lots of sacred objects were removed from the Lori Lane Survey area in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey of the area. The items include flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1977.</P>
                <P>A total of eight lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-399 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. Information as to how and why the cultural material ended up as Sonoma State University is not known. The items include modified stone tools and flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1980.</P>
                <P>A total of eight lots of unassociated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1314 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey at Frates Ranch in 1980. The items include groundstone, modified stone tools, and modified obsidian. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1981.</P>
                <P>
                    A total of two lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1380/H in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18002"/>
                    during a survey at the site. The items include flaked stone debitage and historics. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1980.
                </P>
                <P>A total of 10 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1382 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey on the Silvia Property in 1981 and accessioned in 1982. The items include modified obsidian and flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1982.</P>
                <P>A total of 31 lots of unassociated funerary objects were removed from CA-SON-1395 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey at the site. The items include groundstone, modified obsidian, flaked stone debitage, and unmodified shell. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1982.</P>
                <P>A total of one lot of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1396 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey at the site. The items include modified stone. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1982.</P>
                <P>A total of 41 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1445 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. The cultural material was removed during a survey of Sonoma Mountain Road. The items include modified obsidian. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1984.</P>
                <P>A total of 10 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1865 in Petaluma, California in Sonoma County. Information as to how and why the cultural material ended up as Sonoma State University is not known. The items include flaked stone debitage. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1990.</P>
                <P>In the case of missing cultural items, any additional items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the cultural items and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the items being treated with hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Sonoma State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 1,485 unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• The 187 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 11, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 1, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06825 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Natural Resources Revenue</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. ONRR-2011-0006; DS63636400 DRT000000.CH7000267D1113RT OMB Control Number 1012-0009]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: 30 CFR Part 1220, OCS Net Profit Share Payment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Natural Resources Revenue (ONRR), Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), ONRR is proposing to renew an information collection. Through this Information Collection Request (ICR), ONRR seeks renewed authority to collect information necessary to determine net profit share payments due the United States pursuant to Outer Continental Shelf (OCS) oil and gas leases.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Your written comments must be received on or before June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All comment submissions must (1) reference “Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 1012-0009” in the subject line; (2) be sent to ONRR before the close of the comment period listed under 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                        ; and (3) be sent using the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         In the Search Box, enter the Docket ID Number for this ICR renewal (ONRR-2011-0006) and click “search” to view the publications associated with the docket folder. Locate the document with an open comment period and click the “Comment” button. Follow the prompts to submit your comment prior to the close of the comment period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email Submissions:</E>
                         Please submit your comments to 
                        <E T="03">ONRR_regulationsmailbox@onrr.gov</E>
                         with the OMB Control Number (“OMB Control No. 1012-0009”) listed in the subject line of your email. Email submissions must be postmarked on or before the close of the comment period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To access the docket folder to view the ICR 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         publications, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search “ONRR-2011-0006” to view renewal notices recently published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , publications associated with prior renewals, and applicable public comments received for this ICR. ONRR will make the comments submitted in response to this 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18003"/>
                        notice available for public viewing at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">OMB ICR Data:</E>
                         OMB also maintains information on ICR renewals and approvals. You may access this information at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRASearch.</E>
                         Please use the following instructions: Under the “OMB Control Number” heading enter “1012-0009” and click the “Search” button located at the bottom of the page. To view the ICR renewal or OMB approval status, click on the latest entry (based on the most recent date). On the “View ICR—OIRA Conclusion” page, check the box next to “All” to display all available ICR information provided by OMB.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Aaron Lindquist, Data Intake, Solutioning, and Coordination, ONRR, by email at 
                        <E T="03">Aaron.Lindquist@onrr.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at (303) 231-3020. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and 5 CFR 1320.5, all information collections, as defined in 5 CFR 1320.3, require approval by OMB. ONRR may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>As part of ONRR's continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, ONRR is inviting the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information in accordance with the PRA and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1). This helps ONRR to assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand ONRR's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>ONRR is especially interested in public comments addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of ONRR's estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. ONRR will include or summarize each comment in its request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask ONRR in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, ONRR cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(a) Abstract—General Information:</E>
                     The Federal Oil and Gas Royalty Management Act of 1982 (FOGRMA) directs the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) to “establish a comprehensive inspection, collection and fiscal and production accounting and auditing system to provide the capability to accurately determine oil and gas royalties, interest, fines, penalties, fees, deposits, and other payments owed, and to collect and account for such amounts in a timely manner.” 30 U.S.C. 1711(a). ONRR performs these and other mineral revenue management responsibilities for the Secretary. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     U.S. Department of the Interior Departmental Manual, 112 DM 34.1 (Dec. 9, 2020).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Through this ICR, ONRR seeks continued authority to collect information necessary to perform its delegated mineral revenue management responsibilities for Net Profit Share Leases (NPSLs). The NPSLs are OCS leases that provide for the payment to the United States of a percentage of the net profits from oil and gas production. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     30 CFR part 1220. The requirement to report the collected information accurately and timely is mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(b) Information Collections:</E>
                     Title 30 CFR part 1220 requires an NPSL lessee to maintain and provide the following categories of information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(1) NPSL Capital Accounts and Reports:</E>
                     Sections 1220.010 and 1220.021 require the lessee to establish and maintain a capital account for each NPSL. These sections require the lessee to credit the capital account with all production revenues attributable to the NPSL and any other credits arising from NPSL activities. The sections also require the lessee to debit the account with all allowable direct and allocable joint costs incurred during the term of the lease, appropriate overhead allowances, and allowances for capital recovery.
                </P>
                <P>Section 1220.031(a) requires the lessee to file annual reports with ONRR regarding the costs incurred until production revenues are credited to the capital account. Once production revenues are credited to the account, § 1220.031(b) requires the lessee to file monthly reports with ONRR. That section requires the monthly reports to include the volume and disposition of all oil and gas production saved, removed, or sold, the production revenue, the amount and description of all costs and credits to the NPSL capital account, the balance of the NPSL capital account, the net profit share base and net profit share payment due the United States, and the monthly profit share of the lessee. Section 1220.031(e) requires the lessee to file a final report with ONRR upon cessation of production indicating the remaining balance and costs and credits to the NPSL capital account.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(2) NPSL Inventories:</E>
                     Section 1220.032(a) and (b) require the lessee to take inventories of NPSL equipment, apparatus, and supplies at reasonable intervals not to exceed three years. Section 1220.032(b) requires the lessee to notify BOEM of its intent to take inventory so that BOEM's Director may be represented at the inventory taking. Section 1220.032(d) requires the lessee to reconcile the physical inventory with the NPSL capital account and to make a list of overages and shortages available to the BOEM Director for audit. Section 1220.031(d) requires the lessee to file an inventory report following the inventory taking.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(3) NPSL Records and Audits:</E>
                     Section 1220.030(a) requires an NPSL lessee to establish and maintain certain records related to the NPSL. Section 1220.033(e) authorizes ONRR to inspect these records during normal business hours upon request. Section 1220.033(a) authorizes ONRR to audit accounts of the NPSL lessee or its contractor related to NPSL operations. Where possible, § 1220.033(a) requires ONRR to coordinate its audit with audit efforts of other nonoperators, if any. Section 1220.033(b)(1) requires nonoperators of the NPSL lease to notify ONRR of an audit call so that it may elect to send an auditor with the nonoperator's audit team in lieu of a separate audit call.
                    <PRTPAGE P="18004"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     30 CFR part 1220, OCS Net Profit Share Payment Reporting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1012-0009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     3.
                </P>
                <P>ONRR does not currently have any active NPSLs in its system because the leases have either expired, were terminated, or relinquished. However, because the authority to issue similar leases may still exist, ONRR does not anticipate—but also cannot entirely rule out—the possibility of future monthly sales reports. Furthermore, companies may still be within the allowable timeframe to adjust prior reporting. Between January 2022 and January 2026, ONRR received three adjustment royalty reports. For these reasons, the time burden associated with this ICR has decreased as ONRR expects only a minimal number of additional adjustments for NPSLs.</P>
                <P>ONRR excluded estimates of certain requirements performed in the normal course of business that are considered usual and customary.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     3.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     9 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     3 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Non-Hour Cost Burden:</E>
                     ONRR has identified no “non-hour” cost burden associated with the collection of information.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>April Lockler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director of the Office of Natural Resources Revenue.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06794 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4335-30-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-761, 701-TA-763, 731-TA-1743 and 731-TA-1745 (Final)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Silicon Metal From Angola, Laos, and Thailand</SUBJECT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    On the basis of the record 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     developed in the subject investigations, the United States International Trade Commission (“Commission”) determines, pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), that an industry in the United States is materially injured by reason of imports of silicon metal from Laos, provided for in subheadings 2804.69.10 and 2804.69.50 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, that have been found by the U.S. Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) to be sold in the United States at less than fair value (“LTFV”), and subsidized by the government of Laos.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission also determines that a U.S. industry is threatened with material injury by reason of imports of silicon metal from Angola that are sold at LTFV.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission further determines that imports of silicon metal from Thailand found by Commerce to be subsidized by the government of Thailand are negligible and terminates the countervailing duty investigation concerning Thailand.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The record is defined in § 207.2(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 207.2(f)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         91 FR 8407, 91 FR 8425 (February 23, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         91 FR 8419 (February 23, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         91 FR 8436 (February 23, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission instituted these investigations effective April 24, 2025, following receipt of petitions filed with the Commission and Commerce by Ferroglobe USA, Inc., Beverly, Ohio, and Mississippi Silicon LLC, Burnsville, Mississippi. The final phase of the investigations was scheduled by the Commission following notification of preliminary determinations by Commerce that imports of silicon metal from Laos and Thailand were subsidized within the meaning of section 703(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671b(b)) and imports from Angola and Laos were sold at LTFV within the meaning of 733(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1673b(b)). Notice of the scheduling of the final phase of the Commission's investigations and of a public hearing to be held in connection therewith was given by posting copies of the notice in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, Washington, DC, and by publishing the notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 26, 2025 (90 FR 54365).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission conducted its hearing on February 19, 2026. All persons who requested the opportunity were permitted to participate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Due to the lapse in appropriations and ensuing cessation of Commission operations, the Commission tolled its schedule for this proceeding. The schedule was revised in a subsequent notice published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 16, 2025 (90 FR 58308).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission made these determinations pursuant to §§ 705(b) and 735(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b) and 19 U.S.C. 1673d(b)). It completed and filed its determinations in these investigations on April 6, 2026. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 5720 (April 2026), entitled 
                    <E T="03">Silicon Metal from Angola, Laos, and Thailand: Investigation Nos. 701-TA-761, 701-TA-763, 731-TA-1743 and 731-TA-1745 (Final).</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: April 6, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06792 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-463 and 731-TA-1159 (Third Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Oil Country Tubular Goods (“OCTG”) From China; Scheduling of Expedited Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of expedited reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty orders and countervailing duty orders on OCTG from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>March 6, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rachel Devenney (202-205-3172), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18005"/>
                        assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On March 6, 2026, the Commission determined that the domestic interested party group response to its notice of institution (90 FR 55167, December 1, 2025) of the subject five-year reviews was adequate and that the respondent interested party group response was inadequate. The Commission did not find any other circumstances that would warrant conducting full reviews.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Commission determined that it would conduct expedited reviews pursuant to section 751(c)(3) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(3)).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         A record of the Commissioners' votes, the Commission's statement on adequacy, and any individual Commissioner's statements will be available from the Office of the Secretary and at the Commission's website.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Commissioner David S. Johanson voted to conduct full reviews.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Staff report.</E>
                    —A staff report containing information concerning the subject matter of the reviews has been placed in the nonpublic record, and will be made available to persons on the Administrative Protective Order service list for these reviews on April 15, 2026. A public version will be issued thereafter, pursuant to § 207.62(d)(4) of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —As provided in § 207.62(d) of the Commission's rules, interested parties that are parties to the reviews and that have provided individually adequate responses to the notice of institution,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any party other than an interested party to the reviews may file written comments with the Secretary on what determination the Commission should reach in the reviews. Comments are due on or before 5:15 p.m. on April 22, 2026 and may not contain new factual information. Any person that is neither a party to the five-year reviews nor an interested party may submit a brief written statement (which shall not contain any new factual information) pertinent to the reviews by April 22, 2026. However, should the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) extend the time limit for its completion of the final results of its reviews, the deadline for comments (which may not contain new factual information) on Commerce's final results is three business days after the issuance of Commerce's results. If comments contain business proprietary information (BPI), they must conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Commission has found the responses submitted on behalf of the U.S. OCTG Manufacturers Association and United States Steel Tubular Products, Inc. to be individually adequate. Comments from other interested parties will not be accepted (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         19 CFR 207.62(d)(2)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Determination.</E>
                    —The Commission has determined these reviews are extraordinarily complicated and therefore has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(5)(B).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06843 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Bureau of Investigation</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Meeting of the Compact Council for the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The purpose of this notice is to announce a meeting of the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council (Council) created by the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Act of 1998 (Compact).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Council will meet in open session from 1:00 p.m. (CDT) until 5:00 p.m. (CDT) on May 6, 2026, and continue at 9:00 a.m.(CDT) until 5:00 p.m.(CDT) on May 7, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will take place at the Hilton Palacio del Rio, 200 South Alamo Street, San Antonio, Texas 78205.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Inquiries may be addressed to Ms. Chasity S. Anderson, FBI Compact Officer, Biometric Technology Center, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306, telephone 304-625-2803.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Thus far, the Federal Government and 37 states are parties to the Compact which governs the exchange of criminal history records for licensing, employment, immigration and naturalization matters, and similar noncriminal justice purposes. The Compact also provides a legal framework for the establishment of a cooperative federal-state system to exchange such records.</P>
                <P>The United States Attorney General appointed 15 persons from state and federal agencies to serve on the Council. The Council will prescribe system rules and procedures for the effective and proper operation of the Interstate Identification Index system for noncriminal justice purposes.</P>
                <P>Matters for discussion are expected to include:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(1) Proposed Amendments to the Council Bylaws</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(2) Proposed Revisions to the Next Generation Identification (NGI) Noncriminal Justice (NCJ) Rap Back Service Outsourcing Policy and Implementation Guide</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(3) Proposed Changes to the Next Generation Identification (NGI) Noncriminal Justice (NCJ) Rap Back Outsourcing Agreement</FP>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be conducted with a blended participation option. The meeting will be open to the public on a first-come, first-serve basis. Virtual participation options are available. To register for participation, individuals must provide their name, city, state, phone, email address and agency/organization to 
                    <E T="03">compactoffice@fbi.gov</E>
                     by April 20, 2026. Individuals registering for participation must note their preference of in-person or virtual participation. Information regarding virtual participation will be provided prior to the meeting to registered individuals attending virtually.
                    <PRTPAGE P="18006"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any member of the public wishing to file a written statement with the Council or wishing to address this session of the Council should notify the FBI Compact Officer, Ms. Chasity S. Anderson at 
                    <E T="03">compactoffice@fbi.gov,</E>
                     at least 7 days prior to the start of the session. The notification should contain the individual's name and corporate designation, consumer affiliation, or government designation, along with a short statement describing the topic to be addressed and the time needed for the presentation. Individuals will ordinarily be allowed up to 15 minutes to present a topic. The Compact Officer will compile all requests and submit to the Compact Council for consideration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals requiring special accommodations should contact Ms. Anderson at 
                    <E T="03">compactoffice@fbi.gov</E>
                     no later than April 20, 2026. Please note all personal registration information may be made publicly available through a Freedom of Information Act request.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Chasity S. Anderson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>FBI Compact Officer, Criminal Justice Information Services Division, Federal Bureau of Investigation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06844 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Renewal of a Currently Approved Information Collection; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Merit Systems Protection Board.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60 day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, is seeking a three-year renewal, without change, from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), of a currently approved Information Collection Request (ICR) entitled: “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery” and identified by OMB Control No. 3124-0015, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). This collection was developed as part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process for seeking feedback from the public on service delivery. MSPB is soliciting comments on this renewal, without change, of a previously approved collection set to expire on August 31, 2026. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to the OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Consideration will be given to all comments received by June 8, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by using only one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Email.</E>
                         Submit comments to 
                        <E T="03">privacy@mspb.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Mail.</E>
                         Submit comments to Gina K. Grippando, Clerk of the Board and Senior Agency Official for Privacy, Office of the Clerk of the Board, Merit Systems Protection Board, 1615 M Street NW, Washington, DC 20419.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Fax.</E>
                         Submit comments to (202) 254-7130.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All comments must reference OMB Control No. 3124-0015. Regardless of the method used for submitting comments or material, all submissions will be posted, without change, to MSPB's website (
                        <E T="03">www.mspb.gov</E>
                        ) and will include any personal information you provide. Therefore, submitting this information makes it public.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Gina K. Grippando, Clerk of the Board and Senior Agency Official for Privacy, at 
                        <E T="03">privacy@mspb.gov.</E>
                         You may submit written questions to the Office of the Clerk of the Board by any of the following methods: by email to 
                        <E T="03">privacy@mspb.gov,</E>
                         or by mail to Clerk of the Board, U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, 1615 M Street NW, Washington, DC 20419. Please include OMB Control No. 3124-0015 with your questions.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>MSPB intends to seek a three-year renewal, without change, of a currently approved information collection “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery,” OMB Control No. 3124-0015.</P>
                <P>The proposed information collection activity provides a means to obtain qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with MSPB's commitment to improving service delivery. Qualitative feedback is information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions but are not statistical surveys that can be generalized to the population of study. This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between MSPB and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.</P>
                <P>The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on MSPB's services will be unavailable.</P>
                <P>The MSPB will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:</P>
                <P>• The collections are voluntary;</P>
                <P>• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;</P>
                <P>• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;</P>
                <P>• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;</P>
                <P>• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;</P>
                <P>• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of MSPB;</P>
                <P>• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and</P>
                <P>• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.</P>
                <P>
                    Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: the target population to which generalizations will be made, the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18007"/>
                    sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
                </P>
                <P>As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3124-0015.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Renewal, without change, of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">ICR Status:</E>
                     This ICR is currently scheduled to expire on August 31, 2026. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract of Proposed Collection:</E>
                     This collection is part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process for seeking feedback from the public on service delivery and provides a means to obtain qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with MSPB's commitment to improving service delivery. Responses to any collection of information under this ICR are voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households; Businesses and Organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Number of Respondents:</E>
                     600.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Once per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Average Number of Responses for Each Respondent:</E>
                     Once per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     49.8.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Cost:</E>
                     $1,887.42.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     Comments should be submitted as indicated in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     caption above. Comments are solicited to: (a) evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of MSPB, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) evaluate the accuracy of MSPB's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) evaluate the estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Gina K. Grippando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clerk of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06858 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7400-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Notice: 26-018]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>International Space Station Advisory Committee; Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a meeting of the International Space Station Advisory Committee. The purpose of the meeting is to review aspects related to the safety and operational readiness of the International Space Station.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Wednesday, April 29, 2026, 9:00 a.m.-9:30 a.m., eastern time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Public attendance will be virtual only. See dial-in and Webinar information below under 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dennis McSweeney, Designated Federal Officer, ISS Advisory Committee, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, via email at 
                        <E T="03">dennis.mcsweeney@nasa.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at (202) 358-2012.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, this meeting is virtual and will be open to the public via Webinar and telephonically. Webinar connectivity information is provided below. For audio, when you join the Webinar event, you may use your computer to join or call the U.S. toll conference number listed. 
                    <E T="03">https://teams.microsoft.com/meet/29204487362705?p=z2zzf5sc8Aab1QsGXb.</E>
                     Meeting ID: 292 044 873 627 05, Passcode: c3qt2Dk6, Call in number (audio only): +1 256-715-9946, Phone conference ID: 592 663 298 and then the # sign.
                </P>
                <P>Any member of the public is permitted to file a written statement with the Panel via electronic submission to Mr. McSweeney at the email address previously noted with the subject line `Comments for 04/29/26 ISSAC open meeting.' Written statements should be limited to the subject of safety and operational readiness of the International Space Station.</P>
                <P>It is imperative that the meeting be held on this day to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jamie M. Krauk,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Advisory Committee Management Officer, National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06896 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7510-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL FOUNDATION ON THE ARTS AND THE HUMANITIES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Institute of Museum and Library Services</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review, Comment Request, Proposed Collection: 2027-2029 IMLS Grant Application Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Institute of Museum and Library Services, National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Submission for OMB review, request for comments on this collection of information.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Institute of Museum and Library Services (IMLS) announces that the following information collection has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This process helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18008"/>
                        format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. This Notice proposes clearance of the IMLS Grant Application Forms for fiscal year (FY) 2027 through FY 2029.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this Notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section below on or before May 10, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be sent within 30 days of publication of this Notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection request by selecting “Institute of Museum and Library Services” under “Currently Under Review,” then check “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. Once you have found this information collection request, select “Comment,” and enter or upload your comment and information. Alternatively, please mail your written comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn.: OMB Desk Officer for the Institute of Museum and Library Services, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or call (202) 395-7316.
                    </P>
                    <P>OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help the agency to:</P>
                    <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                    <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                    <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         permitting electronic submission of responses).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sandra Narva, Acting Director of Grants Management, Office of Grants Management, Institute of Museum and Library Services, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite N-3627, Washington, DC 20210. Ms. Narva can be reached by telephone: 202-653-4634 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">snarva@imls.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., E.T., Monday through Friday, except on federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    IMLS is the primary source of federal support for the nation's libraries and museums. The agency advances, supports, and empowers America's museums, libraries, and related organizations through grant making, research, and policy development. To learn more, visit 
                    <E T="03">www.imls.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     This Notice proposes the clearance of the 2027-2029 IMLS Grant Application Forms. The purpose of this collection is to facilitate the administration of the IMLS application and review processes for its discretionary grants and cooperative agreements. IMLS uses standardized application forms for eligible libraries, museums, and other organizations to apply for its funding. The forms submitted for public review in this Notice are the IMLS Museum Program Information Form, the IMLS Library-Discretionary Program Information Form, the IMLS Supplementary Form, and the IMLS Budget Form. Each of these forms is included in one or more of the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     packages associated with IMLS grant programs.
                </P>
                <P>Also, this action seeks approval for the information collection for the IMLS Museum Program Information Form, the IMLS Library-Discretionary Program Information Form, the IMLS Supplementary Form, and the IMLS Budget Form. All forms included in this request are planned to be utilized from FY 2027 through FY 2029.</P>
                <P>
                    The 60-day Notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on February 2, 2026 (91 FR 4638). The agency received no comments in response to this Notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Institute of Museum and Library Services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     2027-2029 IMLS Grant Application Forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3137-0092.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency Number:</E>
                     3137.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Library and museum grant applicants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     1,800 IMLS Program Information Forms and 1,800 IMLS Budget Forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Once per request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Minutes per Response:</E>
                     30 minutes per response for the IMLS Program Information Forms and three hours per response for the IMLS Budget Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     6,300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost Burden:</E>
                     $211,176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Federal Costs:</E>
                     $54,652.50.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: April 07, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne Mbollo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Grants Management Specialist, Institute of Museum and Library Services. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06862 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7036-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes: Meeting Notice</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) will convene a meeting of the Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes (ACMUI) on April 20-21, 2026. A sample of agenda items to be discussed include: a review of recent medical events; recommendations and advice to support the NRC implementation of the ADVANCE Act; recommendations on the staff's memo for licensing the use of alpha nuclides in radiopharmaceutical therapy; recommendations on the potential applications of artificial intelligence (AI) and deep learning technologies to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the NRC medical staff and the ACMUI; recommended best practices for the preparation of reports, including guidance on writing subcommittee reports and developing effective presentations, including Commission presentations; assessment of ACMUI membership to determine if the ACMUI would like to propose a change in membership to include an interventional radiologist; ACMUI review and recommendations regarding staff's proposed rulemaking on modernizing requirements relating to physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material rulemaking (
                        <E T="03">topic is tentative based on its rulemaking schedule</E>
                        ); and NRC's medical radiation safety team updates.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. A. Marra, email: 
                        <E T="03">Alessandra.Marra@nrc.gov,</E>
                         telephone: 301-415-2509.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The agenda is subject to change. The current agenda and any updates will be available on the ACMUI's Meetings and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18009"/>
                    Related Documents web page at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/acmui/meetings/index.html</E>
                     or by emailing Ms. A. Marra at the contact information below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose:</E>
                     Discuss issues related to 10 CFR part 35 Medical Use of Byproduct Material.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Date and Time for Open Sessions:</E>
                     April 20, 2026, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. and April 21, 2026, from 10:00 a.m. to 1:15 p.m. Eastern Standard Time.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs70,r200">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Date</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Webinar information (Microsoft Teams)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">April 20, 2026</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Join: 
                            <E T="03">https://teams.microsoft.com/meet/27605721107301?p=NME89xbyHXSK32XAUI</E>
                            .
                            <LI>Meeting ID: 276 057 211 073 01.</LI>
                            <LI>Passcode: yF7DP3ri.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Call in number (audio only): +1 301-576-2978,,558206708#.
                            <LI>Phone Conference ID: 558 206 708#.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Participation:</E>
                     The meeting will be held as a webinar using Microsoft Teams. Any member of the public who wishes to participate in the meeting via Microsoft Teams or via phone should contact Ms. A. Marra using the information below. Members of the public should also monitor the NRC's Public Meeting Schedule at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/pmns/mtg</E>
                     for any meeting updates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Conduct of the Meeting:</E>
                     The ACMUI Chair, Hossein Jadvar, M.D., Ph.D. will preside over the meeting. Dr. Jadvar will conduct the meeting in a manner that will facilitate the orderly conduct of business. The following procedures apply to public participation in the meeting:
                </P>
                <P>1. Persons who wish to provide a written statement should submit an electronic copy to Ms. A. Marra using the contact information listed above. All submittals must be received by the close of business on April 13, 2026, and must only pertain to the topics on the agenda.</P>
                <P>2. Questions and comments from members of the public to the ACMUI will be permitted during the meeting, at the discretion of the ACMUI Chair.</P>
                <P>
                    3. The draft transcript and meeting summary will be available on ACMUI's website 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/acmui/meetings/2024.html</E>
                     on or about May 28, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>4. Persons who require special services, such as those for the hearing impaired, should notify Ms. A. Marra of their planned participation.</P>
                <P>
                    This meeting will be held in accordance with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (primarily Section 161a); the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App); and the Commission's regulations in title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations,</E>
                     Part 7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 6th day of April, 2026.</DATED>
                    <P>For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Russell E. Chazell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Advisory Committee Management Officer. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06807 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">PEACE CORPS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Request; Submission for OMB Review</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Peace Corps.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Peace Corps will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and implementing OMB guidance, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 30 days for public comment in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         preceding submission to OMB.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Address written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection to James Olin, FOIA/Privacy Act Officer, by email at 
                        <E T="03">pcfr@peacecorps.gov.</E>
                         Email comments must be made in text and not in attachments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        James Olin, Peace Corps, at (202) 692-2507, or 
                        <E T="03">PCFR@peacecorps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Peace Corps Awareness and Affinity: National Survey of U.S. Adults.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0420-0575.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form number:</E>
                     PC-2210.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with Change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents Obligation to Reply:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Members of the public and prospective Peace Corps Volunteer applicants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden to the Public:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     6,200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     Twice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Estimated average burden per response:</E>
                     .188 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Estimated total reporting burden:</E>
                     2333.32 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">Estimated annual cost to respondents:</E>
                     0.00.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">General Description of Collection:</E>
                     The Peace Corps will renew its national awareness and recruitment campaign to promote the organization; its mission, goals, and values; and to attract and recruit qualified Volunteer applicants. The Peace Corps' Office of Communications will use the information collected by the Peace Corps Awareness and Affinity: National Survey of U.S. Adults to assess the effectiveness of the campaign. The Peace Corps conducted this survey in 2023, which proved beneficial in measuring general awareness and affinity for the Peace Corps; drivers, barriers, and motivations related to the application process; and perceptions of our audiences following the COVID-19 pandemic. Similar to when the survey was conducted in 2023, the Peace Corps will collect information to help broaden the pool of potential Volunteers and engage new audiences—this time to help meet the agency's goal of sending 8,000 qualified Volunteers overseas by 2030. The information collection will also be used to gather insights to identify key audience segments and help ensure the efficiency and success of future marketing efforts by:
                </P>
                <P>• Identifying levels of awareness, knowledge, attitudes, and opinions about the Peace Corps among the general U.S. public and targeted audience segments;</P>
                <P>
                    • Collecting insights to inform communications, education, and outreach strategies by understanding which themes resonate most with different audience segments; and,
                    <PRTPAGE P="18010"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Determining the best channels for communication.</P>
                <P>The Office of Communications will conduct this survey twice for optimal monitoring and evaluation.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Request for Comment:</E>
                     The Peace Corps invites comments on whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for proper performance of the functions of the Peace Corps, including whether the information will have practical use; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the information to be collected; and, ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>This notice is issued in Washington, DC, on April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James Olin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>FOIA/Privacy Act Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06882 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6051-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. MC2026-192 and K2026-192]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         April 14, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Public Proceeding(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). The Public Representative does not represent any individual person, entity or particular point of view, and, when Commission attorneys are appointed, no attorney-client relationship is established. Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2026-192 and K2026-192; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 17 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     April 6, 2026; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     April 14, 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>None. See Section II for public proceedings.</P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Danielle LeFlore,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Legal Assistant.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06856 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105153; File No. SR-CBOE-2025-079]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 to a Proposed Rule Change To Allow for Extended Trading of Multi-Listed Equity Options</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>April 6, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    On September 30, 2025, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to allow for extended trading sessions of multi-listed equity options that meet certain eligibility criteria. The proposed rule change was published for comment 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18011"/>
                    in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 3, 2025.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 3, 2025, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve the proposed rule change, disapprove the proposed rule change, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 23, 2025, the Commission instituted proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On March 23, 2026, the Commission designated a longer period for Commission Action on the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On April 2, 2026, the Exchange filed Amendment No. 1 to the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. Amendment No. 1 superseded the proposed rule change as originally filed and replaced it in its entirety. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104160 (September 30, 2025), 90 FR 48091. Comments received on the proposed rule change are available on the Commission's website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/public-comments/sr-cboe-2025-079.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104173, 90 FR 51424 (November 17, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104509, 90 FR 61454 (December 31, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105063, 91 FR 14730 (March 26, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) proposes to amend Rule 5.1 (Trading Days and Hours) to (i) allow for trading of multi-listed equity options that meet certain eligibility criteria during Global Trading Hours (“GTH”) and Curb Trading Hours (“Curb”) sessions (collectively “extended trading hours sessions”), (ii) establish the GTH session for designated multi-listed equity options as 7:30 a.m. ET to 9:25 a.m. ET 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Curb session as 15 minutes of trading from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m., or as otherwise permitted as an extended trading session(s) on another exchange, and (iii) make changes to additional rules as necessary to support extended trading hours sessions for equity options. The Exchange initially submitted this rule filing as SR-CBOE-2025-079 to the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) on September 30, 2025 (the “Initial Rule Filing”). This Amendment No. 1 supersedes the Initial Rule Filing and replaces it in its entirety. This Amendment No. 1 provides additional support for the proposal and reclassifies the previously proposed afternoon GTH session of 4:00-4:15 p.m. as a Curb session occurring from 4:00 to 4:15p.m. for equity options designated as eligible for the GTH session. This Amendment No. 1 clarifies the proposal by (1) detailing the selection and removal process for equity options for extended trading hours session, including the semiannual review process for equity option GTH (and thereby Curb) eligibility and designation, (2) defining series listing eligibility in GTH and Curb for equity options, (3) providing when opening auction updates and FLEX Options may be submitted for equity options in GTH and Curb, (4) extending order routing processing to the market open that includes GTH, and (5) including reference to equity options in the Global Trading Hours and Curb Trading Hours Disclosure. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         All times referenced herein are Eastern Time, unless otherwise specifically noted.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ), the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/options/regulation/rule_filings/bzx/</E>
                    ), and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.1 to allow for trading of certain multi-listed equity options during extended trading sessions, establish specific trading hours for GTH and Curb sessions during which such multi-listed equity options may trade, and modify additional rules as necessary to support trading of extended trading hours sessions in equity options.</P>
                <P>
                    By way of background, the Exchange currently offers three trading sessions: 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Regular Trading Hours (“RTH”), Curb, and GTH. Rule 5.1 sets forth the specific trading hours for each trading session. RTH for transactions in equity options (including options on individual stocks, ETFs, ETNs, and other securities) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     occurs from 9:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Monday through Friday as the normal business hours set forth by the primary markets trading the securities underlying the options, except for options on certain ETFs, ETNs, Index Portfolio Shares, Index Portfolio Receipts, and Trust Issued Receipts that the Exchange designates to remain open for trading beyond 4:00 p.m. but in no case will the RTH session continue after 4:15 p.m.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Curb session for designated classes of index options trading on the Exchange is from 4:15 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Trading in GTH for index options trading on the Exchange occurs from 8:15 p.m. to 9:25 a.m. the next day, Monday through Friday.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange's Rules provide that the Exchange may designate as eligible for trading during GTH any exclusively listed index option designated for trading under Chapter 4, Section B. Currently, options on S&amp;P 500 Index (“SPX”) and CBOE Volatility Index® (“VIX”) as well as Cboe Mini SPX Index Options (“XSP”), Russell 2000 Index (“RUT”), Mini-Russell 2000 Index (“MRUT”), and Cboe Magnificent 10 Index (“MGTN”) are approved for trading during GTH and Curb.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The term “trading session” means the hours during which the Exchange is open for trading for Regular Trading Hours, Global Trading Hours or Curb Trading Hours (each of which may referred to as a trading session), each as set forth in Rule 5.1. Unless otherwise specified in the Rules or the context otherwise indicates, all Rules apply in the same manner during each trading session. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1 (Definitions).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(b)(1), which includes individual stocks, ETFs, ETNs, and other securities within the term equity options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(c), which provides the index options that the Exchange may trade during GTH and the hours of GTH for such index options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By way of further background, the Exchange originally adopted the GTH trading session in 2014 due to global demand from investors to trade SPX and VIX options as alternatives for hedging and other investment purposes, particularly as a complementary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18012"/>
                    investment tool to VIX futures.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In response to customer demand for additional options to trade during the GTH trading session for similar purposes, the Exchange designated XSP options as eligible for trading during GTH in 2015.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     More recently, RUT, MRUT and MGTN were designated to trade in GTH, again in response to investor demand.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-73017 (September 8, 2014), 79 FR 54758 (September 12, 2014) (SR-CBOE-2014-062).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-75914 (September 14, 2015), 80 FR 56522 (September 18, 2015) (SR-CBOE-2015-079).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 34-104228 (November 19, 2025) 90 FR 53013 (November 24, 2025) (SR-CBOE-2025-070) and 34-104227; (November 19, 2025), 90 FR 53018 (November 24, 2025) (SR-CBOE-2025-071).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange has been involved in numerous industry discussions and has received feedback supporting the expansion of equity options trading beyond RTH. Based on interest expressed for extended trading hours in derivative products, the Exchange believes customer demand now extends to trading equity options in extended trading hours sessions. As previously indicated, transactions in most equity options may be made on the Exchange during RTH between 9:30 a.m. through 4:00 p.m. in alignment with the regular trading hours of the exchanges that list for trading the equities underlying multiply-listed options. Trading hours outside of regular market hours have expanded on equity exchanges that list the underlying securities to equity options, but the trading hours of options on such equities have remained unchanged. As a result, investors are unable to access the options markets during the extended trading hours when equities may trade, limiting investors' ability to hedge equity transactions with options or utilize options for other investment purposes or strategies. Additionally, based on feedback received, the Exchange believes that the extension of trading hours will make options trading more accessible to investors in other countries and to U.S. investors who wish to trade options in expanded trading hours alongside the underlying equity. Consequently, the Exchange proposes to designate equity options that meet certain criteria as eligible for trading during GTH, and such options will also be eligible to trade in the Curb session. The addition of certain equity options to GTH and Curb sessions will help align trading in such options with the expanded trading that may now occur for their underlying securities. The expansion of trading hours for certain equity options will also help the industry keep pace with the continuing internationalization of securities markets.</P>
                <P>
                    Although the time of RTH is currently consistent with the regular trading hours of the other U.S. options exchanges and regular trading hours of equities that underlie multiply-listed options, many U.S. stock exchanges have established trading hours during various periods of time outside of regular market hours.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Securities trading has become a global industry, but investors located outside of the United States may find it difficult to participate in and may choose not to access U.S. options markets during hours of RTH due to timing constraints. The Exchange believes there is global demand from investors to trade equity options for various investment purposes, including to help limit downside risk by insulating equity holdings from an undesired market move. However, given that equity options trade during RTH only, it may be difficult for investors outside of the U.S. to trade these options during RTH. Additionally, U.S. investors that trade in equities outside of regular trading sessions are unable to access a market in equity options for hedging and other purposes as part of their investment strategies outside of RTH. With equities trading in extended trading hours sessions on equity exchanges without comparable trading hours in equity options, investors are unable to enter into an options contract that could help protect an existing equity position. Consequently, the Exchange believes the extension of trading hours for equity options helps support investor protection because investors will have a longer window of time in which to utilize options for hedging and other investment strategies while equities are also trading in extended trading sessions on underlying exchanges. Therefore, the Exchange proposes to (1) amend Rules 5.1(c) to add equity options to the type of product approved for trading on the Exchange during GTH and establish the specific hours certain equity options may trade in GTH as 7:30 a.m. to 9:25 a.m. Monday through Friday, and (2) add new Rule 5.1(d)(2) to create a Curb session from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. for equity options that are designated for trading during the GTH session.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/about/hours/</E>
                         (Early Trading Sessions occur from 4:00 a.m. to 8:00 a.m., Pre-Market Trading Sessions occur from 8:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m., and Post-Market Sessions occur from 4:00 p.m. to 8:00 p.m.; 
                        <E T="03">see also, e.g.,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.nasdaq.com/market-activity/stock-market-holiday-schedule?force_isolation=true</E>
                         (pre-market trading hours are 4:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m. and after hours are from 4:00 p.m. to 8:00 p.m.).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the designation of the 4:00 p.m.-4:15 p.m. session as a Curb session is different than the Initial Filing. Proposed rule text in the Initial Filing that designated the 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. session as an after-market GTH session has been changed to designate this session as a Curb session to align with existing terminology for the Curb trading session that occurs for index options after RTH and to provide flexibility for market order session selections. The designation of this session as Curb will allow market participants to determine which sessions their orders will trade in outside of RTH, allowing for the exclusion of the 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. session if preferred. The Exchange believes the designation of the 4:00 p.m.-4:15 p.m. session as a Curb session, rather than as an after-market GTH session or as an extension of RTH (as is the case for certain ETFs designated to trade until 4:15 p.m.), is appropriate because the proposed extended trading hours sessions will utilize existing exchange functionality to mark order submissions as RTH-Only, RTH and Curb, or All Sessions.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange will maintain separate trading sessions for extended trading hours to allow Users 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to designate their own preferences for session order eligibility, thereby giving Users flexibility and a risk mitigation mechanism provided through Exchange functionality. Users with existing Cboe ports for RTH will not need new Exchange ports for the extended trading hours sessions and may designate the session(s) for an order by utilizing simple tags through the Exchange ports to indicate the session(s) in which an order may be executed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Orders marked for All Sessions will automatically carry over and be actionable across all sessions, while those marked as RTH-Only will not be actionable during the GTH or Curb sessions. Those marked as RTH and Curb will be actionable during the RTH and the Curb sessions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1, which states that the term “User” means any Trading Permit Holders (“TPHs”) or Sponsored User who is authorized to obtain access to the System pursuant to Rule 5.5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange recognizes that trading in equity options during GTH and Curb sessions is a new and substantial initiative for the industry. Therefore, the Exchange is approaching the extension of trading hours through a conservative and cautious approach. The Exchange intends to introduce extended trading hours by offering sessions that are shorter than extended trading hours sessions for index options and equities. This limited approach will allow the Exchange to assess how extended 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18013"/>
                    trading hours sessions will develop and function. Consequently, the Exchange proposes to offer (1) a GTH trading session prior to the commencement of RTH from 7:30 a.m. to 9:25 a.m. Monday through Friday (for equity options meeting certain criteria, as discussed below), which is shorter than both the GTH session for index options and pre-market extended trading hours for equities, and (2) a Curb session from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m., which is also shorter than both index option and equity extended trading hours occurring after regular market hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Whereas index options eligible for GTH may trade between 8:15 p.m. to 9:25 a.m. the next day 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and from 4:15 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. in Curb for index options that trade on the Exchange 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to align with the near 24 hour trading of related futures contracts, extended trading hours sessions for equities do not extend over that same timeframe, with the earliest available extended trading sessions for equities typically commencing at 4:00 a.m. and the session after an exchange's regular trading hours typically concluding at 8:00 p.m.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Since equity options generally will not trade unless the underlying security also trades, the Exchange believes any trading hours outside of RTH available for equity options should be limited to extended trading hours available for underlying equity securities and will therefore be shorter than extended trading hours for index options.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, the extended trading hours sessions as proposed are shorter than the extended trading sessions of equities to implement the Exchange's cautious approach to introduce extended trading sessions for equity options, with proposed Rules 5.1(c) and (d) establishing GTH and Curb sessions for equity options that are shorter than the hours of extended trading for equities. The Exchange believes that the shorter GTH session running from 7:30 a.m. to 9:25 a.m. and Curb session from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m., rather than sessions that align with the full extended trading hours sessions available for underlying equities, is appropriate because of the lack of industry experience with extended trading hours sessions for equity options that are physically settled. Limiting the window of time for equity options in GTH and the Curb sessions allows for a paced introduction of these types of trading sessions for equity options. The limited trading session timeframes will allow the Exchange to monitor and assess the development and functioning of GTH and Curb sessions for equity options. Additionally, the Exchange has been in discussions with numerous market participants and, based on such discussions, believes that the proposed timeframe for equity options extended trading hours sessions can be supported by Market-Makers, clearing firms, and other market participants from a personnel coverage perspective.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 13 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 12 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 18 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Trading hours on equity exchanges may expand further in the future. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://ir.cboe.com/news/news-details/2025/Cboe-Announces-Plans-to-Launch-24x5-U.S.-Equities-Trading-2025-NwujmKvsxb/default.aspx.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The end of the Curb session at 4:15 p.m. also aligns with the end time of the extended RTH session for certain ETFs that may trade until 4:15 p.m., and as is the case for ETFs that trade until 4:15 p.m., trading on the expiration day of equity options will continue until 4:15 p.m. Since such options will be American-style with physical settlement, market participants will have the ability to close expiring positions rather than take or deliver shares through the Curb session. This is consistent with the close time for ETF options trading until 4:15 p.m. but differs from SPXW PM-settled index options which stop trading at 4:00 p.m. because such options are European-style and cash settled. In all cases, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     marks closing and/or settlement prices based on the 4:00 p.m. National Best Bid and Offer (NBBO). OCC also bases in-the-money and out-of-the-money determinations based on the 4:00 p.m. closing price of the underlying equity security. Based on discussions with OCC and certain clearing firms, the Exchange does not expect the proposed addition of an after-market session that extends trading by only 15 minutes and is no later than the RTH hours for some ETF options will have any impact on existing processes. As for GTH, the proposed early session for equity options will begin at 7:30 a.m., two hours earlier than RTH. OCC and clearing firms have indicated that their end-of-day processes are designed to complete on the same business day, well before midnight. As such, the Exchange does not expect the two-hour extension of early trading hours to have any impact on daily processing when processing occurs in the normal course. Consequently, the Exchange believes the proposed timeframes for extended trading hours sessions supports the Exchange's cautious approach for the introduction of GTH and Curb sessions since the proposed times of each session will generally fit within current operational processes.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         OCC is responsible for clearing and settlement of listed options transactions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange's conservative and cautious approach for establishing GTH and Curb sessions for certain equity options also addresses the selection of equity options to trade in such sessions. In furtherance of its approach, the Exchange proposes to limit the number of option classes it may select for trading in extended trading hours sessions by including in Rule 5.1(c) a limit of 100 equity option classes that may be designated for trading during the GTH and Curb sessions. The limit is intended to allow the Exchange to monitor and assess the development and functioning of the new GTH and Curb sessions for equity options within a controlled group of equity options initially.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further proposes to amend Rule 5.1(c) by establishing criteria an option class must meet to be eligible for GTH and Curb trading in new Rule 5.1(c)(2).
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange may designate as eligible for trading during GTH, and therefore also as eligible for trading during the Curb session through new Rule 5.1(d)(2) (as described below), up to 100 multiply listed equity option classes that may be designated for trading pursuant to Chapter 4, Section A and for which in the preceding six calendar months (i) the option has an average daily volume of 150,000 contracts, (ii) the underlying equity to the option has a $50 billion market capitalization, and (iii) the underlying equity to the option has an average daily trading volume of 10 million shares. The Exchange believes option classes with the highest anticipated demand will be eligible for trading in extended trading hours sessions based on the requirements established in proposed Rule 5.1(c)(2) and (d)(2) and that the criteria above will result in the listing of options in GTH and Curb sessions having sufficient demand and liquidity to support a GTH market.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, the Exchange chose criteria so as to limit the initial number of equity options eligible for extended trading hours to those most likely to have the highest liquidity and to avoid options with underlying securities that may 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18014"/>
                    only have temporarily high volume or market capitalization.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Existing Rule 5.1(c)(2)-(4) will be renumbered as Rule 5.1(c)(3)-(5), and existing Rule 5.1(d)(2)-(4) will be renumbered as Rule 5.1(d)(3)-(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Proposed rule text in the Initial Filing that permitted accelerated eligibility for certain equity options with underlying securities recently listed as a result of an initial public offering has been removed from Amendment No. 1 to simplify the proposal.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For equity options the Exchange designates as eligible to trade during GTH pursuant to proposed Rule 5.1(c)(2), such equity options designated for GTH trading may also trade in the new Curb session pursuant to proposed Rule 5.1(d)(2). Therefore, any option designated as eligible for GTH will also be designated as eligible for the Curb session. The new Curb session will allow market participants to engage in the trading of certain equity options in conjunction with trading in the equities underlying these options for a limited period of time after regular market hours on the underlying markets. Specifically regarding Curb trading from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. for equity options designated for extended trading hours sessions, the Exchange recognizes that company announcements for the equities underlying options may be made after regular trading hours on the underlying exchange concludes, and it is possible that news significantly impacting the value of the underlying security may be released between 4:00 p.m. and 4:15 p.m. while trading in the option for such equity occurs during the Curb session. The Exchange notes that if such announcement results in the halt of the underlying security for a period of time, trading in the option should also halt once the Exchange receives notification of the underlying halt. As is the case in RTH, the Exchange intends to halt trading upon receipt of regulatory halt indicators from the Securities Information Processors (“SIPs”). Additionally, the authority that the Exchange has to declare manual halts in the interest of fair and orderly markets will also apply to extended trading hours sessions for equity options.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the event that the underlying equity continues to trade and its price moves significantly in either direction in response to company announcement or other news, the availability of an options market in extended trading hours provides investors with the opportunity to place an options trade to potentially hedge against an adverse move or execute an option strategy in response to the price movement on the underlying market. The Exchange also notes that announcements of the effectiveness of a corporate action made after 4:00 p.m. (that do not result in the halt of the underlying security to an option) is similar to the announcement of a corporate action that is made prior to 4:00 p.m. In both scenarios, if the corporate action results in an option contract adjustment, such contract adjustment would not be effective until the next trading day.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC makes contract adjustment determinations on a case-by-case basis 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and such determinations are announced on the OCC website. Presumptions may be made by investors as to whether a contract adjustment will be made (and such presumptions may be correct or incorrect) or an investor may be unaware of the announcement of a corporate action or the announcement of a contract adjustment regardless of whether the announcement on the underlying security event is made before or after 4:00 p.m. Consequently, corporate action announcements made during the additional 15 minutes of trading during the Curb session will generally have the same impact as corporate action that are announced as effective during the RTH session.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.20.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Using capital gains distributions as an example, if the issuer of an ETF announces a capital gains distribution the afternoon before the ex-distribution date and the event will result in a contract adjustment to the options on such ETF (pursuant to the OCC Rules and By-Laws), it is likely that the contract adjustment will be announced the same day as the ETF capital gains distribution announcement, and the contract adjustment announcement will confirm the effective date of the contract adjustment as the next trading day. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.</E>
                         OCC Information Memo #58077. Although less frequent, corporate action announcements for an equity option can occur in a similar manner, with the initial announcement of a corporate action made late on the day prior to the effective date of the corporate action (and resulting contract adjustment to the option, if applicable).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OCC Information Memo #54262, which describes OCC's dividend adjustment policy and reminds investors all adjustment decisions are made on a case-by-case basis by OCC.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To determine which options are eligible and designated by the Exchange for extended trading hours sessions, the Exchange will identify on a semiannual basis (following each January 1 and July 1) the option classes meeting the criteria in proposed Rule 5.1(c)(2) and select up to 100 of such option classes to be designated for trading in GTH and Curb sessions; however the Exchange has discretion to determine which of the eligible option classes will be designated to trade in the GTH and Curb sessions. The Exchange is not obligated to include all options that meet the criteria in extended trading hours sessions, and the number of designated equity options may be less than 100 designated option classes.</P>
                <P>
                    For the initial process to determine the equity options that meet the criteria in Rule 5.1(c)(2), the Exchange will use data from the nearest six-month period ending either June 30 or December 31 prior to prior to launch of equity options trading in GTH and Curb sessions. The initial list of options designated for trading in extended trading hours sessions will be announced in an Exchange notice (“GTH Exchange Notice”), and the first day of trading for equity options in GTH and Curb sessions will also be announced in the GTH Exchange Notice.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange will designate options for trading in GTH and Curb sessions from the equity options meeting the criteria in Rule 5.1(c)(2). Following the initial selection process, the Exchange will conduct a review twice per year to reassess the list of eligible equity options using data from July 1 through December 31, and again based on data from January 1 through June 30.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange will designate equity options eligible for trading in GTH and Curb sessions and publish the updated list of designated equity options via GTH Exchange Notice following completion of a semiannual review, and newly designated option classes may begin trading on the first trading day of February and August, respectively.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         The initial listing of equity options in extended trading hours sessions will be selected by the Exchange and is not subject to the listing date requirements of the semiannual review process that will occur after the launch of the new trading sessions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         The Exchange intends to determine options that are initially designated for GTH and Curb sessions at that time of the approval of this Amendment No. 1 based on the most recent 6-month review cycle and subsequently will conduct reviews semiannually commencing the next review cycle.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    New Rule 5.1(c)(2)(B) further specifies the semiannual review process for the selection of equity options designated for trading in extended trading sessions by detailing how option classes may be removed from the list of designated options. If an option that was previously designated for trading in extended trading hours no longer meets the criteria in Rule 5.1(c)(2) following a semiannual review, the Exchange will identify any such equity option class and provide the last day of trading in extended trading hours sessions for each such option class in the semiannual GTH Exchange Notice. Equity options identified as no longer meeting eligibility requirements for GTH and Curb sessions will be removed from extended trading hours sessions within 18 months of the determination that the option class no longer meets GTH and Curb eligibility criteria, and the last day of trading for any such equity option class during GTH and Curb sessions will be communicated through the GTH Exchange Notice. Providing a notice of removal of an equity option class from GTH and Curb sessions up to 18 months after the date the option class is determined to be no longer eligible for extended trading hours sessions will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18015"/>
                    avoid sudden market disturbances resulting from the abrupt removal of any such option from GTH and Curb sessions. Allowing the Exchange to determine a removal date within 18 months ensures that, except for certain longer dated series, open interest existing in the equity option class to be removed from GTH and Curb sessions will have generally expired. Additionally, the 18-month period will allow for two additional semiannual review cycles during which equity options previously designated for removal may subsequently meet eligibility criteria again and consequently may continue to trade in GTH and Curb sessions pursuant to new Rule 5.1(c)(2)(B)(iii).
                </P>
                <P>Whereas the removal process established in new Rule 5.1(c)(2)(B)(i) is intended to provide an extended time period for the removal of equity options to avoid sudden market disruptions, the Exchange acknowledges that certain conditions, although unlikely, may warrant an acceleration of removal of an equity option class from GTH and Curb sessions. Consequently, new Rule 5.1(c)(2)(B)(ii) allows the Exchange to remove an equity option class from trading during GTH and Curb sessions prior to the announced removal date if the Exchange observes limited or no market activity in GTH and Curb sessions for the option class. If such a condition is observed, the Exchange may remove the option class from trading in GTH and Curb sessions with at least seven days notice. The Exchange may remove the option class from GTH and Curb sessions prior to the removal date by issuing an Exchange notice designating a new removal date for the option class from GTH and Curb sessions. Additionally, pursuant to Rule 5.1(c)(2)(C), the Exchange may remove any option class from trading in GTH and Curb sessions for any reason with at least 30 days notice. The Exchange expects to use such authority in limited situations, such as in response to Market-Maker or Designated Primary Market Maker preference or concern regarding continued extended trading hours sessions in a particular option class or the announcement of an unusual corporate action on the underlying equity to an option class (and the effective date of such corporate action is not imminent) that could introduce confusion or uncertainty about the value of an option, thereby significantly reducing liquidity during GTH or Curb sessions for the option class. Similarly, the Exchange may immediately remove an option class from GTH and Curb sessions if the Exchange deems such action is necessary in the interest of investor protection or the maintenance of fair and orderly markets. For example, if a corporate action that was not previously announced on the underlying security is effective immediately and results in a substantial change to the value or composition of the underlying security (such as may be in the case of a reorganization, among others), the Exchange may immediately remove the option from trading in GTH and Curb sessions. The Exchange will provide notice of such determination as soon as practicable after the determination to remove has been made. Any option class designated for removal from GTH trading pursuant to new Rule (2)(B) and that is included in the 100 multiply listed option class limit will continue to be included in the 100 option class limit until the removal date of any such option class.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange may also designate for trading during GTH and Curb sessions any equity option class that is traded on another exchange during GTH or any other extended trading hours session. Any equity option trading on the Exchange during extended trading hours sessions because the option was initially traded by another exchange during an extended trading session will not be counted against the 100-option class limit in proposed Rule 5.1(c). The Exchange believes exclusion of such equity options initially listed for trading on another exchange during that exchange's extended trading session from the 100-option class limit is appropriate for competitive as well as market protection purposes. For example, if other option exchanges adopt the Exchange's qualification criteria, the exact same list of options would be eligible for extended trading hours sessions pursuant to rules of such other exchange(s) as would be eligible under the Exchange's Rules. However, if more than 100 equity options met the eligibility criteria, the Exchange could designate up to 100 of any the equity options that met the criteria for trading in extended trading hours sessions, and the Exchange's selection could be different than those selected by another exchange for trading in extended trading hours sessions. Additionally, it is possible that another exchange may adopt different eligibility criteria and/or select more than 100 equity option classes. In either situation in which another exchange could designate for trading equity options that differ from the equity options designated by Cboe Options for trading in GTH and Curb sessions, Cboe Options may list those equity options designated by another exchange and such options selected in this manner would not count towards the Exchange's 100 equity options limit for extended trading hours sessions.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         Cboe Options is not obligated to list for trading in extended trading hours sessions selected by another exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This provision would allow for trading in these options during extended trading hours on multiples exchanges. Options trading on multiple exchanges can encourage competition, improve market efficiencies and increase liquidity while offering investors more trading opportunities. Consequently, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to have the ability to trade options that are multiply-listed for RTH sessions, that the Exchange is permitted to list, and that may trade in extended trading hours on another exchange (through that exchange's extended trading hours rules) without impacting the administration of the Exchange's extended trading hours sessions specifically established pursuant to the Exchange's Rules. Additionally, this exclusion from the 100-option class limit is similar in structure to, for example, the rules for Short Term Options Series which allow the Exchange to list additional option classes selected by other exchanges under their short term option rules and such selections are in addition to the 50 Short Term Option Series classes that the Exchange may select.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The exclusion is also in alignment with the Exchange's ability to initially list for trading options that meet the Exchange's listing requirements for continued listing and are traded on at least one other exchange.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 4.5(d)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 4.3, Interpretations and Policies .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additional rule amendments are necessary to establish extended trading hours sessions for equity options. As stated in new Rule 5.1(c)(2), FLEX Options may trade during GTH if the standard equity option with the same underlying security as the FLEX Option is designated to trade during extended trading hours sessions. This aligns with the eligibility of index FLEX Options to trade during GTH as established by Rule 5.1(d)(1). To clarify when FLEX Option orders may be submitted during GTH, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.71(b)(2) to clarify that existing rule text stating that FLEX orders may be submitted after 8:15 p.m. (previous day) is applicable for FLEX Options on an index and establish that an equity FLEX Option that is designated to trade during extended trading hours sessions may be submitted after 7:30 a.m. for the GTH 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18016"/>
                    session. To clarify when FLEX Option orders may be submitted during Curb, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.71(b)(3) to clarify that existing rule text stating that FLEX orders may be submitted after 4:15 p.m. is applicable for FLEX Options on an index and establish that an equity FLEX Option that is designated to trade during extended trading hours sessions may be submitted after 4:00 p.m. for the Curb session.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange also proposes to change existing Rule 5.1(c)(2) to new Rule 5.1(c)(3) and amend the subparagraph by (1) clarifying that the existing reference to Rule 4.13 (Series of Index Options) is applicable to index options, thereby requiring that series selection for index options in GTH meet the requirements in Rule 4.13 and (2) adding reference to Rule 4.5 (Series of Option Contracts Open for Trading) for equity options, thereby requiring that series selection for equity options in GTH meet the requirements in Rule 4.5. Consequently, the Exchange may list for trading in GTH any series in eligible classes that it may list pursuant to Rule 4.13 for index options and Rule 4.5 for equity options. Similarly, the Exchange proposes to change existing Rule 5.1(d)(2) to new Rule 5.1(d)(3) and amend the subparagraph for series eligibility to associate the reference to Rule 4.13 to index options trading during the Curb session and add reference to Rule 4.5 for equity options. As a result, the Exchange may list for trading in Curb any series in eligible classes that it may list pursuant to Rule 4.13 for index options and Rule 4.5 for equity options, and such series will be eligible to trade in all sessions.</P>
                <P>
                    To address holidays, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.1(e) to clarify that, unlike GTH for index options, GTH for equity options will not occur on a holiday by stating that GTH references to holiday trading for GTH commencing on a holiday are applicable to index options. A GTH session for index options may (1) commence the evening prior to and extended into the morning of, or (2) commence on the evening of and extend into the morning following a domestic holiday 
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or an international holiday.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.1(e)(1) and (2) to state the GTH sessions for equity options on the day following a holiday will be the standard GTH session. Since the GTH session for equity options will commence at 7:30 a.m., the GTH session for equity options will not extend from a prior day to a holiday into the holiday or from the evening of a holiday into the next day as GTH for index options do, and consequently GTH trading for equity options will not occur on a holiday. Similarly, no trading will occur on a holiday during the Curb session under existing Rule 5.1(e), and this rule will apply to the Curb session for equity options.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(e)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(e)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that while Rule 5.20(f)(1) and (2) are specific to index options, Rule 5.20(f)(3) permits the Exchange to determine to manually halt or resume trading during GTH if determined to be in the interests of a fair and orderly market and to protect investors, and this provision will apply to equity options trading during GTH as well. Existing Rule 5.20(a), which is not limited to RTH, will also provide the Exchange with authority to halt trading in equity options during GTH and Curb sessions in the same manner as RTH.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         Proposed rule text in the Initial Filing included new Rule 5.20(g) as a separate subparagraph for equity options in GTH. This subparagraph has been removed from Amendment No. 1 because it was duplicative of the provisions in Rule 5.20(a) which will apply to equity options in extended trading hours sessions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Options Order Protection and Locked/Crossed Market Plan (“Linkage Plan”),
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     participant exchanges to the Linkage Plan established a framework to provide order protection. The Linkage Plan (and Exchange Rules 5.65 through 5.67 regarding intermarket linkage) will apply during all trading sessions during which multiply listed options trade. Rule 5.36 addresses order routing away from the Exchange to promote compliance with the Linkage Plan. As the Exchange may route orders during GTH and Curb sessions in multiply listed options if another U.S. options exchange lists the same options outside of RTH, Rule 5.36 will apply during GTH and Curb, and the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.36(a) to change the time when the order routing process is first available to a User from 9:30 a.m. to market open. Since Rule 5.36(a) currently states that the order routing process will be available until market close, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to modify the rule to state that the order routing process will be available from market open to market close, and such terms are inclusive of all trading sessions for Rule 5.36. Consequently, Users may designate an order for routing (or not available for routing) during all trading sessions for multi-listed equity options. The Exchange System is designed to, at all times, prevent trade-throughs and avoid displaying locked/crossed markets in accordance with the Linkage Plan, and, as proposed, Users' orders will be eligible for routing during GTH and Curb, just as they are during RTH.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         The Linkage Plan requires U.S. options exchanges to establish a framework for providing order protection and addressing locked and crossed markets in eligible options classes. The Linkage Plan is a national market system plan approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 11A of the Act and Rule 608 thereunder. The full text of the Linkage Plan is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.theocc.com/getcontentasset/7fc629d9-4e54-4b99-9f11-c0e4db1a2266/dfc3d011-8f63-43f6-9ed8-4b444333a1d0/options_order_protection_plan.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange will replicate its current multi-list opening process and apply it to the new GTH session in the morning. Consequently, the Exchange proposes to amend the Opening Auction Process in Rule 5.31 to incorporate GTH for equity options. The current definition of Queuing Period provides that the Queuing Period for GTH for All Sessions Classes begins at 8:00 p.m., 15 minutes prior to the commencement of GTH. The Exchange proposes to amend the definition to apply the existing Queuing Period beginning at 8:00 p.m. to index options and establishing a Queuing Period for equity options in GTH commencing at 7:15 a.m., also 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the GTH session. The Exchange further proposes to amend the definition of Opening Rotations Triggers to establish Opening Rotation Triggers processing for equity options in GTH by duplicating the existing Opening Rotations Triggers processing of RTH equity options for GTH equity options. The proposed amendments to the definitions of Queuing Period and Opening Rotations Triggers extend existing processing framework to equity options in GTH. The Exchange may modify opening collar and maximum composite widths during GTH in the same manner it may during RTH in accordance with the remainder of Rule 5.31. Additionally, to clarify when the Exchange may begin disseminating opening auction updates for equity options in GTH, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.31(c) to clarify that existing rule text stating that opening auction updates may begin after 8:00 p.m. (previous day) for GTH trading is applicable for index options and establish that the time after which opening auction updates may be disseminated for equity options as 7:15 a.m. for the GTH session.</P>
                <P>
                    The Opening Auction Process is not applicable to the Curb session for equity options. In the new GTH session, trading activity in the underlying securities may not see high levels of liquidity, potentially leading to more manual intervention from Market-Makers to manage risk. The Exchange will open options in the GTH session in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18017"/>
                    the same manner as in RTH, regardless of whether there is a wide quote in the underlying or no available quote. However, since equity markets begin trading much earlier than the proposed start of the GTH session, the Exchange does not believe it is likely that underlying quotes will not be available at the time the GTH session commences. An option will not open for trading unless the composite market, comprising the best local appointed Market Maker quote, bound by the away Best Bid and Offer (“BBO”), is within a configured opening price collar. There is no provision to prevent the opening based on the width of the underlying market.
                </P>
                <P>Rule 9.20 (Global Trading Hours Disclosure) provides the required disclosures that a Trading Permit Holder must make to a customer prior to the customer trading during GTH and Curb sessions and these disclosures will apply to equity options trading extended trading hours sessions. The Exchange proposes to update the rule to (1) clarify that certain references to lack of to an underlying index or portfolio value or lack of regular trading in the securities underlying the index or portfolio apply to index options in extended trading hours sessions and (2) add reference to the absence of an underlying price or lack of regular trading in the underlying equity for equity options in GTH and Curb.</P>
                <P>Whereas certain processing aspects of GTH and Curb for equity options require explicit additions to the Rules, other GTH and Curb trading rules as currently stated will apply to equity options designated for trading in extended trading hours sessions.</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Electronic Trading:</E>
                     As stated in current Rules 5.1(c)(4) and 5.1(d)(4), all trading in GTH and Curb sessions is electronic only.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Book:</E>
                     As stated in definition of “Book” in Rule 1.1, a single book is used during all trading sessions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Participants:</E>
                     As stated in Rule 3.61(a), in order to participate in GTH, a Trading Permit Holder must have a letter of guarantee from a Clearing Trading Permit Holder that is properly authorized by OCC to operate during the GTH session. Rule 3.61(a) is not applicable to trading during the Curb session. The Exchange may approve Market-Makers to act as Lead Market Makers (“LMM”) during GTH as provided in Rule 3.55 and in accordance with Rule 5.55. If an LMM is approved to act as an LMM during Global Trading Hours pursuant to Rule 3.55, then the LMM must comply with the continuous quoting obligation and other obligations of Market-Makers as referenced in Rule 5.55(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Transactions Including Obvious Errors:</E>
                     As stated in Rule 6.5(d)(2), a notification must be received within 2 hours of the close of the GTH session if a party believes that it participated in a transaction that was the result of a Catastrophic Error. For transactions occurring during the Curb session, notifications must be received by the Exchange by 8:30 a.m. on the first trading day following the date the transaction was executed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Auction Functionality:</E>
                     The Exchange currently offers a variety of auction mechanisms that provide price improvement opportunities for eligible orders. Particularly, the following auction mechanisms offered by the Exchange may be utilized in Curb and GTH sessions: Complex Order Auction (“COA”),
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Step Up Mechanism (“SUM”),
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Automated Improvement Mechanism (“AIM”),
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Complex AIM (“C-AIM”),
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Solicitation Auction Mechanism (“SAM”),
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Complex SAM (“C-SAM”),
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FLEX Auction Process,
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FLEX AIM 
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and FLEX SAM.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to rules for each auction mechanism and Rule 1.5 (which permit the Exchange to determine whether to activate an auction on a class-by-class basis a session by session basis), the Exchange may determine whether to activate an auction for a class during GTH and Curb. To the extent the Exchange does, each such auction will function in the same manner during GTH and Curb as it does during RTH.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.33(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.35.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.38.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.37.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.39.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.40.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.72(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.73.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.74.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Risk Controls:</E>
                     The Exchange has various price protection mechanisms and risk controls available to market participants as set forth in Rule 5.34. These will apply in the same manner during GTH and Curb as they do during RTH for equity options (except as otherwise described), as is the case today for index options that trade during GTH and Curb. The Exchange notes it recently proposed to amend the wide market protection in Rule 5.34(a)(5) to allow the Exchange to activate that protection not only on a class-by-class basis (as currently permissible), but also on a trading session-by-trading session basis.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When operative (which will be prior to the Exchange's launch of GTH and Curb trading for multiply listed options), this proposed rule change will provide the Exchange with flexibility necessary to determine whether to apply this mechanism during GTH and Curb. The Exchange may determine it not appropriate to activate this protection during GTH and Curb given the differences of trading characteristics and market conditions in those trading sessions, such as wider markets, compared to RTH.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-105098 (March 26, 2026), 91 FR 16036 (March 31, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Market Orders:</E>
                     User will not be able to submit market orders in equity options during the GTH and Curb sessions, as is the case today during GTH and Curb for index options.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.6(b) (definition of market order).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Market-Maker Obligations and Requirements:</E>
                     Market-Maker obligations contained in Rule 5.51 and quoting requirements contained in Rule 5.52 apply to Market-Makers in GTH and Curb sessions. As set forth in Rule 5.50(a), an appointment applies to that class during all trading sessions.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, pursuant to Rule 5.52(d)(2)(E), the electronic continuous quoting obligations of Market-Makers set forth in Rule 5.52(d) apply to a Market-Maker across trading sessions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     if a Market-Maker has an appointment in a class that is open for trading during Regular Trading Hours, Global Trading Hours and Curb Trading Hours, the Exchange will determine a Market-Maker's compliance with the continuous electronic quoting requirement during the trading day). This is consistent with Market-Maker obligations applicable to classes currently eligible for trading during GTH and Curb.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         The Exchange has filed SR-CBOE-2026-016 to provide that Designated Primary Market-Makers (“DPMs”) obligations and participation entitlements will apply to GTH and Curb sessions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104807 (Feb. 10, 2026), 91 FR 6966 (Fed. [sic] 13, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Eligible Expirations:</E>
                     GTH and Curb sessions will utilize existing criteria for listing option series for an option class. For example, Monday and Wednesday expirations found in RTH will be applicable to equity options in extended trading hours sessions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that no operational changes will be required for clearance and settlement.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange has held discussions with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18018"/>
                    OCC, and OCC has informed the Exchange that it will be able to clear and settle all transactions that occur on the Exchange and handle exercises of options during the proposed extended trading hours sessions. OCC already clears Cboe index options in extended trading hours as well as certain ETFs that are eligible pursuant to Exchange Rules to trade until 4:15p.m. as part of RTH. Therefore, OCC already has the operational functionality to support the proposed GTH and Curb trading hours for equity options that are less than the current hours for index options traded on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         It is the Exchange's understanding that OCC will file a rule change to support the extension of trading hours for equity options. The Exchange will delay the launch of equity options trading in extended trading hours sessions until approval of OCC's rule filing permitting clearance and settlement of equity options transactions in such sessions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange intends to submit a separate rule filing to add maximum Market Maker quote width requirements to its Rules in advance of the launch of equity options in GTH and Curb sessions. Pursuant to that proposed rule change, quote width requirement rules would be applicable during GTH and Curb sessions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. The proposed rule change expands the investment opportunity of extended trading hours to an additional type of option, and the expansion is consistent with the continued globalization of the securities markets while improving the alignment of the Exchange's trading hours with extended trading hours of stock exchanges. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will enhance competition by providing a service to investors that other options exchanges currently do not provide; however, it is anticipated that other option exchanges will seek to trade equity options in extended trading hours in the future. The Exchange believes that competition among exchanges ultimately benefits the entire marketplace. Given the robust competition among the options exchanges, innovative trading initiatives are consistent with the above-mentioned goals of the Exchange Act.</P>
                <P>While no other options exchange currently provides trading in equity options outside of RTH, the Commission has authorized stock exchanges to be open for trading outside of those hours pursuant to the Act. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to trade a limited number of equity option classes for which demand is anticipated to be the highest during GTH and Curb sessions to allow for a conservative approach to the introduction of equity options in extended trading sessions. In furtherance of this conservative approach, the Exchange proposes a shorter length of time for extended trading hours compared to extended trading hours for underlying equities. The Exchange recognizes the existing disparity in trading hours between equity options and the securities that underlie such options and considers the proposed trading hours expansion as an initial and necessary step to better align extended trading hours for equity options with the trading hours of their underlying securities. Equity option trading hours currently are limited in comparison to the increased trading hours for other financial instruments. As a result of the limited number of trading hours for equity options, investors are unable to execute options transactions outside of RTH and therefore are unable to utilize options trading in extended trading sessions to hedge equity positions or to utilize other option strategies outside of RTH when equities are able to trade. As options are recognized as an investment tool that can help investors protect existing equity positions against price movements, extending trading hours for equity options will provide investors with access to the market for longer periods of time, thereby expanding access to options as a tool for risk mitigation available for use when options may trade concurrently with the underlying securities to such options.</P>
                <P>Apart from specific trading hours and holidays, much of the Exchange's existing GTH and Curb trading rules will apply to GTH for equity options, including the Exchange's existing trading halt rules. As a result, GTH and Curb sessions for equity options will largely function with the framework already established by rules that have been approved by the Commission as being consistent with the goals of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that OPRA, as the central data consolidation and dissemination system for the U.S. options markets which consolidates options quotes and trade data from all U.S. options exchanges and distributes real-time market data to market participants, data vendors and the public, has indicated that it can accommodate extended trading hours commencing at 7:30 a.m. for the GTH session and from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. for the Curb session on existing OPRA RTH lines.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The OPRA RTH lines will be used for quote distribution and trade data for equity options trading in GTH and Curb trading sessions through the existing OPRA RTH platform.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Consequently, OPRA will have capacity to accommodate other option exchanges that may pursue extended trading sessions in the specific timeframes proposed by the Exchange for the GTH and Curb sessions. Additionally, existing market participants with OPRA connectivity to RTH lines are already connected to lines that will accommodate those who wish to participate in extended trading hours sessions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         Although equity options activity will utilize OPRA RTH lines, GTH and Curb session trades will not be last trade eligible and will not count toward the daily high/low prices.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         Cboe proprietary index options will continue to be quoted and trade on the OPRA GTH system during GTH hours for index options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because all Trading Permit Holders may obtain authorization to trade during extended trading hours sessions. The Exchange notes the proposed rule 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18019"/>
                    change does not impose additional burdens on those Trading Permit Holders that do not elect to trade during the GTH session. The Exchange believes the obligations imposed on Trading Permit Holders to be eligible to trade during GTH is an appropriate balance of obligations of additional requirements with the benefits of additional trading sessions.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change is a new competitive initiative that will benefit the marketplace and investors. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change will enhance competition by providing new trading sessions to investors that other options exchanges currently are not providing. Additionally, all options exchanges are free to compete in the same manner, and it is anticipated that other option exchanges will also pursue trading in extended trading hours sessions.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that a Public Comment Letter was submitted by Nasdaq exchanges (“Nasdaq”) in response to the Initial Filing. The letter stated that Nasdaq intends to pursue extended trading hours and requested the approval of the Initial Filing be conditioned on the readiness of the SIP, which disseminates information for OPRA, and OCC. As stated previously, OPRA and OCC have confirmed operational readiness to support the extended trading hours proposed by Cboe Options and extended trading hours proposed by other options exchanges. The Exchange acknowledges that physically settled equity options differ from cash-settled index options and therefore has discussed with OCC its ability to support equity options in extended trading hours sessions. OCC has indicated that it is operationally ready to support equity options in the proposed extended trading hours sessions and will utilize its existing processes and margin requirements for extended trading hours. OCC already clears index options in extended trading hours for certain Cboe index options as well as certain ETFs and other products that are eligible pursuant to Exchange Rules to trade until 4:15p.m. as part of RTH and therefore has the functionality to support the proposed GTH and Curb trading hours for equity options that are less than the current hours for index options traded on the Exchange. To be eligible to participate in equity options in GTH, OCC has indicated it will utilize the same special authorization requirements as it does for index options. The Exchange also requires special authorization for participation in extended trading hours sessions,
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Exchange will not authorize GTH eligibility for any TPH that is not authorized by OCC. As OCC and the Exchange intend to apply current GTH authorization procedures for index options to equity options collectively, a TPH that is already eligible to trade index options during GTH will not require any further authorizations to trade equity options during GTH. TPHs that are not currently eligible for GTH but wish to trade in the GTH session will have to receive authorization from both OCC and the Exchange in order to trade during GTH (in the same manner they would today for index options). As stated previously, the Exchange believes the obligations imposed on Trading Permit Holders to be eligible to trade during GTH is an appropriate balance of obligations of additional requirements with the benefits of additional trading sessions. There is no special authorization required for participation in the Curb session.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 3.1(a)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (“SIFMA”) also submitted a Public Comment Letter in response to the Initial Filing. SIFMA's letter raised concerns about OPRA and OCC readiness for extended trading hours sessions, and such concerns have been addressed above. SIFMA also requested a delay in launching GTH and Curb sessions for equity options after regulatory approval is obtained for these sessions. In response to SIFMA's requested delay in the launch of GTH and Curb for equity options, the Exchange intends to not launch equity options in extended trading hours sessions until at least 30 days following approval of this proposed rule change, and approximately three months notice of the launch, including technical documentation related to the proposed trading sessions. The Exchange believes this is more than sufficient amount of time to allow market participants to prepare for the new trading sessions.</P>
                <P>The SIFMA letter also referenced Reg SHO concerns. Start of day positions must be accurate to correctly calculate short and long positions in support of Reg SHO. If clearing firm files, including contrary assignments, are delayed, start-of-day positions could be impacted, leading to potential mis-marking or other issues. The Exchange has discussed this with the OCC and Market Maker clearing firms, who have generally indicated that their systems complete such processing on the current trading day. Consequently, the Exchange understands the proposed GTH start time of 7:30 a.m. ET is not a concern from the Reg SHO perspective.</P>
                <P>Since OPRA and OCC can support the proposed extended trading hours and other exchanges have access to OPRA lines as well as OCC clearance and settlement services (meaning they may therefore pursue extended trading hours if they so choose), the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will create any burden on intermarket competition. Additionally, if other exchanges also are open during the new GTH and Curb sessions, the Exchange will route orders during overlapping extended trading hours to those exchanges as it currently does for multi-listed options in RTH and comply with order protection requirements set forth in the Linkage Plan. This process will not change, regardless if a company reports earnings or other circumstances that may result in elevated volatility levels, and this will help provide protection to investors for order routing. The Exchange does not believe that the level of competition among options exchanges will change during RTH because of the introduction of GTH and Curb trading for equity options. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change could increase its competitive position outside of the United States by providing investors with an additional investment access with respect to their global trading strategies during times that may correspond with regular trading hours outside of the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CBOE-2025-079  on the subject line.
                    <PRTPAGE P="18020"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2025-079. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2025-079 and should be submitted on or before April 30, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06799 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12988]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Being Imported for Exhibition—Determinations: “Giacometti in the Temple of Dendur” Exhibition</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects being imported from abroad pursuant to an agreement with their foreign owner or custodian for temporary display in the exhibition “Giacometti in the Temple of Dendur” at The Metropolitan Museum of Art, New York, New York, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, are of cultural significance, and, further, that their temporary exhibition or display within the United States as aforementioned is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Reed Liriano, Program Coordinator, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email: 
                        <E T="03">section2459@state.gov</E>
                        ). The mailing address is U.S. Department of State, L/PD, 2200 C Street NW (SA-5), Suite 5H03, Washington, DC 20522-0505.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     22 U.S.C. 6501 note, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Delegation of Authority No. 234 of October 1, 1999, Delegation of Authority No. 236-3 of August 28, 2000, and Delegation of Authority No. 523 of December 22, 2021.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sherry C. Keneson-Hall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Educational and Cultural Affairs, Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06850 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12987]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Being Imported for Exhibition—Determinations: “Fragments of Memory” Exhibition</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects being imported from abroad pursuant to agreements with their foreign owners or custodians for temporary display in the exhibition “Fragments of Memory” at The Jewish Museum, New York, New York; the North Carolina Museum of Art, Raleigh, North Carolina; and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, are of cultural significance, and, further, that their temporary exhibition or display within the United States as aforementioned is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Reed Liriano, Program Coordinator, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email: 
                        <E T="03">section2459@state.gov</E>
                        ). The mailing address is U.S. Department of State, L/PD, 2200 C Street NW (SA-5), Suite 5H03, Washington, DC 20522-0505.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     22 U.S.C. 6501 note, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Delegation of Authority No. 234 of October 1, 1999, Delegation of Authority No. 236-3 of August 28, 2000, and Delegation of Authority No. 523 of December 22, 2021.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sherry C. Keneson-Hall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Educational and Cultural Affairs, Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06852 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. AB 1301X]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Belvidere &amp; Delaware River Railway Company, Inc.—Abandonment Exemption—in Hunterdon County, N.J.</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Belvidere &amp; Delaware River Railway Company, Inc. (BDR) has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR part 1152 subpart F—
                    <E T="03">Exempt Abandonments</E>
                     to abandon approximately 3,288 linear feet of rail extending from Alexandria Creek milepost 34.27 to a point 566.75 feet south of milepost 35 in Hunterdon County, N.J. (the Line). The Line traverses U.S. Postal Service Zip Code 08848.
                </P>
                <P>BDR has certified that: (1) no local freight traffic has moved over the Line for at least 15 years; (2) no overhead traffic has moved over the Line for at least 15 years and, therefore, there is no overhead traffic that needs to be rerouted; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail service on the Line (or by a state or local government on behalf of such user) regarding cessation of service over the Line is pending with either the Surface Transportation Board (Board) or any U.S. District Court or has been decided in favor of a complainant within the two-year period; and (4) the requirements at 49 CFR 1105.7(b) and 1105.8(c) (notice of environmental and historic reports), 49 CFR 1105.12 (newspaper publication), and 49 CFR 1152.50(d)(1) (notice to government agencies) have been met.</P>
                <P>
                    As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the abandonment shall be protected under 
                    <E T="03">Oregon Short Line Railroad—Abandonment Portion Goshen Branch Between Firth &amp; Ammon, in Bingham &amp; Bonneville Counties, Idaho,</E>
                     360 I.C.C. 91 (1979). To address whether this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18021"/>
                    condition adequately protects affected employees, a petition for partial revocation under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) must be filed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) has been received,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     this exemption will be effective on May 9, 2026, unless stayed pending reconsideration. Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues must be filed by April 17, 2026.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Formal expressions of intent to file an OFA under 49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2) and interim trail use/railbanking requests under 49 CFR 1152.29 must be filed by April 20, 2026.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitions to reopen and requests for public use conditions under 49 CFR 1152.28 must be filed by April 29, 2026.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Persons interested in submitting an OFA must first file a formal expression of intent to file an offer, indicating the type of financial assistance they wish to provide (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         subsidy or purchase) and demonstrating that they are preliminarily financially responsible. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Board will grant a stay if an informed decision on environmental issues (whether raised by a party or by the Board's Office of Environmental Analysis (OEA) in its independent investigation) cannot be made before the exemption's effective date. 
                        <E T="03">See Exemption of Out-of-Serv. Rail Lines,</E>
                         5 I.C.C. 2d 377 (1989). Any request for a stay should be filed as soon as possible so that the Board may take appropriate action before the exemption's effective date.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Filing fees for OFAs and trail use requests can be found at 49 CFR 1002.2(f)(25) and (27), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>All pleadings, referring to Docket No. AB 1301X, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on BDR's representative, John K. Fiorilla, Dyer &amp; Peterson, PC, 322 US Highway 46 W, Suite 220, Parsippany, NJ 07054.</P>
                <P>If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.</P>
                <P>BDR has filed a combined environmental and historic report that addresses the potential effects, if any, of the abandonment on the environment and historic resources. OEA will issue a Draft Environmental Assessment (Draft EA) by April 14, 2026. The Draft EA will be available to interested persons on the Board's website, by writing to OEA, or by calling OEA at (202) 245-0294. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245. Comments on environmental or historic preservation matters must be filed within 15 days after the Draft EA becomes available to the public.</P>
                <P>Environmental, historic preservation, public use, or trail use/rail banking conditions will be imposed, where appropriate, in a subsequent decision.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the provisions of 49 CFR 1152.29(e)(2), BDR shall file a notice of consummation with the Board to signify that it has exercised the authority granted and fully abandoned the Line. If consummation has not been effected by BDR's filing of a notice of consummation by April 9, 2027, and there are no legal or regulatory barriers to consummation, the authority to abandon will automatically expire.</P>
                <P>
                    Board decisions and notices are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.stb.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Decided: April 3, 2026.</P>
                <P>By the Board, Anika S. Cooper, Chief Counsel, Office of Chief Counsel.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Zantori Dickerson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06791 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0325]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Renewal of an Approved Information Collection Request: Transportation of Hazardous Materials; Highway Routing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval.</P>
                    <P>
                        FMCSA requests approval to renew an ICR titled, “Transportation of Hazardous Materials, Highway Routing.” The information reported by States and Indian Tribes is necessary to identify designated and restricted routes and restrictions or limitations affecting how motor carriers may transport certain hazardous materials on highways, including dates that such routes were established and information on subsequent changes or new hazardous materials routing designations. In response to the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice published on November 18, 2025, FMCSA did not receive any comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received on or before May 11, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice Docket number FMCSA-2025-0325 to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Melissa Williams, Office of Safety, Hazardous Materials Division, DOT, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 366-4163; 
                        <E T="03">melissa.williams@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     The data for the Transportation of Hazardous Materials; Highway Routing ICR is collected under authority of 49 U.S.C. 5112 and 5125. Specifically, 49 U.S.C. 5112(c) requires that the Secretary of Transportation, in coordination with the States, “shall update and publish periodically a list of currently effective hazardous material highway route designations.” This authority is delegated to FMCSA in 49 CFR 1.87(d)(2).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In § 397.73, FMCSA requires that each State and Indian Tribe, through its routing agency, provide information identifying new, or changes to existing, hazardous materials routing designations within its jurisdiction within 60 days of their establishment (or 60 days of the change). That information is collected and consolidated by FMCSA and published annually, in whole or as updates, in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and on the Agency's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hazardous-materials/national-hazardous-materials-route-registry.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Transportation of Hazardous Materials, Highway Routing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2126-0014.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     The reporting burden is shared by 50 States, the District of Columbia, Indian Tribes with designated routes, and U.S. Territories including Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     57 [36 States + the District of Columbia, with designated hazardous materials highway routes + 19 States/U.S. Territories without designated hazardous materials highway routes + 1 Indian Tribe with a designated route = 57].
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                    <PRTPAGE P="18022"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     April 30, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Every 2 years or as things change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     7.125 hours [57 annual respondents × 1 response per 2 years × 15 minutes per response/60 minutes per response = 7.125 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) whether the proposed collection is necessary for the performance of FMCSA's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways for FMCSA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued under the authority of 49 CFR 1.87.</P>
                    <NAME>David M. Sutula,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Associate Administrator, Office of Research and Registration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06803 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <PRESDOCS>
        <PRESDOCU>
            <EXECORD>
                <TITLE3>Title 3—</TITLE3>
                <PRES>
                    The President
                    <PRTPAGE P="17839"/>
                </PRES>
                <EXECORDR>Executive Order 14388 of February 20, 2026</EXECORDR>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Continuing the Suspension of Duty-Free De Minimis Treatment for All Countries</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">
                    <E T="03">Republication</E>
                </HD>
                <FP>[Editorial Note: Executive Order 14388 was originally published on pages 9433 through 9436 in the issue of Wednesday, February 25, 2026. In that publication, the document did not include the accompanying annex. The corrected document is republished in its entirety with the accompanying annex.]</FP>
                <FP>
                    By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, including the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (IEEPA), the National Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), section 604 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2483), and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, it is hereby ordered:
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Section 1</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                     In several Executive Orders, including Executive Order 14193 of February 1, 2025 (Imposing Duties To Address the Flow of Illicit Drugs Across Our Northern Border), as amended; Executive Order 14194 of February 1, 2025 (Imposing Duties To Address the Situation at Our Southern Border), as amended; Executive Order 14195 of February 1, 2025 (Imposing Duties To Address the Synthetic Opioid Supply Chain in the People's Republic of China), as amended; Executive Order 14257 of April 2, 2025 (Regulating Imports With a Reciprocal Tariff To Rectify Trade Practices That Contribute to Large and Persistent Annual United States Goods Trade Deficits), as amended; and Executive Order 14324 of July 30, 2025 (Suspending Duty-Free De Minimis Treatment for All Countries), I declared or described national emergencies with respect to unusual and extraordinary threats to the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States and took action to deal with those threats, including suspending duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) for certain imports.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    As relevant here, in section 3 of Executive Order 14324, I set forth the duty rates applicable to shipments sent to the United States through the international postal network that would otherwise qualify for the 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). These duty rates were based on the additional duty rates imposed by Executive Orders issued under IEEPA, including Executive Order 14193, as amended; Executive Order 14194, as amended; Executive Order 14195, as amended; and Executive Order 14257, as amended.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    In section 6 of Executive Order 14324, I made clear that the suspension of, or continued suspension of, duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment, as detailed in Executive Order 14324, shall not be affected if the additional duties imposed under Executive Order 14193, as amended; Executive Order 14194, as amended; Executive Order 14195, as amended; or Executive Order 14257, as amended, were held to be invalid. I also provided that—should such invalidation occur—duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) would be available for shipments sent through the international postal network only until I received a notification from the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) that adequate systems were in place to fully and expeditiously process and collect duties applicable to such shipments.
                    <PRTPAGE P="17840"/>
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    Since the issuance of Executive Order 14324, the conditions outlined in section 6 of Executive Order 14324 have occurred. Also since the issuance of Executive Order 14324, the Secretary has notified me that adequate systems are now in place to collect certain duties applicable to shipments sent through the international postal network that would otherwise be eligible for duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment. I also have received additional information and recommendations from various senior officials regarding the suspension of duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    After considering the information and recommendations these officials have provided to me, among other things, I have determined that it is still necessary and appropriate to suspend duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     treatment under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C), including for shipments sent through the international postal network. U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall collect duties on shipments sent through the international postal network in accordance with Executive Order 14324, as amended below. CBP shall also continue to take all appropriate action to collect all applicable duties, taxes, fees, exactions, and charges for shipments not sent through the international postal network. In my judgment, these actions are necessary and appropriate to deal with the national emergencies declared in Executive Order 14193, Executive Order 14194, Executive Order 14195, and Executive Order 14257. Each determination is independent of the other and is made only for the purpose of dealing with the respective emergency and not for the purpose of dealing with another emergency.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 2</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Continuing the Suspension of Duty-Free De Minimis Treatment.</E>
                     Section 2 of Executive Order 14324 is revised to read as follows:
                </FP>
                <P>
                    “(a) The duty-free 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     exemption provided under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) shall not apply to any shipment of articles not covered by 50 U.S.C. 1702(b), regardless of value, country of origin, mode of transportation, or method of entry. Accordingly, all such shipments, except those sent through the international postal network, shall be subject to all applicable duties, taxes, fees, exactions, and charges. International postal shipments not covered by 50 U.S.C. 1702(b) shall be subject to the duty rates described in section 3 of this order. Entry for all shipments that, prior to the effective date of this order, qualified for the 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     exemption, shall be filed using an appropriate entry type in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) by a party qualified to make such entry—except for shipments sent through the international postal network, which shall be dutiable in accordance with section 3 of this order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) Shipments sent through the international postal network that would otherwise qualify for the 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) shall pass free of any duties except those specified in section 3 of this order, and without the preparation of an entry by CBP, until the effective date for the new entry process for postal shipments established by CBP and published in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">.”</E>
                </P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 3</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Duty Rates for International Postal Shipments.</E>
                     Section 3 of Executive Order 14324 is revised to read as follows:
                </FP>
                <P>“(a) Transportation carriers delivering shipments sent to the United States through the international postal network, or other parties if qualified in lieu of such transportation carriers, as approved by CBP, must collect and remit duties to CBP using the methodology described in subsection (b) of this section. Each transportation carrier or other qualified party shall remit duty payment to CBP in accordance with CBP guidance on the requirements and process for remittance.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) A duty equal to the rate provided in the Proclamation of February 20, 2026 (Imposing a Temporary Import Surcharge to Address Fundamental International Payments Problems), shall be assessed on the value of each dutiable postal item containing goods entered for consumption. This duty rate shall be assessed until the expiration date of the temporary import surcharge established by the Proclamation of February 20, 2026, or until 
                    <PRTPAGE P="17841"/>
                    the effective date of the new entry process for postal shipments established by CBP, whichever date occurs first.
                </P>
                <P>(c) For all international postal shipments subject to the duty rate in the Proclamation of February 20, 2026, in accordance with subsection (b) of this section, the country of origin of the article and its value must be declared to CBP.</P>
                <P>(d) Shipments sent through the international postal network that are subject to antidumping and countervailing duties or a quota must continue to be entered under an appropriate entry type in ACE to the extent required by all applicable regulations.”</P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 4</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Further Revisions.</E>
                     Executive Order 14324 is further revised by striking section 5 and renumbering sections 6 and 7 as 5 and 6, respectively.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 5</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Implementation.</E>
                     (a) The modifications to Executive Order 14324 in this order shall be effective with respect to goods entered for consumption, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern standard time on February 24, 2026. Additionally, the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States shall be modified as provided in the Annex to this order.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    (b) Consistent with applicable law, the Secretary of Homeland Security is directed and authorized to take all necessary actions to implement and effectuate this order—including through temporary suspension or amendment of regulations or through notices in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                     and by adopting rules, regulations, or guidance. The Secretary of Homeland Security may continue to employ all powers that were previously authorized in Executive Order 14324 as may be necessary to implement and effectuate this order.
                </P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 6</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Effect on Prior Actions and Severability.</E>
                     Any provision of previous proclamations and Executive Orders that is inconsistent with this order is superseded to the extent of such inconsistency. If any provision of this order or the application of any provision of this order to any individual or circumstance is held to be invalid, the remainder of this order and the application of its provisions to any other individuals or circumstances shall not be affected.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 7</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">General Provisions.</E>
                     (a) Nothing in this order shall be construed to impair or otherwise affect:
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) the authority granted by law to an executive department or agency, or the head thereof; or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) the functions of the Director of the Office of Management and Budget relating to budgetary, administrative, or legislative proposals.</FP>
                <P>(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.</P>
                <P>(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.</P>
                <PRTPAGE P="17842"/>
                <P>(d) The costs for publication of this order shall be borne by the Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="80" HTYPE="RIGHT">
                    <GID>Trump.EPS</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PSIG> </PSIG>
                <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
                <DATE>February 20, 2026.</DATE>
                <BILCOD>Billing code 0099-10-D</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="600">
                    <PRTPAGE P="17843"/>
                    <GID>ED09AP26.003</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="460">
                    <PRTPAGE P="17844"/>
                    <GID>ED09AP26.004</GID>
                </GPH>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. R1-2026-03829 </FRDOC>
                <FILED>Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FILED>
                <BILCOD>Billing code 0099-10-D</BILCOD>
            </EXECORD>
        </PRESDOCU>
    </PRESDOCS>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="18023"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Commerce</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY> National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <TITLE>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to a Marine Geophysical Survey in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean; Notice</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <NOTICES>
            <NOTICE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18024"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XE792]</DEPDOC>
                    <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to a Marine Geophysical Survey in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice; proposed incidental harassment authorization; request for comments on proposed authorization and possible renewal.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>NMFS has received a request from the Lamont-Doherty Earth Observatory of Columbia University (L-DEO) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to a marine geophysical survey off the Eastern North American Margin in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities. NMFS is also requesting comments on a possible one-time, 1-year renewal that could be issued under certain circumstances and if all requirements are met, as described in Request for Public Comments at the end of this notice. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the issuance of the requested MMPA authorization and agency responses will be summarized in the final notice of our decision.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <DATES>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments and information must be received no later than May 11, 2026.</P>
                    </DATES>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Comments should be addressed to Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service and should be submitted via email to 
                            <E T="03">ITP.harlacher@noaa.gov.</E>
                             Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-research-and-other-activities.</E>
                             In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                             NMFS is not responsible for comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period. Comments, including all attachments, must not exceed a 25-megabyte file size. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted online at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/permit/incidental-take-authorizations-under-marine-mammal-protection-act</E>
                             without change. All personal identifying information (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             name, address) voluntarily submitted by the commenter may be publicly accessible. Do not submit confidential business information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Jenna Harlacher, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) direct the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are proposed or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed IHA is provided to the public for review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking; other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to as “mitigation”); and requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of the takings. The definitions of all applicable MMPA statutory terms used above are included in the relevant sections below (
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         16 U.S.C. 1362; 50 CFR 216.3, 216.103).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the issuance of an IHA) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (IHAs with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the issuance of the proposed IHA qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                    <P>
                        On February 3, 2025, NMFS received a request from L-DEO for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to a marine geophysical survey off the Eastern North American Margin in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean. After sending questions and confirming details with the applicant, the L-DEO's application was deemed adequate and complete on March 7, 2025. NMFS was then informed that the planned survey would be deferred to a later date, and on February 19, 2026, L-DEO informed NMFS that the survey would occur in 2026 and requested that NMFS resume consideration of its IHA request. L-DEO's request is for take of 31 species of marine mammals by Level B harassment and, for Bryde's whale, sei whale, minke whale and 
                        <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                         spp, Level A harassment. Neither L-DEO nor NMFS expect serious injury or mortality to result from this activity and, therefore, an IHA is appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Proposed Activity</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                    <P>
                        Researchers from L-DEO of Columbia University, University of Texas at Austin Institute for Geophysics and Syracuse University, with funding from the National Science Foundation, propose to conduct a high-energy seismic survey using airguns as the acoustic source from the research vessel 
                        <E T="03">Marcus G. Langseth</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                        ), which is owned and operated by L-DEO. The proposed survey would occur off the Eastern North American Margin in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean from July to September 2026. The proposed survey would occur within international waters, in water depths ranging from approximately 4,800 to 5,550 meters (m). To conduct this survey, the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         would tow a 36-airgun array with a total discharge volume of ~6,600 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18025"/>
                        cubic inches (in
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        , 108,155 cubic centimeters (cc)) at a depth of 12 m. The airgun array receiving systems for the different survey segments would consist of a 15 kilometer (km) long solid-state hydrophone streamer and 52 ocean bottom seismometers (OBS). The airguns would fire at a shot interval of 50 m (~24 seconds (s)) during 2-dimensional (2-D) multi-channel seismic (MCS) reflection surveys with the hydrophone streamer and at a 200 m (~78 s) interval during OBS seismic refraction surveys. Approximately 4,264 km of total survey trackline is proposed, including 691 km of MCS seismic reflection data and 3,573 km of OBS refraction data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The purpose of the proposed survey is to collect seismic data spanning the oceanic lithosphere from the onset of oceanization for ~50 million years of incipient seafloor spreading at the nascent Mid-Atlantic Ridge to investigate mantle dynamics during the opening of the Central Atlantic Ocean. Additional data would be collected using a magnetometer, gravitometer, multibeam echosounder (MBES), a sub-bottom profiler (SBP), and an acoustic doppler current profiler (ADCP), which would be operated from the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         continuously during the seismic surveys, including during transit. Expendable bathythermographs will also be deployed throughout the survey. No take of marine mammals is expected to result from use of this equipment.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dates and Duration</HD>
                    <P>The proposed survey is expected to last for approximately 42 days from July through September 2026, with 20 days of seismic operations, 13 days of OBS deployment and retrieval, 4.5 days of contingency, and 4.5 days of transit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Specific Geographic Region</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed survey would occur within approximately 27-33° N lat., 67-75° W long., in international waters, in water depths ranging from approximately 4,800 to 5,550 m. The region where the survey is proposed to occur is depicted in figure 1; the tracklines could occur anywhere within the polygon shown in figure 1. Representative survey tracklines are shown; however, some deviation in actual tracklines, including the order of survey operations, could be necessary for reasons such as science drivers, poor data quality, inclement weather, or mechanical issues with the vessel and/or equipment. The 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         would likely leave out of and return to port in Charleston, South Carolina, which is approximately 600 km west of the proposed survey area.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="384">
                        <GID>EN09AP26.002</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18026"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Description of the Specified Activity</HD>
                    <P>
                        The procedures to be used for the proposed survey would be similar to those used during previous seismic surveys conducted by L-DEO and would use conventional seismic methodology. The survey would involve one source vessel, the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth,</E>
                         which is owned and operated by L-DEO. During the high-energy MCS seismic reflection and OBS seismic refraction surveys, 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         would tow 4 strings with 36 airguns, consisting of a mixture of Bolt 1500LL and Bolt 1900LLX. During the survey, all 4 strings, totaling 36 active airguns with a total discharge volume of 6,600 in
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         (108,155 cc), would be used. The four airgun strings would be spaced 16 m apart, distributed across an area of approximately 24 m x 16 m behind the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth,</E>
                         and would be towed approximately 140 m behind the vessel. The airgun array configurations are illustrated in figure 2-11 of National Science Foundation (NSF) and the U.S. Geological Survey's (USGS) Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement (PEIS; NSF-USGS 2011). (The PEIS is available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nsf.gov/geo/oce/envcomp/usgs-nsf-marine-seismic-research/nsf-usgs-final-eis-oeis_3june2011.pdf.</E>
                        ). The receiving system would consist of a 15-km long solid-state hydrophone streamer and 52 OBSs. As the airgun arrays are towed along the survey lines, the hydrophone streamer would transfer the data to the on-board processing system for the MCS survey, and the OBSs would receive and store the returning acoustic signals internally for later analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>Approximately 4,264 km of seismic acquisition are proposed (691 km of 2-D MCS seismic reflection data and 3,573 km of OBS refraction data). All 52 OBSs will be deployed at the beginning of the survey and recovered at the end after acquiring all seismic data.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the operations of the airgun array, the ocean floor would be mapped with the Kongsberg EM 122 MBES and a Knudsen Chirp 3260 SBP. A Teledyne RDI 75 kilohertz (kHz) Ocean Surveyor ADCP would be used to measure water current velocities, and acoustic pingers would be used to retrieve OBSs. Take of marine mammals is not expected to occur incidental to use of the MBES, SBP, and ADCP operations whether or not the airguns are operating simultaneously with the other sources. Given their characteristics (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         narrow downward-directed beam), marine mammals would experience no more than one or two brief ping exposures, if any exposure were to occur (Ruppel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022).
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see Proposed Mitigation and Proposed Monitoring and Reporting).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history of the potentially affected species. NMFS fully considered all of this information, and we refer the reader to these descriptions, instead of reprinting the information. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS' Stock Assessment Reports (SARs; 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                        ) and more general information about these species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         physical and behavioral descriptions) may be found on NMFS' website (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/find-species</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        L-DEO's proposed action area is approximately 230 km outside of the U.S. EEZ. For marine mammal populations whose range includes both U.S. jurisdictional waters and international waters where L-DEO's survey is proposed to occur, table 1 summarizes information related to the stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and Endangered Species Act (ESA), stock abundance, and potential biological removal (PBR), where known (as described in NMFS' SARs). While no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality (M/SI) from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species or stocks and other threats. All values presented in table 1 for stocks that are assessed in the SARs are the most recent available at the time of publication and are available in the draft 2024 SARs (available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/draft-marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 1 also includes a modeled abundance, which is the total number of individuals estimated within the U.S Navy Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing Area Marine Mammal Density (AFTT) study area. The AFTT model is considered the best scientific information available on the abundance and density of marine mammal populations that may occur in the survey area.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,xls30,r50,12,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 1—Species 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             With Estimated Take From the Specified Activities
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                ESA/
                                <LI>MMPA status; strategic</LI>
                                <LI>
                                    (Y/N) 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Stock abundance
                                <LI>(CV, Nmin, most</LI>
                                <LI>recent</LI>
                                <LI>abundance </LI>
                                <LI>
                                    survey) 
                                    <SU>3</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Modeled
                                <LI>
                                    abundance 
                                    <SU>4</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">PBR</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annual
                                <LI>
                                    M/SI 
                                    <SU>5</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Order Artiodactyla—Cetacea—Mysticeti (baleen whales)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Balaenopteridae (rorquals):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Fin Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera physalus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,802 (0.24, 5,573, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>6</SU>
                                 11,672
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.05</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Blue Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera musculus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                UNK (UNK, 402, 2008) 
                                <SU>7</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>191</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Brydes Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera edeni</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>536</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Sei Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera borealis</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Nova Scotia</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,292 (1.02, 3,098, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>8</SU>
                                 19,503
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>6.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Minke Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera acutorostrata</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Canadian Eastern Coastal</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,968 (0.31, 17,002, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,784</ENT>
                            <ENT>170</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Humpback Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Megaptera novaeangliae</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulf of Maine</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,396 (0, 1380, 2016)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>9</SU>
                                 3,569
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>22</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Odontoceti (toothed whales, dolphins, and porpoises)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Physeteridae:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Sperm Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Physeter macrocephalus:</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,895 (0.29, 4,639, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,015</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.28</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Kogiidae:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Dwarf Sperm Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Kogia sima</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>10</SU>
                                 9,474 (0.36, 7,080, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>10</SU>
                                 26,043
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>57</ENT>
                            <ENT>unk</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="18027"/>
                            <ENT I="03">Pygmy Sperm Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Kogia breviceps</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>10</SU>
                                 9,474 (0.36, 7,080, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>10</SU>
                                 26,043
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>57</ENT>
                            <ENT>unk</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Ziphiidae (beaked whales):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Blainville's Beaked Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Mesoplodon densirostris</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,936 (0.26, 2,374, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>11</SU>
                                 65,069
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>24</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Goose-Beaked Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Ziphius cavirostris</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,260 (0.24, 3,817, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>11</SU>
                                 65,069
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Gervais' Beaked Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Mesoplodon europaeus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,595 (0.24, 7,022, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>11</SU>
                                 65,069
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>70</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">True's Beaked Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Mesoplodon mirus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-,-,N</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,480 (0.34, 3,391, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>11</SU>
                                 65,069
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Delphinidae:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Rough-Toothed Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Steno bredanensis</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>12</SU>
                                 UNK (UNK, UNK, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>32,848</ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Bottlenose Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Tursiops truncatus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic Offshore</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>13</SU>
                                 64,587 (0.24, 52,801, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>418,151</ENT>
                            <ENT>507</ENT>
                            <ENT>28</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Atlantic White-Sided Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus acutus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>93,233 (0.71, 54,443, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>14</SU>
                                 175,299
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>544</ENT>
                            <ENT>28</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Pantropical Spotted Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Stenella attenuata</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, D, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,757 (0.50, 1,856, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>321,740</ENT>
                            <ENT>19</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Atlantic Spotted Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Stenella frontalis</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>31,506 (0.28, 25,042, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>259,519</ENT>
                            <ENT>250</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Spinner Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Stenella longirostris</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, D, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,181 (0.65, 1,930, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>152,511</ENT>
                            <ENT>19</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Clymene Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Stenella clymene</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,778 (0.72, 12,622, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>181,209</ENT>
                            <ENT>126</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Striped Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Stenella coeruleoalba</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>48,274 (0.29, 38,040, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>412,729</ENT>
                            <ENT>529</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Fraser's Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Lagenodelphis hosei</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>15</SU>
                                 UNK (UNK, UNK, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>19,585</ENT>
                            <ENT>UNK</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Risso's Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Grampus griseus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>44,067 (0.19, 30,662, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>78,205</ENT>
                            <ENT>307</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Common Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Delphinus delphis</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>93,100 (0.56, 59,897, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>16</SU>
                                 473,260
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,452</ENT>
                            <ENT>414</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Melon-Headed Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Peponocephala electra</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>17</SU>
                                 UNK (UNK, UNK, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>64,114</ENT>
                            <ENT>UNK</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Pygmy Killer Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Feresa attenuata</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>18</SU>
                                 UNK (UNK, UNK, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>9,001</ENT>
                            <ENT>UNK</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">False Killer Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Pseudorca crassidens</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>19</SU>
                                 1,298 (0.72, 775, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>12,682</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Killer Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Orcinus orca</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>20</SU>
                                 UNK (UNK, UNK, 2016)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>191</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Short-Finned Pilot Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Globicephala macrorhynchus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>21</SU>
                                 18,726 (0.33, 14,292, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>22</SU>
                                 264,907
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>143</ENT>
                            <ENT>218</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Long-Finned Pilot Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Globicephala melas</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western N Atlantic</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>23</SU>
                                 39,215 (0.30, 30,627, 2021)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>22</SU>
                                 264,907
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>306</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Phocoenidae (porpoises):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Harbor Porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Phocoena phocoena</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulf of Maine/Bay of Fundy</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>85,765 (0.53, 56,420, 2021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,583</ENT>
                            <ENT>649</ENT>
                            <ENT>142.4</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Information on the classification of marine mammal species can be found on the web page for The Society for Marine Mammalogy's Committee on Taxonomy (
                            <E T="03">https:www//marinemammalscience.org/science-and-publications/list-marine-mammal-species-subspecies/</E>
                            ).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             ESA status: Endangered (E), Threatened (T)/MMPA status: Depleted (D). A dash (-) indicates that the species is not listed under the ESA or designated as depleted under the MMPA. Under the MMPA, a strategic stock is one for which the level of direct human-caused mortality exceeds PBR or which is determined to be declining and likely to be listed under the ESA within the foreseeable future. Any species or stock listed under the ESA is automatically designated under the MMPA as depleted and as a strategic stock.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             NMFS marine mammal stock assessment reports online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports-region.</E>
                             CV is coefficient of variation; Nmin is the minimum estimate of stock abundance. In some cases, CV is not applicable.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             Mean annual abundance for the U.S. Navy AFTT area, including the offshore survey area (based on Mannocci 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2017; Roberts 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2023; and Marine Geospatial Ecology Lab 2023).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             These values, found in NMFS's SARs, represent annual levels of human-caused mortality plus serious injury from all sources combined (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             commercial fisheries, vessel strike). Annual M/SI often cannot be determined precisely and is in some cases presented as a minimum value or range.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             Mean abundance for August, 1992-2020 (mean abundance for September was lower).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             Population estimate based upon photo-identification data collected from 1980 to 2008. An updated estimate of 39 blue whales exists based upon shipboard and aerial surveys conducted from June to September 2016, however this estimate only includes the U.S. portion of the stock. Therefore, as the estimate of 402 represents the entire stock, it is currently considered the best estimate.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             Mean abundance for March to September, 1992-2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Mean abundance for April-November, 1992-2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             Estimates for 
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             Mean abundance for all beaked whales, 1992-2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             The abundance estimate for this species is based upon the average of the 2011 and 2016 abundance estimates. However, uncertainties in the abundance estimate exist due to the low number of sightings (n=1 in 2011; n=0 in 2016), variance in encounter rates, and uncertainty in estimation of detection probability.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Estimates may include sightings of the coastal form.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Mean abundance for September, 1992-2020. (Mean abundance for August was lower).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             The total number of Fraser's dolphins off the eastern U.S coast is unknown. Present data are insufficient to calculate a minimum population estimate for this stock.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Mean abundance for short-beaked common dolphin, 1992-2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             The population size of this species is unknown as this species was rarely sighted during surveys. Present data are insufficient to calculate a minimum population estimate for this stock.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             The total number of pygmy killer whales off the eastern U.S coast is unknown. Present data are insufficient to calculate a minimum population estimate for this stock.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             Population estimate based upon abundance estimates of 753 (CV=1.13) and 545 (CV=0.68) generated from vessel surveys conducted in U.S. waters of the western North Atlantic during the summer of 2021.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             The total number of killer whales off the eastern U.S coast is unknown. Present data are insufficient to calculate a minimum population estimate for this species.
                            <PRTPAGE P="18028"/>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                            A key uncertainty exists in the population size estimate for this species based upon the assumption that the logistic regression model accurately represents the relative distribution of short-finned vs. long-finned pilot whales.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Globicephala</E>
                             spp., 1992-2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Key uncertainties exist in the population size estimate for this species, including uncertain separation between short-finned and long-finned pilot whales, small negative bias due to lack of abundance estimate in the region between US and the Newfoundland/Labrador survey area, and uncertainty due to unknown precision and accuracy of the availability bias correction factor that was applied.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        As indicated above, all 31 species in table 1 temporally and spatially co-occur with the activity to the degree that take could occur. All species that could occur in the proposed survey areas are included in table 3 of the IHA application. While North Atlantic right whales occur in continental shelf waters of the eastern United States (U.S.), the spatial occurrence of these species is such that take is not expected to occur, and they are not discussed further beyond the explanation provided here. North Atlantic right whales mainly occur within 90 km of shore and in water depths less than 45 m (Knowlton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002). As the proposed survey will take place 600 km from shore in water depths greater than 1,000 m, North Atlantic right whales are not expected to be encountered.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to what is included in sections 3 and 4 of the application and NMFS' website, further detail informing the baseline and regional occurrence for select species of particular or unique vulnerability (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         information regarding ESA listed species) is provided below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Fin Whale</E>
                        —The fin whale is widely distributed in all the world's oceans (Gambell 1985), although it is most abundant in temperate and cold waters (Aguilar and García-Vernet 2018). Nonetheless, its overall range and distribution are not well known (Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Fin whales most commonly occur offshore but can also be found in coastal areas (Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Most populations migrate seasonally between temperate waters where mating and calving occur in winter, and polar waters where feeding occurs in summer (Aguilar and García-Vernet 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the North Atlantic, fin whales are found in summer from Baffin Bay, Spitsbergen, and the Barents Sea, south to North Carolina and the coast of Portugal (Rice 1998). In winter, they have been sighted from Newfoundland to the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean, and from the Faroes and Norway south to the Canary Islands (Rice 1998). Based on geographic differences in fin whale calls, Delarue 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) suggested that there are four distinct stocks in the Northwest Atlantic, including a central North Atlantic stock that extends south along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The four feeding stocks in the Northwest Atlantic currently recognized by the North Atlantic Marine Mammal Commission (NAMMCO 2023) are located off West Iceland (in the Central Atlantic), Eastern Greenland, Western Greenland, and Eastern Canada; there are an additional three stocks in the eastern Atlantic.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the western North Atlantic, fin whales occur off the eastern U.S. year-round, but generally north of Cape Hatteras (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Hayes 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). During winter, fin whales are sighted more frequently on the shelf off the U.S. east coast than any other large whale (Department of the Navy (DoN) 2008a, b). Fin whales have been detected acoustically off North Carolina during all seasons, with the greatest number of detections during winter (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; Passive Acoustic Cetacean Map 2025). South of North Carolina, fin whales have only been detected acoustically on the shelf during fall and winter (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022) and in the offshore waters of the Blake Plateau from fall through spring (Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Acoustic detections have been made just west of the proposed survey area from October through March (Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; PACM 2025), however there are no records in the Ocean Biodiversity Information System (OBIS) database for the proposed survey area (OBIS 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Blue Whale</E>
                        —The blue whale has a cosmopolitan distribution and tends to be pelagic, only coming nearshore to feed and possibly to breed (Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). The distribution of the species, at least during times of the year when feeding is a major activity, occurs in areas that provide large seasonal concentrations of euphausiids (Yochem and Leatherwood 1985). Blue whales are most often found in cool, productive waters where upwelling occurs (Reilly and Thayer 1990). Generally, blue whales are seasonal migrants between high latitudes in summer, where they feed, and low latitudes in winter, where they mate and give birth (Lockyer and Brown 1981). Their summer range in the North Atlantic extends from Davis Strait, Denmark Strait, and the waters north of Svalbard and the Barents Sea, south to the Gulf of St. Lawrence and the Bay of Biscay (Rice 1998). Although the winter range is mostly unknown, some occur near Cape Verde at that time of year (Rice 1998).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the western North Atlantic, blue whales have been detected acoustically off North Carolina during all seasons, with the greatest number of detections during fall and winter (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; PACM 2025). South of North Carolina, no acoustic detections have been recorded during May and June (Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; PACM 2025). However, blue whales have been detected acoustically in the deep waters of Blake Plateau from summer through winter (Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; PACM 2025). There are no records of blue whales in the OBIS database for the proposed survey area (OBIS 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Sei Whale</E>
                        —Sei whales are found in all ocean basins (Horwood 2018) but appear to prefer mid-latitude temperate waters (Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Habitat suitability models indicate that sei whale distribution is related to cool water with high chlorophyll levels (Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017; Chavez-Rosales 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). They occur in deeper waters characteristic of the continental shelf edge region (Hain 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1985) and in other regions of steep bathymetric relief such as seamounts and canyons (Kenney and Winn 1987; Gregr and Trites 2001).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the North Atlantic, there are three sei whale populations: Nova Scotia, Iceland-Denmark Strait, and Eastern (Donovan 1991). They undertake seasonal migrations to feed in subpolar latitudes during summer and return to lower latitudes during winter to calve (Gambell 1985; Horwood 2018). A small number of individuals have been sighted in the eastern North Atlantic between October and December, indicating that some animals may remain at higher latitudes during winter (Evans 1992). Sei whales have been seen from South Carolina south into the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean during winter (Rice 1998); however, the location of sei whale wintering grounds in the North Atlantic is unknown (Víkingsson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Sei whales have been acoustically detected off North Carolina and Blake Plateau mainly during winter (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; PACM 2025). Fewer detections were made off North Carolina during summer and fall (Davis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Acoustic detections have been made just west of the proposed survey area during November through February (Kowarski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; PACM 2025). There are no sightings in the OBIS database for the proposed survey area; the closest sightings are located ~120 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18029"/>
                        km to the west and were made during January (OBIS 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Sperm Whale</E>
                        —The sperm whale is widely distributed, occurring from the edge of the polar pack ice to the Equator in both hemispheres, with the sexes occupying different distributions (Whitehead 2018). Their distribution and relative abundance can vary in response to prey availability, most notably squid (Jaquet and Gendron 2002). Females generally inhabit waters &gt;1,000 m deep at latitudes &lt;40° where sea surface temperatures are &lt;15° C; adult males move to higher latitudes as they grow older and larger in size, returning to warm-water breeding grounds (Whitehead 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the Northwest Atlantic, the shelf edge, oceanic waters, seamounts, and canyon shelf edges are predicted habitats of sperm whales (Waring 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001). Off the U.S. coast east coast, they are also known to concentrate in regions with well-developed temperature gradients, such as along the edges of the Gulf Stream and warm core rings, which may aggregate their primary prey, squid (Jaquet 1996). Based on modeling, sperm whales are expected to occur throughout the deeper offshore waters of the western North Atlantic (Mannocci 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017; Palka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Robertson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Numerous sightings of sperm whales have been made off North Carolina from winter through spring (DoN 2008a, b), and off Florida from winter through summer (DoN 2008c). Acoustic detections have also been made off North Carolina and the western edge of the Blake Plateau, as well as in deeper water offshore during most of the year (Stanistreet 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Krowaski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). In addition to whaling records, there are 14 sighting records in the OBIS database for the proposed survey area; all were made from April to July 2004-2005 (OBIS 2025).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Hearing</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok and Ketten 1999; Au and Hastings 2008). To reflect this, Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007, 2019) recommended that marine mammals be divided into hearing groups based on directly measured (behavioral or auditory evoked potential techniques) or estimated hearing ranges (behavioral response data, anatomical modeling, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ). Generalized hearing ranges were chosen based on the ~65 decibel (dB) threshold from composite audiograms, previous analyses in NMFS (2018), and/or data from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) and Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019). We note that the names of two hearing groups and the generalized hearing ranges of all marine mammal hearing groups have been recently updated (NMFS 2024) as reflected below in table 2.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s150,xs80">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Marine Mammal Hearing Groups</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[NMFS 2024]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Generalized hearing range *</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Low-frequency (LF) cetaceans (baleen whales)</ENT>
                            <ENT>7 Hz to 36 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">High-frequency (HF) cetaceans (dolphins, toothed whales, beaked whales, bottlenose whales)</ENT>
                            <ENT>150 Hz to 160 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Very High-frequency (VHF) cetaceans (true porpoises,
                                <E T="03"> Kogia,</E>
                                 river dolphins, Cephalorhynchid, 
                                <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus cruciger</E>
                                 &amp; 
                                <E T="03">L. australis</E>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>200 Hz to 165 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Phocid pinnipeds (PW) (underwater) (true seals)</ENT>
                            <ENT>40 Hz to 90 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Otariid pinnipeds (OW) (underwater) (sea lions and fur seals)</ENT>
                            <ENT>60 Hz to 68 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * Represents the generalized hearing range for the entire group as a composite (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             all species within the group), where individual species' hearing ranges may not be as broad. Generalized hearing range chosen based on ~65 dB threshold from composite audiogram, previous analysis in NMFS 2018, and/or data from Southall 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             (2007); Southall 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             (2019). Additionally, animals are able to detect very loud sounds above and below that “generalized” hearing range. Hz = Hertz.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2024) for a review of available information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                    <P>This section provides a discussion of the ways in which components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section later in this document includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination section considers the content of this section, the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, and the Proposed Mitigation section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and whether those impacts are reasonably expected to, or reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Active Acoustic Sound Sources</HD>
                    <P>This section contains a brief technical background on sound, the characteristics of certain sound types, and on metrics used in this proposal inasmuch as the information is relevant to the specified activity and to a discussion of the potential effects of the specified activity on marine mammals found later in this document.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sound travels in waves, the basic components of which are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude. Frequency is the number of pressure waves that pass by a reference point per unit of time and is measured in hertz (Hz) or cycles per second. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks or corresponding points of a sound wave (length of one cycle). Higher frequency sounds have shorter wavelengths than lower frequency sounds, and typically attenuate (decrease) more rapidly, except in certain cases in shallower water. Amplitude is the height of the sound pressure wave or the “loudness” of a sound and is typically described using the relative unit of the dB. A sound pressure level (SPL) in dB is described as the ratio between a measured pressure and a reference pressure (for underwater sound, this is 1 micropascal (μPa)) and is a logarithmic unit that accounts for large variations in amplitude; therefore, a relatively small change in dB corresponds to large changes in sound pressure. The source level (SL) represents the SPL referenced at a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18030"/>
                        distance of 1 m from the source (referenced to (re) 1 μPa) while the received level is the SPL at the listener's position (re 1 μPa).
                    </P>
                    <P>Root mean square (RMS) is the quadratic mean sound pressure over the duration of an impulse. RMS is calculated by squaring all of the sound amplitudes, averaging the squares, and then taking the square root of the average (Urick 1983). RMS accounts for both positive and negative values; squaring the pressures makes all values positive so that they may be accounted for in the summation of pressure levels (Hastings and Popper 2005). This measurement is often used in the context of discussing behavioral effects, in part because behavioral effects, which often result from auditory cues, may be better expressed through averaged units than by peak pressures.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sound exposure level (SEL; represented as dB re 1 μPa
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        −s) represents the total energy contained within a pulse and considers both intensity and duration of exposure. Peak sound pressure (also referred to as zero-to-peak sound pressure or 0-p) is the maximum instantaneous sound pressure measurable in the water at a specified distance from the source and is represented in the same units as the RMS sound pressure. Another common metric is peak-to-peak sound pressure (pk-pk), which is the algebraic difference between the peak positive and peak negative sound pressures. Peak-to-peak pressure is typically approximately 6 dB higher than peak pressure (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007).
                    </P>
                    <P>When underwater objects vibrate or activity occurs, sound-pressure waves are created. These waves alternately compress and decompress the water as the sound wave travels. Underwater sound waves radiate in a manner similar to ripples on the surface of a pond and may be either directed in a beam or beams or may radiate in all directions (omnidirectional sources), as is the case for pulses produced by the airgun array considered here. The compressions and decompressions associated with sound waves are detected as changes in pressure by aquatic life and man-made sound receptors such as hydrophones.</P>
                    <P>
                        Even in the absence of sound from the specified activity, the underwater environment is typically loud due to ambient sound. Ambient sound is defined as environmental background sound levels lacking a single source or point (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995), and the sound level of a region is defined by the total acoustical energy being generated by known and unknown sources. These sources may include physical (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         wind and waves, earthquakes, ice, atmospheric sound), biological (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sounds produced by marine mammals, fish, and invertebrates), and anthropogenic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vessels, dredging, construction) sound. A number of sources contribute to ambient sound, including the following (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995):
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Wind and waves</E>
                        —The complex interactions between wind and water surface, including processes such as breaking waves and wave-induced bubble oscillations and cavitation, are a main source of naturally occurring ambient sound for frequencies between 200 Hz and 50 kHz (Mitson 1995). In general, ambient sound levels tend to increase with increasing wind speed and wave height. Surf sound becomes important near shore, with measurements collected at a distance of 8.5 km from shore showing an increase of 10 dB in the 100 to 700 Hz band during heavy surf conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Precipitation</E>
                        —Sound from rain and hail impacting the water surface can become an important component of total sound at frequencies above 500 Hz, and possibly down to 100 Hz during quiet times.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Biological</E>
                        —Marine mammals can contribute significantly to ambient sound levels, as can some fish and snapping shrimp. The frequency band for biological contributions is from approximately 12 Hz to over 100 kHz.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Anthropogenic</E>
                        —Sources of anthropogenic sound related to human activity include transportation (surface vessels), dredging and construction, oil and gas drilling and production, seismic surveys, sonar, explosions, and ocean acoustic studies. Vessel noise typically dominates the total ambient sound for frequencies between 20 and 300 Hz. In general, the frequencies of anthropogenic sounds are below 1 kHz and, if higher frequency sound levels are created, they attenuate rapidly. Sound from identifiable anthropogenic sources other than the activity of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a passing vessel) is sometimes termed background sound, as opposed to ambient sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The sum of the various natural and anthropogenic sound sources at any given location and time—which comprise “ambient” or “background” sound—depends not only on the SLs (as determined by current weather conditions and levels of biological and human activity) but also on the ability of sound to propagate through the environment. In turn, sound propagation is dependent on the spatially and temporally varying properties of the water column and sea floor and is frequency dependent. As a result of this dependence on a large number of varying factors, ambient sound levels can be expected to vary widely over both coarse and fine spatial and temporal scales. Sound levels at a given frequency and location can vary by 10-20 dB from day to day (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). The result is that, depending on the source type and its intensity, sound from a given activity may be a negligible addition to the local environment or could form a distinctive signal that may affect marine mammals. Details of source types are described in the following text.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Sounds are often considered to fall into one of two general types: Pulsed and non-pulsed. The distinction between these two sound types is important because they have differing potential to cause physical effects, particularly with regard to hearing (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         NMFS 2018; Ward 1997 in Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Please see Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) for an in-depth discussion of these concepts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Pulsed sound sources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         airguns, explosions, gunshots, sonic booms, impact pile driving) produce signals that are brief (typically considered to be less than one second), broadband, atonal transients (American National Standards Institute (ANSI) 1986, 2005; Harris 1998; National Institute for Occupational Health and Safety (NIOSH) 1998; International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 2003) and occur either as isolated events or repeated in some succession. Pulsed sounds are all characterized by a relatively rapid rise from ambient pressure to a maximal pressure value followed by a rapid decay period that may include a period of diminishing, oscillating maximal and minimal pressures, and generally have an increased capacity to induce physical injury as compared with sounds that lack these features.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Non-pulsed sounds can be tonal, narrowband, or broadband, brief or prolonged, and may be either continuous or non-continuous (ANSI 1995; NIOSH 1998). Some of these non-pulsed sounds can be transient signals of short duration but without the essential properties of pulses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rapid rise time). Examples of non-pulsed sounds include those produced by vessels, aircraft, machinery operations such as drilling or dredging, vibratory pile driving, and active sonar systems (such as those used by the U.S. Navy). The duration of such sounds, as received at a distance, can be greatly extended in a highly reverberated environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Airgun arrays produce pulsed signals with energy in a frequency range from about 10-2,000 Hz, with most energy 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18031"/>
                        radiated at frequencies below 200 Hz. The amplitude of the acoustic wave emitted from the source is equal in all directions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         omnidirectional), but airgun arrays do possess some directionality due to different phase delays between guns in different directions. Airgun arrays are typically tuned to maximize functionality for data acquisition purposes, meaning that sound transmitted in horizontal directions and at higher frequencies is minimized to the extent possible.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Effects</HD>
                    <P>Here, we discuss the effects of active acoustic sources on marine mammals.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Potential Effects of Underwater Sound</E>
                         
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —Anthropogenic sounds cover a broad range of frequencies and sound levels and can have a range of highly variable impacts on marine life, from none or minor to potentially severe responses, depending on received levels, duration of exposure, behavioral context, and various other factors. The potential effects of underwater sound from active acoustic sources can potentially result in one or more of the following: Temporary or permanent hearing impairment; non-auditory physical or physiological effects; behavioral disturbance; stress; and masking (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Gordon 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Götz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). The degree of effect is intrinsically related to the signal characteristics, received level, distance from the source, and duration of the sound exposure. In general, sudden, high-level sounds can cause hearing loss, as can longer exposures to lower-level sounds. Temporary or permanent loss of hearing, if it occurs at all, will occur almost exclusively in cases where a noise is within an animal's hearing frequency range. We first describe specific manifestations of acoustic effects before providing discussion specific to the use of airgun arrays.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Please refer to the information given previously 
                            <E T="03">Description of Active Acoustic Sound Sources</E>
                             section regarding sound, characteristics of sound types, and metrics used in this document.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1995) described zones of increasing intensity of effect that might be expected to occur, in relation to distance from a source and assuming that the signal is within an animal's hearing range. First is the area within which the acoustic signal would be audible (potentially perceived) to the animal, but not strong enough to elicit any overt behavioral or physiological response. The next zone corresponds with the area where the signal is audible to the animal and of sufficient intensity to elicit behavioral or physiological response. Third is a zone within which, for signals of high intensity, the received level is sufficient to potentially cause discomfort or tissue damage to auditory or other systems. Overlaying these zones to a certain extent is the area within which masking (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when a sound interferes with or masks the ability of an animal to detect a signal of interest that is above the absolute hearing threshold) may occur; the masking zone may be highly variable in size.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We describe the more severe effects of certain non-auditory physical or physiological effects only briefly as we do not expect that use of airgun arrays are reasonably likely to result in such effects (see below for further discussion). Potential effects from impulsive sound sources can range in severity from effects such as behavioral disturbance or tactile perception to physical discomfort, slight injury of the internal organs and the auditory system, or mortality (Yelverton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1973). Non-auditory physiological effects or injuries that theoretically might occur in marine mammals exposed to high level underwater sound or as a secondary effect of extreme behavioral reactions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         change in dive profile as a result of an avoidance reaction) caused by exposure to sound include neurological effects, bubble formation, resonance effects, and other types of organ or tissue damage (Cox 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Zimmer and Tyack 2007; Tal 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). The survey activities considered here do not involve the use of devices such as explosives or mid-frequency tactical sonar that are associated with these types of effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals, like all mammals, develop increased hearing thresholds over time due to age-related degeneration of auditory pathways and sensory cells of the inner ear. This natural, age-related hearing loss is contrasted by noise-induced hearing loss (Møller 2013). Marine mammals exposed to high-intensity sound or to lower-intensity sound for prolonged periods can experience a noise-induced hearing threshold shift (TS), which NMFS defines as a change, usually an increase, in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level as a result of noise exposure (NMFS 2018, 2024). The amount of TS is customarily expressed in dB. Noise-induced hearing TS can be temporary (TTS) or permanent (PTS), and higher-level sound exposures are more likely to cause PTS or other auditory injury (AUD INJ). As described in NMFS (2018, 2024) there are numerous factors to consider when examining the consequence of TS, including, but not limited to, the signal temporal pattern (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impulsive or non-impulsive), likelihood an individual would be exposed for a long enough duration or to a high enough level to induce a TS, the magnitude of the TS, time to recovery (seconds to minutes or hours to days), the frequency range of the exposure (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         spectral content), the hearing frequency range of the exposed species relative to the signal's frequency spectrum (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         how animal uses sound within the frequency band of the signal; 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), and the overlap between the animal and the source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         spatial, temporal, and spectral).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Auditory Injury (AUD INJ)</E>
                        —NMFS (2024) defines AUD INJ as damage to the inner ear that can result in destruction of tissue, such as the loss of cochlear neuron synapses or auditory neuropathy (Houser 2021; Finneran 2024). AUD INJ may or may not result in a PTS. PTS is subsequently defined as a permanent, irreversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS 2024). PTS does not generally affect more than a limited frequency range, and an animal that has incurred PTS has some level of hearing loss at the relevant frequencies; typically animals with PTS or other AUD INJ are not functionally deaf (Au and Hastings 2008; Finneran 2016). For marine mammals, AUD INJ is considered to be possible when sound exposures are sufficient to produce 40 dB of TTS measured after exposure (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 1019). AUD INJ levels for marine mammals are estimates, as with the exception of a single study unintentionally inducing PTS in a harbor seal (
                        <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                        ) (Kastak 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019), there are no empirical data measuring AUD INJ in marine mammals largely due to the fact that, for various ethical reasons, experiments involving anthropogenic noise exposure at levels inducing AUD INJ are not typically pursued or authorized (NMFS 2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS)—</E>
                        TTS is the mildest form of hearing impairment that can occur during exposure to sound. TTS is a temporary, reversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS 2024) that represents primarily tissue fatigue (Henderson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008), and is not considered an AUD INJ. Based on data from marine mammal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18032"/>
                        TTS measurements (see Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019), a TTS of 6 dB is considered the minimum TS clearly larger than any day-to-day or session-to-session variation in a subject's normal hearing ability (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000, 2002; Schlundt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). While experiencing TTS, the hearing threshold rises, and a sound must be at a higher level in order to be heard.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In terrestrial and marine mammals, TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         there is recovery back to baseline/pre-exposure levels), can occur within a specific frequency range (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         an animal might only have a temporary loss of hearing sensitivity within a limited frequency band of its auditory range), and can be of varying amounts (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         an animal's hearing sensitivity might be reduced by only 6 dB or reduced by 30 dB). In many cases, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. While there are data on sound levels and durations necessary to elicit mild TTS for marine mammals, recovery is complicated to predict and dependent on multiple factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between TTS and AUD INJ thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals, and there are no measured PTS data for cetaceans, but such relationships are assumed to be similar to those in humans and other terrestrial mammals. AUD INJ typically occurs at exposure levels at least several dB above that inducing mild TTS (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a 40-dB TS approximates AUD INJ onset (Kryter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1966; Miller 1974), while a 6-dB TS approximates TTS onset (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Based on data from terrestrial mammals, a precautionary assumption is that the AUD INJ thresholds for impulsive sounds (such as airgun pulses as received close to the source) are at least 6 dB higher than the TTS threshold on a PK SPL basis and AUD INJ cumulative SEL (SEL
                        <E T="52">24h</E>
                        ) thresholds are 15 (impulsive sound criteria) to 20 dB (non-impulsive criteria) higher than TTS cumulative sound exposure level thresholds (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Given the higher level of sound or longer exposure duration necessary to cause AUD INJ as compared with TTS, it is considerably less likely that AUD INJ could occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         recovery time), and frequency range of TTS, and the context in which it is experienced, TTS can have effects on marine mammals ranging from discountable to serious. For example, a marine mammal may be able to readily compensate for a brief, relatively small amount of TTS in a non-critical frequency range that occurs during a time where ambient noise is lower and there are not as many competing sounds present. Alternatively, a larger amount and longer duration of TTS sustained during time when communication is critical for successful mother/calf interactions could have more serious impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) measured hearing thresholds in 3 captive bottlenose dolphins before and after exposure to 10 pulses produced by a seismic airgun in order to study TTS induced after exposure to multiple pulses. Exposures began at relatively low levels and gradually increased over a period of several months, with the highest exposures at peak SPLs from 196 to 210 dB and cumulative (unweighted) SELs from 193-195 dB. No substantial TTS was observed. In addition, behavioral reactions were observed that indicated that animals can learn behaviors that effectively mitigate noise exposures (although exposure patterns must be learned, which is less likely in wild animals than for the captive animals considered in this study). The authors note that the failure to induce more significant auditory effects was likely due to the intermittent nature of exposure, the relatively low peak pressure produced by the acoustic source, and the low-frequency energy in airgun pulses as compared with the frequency range of best sensitivity for dolphins and other high-frequency cetaceans.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Currently, TTS data only exists for four species of cetaceans (bottlenose dolphin, beluga whale (
                        <E T="03">Delphinapterus leucas</E>
                        ), harbor porpoise (
                        <E T="03">Phocoena phocoena</E>
                        ), and Yangtze finless porpoise (
                        <E T="03">Neophocaena asiaeorientalis</E>
                        )) exposed to a limited number of sound sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         mostly tones and octave-band noise) in laboratory settings (Finneran 2015). In general, harbor porpoises have a lower TTS onset than other measured cetacean species (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        015). Additionally, the existing marine mammal TTS data come from a limited number of individuals within these species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Critical questions remain regarding the rate of TTS growth and recovery after exposure to intermittent noise and the effects of single and multiple pulses. Data at present are also insufficient to construct generalized models for recovery and determine the time necessary to treat subsequent exposures as independent events. More information is needed on the relationship between auditory evoked potential and behavioral measures of TTS for various stimuli. For summaries of data on TTS in marine mammals or for further discussion of TTS onset thresholds, please see Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007, 2019), Finneran and Jenkins (2012), Finneran (2015), and NMFS (2018, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Behavioral Effects</HD>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral disturbance may include a variety of effects, including subtle changes in behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         minor or brief avoidance of an area or changes in vocalizations), more conspicuous changes in similar behavioral activities, and more sustained and/or potentially severe reactions, such as displacement from or abandonment of high-quality habitat. Behavioral responses to sound are highly variable and context-specific, and any reactions depend on numerous intrinsic and extrinsic factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         species, state of maturity, experience, current activity, reproductive state, auditory sensitivity, time of day), as well as the interplay between factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019; Weilgart 2007; Archer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010). Behavioral reactions can vary not only among individuals but also within an individual, depending on previous experience with a sound source, context, and numerous other factors (Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), and can vary depending on characteristics associated with the sound source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         whether it is moving or stationary, number of sources, distance from the source). Please see appendices B-C of Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) for a review of studies involving marine mammal behavioral responses to sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). Animals are most likely to habituate to sounds that are predictable and unvarying. It is important to note that habituation is appropriately considered as a “progressive reduction in response to stimuli that are perceived as neither aversive nor beneficial,” rather than as, more generally, moderation in response to human disturbance (Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). The opposite process is sensitization, when an unpleasant experience leads to subsequent responses, often in the form of avoidance, at a lower level of exposure. As noted, behavioral state may affect the type of response. For example, animals that are resting may show greater behavioral change in response to disturbing sound levels than animals 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18033"/>
                        that are highly motivated to remain in an area for feeding (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; NRC 2003; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). Controlled experiments with captive marine mammals have shown pronounced behavioral reactions, including avoidance of loud sound sources (Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1997). Observed responses of wild marine mammals to loud pulsed sound sources (typically seismic airguns or acoustic harassment devices) have been varied but often consist of avoidance behavior or other behavioral changes suggesting discomfort (Morton and Symonds 2002; see also Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). However, many delphinids approach acoustic source vessels with no apparent discomfort or obvious behavioral change (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Barkaszi 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012, Barkaszi and Kelly, 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal. If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or species. However, if a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Lusseau and Bejder 2007; Weilgart 2007; NRC 2005). There are broad categories of potential response, which we describe in greater detail here, that include alteration of dive behavior, alteration of foraging behavior, effects to breathing, interference with or alteration of vocalization, avoidance, and flight.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Changes in dive behavior can vary widely, and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Frankel and Clark 2000; Ng and Leung 2003; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Goldbogen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013a, b). Variations in dive behavior may reflect disruptions in biologically significant activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         foraging) or they may be of little biological significance. The impact of an alteration to dive behavior resulting from an acoustic exposure depends on what the animal is doing at the time of the exposure and the type and magnitude of the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Disruption of feeding behavior can be difficult to correlate with anthropogenic sound exposure, so it is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bubble nets or sediment plumes), or changes in dive behavior. As for other types of behavioral response, the frequency, duration, and temporal pattern of signal presentation, as well as differences in species sensitivity, are likely contributing factors to differences in response in any given circumstance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Croll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Madsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Yazvenko 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). A determination of whether foraging disruptions affect fitness consequences would require information on or estimates of the energetic requirements of the affected individuals and the relationship between prey availability, foraging effort and success, and the life history stage of the animal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Visual tracking, passive acoustic monitoring, and movement recording tags were used to quantify sperm whale behavior prior to, during, and following exposure to airgun arrays at received levels in the range 140-160 dB at distances of 7-13 km, following a phase-in of sound intensity and full array exposures at 1-13 km (Madsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Sperm whales did not exhibit horizontal avoidance behavior at the surface. However, foraging behavior may have been affected. The sperm whales exhibited 19 percent less vocal, or buzz, rate during full exposure relative to post exposure, and the whale that was approached most closely had an extended resting period and did not resume foraging until the airguns had ceased firing. The remaining whales continued to execute foraging dives throughout exposure; however, swimming movements during foraging dives were 6 percent lower during exposure than control periods (Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). These data raise concerns that seismic surveys may impact foraging behavior in sperm whales, although more data are required to understand whether the differences were due to exposure or natural variation in sperm whale behavior (Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Changes in respiration naturally vary with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that respiration rates may either be unaffected or could increase, depending on the species and signal characteristics, again highlighting the importance in understanding species differences in the tolerance of underwater noise when determining the potential for impacts resulting from anthropogenic sound exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001, 2005, 2006; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2016).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can occur for any of these modes and may result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise or may reflect increased vigilance or a startle response. For example, in the presence of potentially masking signals, humpback whales and killer whales have been observed to increase the length of their songs or amplitude of calls (Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Fristrup 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), while right whales have been observed to shift the frequency content of their calls upward while reducing the rate of calling in areas of increased anthropogenic noise (Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). In some cases, animals may cease sound production during production of aversive signals (Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Cerchio 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) used PAM to document the presence of singing humpback whales off the coast of northern Angola and to opportunistically test for the effect of seismic survey activity on the number of singing whales. Two recording units were deployed between March and December 2008 in the offshore environment; numbers of singers were counted every hour. Generalized additive mixed models were used to assess the effect of survey day (seasonality), hour (diel variation), moon phase, and received levels of noise (measured from a single pulse during each 10 minutes sampled period) on singer number. The number of singers significantly decreased with increasing received level of noise, suggesting that humpback whale communication was disrupted to some extent by the survey activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) reported acoustic and behavioral changes by fin whales in response to shipping and airgun noise. Acoustic features of fin whale song notes recorded in the Mediterranean Sea and northeast Atlantic Ocean were compared for areas with different shipping noise levels and traffic intensities and during a seismic airgun survey. During the first 72 hours of the survey, a steady decrease in song received levels and bearings to singers indicated that whales moved away from the acoustic source and out of the study area. This displacement persisted for a time period well beyond the 10-day duration of seismic airgun activity, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18034"/>
                        providing evidence that fin whales may avoid an area for an extended period in the presence of increased noise. The authors hypothesize that fin whale acoustic communication is modified to compensate for increased background noise and that a sensitization process may play a role in the observed temporary displacement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Seismic pulses at average received levels of 131 dB re 1 μPa
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        -s caused blue whales to increase call production (Di Iorio and Clark 2010). In contrast, McDonald 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1995) tracked a blue whale with seafloor seismometers and reported that it stopped vocalizing and changed its travel direction at a range of 10 km from the acoustic source vessel (estimated received level 143 dB pk-pk). Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) found that bowhead whale call rates dropped significantly at onset of airgun use at sites with a median distance of 41-45 km from the survey. Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) expanded this analysis to show that whales actually increased calling rates as soon as airgun signals were detectable before ultimately decreasing calling rates at higher received levels (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         10-minute cumulative sound exposure level (SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                        ) of ~127 dB). Overall, these results suggest that bowhead whales may adjust their vocal output in an effort to compensate for noise before ceasing vocalization effort and ultimately deflecting from the acoustic source (Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015). These studies demonstrate that even low levels of noise received far from the source can induce changes in vocalization and/or behavior for mysticetes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). For example, gray whales are known to change direction—deflecting from customary migratory paths—in order to avoid noise from seismic surveys (Malme 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1984). Humpback whales show avoidance behavior in the presence of an active seismic array during observational studies and controlled exposure experiments in western Australia (McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). Avoidance may be short-term, with animals returning to the area once the noise has ceased (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Goold 1996; Stone 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Morton and Symonds 2002; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Longer-term displacement is possible, however, which may lead to changes in abundance or distribution patterns of the affected species in the affected region if habituation to the presence of the sound does not occur (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Teilmann 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) detail the potential effects of noise on marine mammal populations with high site fidelity, including displacement and auditory masking, noting that a lack of observed response does not imply absence of fitness costs and that apparent tolerance of disturbance may have population-level impacts that are less obvious and difficult to document. Avoidance of overlap between disturbing noise and areas and/or times of particular importance for sensitive species may be critical to avoiding population-level impacts because (particularly for animals with high site fidelity) there may be a strong motivation to remain in the area despite negative impacts. Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) state that, for these animals, remaining in a disturbed area may reflect a lack of alternatives rather than a lack of effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) specifically discuss beaked whales, stating that until recently most knowledge of beaked whales was derived from strandings, as they have been involved in atypical mass stranding events associated with mid-frequency active sonar (MFAS) training operations. Given these observations and recent research, beaked whales appear to be particularly sensitive and vulnerable to certain types of acoustic disturbance relative to most other marine mammal species. Individual beaked whales reacted strongly to experiments using simulated MFAS at low received levels, by moving away from the sound source and stopping foraging for extended periods. These responses, if on a frequent basis, could result in significant fitness costs to individuals (Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         2017). Additionally, difficulty in detection of beaked whales due to their cryptic surfacing behavior and silence when near the surface pose problems for mitigation measures employed to protect beaked whales. Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) specifically states that failure to consider both displacement of beaked whales from their habitat and noise exposure could lead to more severe biological consequences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         directed movement, rate of travel). Relatively little information on flight responses of marine mammals to anthropogenic signals exist, although observations of flight responses to the presence of predators have occurred (Connor and Heithaus 1996). The result of a flight response could range from brief, temporary exertion and displacement from the area where the signal provokes flight to, in extreme cases, marine mammal strandings (Evans and England 2001). However, it should be noted that response to a perceived predator does not necessarily invoke flight (Ford and Reeves 2008), and whether individuals are solitary or in groups may influence the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when a response consists of increased vigilance, it may come at the cost of decreased attention to other critical behaviors such as foraging or resting). These effects have generally not been demonstrated for marine mammals, but studies involving fish and terrestrial animals have shown that increased vigilance may substantially reduce feeding rates (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Beauchamp and Livoreil 1997; Fritz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Purser and Radford 2011). In addition, chronic disturbance can cause population declines through reduction of fitness (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         decline in body condition) and subsequent reduction in reproductive success, survival, or both (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Harrington and Veitch 1992; Daan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Bradshaw 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998). However, Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2006) reported that increased vigilance in bottlenose dolphins exposed to sound over a 5-day period did not cause any sleep deprivation or stress effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors, such as sound exposure, are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Consequently, a behavioral response lasting less than 1 day and not recurring on subsequent days is not considered particularly severe unless it could directly affect reproduction or survival (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Note that there is a difference between multi-day substantive behavioral reactions and multi-day anthropogenic activities. For example, just because an activity lasts for multiple days does not necessarily mean that individual animals are either exposed to activity-related stressors for multiple days or, further, exposed in a manner resulting in sustained multi-day substantive behavioral responses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Stone (2015) reported data from at-sea observations during 1,196 seismic surveys from 1994 to 2010. When arrays of large airguns (considered to be 500 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18035"/>
                        in
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         (8,194 cc) or more in that study) were firing, lateral displacement, more localized avoidance, or other changes in behavior were evident for most odontocetes. However, significant responses to large arrays were found only for the minke whale and fin whale. Behavioral responses observed included changes in swimming or surfacing behavior, with indications that cetaceans remained near the water surface at these times. Cetaceans were recorded as feeding less often when large arrays were active. Behavioral observations of gray whales during a seismic survey monitored whale movements and respirations pre-, during, and post-seismic survey (Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Behavioral state and water depth were the best “natural” predictors of whale movements and respiration and, after considering natural variation, none of the response variables were significantly associated with seismic survey or vessel sounds.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Stress Responses</E>
                        —An animal's perception of a threat may be sufficient to trigger stress responses consisting of some combination of behavioral responses, autonomic nervous system responses, neuroendocrine responses, or immune responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Seyle 1950; Moberg 2000). In many cases, an animal's first and sometimes most economical (in terms of energetic costs) response is behavioral avoidance of the potential stressor. Autonomic nervous system responses to stress typically involve changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal activity. These responses have a relatively short duration and may or may not have a significant long-term effect on an animal's fitness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Moberg 1987; Blecha 2000). Increases in the circulation of glucocorticoids are also equated with stress (Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004).
                    </P>
                    <P>The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and distress is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other functions. This state of distress will last until the animal replenishes its energetic reserves sufficiently to restore normal function.</P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well-studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Holberton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Hood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998; Jessop 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Krausman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Lankford 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Stress responses due to exposure to anthropogenic sounds or other stressors and their effects on marine mammals have also been reviewed (Fair and Becker 2000; Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002b) and, more rarely, studied in wild populations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002a). For example, Rolland 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) found that noise reduction from reduced ship traffic in the Bay of Fundy was associated with decreased stress in North Atlantic right whales. These and other studies lead to a reasonable expectation that some marine mammals will experience physiological stress responses upon exposure to acoustic stressors and that it is possible that some of these would be classified as “distress.” In addition, any animal experiencing TTS would likely also experience stress responses (NRC 2003).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Auditory Masking</E>
                        —Sound can disrupt behavior through masking, or interfering with, an animal's ability to detect, recognize, or discriminate between acoustic signals of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         those used for intraspecific communication and social interactions, prey detection, predator avoidance, navigation) (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Masking occurs when the receipt of a sound is interfered with by another coincident sound at similar frequencies and at similar or higher intensity, and may occur whether the sound is natural (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         snapping shrimp, wind, waves, precipitation) or anthropogenic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         shipping, sonar, seismic exploration) in origin. The ability of a noise source to mask biologically important sounds depends on the characteristics of both the noise source and the signal of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         signal-to-noise ratio, temporal variability, direction), in relation to each other and to an animal's hearing abilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sensitivity, frequency range, critical ratios, frequency discrimination, directional discrimination, age or TTS hearing loss), and existing ambient noise and propagation conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Under certain circumstances, significant masking could disrupt behavioral patterns, which in turn could affect fitness for survival and reproduction. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect.</P>
                    <P>
                        The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in predicting any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals may have less effect on high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes but are more likely to affect detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as those produced by surf and some prey species. The masking of communication signals by anthropogenic noise may be considered as a reduction in the communication space of animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and may result in energetic or other costs as animals change their vocalization behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Di Iorio and Clark 2009; Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Masking may be less in situations where the signal and noise come from different directions (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995), through amplitude modulation of the signal, or through other compensatory behaviors (Houser and Moore 2014). Masking can be tested directly in captive species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Erbe 2008), but in wild populations it must be either modeled or inferred from evidence of masking compensation. There are few studies addressing real-world masking sounds likely to be experienced by marine mammals in the wild (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Branstetter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Masking affects both senders and receivers of acoustic signals and can potentially have long-term chronic effects on marine mammals at the population level as well as at the individual level. Low-frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of SPL) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, with most of the increase from distant commercial shipping (Hildebrand 2009). All anthropogenic sound sources, but especially chronic and lower-frequency signals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         from vessel traffic), contribute to elevated ambient sound levels, thus intensifying masking.
                        <PRTPAGE P="18036"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Masking effects of pulsed sounds (even from large arrays of airguns) on marine mammal calls and other natural sounds are expected to be limited, although there are few specific data on this. Because of the intermittent nature and low duty cycle of seismic pulses, animals can emit and receive sounds in the relatively quiet intervals between pulses. However, in exceptional situations, reverberation occurs for much or all of the interval between pulses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Simard 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Clark and Gagnon 2006), which could mask calls. Situations with prolonged strong reverberation are infrequent. However, it is common for reverberation to cause some lesser degree of elevation of the background level between airgun pulses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Gedamke 2011; Guerra 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011, 2016; Klinck 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Guan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015), and this weaker reverberation presumably reduces the detection range of calls and other natural sounds to some degree. Guerra 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) reported that ambient noise levels between seismic pulses were elevated as a result of reverberation at ranges of 50 km from the seismic source. Based on measurements in deep water of the Southern Ocean, Gedamke (2011) estimated that the slight elevation of background noise levels during intervals between seismic pulses reduced blue and fin whale communication space by as much as 36-51 percent when a seismic survey was operating 450-2,800 km away. Based on preliminary modeling, Wittekind 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) reported that airgun sounds could reduce the communication range of blue and fin whales 2,000 km from the seismic source. Nieukirk 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) and Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) noted the potential for masking effects from seismic surveys on large whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some baleen and toothed whales are known to continue calling in the presence of seismic pulses, and their calls usually can be heard between the pulses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Nieukirk 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Thode 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Bröker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Sciacca 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Cerchio 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) suggested that the breeding display of humpback whales off Angola could be disrupted by seismic sounds, as singing activity declined with increasing received levels. In addition, some cetaceans are known to change their calling rates, shift their peak frequencies, or otherwise modify their vocal behavior in response to airgun sounds (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Di Iorio and Clark 2010; Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015). The hearing systems of baleen whales are more sensitive to low-frequency sounds than are the ears of the small odontocetes that have been studied directly (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         MacGillivray 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). The sounds important to small odontocetes are predominantly at much higher frequencies than are the dominant components of airgun sounds, thus limiting the potential for masking. In general, masking effects of seismic pulses are expected to be minor, given the normally intermittent nature of seismic pulses.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vessel Noise</HD>
                    <P>
                        Vessel noise from the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         could affect marine animals in the proposed survey areas. Houghton 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) proposed that vessel speed is the most important predictor of received noise levels, and Putland 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) also reported reduced sound levels with decreased vessel speed. However, some energy is also produced at higher frequencies (Hermannsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014); low levels of high-frequency sound from vessels have been shown to elicit responses in harbor porpoise (Dyndo 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Vessel noise, through masking, can reduce the effective communication distance of a marine mammal if the frequency of the sound source is close to that used by the animal, and if the sound is present for a significant fraction of time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Jensen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Gervaise 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Hatch 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Rice 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014; Dunlop 2015; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Jones 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017; Putland 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). In addition to the frequency and duration of the masking sound, the strength, temporal pattern, and location of the introduced sound also play a role in the extent of the masking (Branstetter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2016; Finneran and Branstetter 2013; Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). Branstetter 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) reported that time-domain metrics are also important in describing and predicting masking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Baleen whales are thought to be more sensitive to sound at these low frequencies than are toothed whales (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         MacGillivray 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), possibly causing localized avoidance of the proposed survey area during seismic operations. Many odontocetes show considerable tolerance of vessel traffic, although they sometimes react at long distances if confined by ice or shallow water, if previously harassed by vessels, or have had little or no recent exposure to vessels (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Pirotta 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) noted that the physical presence of vessels, not just ship noise, disturbed the foraging activity of bottlenose dolphins. There is little data on the behavioral reactions of beaked whales to vessel noise, though they seem to avoid approaching vessels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Würsig 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998) or dive for an extended period when approached by a vessel (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kasuya, 1986).
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary, project vessel sounds would not be at levels expected to cause anything more than possible localized and temporary behavioral changes in marine mammals, and would not be expected to result in significant negative effects on individuals or at the population level. In addition, in all oceans of the world, large vessel traffic is currently so prevalent that it is commonly considered a usual source of ambient sound (NSF-USGS 2011).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vessel Strike</HD>
                    <P>
                        Vessel collisions with marine mammals, or vessel strikes, can result in death or serious injury of the animal. Wounds resulting from vessel strike may include massive trauma, hemorrhaging, broken bones, or propeller lacerations (Knowlton and Kraus 2001). An animal at the surface may be struck directly by a vessel, a surfacing animal may hit the bottom of a vessel, or an animal just below the surface may be cut by a vessel's propeller. Superficial strikes may not kill or result in the death of the animal. These interactions are typically associated with large whales (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fin whales), which are occasionally found draped across the bulbous bow of large commercial vessels upon arrival in port. Although smaller cetaceans are more maneuverable in relation to large vessels than are large whales, they may also be susceptible to strike. The severity of injuries typically depends on the size and speed of the vessel, with the probability of death or serious injury increasing as vessel speed increases (Knowlton and Kraus 2001; Laist 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Vanderlaan and Taggart 2007; Conn and Silber 2013). Impact forces increase with speed, as does the probability of a strike at a given distance (Silber 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; Gende 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Pace and Silber (2005) also found that the probability of death or serious injury increased rapidly with increasing vessel speed. Specifically, the predicted probability of serious injury or death increased from 45 to 75 percent as vessel speed increased from 10 to 14 knots (kn, 26 kilometer per hour (kph)), and exceeded 90 percent at 17 kn (31 kph). Higher speeds during collisions result in greater force of impact, but higher speeds also appear to increase the chance of severe injuries or death through increased likelihood of collision by pulling whales toward the vessel (Clyne 1999; Knowlton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). In a separate study, Vanderlaan and Taggart (2007) analyzed the probability of lethal mortality of large whales at a given speed, showing that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18037"/>
                        the greatest rate of change in the probability of a lethal injury to a large whale as a function of vessel speed occurs between 8.6 and 15 kn (28 kph). The chances of a lethal injury decline from approximately 80 percent at 15 kn (28 kph) to approximately 20 percent at 8.6 kn (16 kph). At speeds below 11.8 kn (22 kph), the chances of lethal injury drop below 50 percent, while the probability asymptotically increases toward one hundred percent above 15 kn (28 kph).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         will travel at a speed of 4 kn (7.6 kph) while towing seismic survey gear. At this speed, both the possibility of striking a marine mammal and the possibility of a strike resulting in serious injury or mortality are discountable. At average transit speed, the probability of serious injury or mortality resulting from a strike is less than 50 percent. However, the likelihood of a strike actually happening is again discountable. Vessel strikes, as analyzed in the studies cited above, generally involve commercial shipping, which is much more common in both space and time than is geophysical survey activity. Jensen and Silber (2004) summarized vessel strikes of large whales worldwide from 1975 to 2003 and found that most collisions occurred in the open ocean and involved large vessels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         commercial shipping). No such incidents were reported for geophysical survey vessels during that time period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        It is possible for vessel strikes to occur while traveling at slow speeds. For example, a hydrographic survey vessel traveling at low speed (5.5 kn (10 kph)) while conducting mapping surveys off the central California coast struck and killed a blue whale in 2009. The State of California determined that the whale had suddenly and unexpectedly surfaced beneath the hull, with the result that the propeller severed the whale's vertebrae, and that this was an unavoidable event. This strike represents the only such incident in approximately 540,000 hours of similar coastal mapping activity (
                        <E T="03">p</E>
                         = 1.9 × 10
                        <E T="51">−6</E>
                        ; 95 percent confidence interval = 0-5.5 × 10
                        <E T="51">−6</E>
                        ; NMFS 2013). In addition, an R/V reported a fatal strike in 2011 of a dolphin in the Atlantic, demonstrating that it is possible for strikes involving smaller cetaceans to occur. In that case, the incident report indicated that an animal apparently was struck by the vessel's propeller as it was intentionally swimming near the vessel. While indicative of the type of unusual events that cannot be ruled out, neither of these instances represents a circumstance that would be considered reasonably foreseeable or that would be considered preventable.
                    </P>
                    <P>Although the likelihood of the vessel striking a marine mammal is low, we propose a robust vessel strike avoidance protocol (see Proposed Mitigation), which we believe eliminates any foreseeable risk of vessel strike during transit. We anticipate that vessel collisions involving a seismic data acquisition vessel towing gear, while not impossible, represent unlikely, unpredictable events for which there are no preventive measures. Given the proposed mitigation measures, the relatively slow speed of the vessel towing gear, the presence of bridge crew watching for obstacles at all times (including marine mammals), and the presence of marine mammal observers, the possibility of vessel strike is discountable and, further, were a strike of a large whale to occur, it would be unlikely to result in serious injury or mortality. No incidental take resulting from vessel strike is anticipated, and this potential effect of the specified activity will not be discussed further in the following analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Stranding</HD>
                    <P>
                        When a living or dead marine mammal swims or floats onto shore and becomes “beached” or incapable of returning to sea, the event is a “stranding” (Geraci 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Perrin and Geraci 2002; Geraci and Lounsbury 2005; NMFS 2007). The legal definition for a stranding under the MMPA is that a marine mammal is dead and is on a beach or shore of the United States; or in waters under the jurisdiction of the United States (including any navigable waters); or a marine mammal is alive and is on a beach or shore of the United States and is unable to return to the water; on a beach or shore of the United States and, although able to return to the water, is in need of apparent medical attention; or in the waters under the jurisdiction of the United States (including any navigable waters), but is unable to return to its natural habitat under its own power or without assistance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals strand for a variety of reasons, such as infectious agents, biotoxicosis, starvation, fishery interaction, vessel strike, unusual oceanographic or weather events, sound exposure, or combinations of these stressors sustained concurrently or in series. However, the cause or causes of most strandings are unknown (Geraci 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1976; Eaton 1979; Odell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1980; Best 1982). Numerous studies suggest that the physiology, behavior, habitat relationships, age, or condition of cetaceans may cause them to strand or might predispose them to strand when exposed to another phenomenon. These suggestions are consistent with the conclusions of numerous other studies that have demonstrated that combinations of dissimilar stressors commonly combine to kill an animal or dramatically reduce its fitness, even though one exposure without the other does not produce the same result (Chroussos 2000; Creel 2005; DeVries 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Fair and Becker 2000; Foley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Moberg 2000; Relyea 2005a 2005b; Romero 2004; Sih 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There is no conclusive evidence that exposure to airgun noise results in behaviorally-mediated forms of injury. Behaviorally-mediated injury (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         mass stranding events) has been primarily associated with beaked whales exposed to MFAS. MFAS and the alerting stimulus used in Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2004) are very different from the noise produced by airguns. One should therefore not expect the same reaction to airgun noise as to these other sources. As explained below, military MFAS is very different from airguns, and one should not assume that airguns will cause the same effects as MFAS (including strandings).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To understand why military MFAS affects beaked whales differently than airguns do, it is important to note the distinction between behavioral sensitivity and susceptibility to AUD INJ. To understand the potential for AUD INJ in a particular marine mammal species in relation to a given acoustic signal, the frequency range the species is able to hear is critical, as well as the species' auditory sensitivity to frequencies within that range. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities across all frequencies and, therefore, species are grouped into hearing groups with generalized hearing ranges assigned on the basis of available data (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Hearing ranges as well as auditory sensitivity/susceptibility to frequencies within those ranges vary across the different groups. For example, in terms of hearing range, the very high-frequency cetaceans (
                        <E T="03">e.g., Kogia</E>
                         spp.) have a generalized hearing range of frequencies between 200 Hz and 165 kHz, while high-frequency cetaceans—such as dolphins and beaked whales—have a generalized hearing range between 150 Hz to 160 kHz. Regarding auditory susceptibility within the hearing range, while high-frequency cetaceans and very high-frequency cetaceans have roughly similar hearing ranges, the very high-frequency group is much more susceptible to noise-induced hearing loss during sound exposure, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="18038"/>
                        these species have lower thresholds for these effects than other hearing groups (NMFS 2018). Referring to a species as behaviorally sensitive to noise simply means that an animal of that species is more likely to respond to lower received levels of sound than an animal of another species that is considered less behaviorally sensitive. So, while dolphin species and beaked whale species—both in the high-frequency cetacean hearing group—are assumed to generally hear the same sounds equally well and be equally susceptible to noise-induced hearing loss (AUD INJ), the best available information indicates that a beaked whale is more likely to behaviorally respond to that sound at a lower received level compared to an animal from other mid-frequency cetacean species that are less behaviorally sensitive. This distinction is important because, while beaked whales are more likely to respond behaviorally to sounds than are many other species (even at lower levels), they cannot hear the predominant, lower frequency sounds from seismic airguns as well as sounds that have more energy at frequencies that beaked whales can hear better (such as military MFAS).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Military MFA sonar effects beaked whales differently than airguns do because it produces energy at different frequencies than airguns. High-frequency cetacean hearing is generically thought to be best between 8.8 and 110 kHz, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         these cutoff values define the range above and below which a species in the group is assumed to have declining auditory sensitivity, until reaching frequencies that cannot be heard (NMFS 2018, 2024). However, beaked whale hearing is likely best within a higher, narrower range (20-80 kHz, with best sensitivity around 40 kHz), based on a few measurements of hearing in stranded beaked whales (Cook 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Pacini 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011) and several studies of acoustic signals produced by beaked whales (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Frantzis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Johnson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004, 2006; Zimmer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). While precaution requires that the full range of audibility be considered when assessing risks associated with noise exposure (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019), animals typically produce sound at frequencies where they hear best. More recently, Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019) suggested that certain species in the historical high-frequency hearing group (beaked whales, sperm whales, and killer whales) are likely more sensitive to lower frequencies within the group's generalized hearing range than are other species within the group, and state that the data for beaked whales suggest sensitivity to approximately 5 kHz. However, this information is consistent with the general conclusion that beaked whales (and other high-frequency cetaceans) are relatively insensitive to the frequencies where most energy of an airgun signal is found. Military MFA sonar is typically considered to operate in the frequency range of approximately 3-14 kHz (D'Amico 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009), 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         outside the range of likely best hearing for beaked whales but within or close to the lower bounds, whereas most energy in an airgun signal is radiated at much lower frequencies, below 500 Hz (Dragoset, 1990).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        It is important to distinguish between energy (loudness, measured in dB) and frequency (pitch, measured in Hz). In considering the potential impacts of mid-frequency components of airgun noise (1-10 kHz, where beaked whales can be expected to hear) on marine mammal hearing, one needs to account for the energy associated with these higher frequencies and determine what energy is truly “significant.” Although there is mid-frequency energy associated with airgun noise (as expected from a broadband source), airgun sound is predominantly below 1 kHz (Breitzke 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Tashmukhambetov 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). As stated by Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1995), “[. . .] most emitted [seismic airgun] energy is at 10-120 Hz, but the pulses contain some energy up to 500-1,000 Hz.” Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) conducted empirical measurements, demonstrating that sound energy levels associated with airguns were at least 20 dB lower at 1 kHz (considered “mid-frequency”) compared to higher energy levels associated with lower frequencies (below 300 Hz) (“all but a small fraction of the total energy being concentrated in the 10-300 Hz range” [Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009]), and at higher frequencies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         2.6-4 kHz), power might be less than 10 percent of the peak power at 10 Hz (Yoder 2002). Energy levels measured by Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) were even lower at frequencies above 1 kHz. In addition, as sound propagates away from the source, it tends to lose higher-frequency components faster than low-frequency components (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         low-frequency sounds typically propagate longer distances than high-frequency sounds) (Diebold 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010). Although higher-frequency components of airgun signals have been recorded, it is typically in surface-ducting conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         DeRuiter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Madsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006) or in shallow water, where there are advantageous propagation conditions for the higher frequency (but low-energy) components of the airgun signal (Hermannsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). This should not be of concern because the likely behavioral reactions of beaked whales that can result in acute physical injury would result from noise exposure at depth (because of the potentially greater consequences of severe behavioral reactions). In summary, the frequency content of airgun signals is such that beaked whales will not be able to hear the signals well (compared to MFAS), especially at depth where we expect the consequences of noise exposure could be more severe.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Aside from frequency content, there are other significant differences between MFAS signals and the sounds produced by airguns that minimize the risk of severe behavioral reactions that could lead to strandings or deaths at sea, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         significantly longer signal duration, horizontal sound direction, typical fast and unpredictable source movement. All of these characteristics of MFAS tend towards greater potential to cause severe behavioral or physiological reactions in exposed beaked whales that may contribute to stranding. Although both sources are powerful, MFAS contains significantly greater energy in the mid-frequency range, where beaked whales hear better. Short-duration, high energy pulses—such as those produced by airguns—have greater potential to cause damage to auditory structures (though this is unlikely for mid-frequency cetaceans, as explained later in this document), but it is longer duration signals that have been implicated in the vast majority of beaked whale strandings. Faster, less predictable movements in combination with multiple source vessels are more likely to elicit a severe, potentially anti-predator response. Of additional interest in assessing the divergent characteristics of MFAS and airgun signals and their relative potential to cause stranding events or deaths at sea is the similarity between the MFAS signals and stereotyped calls of beaked whales' primary predator: the killer whale (Zimmer and Tyack 2007). Although generic disturbance stimuli—as airgun noise may be considered in this case for beaked whales—may also trigger antipredator responses, stronger responses should generally be expected when perceived risk is greater, as when the stimulus is confused for a known predator (Frid and Dill 2002). In addition, because the source of the perceived predator (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         MFAS) will likely be closer to the whales (because attenuation limits the range of detection of mid-frequencies) and moving faster (because it will be on faster-moving 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18039"/>
                        vessels), any antipredator response would be more likely to be severe (with greater perceived predation risk, an animal is more likely to disregard the cost of the response; Frid and Dill 2002). Indeed, when analyzing movements of a beaked whale exposed to playback of killer whale predation calls, Allen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) found that the whale engaged in a prolonged, directed avoidance response, suggesting a behavioral reaction that could pose a risk factor for stranding. Overall, these significant differences between sound from MFAS and the mid-frequency sound component from airguns and the likelihood that MFAS signals will be interpreted in error as a predator are critical to understanding the likely risk of behaviorally-mediated injury due to seismic surveys.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The available scientific literature also provides a useful contrast between airgun noise and MFAS regarding the likely risk of behaviorally-mediated injury. There is strong evidence for the association of beaked whale stranding events with MFAS use, and particularly detailed accounting of several events is available (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a 2000 Bahamas stranding event for which investigators concluded that MFAS use was responsible; Evans and England 2001). D'Amico 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) reviewed 126 beaked whale mass stranding events over the period from 1950 (from the time of development of modern MFAS systems) through 2004. Of these, there were two events where detailed information was available on both the timing and location of the stranding and the concurrent nearby naval activity, including verification of active MFAS usage, with no evidence for an alternative cause of stranding. An additional 10 events were at minimum spatially and temporally coincident with naval activity likely to have included MFAS use and, despite incomplete knowledge of timing and location of the stranding or the naval activity in some cases, there was no evidence for an alternative cause of stranding. The U.S. Navy has publicly stated agreement that five such events since 1996 were associated in time and space with MFAS use, either by the U.S. Navy alone or in joint training exercises with the North Atlantic Treaty Organization. The U.S. Navy additionally noted that, as of 2017, a 2014 beaked whale stranding event in Crete coincident with naval exercises was under review and had not yet been determined to be linked to sonar activities (U.S. Navy 2017). Separately, the International Council for the Exploration of the Sea reported in 2005 that, worldwide, there have been about 50 known strandings, consisting mostly of beaked whales, with a potential causal link to MFAS (International Council for the Exploration of the Sea 2005). In contrast, very few such associations have been made to seismic surveys, despite widespread use of airguns as a geophysical sound source in numerous locations around the world.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A review of possible stranding associations with seismic surveys (Castellote and Llorens 2016) states that, “[s]peculation concerning possible links between seismic survey noise and cetacean strandings is available for a dozen events but without convincing causal evidence.” The authors' search of available information found 10 events worth further investigation via a ranking system representing a rough metric of the relative level of confidence offered by the data for inferences about the possible role of the seismic survey in a given stranding event. Only three of these events involved beaked whales. Whereas D'Amico 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) used a 1-5 ranking system, in which “1” represented the most robust evidence connecting the event to MFAS use, Castellote and Llorens (2016) used a 1-6 ranking system, in which “6” represented the most robust evidence connecting the event to the seismic survey. As described above, D'Amico 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) found that two events were ranked “1” and 10 events were ranked “2” (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         12 beaked whale stranding events were found to be associated with MFAS use). In contrast, Castellote and Llorens (2016) found that none of the three beaked whale stranding events achieved their highest ranks of 5 or 6. Of the 10 total events, none achieved the highest rank of 6. Two events were ranked as 5: one stranding in Peru involving dolphins and porpoises and a 2008 stranding in Madagascar. This latter ranking can only be broadly associated with the survey itself, as opposed to use of seismic airguns. An investigation of this stranding event, which did not involve beaked whales, concluded that use of a high-frequency mapping system (12-kHz MBES) was the most plausible and likely initial behavioral trigger of the event, which was likely exacerbated by several site- and situation-specific secondary factors. The review panel found that seismic airguns were used after the initial strandings and animals entering a lagoon system, that airgun use clearly had no role as an initial trigger, and that there was no evidence that airgun use dissuaded animals from leaving (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>However, one of these stranding events, involving two Cuvier's beaked whales, was contemporaneous with and reasonably associated spatially with a 2002 seismic survey in the Gulf of California conducted by L-DEO, as was the case for the 2007 Gulf of Cadiz seismic survey discussed by Castellote and Llorens (also involving two Cuvier's beaked whales). Neither event was considered a “true atypical mass stranding” (according to Frantzis (1998)) as used in the analysis of Castellote and Llorens (2016). While we agree with the authors that this lack of evidence should not be considered conclusive, it is clear that there is very little evidence that seismic surveys should be considered as posing a significant risk of acute harm to beaked whales or other mid-frequency cetaceans. We have considered the potential for the proposed surveys to result in marine mammal stranding and, based on the best available information, do not expect a stranding to occur.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Entanglement</HD>
                    <P>
                        Entanglements occur when marine mammals become wrapped around cables, lines, nets, or other objects suspended in the water column. During seismic operations, numerous cables, lines, and other objects primarily associated with the airgun array and hydrophone streamers will be towed behind the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         near the water's surface. However, we are not aware of any cases of entanglement of marine mammals in seismic survey equipment. No incidents of entanglement of marine mammals with seismic survey gear have been documented in over 54,000 nautical miles (100,000 km) of previous NSF-funded seismic surveys when observers were aboard (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Smultea and Holst 2003; Haley and Koski 2004; Holst 2004; Smultea 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Holst 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Haley and Ireland 2006; Scripps Institution of Oceanography and NSF 2006; Hauser 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Holst and Smultea 2008). Although entanglement with the streamer is theoretically possible, it has not been documented during tens of thousands of miles of NSF-sponsored seismic cruises or, to our knowledge, during hundreds of thousands of miles of industrial seismic cruises. There are relatively few deployed devices, and no interaction between marine mammals and any such device has been recorded during prior NSF surveys using the devices. There are no meaningful entanglement risks posed by the proposed survey, and entanglement risks are not discussed further in this document.
                        <PRTPAGE P="18040"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effects to Prey</E>
                        —Marine mammal prey varies by species, season, and location and, for some, is not well documented. Fish react to sounds which are especially strong and/or intermittent low-frequency sounds, and behavioral responses such as flight or avoidance are the most likely effects. However, the reaction of fish to airguns depends on the physiological state of the fish, past exposures, motivation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         feeding, spawning, migration), and other environmental factors. Several studies have demonstrated that airgun sounds might affect the distribution and behavior of some fishes, potentially impacting foraging opportunities or increasing energetic costs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Fewtrell and McCauley 2012; Pearson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Skalski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Santulli 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Paxton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017), though the bulk of studies indicate no or slight reaction to noise (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Miller and Cripps 2013; Dalen and Knutsen 1987; Pena 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Chapman and Hawkins 1969; Wardle 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Sara 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Jorgenson and Gyselman 2009; Blaxter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1981; Cott 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Boeger 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006), and that, most commonly, while there are likely to be impacts to fish as a result of noise from nearby airguns, such effects will be temporary. For example, investigators reported significant, short-term declines in commercial fishing catch rate of gadid fishes during and for up to 5 days after seismic survey operations, but the catch rate subsequently returned to normal (Engas 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Engas and Lokkeborg 2002). Other studies have reported similar findings (Hassel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Skalski 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1992) also found a reduction in catch rates—for rockfish (
                        <E T="03">Sebastes</E>
                         spp.) in response to controlled airgun exposure—but suggested that the mechanism underlying the decline was not dispersal but rather decreased responsiveness to baited hooks associated with an alarm behavioral response. A companion study showed that alarm and startle responses were not sustained following the removal of the sound source (Pearson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992). Therefore, Skalski 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1992) suggested that the effects on fish abundance may be transitory, primarily occurring during the sound exposure itself. In some cases, effects on catch rates are variable within a study, which may be more broadly representative of temporary displacement of fish in response to airgun noise (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         catch rates may increase in some locations and decrease in others) than any long-term damage to the fish themselves (Streever 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        SPLs of sufficient strength have been known to cause injury to fish and fish mortality and, in some studies, fish auditory systems have been damaged by airgun noise (McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Popper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Song 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). However, in most fish species, hair cells in the ear continuously regenerate and loss of auditory function likely is restored when damaged cells are replaced with new cells. Halvorsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) showed that a TTS of 4-6 dB was recoverable within 24 hours for one species. Impacts would be most severe when the individual fish is close to the source and when the duration of exposure is long; both of which are conditions unlikely to occur for this survey that is necessarily transient in any given location and likely result in brief, infrequent noise exposure to prey species in any given area. For this survey, the sound source is constantly moving, and most fish would likely avoid the sound source prior to receiving sound of sufficient intensity to cause physiological or anatomical damage. In addition, ramp-up may allow certain fish species the opportunity to move further away from the sound source.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A comprehensive review (Carroll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017) found that results are mixed as to the effects of airgun noise on the prey of marine mammals. While some studies suggest a change in prey distribution and/or a reduction in prey abundance following the use of seismic airguns, others suggest no effects or even positive effects in prey abundance. As one specific example, Paxton 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017), which describes findings related to the effects of a 2014 seismic survey on a reef off of North Carolina, showed a 78 percent decrease in observed nighttime abundance for certain species. It is important to note that the evening hours during which the decline in fish habitat use was recorded (via video recording) occurred on the same day that the seismic survey passed, and no subsequent data is presented to support an inference that the response was long-lasting. Additionally, given that the finding is based on video images, the lack of recorded fish presence does not support a conclusion that the fish actually moved away from the site or suffered any serious impairment. In summary, this particular study corroborates prior studies indicating that a startle response or short-term displacement should be expected.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Available data suggest that cephalopods are capable of sensing the particle motion of sounds and detect low frequencies up to 1-1.5 kHz, depending on the species, and so are likely to detect airgun noise (Kaifu 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Hu 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Mooney 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; Samson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). Auditory injuries (lesions occurring on the statocyst sensory hair cells) have been reported upon controlled exposure to low-frequency sounds, suggesting that cephalopods are particularly sensitive to low-frequency sound (Andre 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011; Sole 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Behavioral responses, such as inking and jetting, have also been reported upon exposure to low-frequency sound (McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000b; Samson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). Similar to fish, however, the transient nature of the survey leads to an expectation that effects will be largely limited to behavioral reactions and would occur as a result of brief, infrequent exposures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With regard to potential impacts on zooplankton, McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) found that exposure to airgun noise resulted in significant depletion for more than half the taxa present and that there were two to three times more dead zooplankton after airgun exposure compared with controls for all taxa, within 1 km of the airguns. However, the authors also stated that in order to have significant impacts on r-selected species (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those with high growth rates and that produce many offspring) such as plankton, the spatial or temporal scale of impact must be large in comparison with the ecosystem concerned, and it is possible that the findings reflect avoidance by zooplankton rather than mortality (McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). In addition, the results of this study are inconsistent with a large body of research that generally finds limited spatial and temporal impacts to zooplankton as a result of exposure to airgun noise (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dalen and Knutsen 1987; Payne 2004; Stanley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011). Most prior research on this topic, which has focused on relatively small spatial scales, has showed minimal effects (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kostyuchenko 1973; Booman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Sætre and Ona 1996; Pearson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Bolle 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A modeling exercise was conducted as a follow-up to the McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) study (as recommended by McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                        ), in order to assess the potential for impacts on ocean ecosystem dynamics and zooplankton population dynamics (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) found that for copepods with a short life cycle in a high-energy environment, a full-scale airgun survey would impact copepod abundance up to 3 days following the end of the survey, suggesting that effects such as those found by McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) would not be expected to be detectable downstream of the survey areas, either spatially or temporally.
                        <PRTPAGE P="18041"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Notably, a more recently described study produced results inconsistent with those of McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017). Researchers conducted a field and laboratory study to assess if exposure to airgun noise affects mortality, predator escape response, or gene expression of the copepod 
                        <E T="03">Calanus finmarchicus</E>
                         (Fields 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). Immediate mortality of copepods was significantly higher, relative to controls, at distances of 5 m or less from the airguns. Mortality 1 week after the airgun blast was significantly higher in the copepods placed 10 m from the airgun but was not significantly different from the controls at a distance of 20 m from the airgun. The increase in mortality, relative to controls, did not exceed 30 percent at any distance from the airgun. Moreover, the authors caution that even this higher mortality in the immediate vicinity of the airguns may be more pronounced than what would be observed in free-swimming animals due to increased flow speed of fluid inside bags containing the experimental animals. There were no sublethal effects on the escape performance or the sensory threshold needed to initiate an escape response at any of the distances from the airgun that were tested. Whereas McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) reported an SEL of 156 dB at a range of 509-658 m, with zooplankton mortality observed at that range, Fields 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019) reported an SEL of 186 dB at a range of 25 m, with no reported mortality at that distance. Regardless, if we assume a worst-case likelihood of severe impacts to zooplankton within approximately 1 km of the acoustic source, the brief time to regeneration of the potentially affected zooplankton populations does not lead us to expect any meaningful follow-on effects to the prey base for marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A review article concluded that, while laboratory results provide scientific evidence for high-intensity and low-frequency sound-induced physical trauma and other negative effects on some fish and invertebrates, the sound exposure scenarios in some cases are not realistic to those encountered by marine organisms during routine seismic operations (Carroll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). The review finds that there has been no evidence of reduced catch or abundance following seismic activities for invertebrates, and that there is conflicting evidence for fish with catch observed to increase, decrease, or remain the same. Further, where there is evidence for decreased catch rates in response to airgun noise, these findings provide no information about the underlying biological cause of catch rate reduction (Carroll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In summary, impacts of the specified activity on marine mammal prey species will likely generally be limited to behavioral responses, the majority of prey species will be capable of moving out of the area during the survey, a rapid return to normal recruitment, distribution, and behavior for prey species is anticipated, and, overall, impacts to prey species will be minor and temporary. Prey species exposed to sound might move away from the sound source, experience TTS, experience masking of biologically relevant sounds, or show no obvious direct effects. Mortality from decompression injuries is possible in close proximity to a sound, but only limited data on mortality in response to airgun noise exposure are available (Hawkins 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). The most likely impacts for most prey species in the survey area would be temporary avoidance of the area. The proposed survey would move through an area relatively quickly, limiting exposure to multiple impulsive sounds. In all cases, sound levels would return to ambient once the survey moves out of the area or ends and the noise source is shut down and, when exposure to sound ends, behavioral and/or physiological responses are expected to end relatively quickly (McCauley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000b). The duration of fish avoidance of a given area after survey effort stops is unknown, but a rapid return to normal recruitment, distribution, and behavior is anticipated. While the potential for disruption of spawning aggregations or schools of important prey species can be meaningful on a local scale, the mobile and temporary nature of this survey and the likelihood of temporary avoidance behavior suggest that impacts would be minor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Acoustic Habitat:</E>
                         Acoustic habitat is the soundscape—which encompasses all of the sound present in a particular location and time, as a whole—when considered from the perspective of the animals experiencing it. Animals produce sound for, or listen for sounds produced by, conspecifics (communication during feeding, mating, and other social activities), other animals (finding prey or avoiding predators), and the physical environment (finding suitable habitats, navigating). Together, sounds made by animals and the geophysical environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         produced by earthquakes, lightning, wind, rain, waves) make up the natural contributions to the total acoustics of a place. These acoustic conditions, termed acoustic habitat, are one attribute of an animal's total habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Soundscapes are also defined by, and acoustic habitat influenced by, the total contribution of anthropogenic sound. This may include incidental emissions from sources such as vessel traffic, or may be intentionally introduced to the marine environment for data acquisition purposes (as in the use of airgun arrays). Anthropogenic noise varies widely in its frequency content, duration, and loudness and these characteristics greatly influence the potential habitat-mediated effects to marine mammals (please see also the previous discussion on masking under 
                        <E T="03">Acoustic Effects</E>
                        ), which may range from local effects for brief periods of time to chronic effects over large areas and for long durations. Depending on the extent of effects to habitat, animals may alter their communications signals (thereby potentially expending additional energy) or miss acoustic cues (either conspecific or adventitious). For more detail on these concepts see, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Barber 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; Pijanowski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011; Francis and Barber 2013; Lillis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014.
                    </P>
                    <P>Problems arising from a failure to detect cues are more likely to occur when noise stimuli are chronic and overlap with biologically relevant cues used for communication, orientation, and predator/prey detection (Francis and Barber 2013). Although the signals emitted by seismic airgun arrays are generally low frequency, they would also likely be of short duration and transient in any given area due to the nature of these surveys. As described previously, exploratory surveys such as these cover a large area but would be transient rather than focused in a given location over time and therefore would not be considered chronic in any given location.</P>
                    <P>Based on the information discussed herein, we conclude that impacts of the specified activity are not likely to have more than short-term adverse effects on any prey habitat or populations of prey species. Further, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to result in significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals, or to contribute to adverse impacts on their populations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take of Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through the IHA, which informs NMFS' consideration of “small numbers,” and the negligible impact determinations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18042"/>
                        MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Authorized takes would primarily be by Level B harassment, as use of the acoustic source (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         airguns) has the potential to result in disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals. There is also some potential for AUD INJ (Level A harassment) to result, primarily for low- and very high-frequency species because predicted AUD INJ zones are larger than the zones for high-frequency species. AUD INJ is unlikely to occur for high-frequency species. As described previously, no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the proposed take numbers are estimated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For acoustic impacts, generally speaking, we estimate take by considering: (1) acoustic criteria above which NMFS believes there is some reasonable potential for marine mammals to be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of AUD INJ; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) the number of days of activities. We note that while these factors can contribute to a basic calculation to provide an initial prediction of potential takes, additional information that can qualitatively inform take estimates is also sometimes available (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         previous monitoring results or average group size). Below, we describe the factors considered here in more detail and present the proposed take estimates.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Criteria</HD>
                    <P>NMFS recommends the use of acoustic criteria that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur AUD INJ of some degree (equated to Level A harassment). We note that the criteria for AUD INJ, as well as the names of two hearing groups, have been recently updated (NMFS 2024) as reflected below in the Level A Harassment section.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Level B Harassment</E>
                        —Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source or exposure context (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frequency, predictability, duty cycle, duration of the exposure, signal-to-noise ratio, distance to the source), the environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bathymetry, other noises in the area, predators in the area), and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography, life stage, depth) and can be difficult to predict (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2021, Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Based on what the available science indicates and the practical need to use a threshold based on a metric that is both predictable and measurable for most activities, NMFS typically uses a generalized acoustic threshold based on received level to estimate the onset of behavioral harassment. NMFS generally predicts that marine mammals are likely to be behaviorally harassed in a manner considered to be Level B harassment when exposed to underwater anthropogenic noise above root-mean-squared pressure received levels (RMS SPL) of 120 dB (referenced to 1 micropascal (re 1 μPa)) for continuous (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vibratory pile driving, drilling) and above RMS SPL 160 dB re 1 μPa for non-explosive impulsive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         seismic airguns) or intermittent (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         scientific sonar) sources. Generally speaking, Level B harassment take estimates based on these behavioral harassment thresholds are expected to include any likely takes by TTS as, in most cases, the likelihood of TTS occurs at distances from the source less than those at which behavioral harassment is likely. TTS of a sufficient degree can manifest as behavioral harassment, as reduced hearing sensitivity and the potential reduced opportunities to detect important signals (conspecific communication, predators, prey) may result in changes in behavior patterns that would not otherwise occur. L-DEO's proposed activity includes the use of impulsive seismic sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         airguns), and therefore the RMS SPL threshold of 160 dB re 1 μPa is applicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Level A harassment</E>
                        —NMFS' Updated Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Version 3.0) (NMFS, 2024) identifies dual criteria to assess AUD INJ (Level A harassment) to five different underwater marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). L-DEO's proposed activity includes the use of impulsive seismic sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         airguns).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 2024 Updated Technical Guidance criteria include both updated thresholds and updated weighting functions for each hearing group. The thresholds are provided in table 3. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the criteria are described in NMFS' 2024 Updated Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance-other-acoustic-tools.</E>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50p,xs100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Thresholds Identifying the Onset of Auditory Injury</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                AUD INJ onset acoustic thresholds *
                                <LI>(received level)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Impulsive</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Non-impulsive</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Low-Frequency (LF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 1:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                : 222 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">LF,24h</E>
                                : 183 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 2:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">LF,24h</E>
                                : 197 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">High-Frequency (HF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 3:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                : 230 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                                : 193 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 4:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                                : 201 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Very High-Frequency (VHF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 5:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                : 202 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">VHF,24h</E>
                                : 159 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 6:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">VHF,24h</E>
                                : 181 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Phocid Pinnipeds (PW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 7:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                : 223 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                                : 183 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 8:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                                : 195 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Otariid Pinnipeds (OW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 9:</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                : 230 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                                : 185 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 10:</E>
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,</E>
                                <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                                : 199 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * Dual metric criteria for impulsive sounds: Use whichever criteria results in the larger isopleth for calculating AUD INJ onset. If a non-impulsive sound has the potential of exceeding the peak SPL criteria associated with impulsive sounds, the PK SPL criteria are recommended for consideration for non-impulsive sources.
                            <PRTPAGE P="18043"/>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Peak SPL (
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">p,0-pk</E>
                            ) has a reference value of 1 µPa, and weighted cumulative sound exposure level (
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,p</E>
                            ) has a reference value of 1 µPa
                            <SU>2</SU>
                            s. In this table, criteria are abbreviated to be more reflective of International Organization for Standardization standards (ISO 2017; ISO 2020). The subscript “flat” is being included to indicate peak sound pressure are flat weighted or unweighted within the generalized hearing range of marine mammals underwater (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             7 Hz to 165 kHz). The subscript associated with cumulative sound exposure level criteria indicates the designated marine mammal auditory weighting function (LF, HF, and VHF cetaceans, and PW and OW pinnipeds) and that the recommended accumulation period is 24 hours. The 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,p</E>
                             criteria could be exceeded in a multitude of ways (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             varying exposure levels and durations, duty cycle). When possible, it is valuable for action proponents to indicate the conditions under which these criteria will be exceeded.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ensonified Area</HD>
                    <P>Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that are used in estimating the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds, including SLs and transmission loss coefficient.</P>
                    <P>The ensonified area associated with Level A harassment is more technically challenging to predict due to the need to account for a duration component. Therefore, NMFS developed an optional User Spreadsheet tool to accompany the 2024 Updated Technical Guidance that can be used to relatively simply predict an isopleth distance for use in conjunction with marine mammal density or occurrence to help predict potential takes. We note that because of some of the assumptions included in the methods underlying this optional tool, we anticipate that the resulting isopleth estimates are typically going to be overestimates of some degree, which may result in an overestimate of potential take by Level A harassment. However, this optional tool offers the best way to estimate isopleth distances when more sophisticated modeling methods are not available or practical.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed survey would entail the use of a 36-airgun array with a total discharge volume of 6,600 in
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         (108,155 cc) at a tow depth of 12 m. L-DEO's model results are used to determine the 160 dB
                        <E T="52">RMS</E>
                         radius for the airgun source down to a maximum depth of 2,000 m. Received sound levels have been predicted by L-DEO's model (Diebold 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010) as a function of distance from the 36-airgun array. This modeling approach uses ray tracing for the direct wave traveling from the array to the receiver and its associated source ghost (reflection at the air-water interface in the vicinity of the array), in a constant-velocity half-space (infinite homogeneous ocean layer, unbounded by a seafloor). In addition, propagation measurements of pulses from the 36-airgun array at a tow depth of 6 m have been reported in deep water (~1,600 m), intermediate water depth on the slope (~600-1,100 m), and shallow water (~50 m) in the Gulf of America (Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Diebold 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010).
                    </P>
                    <P>For deep and intermediate water cases, the field measurements cannot be used readily to derive the harassment isopleths, as at those sites the calibration hydrophone was located at a roughly constant depth of 350-550 m, which may not intersect all the SPL isopleths at their widest point from the sea surface down to the assumed maximum relevant water depth (~2,000 m) for marine mammals. At short ranges, where the direct arrivals dominate and the effects of seafloor interactions are minimal, the data at the deep sites are suitable for comparison with modeled levels at the depth of the calibration hydrophone. At longer ranges, the comparison with the model—constructed from the maximum SPL through the entire water column at varying distances from the airgun array—is the most relevant.</P>
                    <P>
                        In deep and intermediate water depths at short ranges, sound levels for direct arrivals recorded by the calibration hydrophone and L-DEO model results for the same array tow depth are in good alignment (see figures 12 and 14 in Diebold 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010). Consequently, isopleths falling within this domain can be predicted reliably by the L-DEO model, although they may be imperfectly sampled by measurements recorded at a single depth. At greater distances, the calibration data show that seafloor-reflected and sub-seafloor-refracted arrivals dominate, whereas the direct arrivals become weak and/or incoherent (see figures 11, 12, and 16 in Diebold 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010). Aside from local topography effects, the region around the critical distance is where the observed levels rise closest to the model curve. However, the observed sound levels are found to fall almost entirely below the model curve. Thus, analysis of the Gulf of America calibration measurements demonstrates that although simple, the L-DEO model is a robust tool for conservatively estimating isopleths.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed geophysical survey would acquire data with the 36-airgun array at a tow depth of 12 m. For deep water (&gt;1,000 m), we use the deep-water radii obtained from L-DEO model results down to a maximum water depth of 2,000 m for the airgun array.</P>
                    <P>L-DEO's modeling methodology is described in greater detail in L-DEO's application. The estimated distances to the Level B harassment isopleth for the proposed airgun configuration are shown in table 4.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,10C,10C,19C">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 4—Predicted Radial Distances From the R/V 
                            <E T="0782">Langseth</E>
                             Seismic Source to Isopleth Corresponding to Level B Harassment Threshold
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Airgun configuration</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Tow depth
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Water depth
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Predicted
                                <LI>distances (in m) to</LI>
                                <LI>the Level B</LI>
                                <LI>harassment</LI>
                                <LI>threshold</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                4 strings, 36 airguns, 6,600 in
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 (108,155 cc)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT>&gt;1,000</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,733</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,13,14,19">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—Modeled Radial Distance to Isopleths Corresponding to Level A Harassment Thresholds *</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Low frequency cetaceans</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">High frequency cetaceans</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Very high frequency cetaceans</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">MCS Survey</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="02">PTS SEL</E>
                                <E T="0735">cum</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">468.7</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="02">PTS Peak</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>28.3</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">13.6</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">268.3</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <PRTPAGE P="18044"/>
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">OBS Survey</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="02">PTS SEL</E>
                                <E T="0735">cum</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">117.2</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="02">PTS Peak</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>28.3</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">13.6</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="02">268.3</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * The largest distance (in bold) of the dual criteria (SEL
                            <E T="0732">cum</E>
                             or Peak) was used to estimate threshold distances and potential takes by Level A harassment.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 5 presents the modeled Level A harassment isopleths for each marine mammal hearing group based on L-DEO modeling incorporated in the companion user spreadsheet, for the low-energy surveys with the shortest shot interval (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         greatest potential to cause PTS based on accumulated sound energy) (NMFS 2018, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Predicted distances to Level A harassment isopleths, which vary based on marine mammal hearing groups, were calculated based on modeling performed by L-DEO using the Nucleus software program and the NMFS user spreadsheet, described below. The acoustic thresholds for impulsive sounds contained in the NMFS Technical Guidance were presented as dual metric acoustic thresholds using both SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                         and peak sound pressure metrics (NMFS 2016). As dual metrics, NMFS considers onset of PTS (Level A harassment) to have occurred when either one of the two metrics is exceeded (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         metric resulting in the largest isopleth). The SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                         metric considers both level and duration of exposure, as well as auditory weighting functions by marine mammal hearing group.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                         for the 36-airgun array is derived from calculating the modified farfield signature. The farfield signature is often used as a theoretical representation of the SL. To compute the farfield signature, the SL is estimated at a large distance (right) below the array (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         9 km), and this level is back projected mathematically to a notional distance of 1 m from the array's geometrical center. However, it has been recognized that the SL from the theoretical farfield signature is never physically achieved at the source when the source is an array of multiple airguns separated in space (Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Near the source (at short ranges, distances &lt;1 km), the pulses of sound pressure from each individual airgun in the source array do not stack constructively as they do for the theoretical farfield signature. The pulses from the different airguns spread out in time such that the SLs observed or modeled are the result of the summation of pulses from a few airguns, not the full array (Tolstoy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). At larger distances, away from the source array center, sound pressure of all the airguns in the array stack coherently, but not within one time sample, resulting in smaller SLs (a few dB) than the SL derived from the far-field signature. Because the far-field signature does not take into account the large array effect near the source and is calculated as a point source, the far-field signature is not an appropriate measure of the sound SL for large arrays. See L-DEO's application for further detail on acoustic modeling.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        AUD INJ is unlikely to occur for high-frequency cetaceans, given the very small modeled zones of injury for those species in the context of distributed source dynamics. The estimated zone is less than 15 m for high-frequency species. In consideration of the received sound levels in the near-field as described above, we expect the potential for Level A harassment of high-frequency cetaceans to be de minimis, even before the likely moderating effects of aversion and/or other compensatory behaviors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Nachtigall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018) are considered. We do not anticipate that Level A harassment is a likely outcome for any high-frequency cetacean and do not propose to authorize any take by Level A harassment for these species.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Level A and Level B harassment estimates are based on a consideration of the number of marine mammals that could be within the area around the operating airgun array where received levels of sound ≥160 dB re 1 µPa RMS are predicted to occur. The estimated numbers are based on the densities (numbers per unit area) of marine mammals expected to occur in the area in the absence of seismic surveys. To the extent that marine mammals tend to move away from seismic sources before the sound level reaches the criterion level and tend not to approach an operating airgun array, these estimates likely overestimate the numbers actually exposed to the specified level of sound.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Occurrence</HD>
                    <P>In this section we provide information about the occurrence of marine mammals, including density or other relevant information which will inform the take calculations.</P>
                    <P>
                        L-DEO used habitat-based stratified marine mammal densities for the North Atlantic from the US Navy Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing Area Marine Mammal Density (Roberts 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Mannocci 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017), which represent the best available information regarding marine mammal densities in the region. This density information incorporates visual line-transect surveys of marine mammals for over 35 years, resulting in various studies that estimated the abundance, density, and distributions of marine mammal populations. The habitat-based density models consisted of 10 km x 10 km grid cells. Densities in the grid cells for the AFTT study area overlapping with the proposed survey area were averaged. More information is available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://seamap.env.duke.edu/models/Duke/AFTT/.</E>
                         The range of most populations extends past the coverage of the model.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For most species, only annual densities were available. For some species, seasonal or monthly densities were available; thus, densities that overlapped the timing of the proposed survey (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         July through September) or the highest mean monthly density during the proposed survey months were used.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Take Estimation</HD>
                    <P>Here we describe how the information provided above is synthesized to produce a quantitative estimate of the take that is reasonably likely to occur and proposed for authorization.</P>
                    <P>
                        In order to estimate the number of marine mammals predicted to be exposed to sound levels that would result in Level A or Level B harassment, radial distances from the airgun array to the predicted isopleth corresponding to the Level A harassment and Level B harassment thresholds are calculated, as described above. Those radial distances were then used to calculate the area(s) 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18045"/>
                        around the airgun array predicted to be ensonified to sound levels that exceed the harassment thresholds. The distance for the 160-dB Level B harassment threshold and AUD INJ (Level A harassment) thresholds (based on L-DEO model results) was used to draw a buffer around the area expected to be ensonified (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the survey area). The ensonified areas were then increased by 25 percent to account for potential delays, which is equivalent to adding 25 percent to the proposed line distance to be surveyed. The density for each species was then multiplied by the daily ensonified areas (increased as described above) and then multiplied by the number of survey days (4 days for MCS survey and 16 days for OBS survey) to estimate potential takes (see appendix B of L-DEO's application for more information).
                    </P>
                    <P>L-DEO assumed that their estimates of marine mammal exposures above harassment thresholds equate to take and requested authorization of those takes. Those estimates in turn form the basis for our proposed take authorization numbers. Based on the nature of the activity and due to the unlikelihood of the calculated Level A harassment exposures for high-frequency species because of the small Level A harassment zones and the need for individuals to stay in the Level A harassment zone for 24-hours to incur AUD INJ, Level A harassment is neither anticipated nor proposed to be authorized. For some species, we have added L-DEO's estimated exposures above Level A harassment thresholds to their estimated exposures above the Level B harassment threshold to produce a total number of incidents of take by Level B harassment that is proposed for authorization. Estimated exposures and proposed take numbers for authorization are shown in table 6.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,10,10,10,10,11,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Estimated Take Proposed for Authorization</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimated take</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Proposed authorized take</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Population abundance 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Percent of population 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fin whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,672</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Blue whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>191</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.80</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Bryde's whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>536</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.24</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sei whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>23</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>23</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,530</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Minke whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>57</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>57</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,784</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.43</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 2
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,569</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.05</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>273</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>274</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,015</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.43</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Kogia spp.
                                <SU>4</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>193</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>193</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,043</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.77</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Beaked whales 
                                <SU>5</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>284</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>285</ENT>
                            <ENT>65,069</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.44</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>259</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>260</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,848</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.79</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>904</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>906</ENT>
                            <ENT>418,151</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.22</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Atlantic white-sided dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 13
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>175,299</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;0.01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,298</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,303</ENT>
                            <ENT>321,740</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.72</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,204</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,208</ENT>
                            <ENT>259,519</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.85</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,263</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,266</ENT>
                            <ENT>152,511</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.83</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,633</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,636</ENT>
                            <ENT>181,209</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.90</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,389</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,392</ENT>
                            <ENT>412,729</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.34</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>223</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>223</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,585</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.77</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>102</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>102</ENT>
                            <ENT>78,205</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.13</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Common dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>578</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>579</ENT>
                            <ENT>473,260</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Melon-headed whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>664</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>665</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,114</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pygmy killer whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>93</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>93</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,001</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">False killer whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>131</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>131</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,682</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 4
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>191</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.09</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Pilot whales 
                                <SU>6</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>934</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>936</ENT>
                            <ENT>264,907</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.35</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 3
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>94,583</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;0.01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Modeled abundance (Roberts 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             2023).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Requested take authorization is expressed as percent of population for the AFTT study area (Roberts 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2023).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Proposed take increased to mean group size from AMAPPS (Palka 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2017 and 2021).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             Includes pygmy sperm whale and dwarf sperm whale.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Includes goose-beaked whale, Gervais's beaked whale, Blainville's beaked whale, and True's beaked whale.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             Includes short-finned pilot whale and long-finned pilot whale.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Mitigation</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to the activity and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on the species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (the latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting the activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).</P>
                    <P>In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, NMFS considers two primary factors:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned), the likelihood of effective implementation 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18046"/>
                        (probability implemented as planned); and
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, and impact on operations.</P>
                    <P>The proposed mitigation requirements described in the following were proposed by L-DEO in its adequate and complete application or are the result of subsequent coordination between NMFS and L-DEO. L-DEO has agreed that all of the mitigation measures are practicable. NMFS has fully reviewed the specified activities and the mitigation measures to determine if the mitigation measures would result in the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals and their habitat, as required by the MMPA, and has determined the proposed measures are appropriate. NMFS describes these below as proposed mitigation requirements, and has included them in the proposed IHA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vessel-Based Visual Mitigation Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        Visual monitoring requires the use of trained observers (herein referred to as visual protected species observers (PSOs)) to scan the ocean surface for the presence of marine mammals. The area to be scanned visually includes primarily the shutdown zone (SZ), within which observation of certain marine mammals requires shutdown of the acoustic source, a buffer zone, and to the extent possible depending on conditions, the surrounding waters. The buffer zone means an area beyond the SZ to be monitored for the presence of marine mammals that may enter the SZ. During pre-start clearance monitoring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         before ramp-up begins), the buffer zone also acts as an extension of the SZ in that observations of marine mammals within the buffer zone would also prevent airgun operations from beginning (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ramp-up). The buffer zone encompasses the area at and below the sea surface from the edge of the 0-500 m SZ, out to a radius of 1,000 m from the edges of the airgun array (500-1,000 m). This 1,000-m zone (SZ plus buffer) represents the pre-start clearance zone. Visual monitoring of the SZ and adjacent waters (buffer plus surrounding waters) is intended to establish and, when visual conditions allow, maintain zones around the sound source that are clear of marine mammals, thereby reducing or eliminating the potential for injury and minimizing the potential for more severe behavioral reactions for animals occurring closer to the vessel. Visual monitoring of the buffer zone is intended to (1) provide additional protection to marine mammals that may be in the vicinity of the vessel during pre-start clearance, and (2) during airgun use, aid in establishing and maintaining the SZ by alerting the other visual observer and crew of marine mammals that are outside of, but may approach and enter, the SZ.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During survey operations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         any day on which use of the airgun array is planned to occur and whenever the airgun array is in the water, whether activated or not), a minimum of two visual PSOs must be on duty and conducting visual observations at all times during daylight hours (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from 30 minutes prior to sunrise through 30 minutes following sunset). Visual monitoring of the pre-start clearance zone must begin no less than 30 minutes prior to ramp-up and monitoring must continue until 1 hour after use of the airgun array ceases or until 30 minutes past sunset. Visual PSOs shall coordinate to ensure 360° visual coverage around the vessel from the most appropriate observation posts and shall conduct visual observations using binoculars and the naked eye while free from distractions and in a consistent, systematic, and diligent manner.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        PSOs shall establish and monitor the SZ and buffer zone. These zones shall be based upon the radial distance from the edges of the airgun array (rather than being based on the center of the array or around the vessel itself). During use of the airgun array (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         anytime airguns are active, including ramp-up), detections of marine mammals within the buffer zone (but outside the SZ) shall be communicated to the operator to prepare for the potential shutdown of the airgun array. Visual PSOs will immediately communicate all observations to the on duty acoustic PSO(s), including any determination by the PSO regarding species identification, distance, and bearing and the degree of confidence in the determination. Any observations of marine mammals by crew members shall be relayed to the PSO team. During good conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         daylight hours; Beaufort sea state (BSS) 3 or less), visual PSOs shall conduct observations when the airgun array is not operating for comparison of sighting rates and behavior with and without use of the airgun array and between acquisition periods, to the maximum extent practicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>Visual PSOs may be on watch for a maximum of 4 consecutive hours followed by a break of at least 1 hour between watches and may conduct a maximum of 12 hours of observation per 24-hour period. Combined observational duties (visual and acoustic but not at same time) may not exceed 12 hours per 24-hour period for any individual PSO.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Passive Acoustic Monitoring (PAM)</HD>
                    <P>
                        PAM means the use of trained personnel (sometimes referred to as PAM operators, herein referred to as acoustic PSOs) to operate PAM equipment to acoustically detect the presence of marine mammals. Acoustic monitoring involves acoustically detecting marine mammals regardless of distance from the source, as localization of animals may not always be possible. Acoustic monitoring is intended to further support visual monitoring (during daylight hours) in maintaining a SZ around the sound source that is clear of marine mammals. In cases where visual monitoring is not effective (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         due to weather, nighttime), acoustic monitoring may be used to allow certain activities to occur, as further detailed below.
                    </P>
                    <P>PAM would take place in addition to the visual monitoring program. Visual monitoring typically is not effective during periods of poor visibility or at night and even with good visibility, is unable to detect marine mammals when they are below the surface or beyond visual range. Acoustic monitoring can be used in addition to visual observations to improve detection, identification, and localization of cetaceans. The acoustic monitoring would serve to alert visual PSOs (if on duty) when vocalizing cetaceans are detected. It is only useful when marine mammals vocalize, but it can be effective either by day or by night and does not depend on good visibility. It would be monitored in real time so that the visual observers can be advised when cetaceans are detected.</P>
                    <P>
                        The 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         will use a towed PAM system, which must be monitored by at a minimum one on duty acoustic PSO beginning at least 30 minutes prior to ramp-up and at all times during use of the airgun array. Acoustic PSOs may be on watch for a maximum of 4 consecutive hours followed by a break of at least 1 hour between watches and may conduct a maximum of 12 hours of observation per 24-hour period. Combined observational duties (acoustic and visual but not at same time) may not exceed 12 hours per 24-hour period for any individual PSO.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Survey activity may continue for 30 minutes when the PAM system malfunctions or is damaged, while the PAM operator diagnoses the issue. If the diagnosis indicates that the PAM system must be repaired to solve the problem, operations may continue for an additional 10 hours without acoustic 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18047"/>
                        monitoring during daylight hours only under the following conditions:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Sea state is less than or equal to BSS 4;</P>
                    <P>• No marine mammals (excluding delphinids) detected solely by PAM in the SZ in the previous 2 hours;</P>
                    <P>• NMFS is notified via email as soon as practicable with the time and location in which operations began occurring without an active PAM system; and</P>
                    <P>• Operations with an active airgun array, but without an operating PAM system, do not exceed a cumulative total of 10 hours in any 24-hour period.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Establishment of Shutdown and Pre-Start Clearance Zones</HD>
                    <P>
                        A SZ is a defined area within which occurrence of a marine mammal triggers mitigation action intended to reduce the potential for certain outcomes (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         AUD INJ, disruption of critical behaviors). The PSOs would establish a minimum SZ with a 500-m radius. The 500-m SZ would be based on radial distance from the edge of the airgun array (rather than being based on the center of the array or around the vessel itself). With certain exceptions (described below), if a marine mammal appears within or enters this zone, the airgun array would be shut down.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The pre-start clearance zone is defined as the area that must be clear of marine mammals prior to beginning ramp-up of the airgun array and includes the SZ plus the buffer zone. Detections of marine mammals within the pre-start clearance zone would prevent airgun operations from beginning (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ramp-up).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 500-m SZ is intended to be precautionary in the sense that it would be expected to contain sound exceeding the injury criteria for all cetacean hearing groups, (based on the dual criteria of SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                         and peak SPL), while also providing a consistent, reasonably observable zone within which PSOs would typically be able to conduct effective observational effort. Additionally, a 500-m SZ is expected to minimize the likelihood that marine mammals will be exposed to levels likely to result in more severe behavioral responses. Although significantly greater distances may be observed from an elevated platform under good conditions, we expect that 500 m is likely regularly attainable for PSOs using the naked eye during typical conditions. The pre-start clearance zone simply represents the addition of a buffer to the SZ, doubling the SZ size during pre-clearance.
                    </P>
                    <P>An extended SZ of 1,500 m must be enforced for all beaked whales, a large whale with a calf, and groups of six or more large whales. No buffer of this extended SZ is required, as NMFS concludes that this extended SZ is sufficiently protective to mitigate harassment to these groups.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Pre-Start Clearance and Ramp-Up</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ramp-up (sometimes referred to as “soft start”) means the gradual and systematic increase of emitted sound levels from an airgun array. Ramp-up begins by first activating a single airgun of the smallest volume, followed by doubling the number of active elements in stages until the full complement of an array's airguns are active. Each stage should be approximately the same duration, and the total duration should not be less than approximately 20 minutes. The intent of pre-start clearance observation (30 minutes) is to ensure no marine mammals are observed within the pre-start clearance zone (or extended SZ, for beaked whales, a large whale with a calf, and groups of six or more large whales) prior to the beginning of ramp-up. During the pre-start clearance period is the only time observations of marine mammals in the buffer zone would prevent operations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the beginning of ramp-up). The intent of ramp-up is to warn marine mammals of pending seismic survey operations and to allow sufficient time for those animals to leave the immediate vicinity prior to the sound source reaching full intensity. A ramp-up procedure, involving a step-wise increase in the number of airguns firing and total array volume until all operational airguns are activated and the full volume is achieved, is required at all times as part of the activation of the airgun array. All operators must adhere to the following pre-start clearance and ramp-up requirements:
                    </P>
                    <P>• The operator must notify a designated PSO of the planned start of ramp-up as agreed upon with the lead PSO; the notification time should not be less than 60 minutes prior to the planned ramp-up in order to allow the PSOs time to monitor the pre-start clearance zone (and extended SZ) for 30 minutes prior to the initiation of ramp-up (pre-start clearance);</P>
                    <P>• Ramp-ups shall be scheduled so as to minimize the time spent with the source activated prior to reaching the designated run-in;</P>
                    <P>• One of the PSOs conducting pre-start clearance observations must be notified again immediately prior to initiating ramp-up procedures and the operator must receive confirmation from the PSO to proceed;</P>
                    <P>• Ramp-up may not be initiated if any marine mammal is within the applicable shutdown or buffer zone. If a marine mammal is observed within the pre-start clearance zone (or extended SZ, for beaked whales, a large whale with a calf, and groups of six or more large whales) during the 30 minute pre-start clearance period, ramp-up may not begin until the animal(s) has been observed exiting the zones or until an additional time period has elapsed with no further sightings (15 minutes for small odontocetes, and 30 minutes for all mysticetes and all other odontocetes, including sperm whales, beaked whales, and large delphinids, such as pilot whales);</P>
                    <P>• Ramp-up shall begin by activating a single airgun of the smallest volume in the array and shall continue in stages by doubling the number of active elements at the commencement of each stage, with each stage of approximately the same duration. Duration shall not be less than 20 minutes. The operator must provide information to the PSO documenting that appropriate procedures were followed;</P>
                    <P>• PSOs must monitor the pre-start clearance zone and extended SZ during ramp-up, and ramp-up must cease and the source must be shut down upon detection of a marine mammal within the applicable zone. Once ramp-up has begun, detections of marine mammals within the buffer zone do not require shutdown, but such observation shall be communicated to the operator to prepare for the potential shutdown;</P>
                    <P>• Ramp-up may occur at times of poor visibility, including nighttime, if appropriate acoustic monitoring has occurred with no detections in the 30 minutes prior to beginning ramp-up. Airgun array activation may only occur at times of poor visibility where operational planning cannot reasonably avoid such circumstances;</P>
                    <P>
                        • If the airgun array is shut down for brief periods (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 30 minutes) for reasons other than implementation of prescribed mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         mechanical difficulty), it may be activated again without ramp-up if PSOs have maintained constant visual and/or acoustic observation and no visual or acoustic detections of marine mammals have occurred within the pre-start clearance zone (or extended SZ, where applicable). For any longer shutdown, pre-start clearance observation and ramp-up are required; and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Testing of the airgun array involving all elements requires ramp-up. Testing limited to individual source elements or strings does not require ramp-up but does require pre-start clearance of 30 minutes.
                        <PRTPAGE P="18048"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Shutdown</HD>
                    <P>
                        The shutdown of an airgun array requires the immediate de-activation of all individual airgun elements of the array. Any PSO on duty will have the authority to call for shutdown of the airgun array if a marine mammal is detected within the applicable SZ. The operator must also establish and maintain clear lines of communication directly between PSOs on duty and crew controlling the airgun array to ensure that shutdown commands are conveyed swiftly while allowing PSOs to maintain watch. When both visual and acoustic PSOs are on duty, all detections will be immediately communicated to the remainder of the on-duty PSO team for potential verification of visual observations by the acoustic PSO or of acoustic detections by visual PSOs. When the airgun array is active (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         anytime one or more airguns is active, including during ramp-up) and (1) a marine mammal appears within or enters the applicable SZ and/or (2) a marine mammal (other than delphinids, see below) is detected acoustically and localized within the applicable SZ, the airgun array will be shut down. When shutdown is called for by a PSO, the airgun array will be immediately deactivated and any dispute resolved only following deactivation. Additionally, shutdown will occur whenever PAM alone (without visual sighting), confirms presence of marine mammal(s) in the SZ. If the acoustic PSO cannot confirm presence within the SZ, visual PSOs will be notified but shutdown is not required.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Following a shutdown, airgun activity would not resume until the marine mammal has cleared the SZ. The animal would be considered to have cleared the SZ if it is visually observed to have departed the SZ (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         animal is not required to fully exit the buffer zone where applicable), or it has not been seen within the SZ for 15 minutes for small odontocetes or 30 minutes for all mysticetes and all other odontocetes, including sperm whales, beaked whales, and large delphinids, such as pilot whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The shutdown requirement is waived for specific genera of small dolphins if an individual is detected within the SZ. The small dolphin group is intended to encompass those members of the Family Delphinidae most likely to voluntarily approach the source vessel for purposes of interacting with the vessel and/or airgun array (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bow riding). This exception to the shutdown requirement applies solely the specific genera of small dolphins (
                        <E T="03">Delphinus, Lagenodelphis, Stenella, Steno,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Tursiops</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We include this small dolphin exception because shutdown requirements for these species under all circumstances represent practicability concerns without likely commensurate benefits for the animals in question. Small dolphins are generally the most commonly observed marine mammals in the specific geographic region and would typically be the only marine mammals likely to intentionally approach the vessel. As described above, AUD INJ is extremely unlikely to occur for high-frequency cetaceans (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         delphinids), as this group is relatively insensitive to sound produced at the predominant frequencies in an airgun pulse while also having a relatively high threshold for the onset of AUD INJ (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         PTS).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A large body of anecdotal evidence indicates that small dolphins commonly approach vessels and/or towed arrays during active sound production for purposes of bow riding with no apparent effect observed (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Barkaszi 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012, Barkaszi and Kelly 2018). The potential for increased shutdowns resulting from such a measure would require the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         to revisit the missed track line to reacquire data, resulting in an overall increase in the total sound energy input to the marine environment and an increase in the total duration over which the survey is active in a given area. Although other high-frequency hearing specialists (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         large delphinids) are no more likely to incur AUD INJ than are small dolphins, they are much less likely to approach vessels. Therefore, retaining a shutdown requirement for large delphinids would not have similar impacts in terms of either practicability for the applicant or corollary increase in sound energy output and time on the water. We do anticipate some benefit for a shutdown requirement for large delphinids in that it simplifies somewhat the total range of decision-making for PSOs and may preclude any potential for physiological effects other than to the auditory system as well as some more severe behavioral reactions for any such animals in close proximity to the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Visual PSOs shall use best professional judgment in making the decision to call for a shutdown if there is uncertainty regarding identification (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         whether the observed marine mammal(s) belongs to one of the delphinid genera for which shutdown is waived or one of the species with a larger SZ).
                    </P>
                    <P>L-DEO must implement shutdown if a marine mammal species for which take was not authorized or a species for which authorization was granted but the authorized takes have been met approaches the Level A or Level B harassment zones. L-DEO must also implement the extended 1,500 m shutdown if any large whale (defined as a sperm whale or any mysticete species) with a calf (defined as an animal less than two-thirds the body size of an adult observed to be in close association with an adult) and/or an aggregation of six or more large whales are observed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vessel Strike Avoidance Mitigation Measures</HD>
                    <P>Vessel personnel should use an appropriate reference guide that includes identifying information on all marine mammals that may be encountered. Vessel operators must comply with the below measures except under extraordinary circumstances when the safety of the vessel or crew is in doubt or the safety of life at sea is in question. These requirements do not apply in any case where compliance would create an imminent and serious threat to a person or vessel or to the extent that a vessel is restricted in its ability to maneuver and, because of the restriction, cannot comply.</P>
                    <P>
                        Vessel operators and crews must maintain a vigilant watch for all marine mammals and slow down, stop their vessel, or alter course, as appropriate and regardless of vessel size, to avoid striking any marine mammal. A single marine mammal at the surface may indicate the presence of submerged animals in the vicinity of the vessel; therefore, precautionary measures should always be exercised. A visual observer aboard the vessel must monitor a vessel strike avoidance zone around the vessel (separation distances stated below). Visual observers monitoring the vessel strike avoidance zone may be third-party observers (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         PSOs) or crew members, but crew members responsible for these duties must be provided sufficient training to (1) distinguish marine mammals from other phenomena and (2) broadly to identify a marine mammal as a right whale, other whale (defined in this context as sperm whales or baleen whales other than right whales), or other marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Vessel speeds must be reduced to 10 kn (18.5 kph) or less when mother/calf pairs, pods, or large assemblages of cetaceans are observed near a vessel. All vessels must maintain a minimum separation distance of 100 m from sperm whales and all other baleen whales. All vessels must, to the maximum extent practicable, attempt to maintain a minimum separation distance of 50 m from all other marine 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18049"/>
                        mammals, with an understanding that at times this may not be possible (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         for animals that approach the vessel).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When marine mammals are sighted while a vessel is underway, the vessel shall take action as necessary to avoid violating the relevant separation distance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         attempt to remain parallel to the animal's course, avoid excessive speed or abrupt changes in direction until the animal has left the area). If marine mammals are sighted within the relevant separation distance, the vessel must reduce speed and shift the engine to neutral, not engaging the engines until animals are clear of the area. This does not apply to any vessel towing gear or any vessel that is navigationally constrained.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS conducted an independent evaluation of the proposed measures, and has preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means of effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Monitoring and Reporting</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an IHA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present while conducting the activities. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.</P>
                    <P>Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         presence, abundance, distribution, density);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) action or environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         source characterization, propagation, ambient noise); (2) affected species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         life history, dive patterns); (3) co-occurrence of marine mammal species with the activity; or (4) biological or behavioral context of exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         age, calving or feeding areas);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;</P>
                    <P>• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Effects on marine mammal habitat (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         marine mammal prey species, acoustic habitat, or other important physical components of marine mammal habitat); and,
                    </P>
                    <P>• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.</P>
                    <P>The proposed monitoring and reporting requirements described in the following were proposed by L-DEO in its adequate and complete application and/or are the result of subsequent coordination between NMFS and L-DEO. L-DEO has agreed to the requirements. NMFS describes these below as requirements and has included them in the proposed IHA.</P>
                    <P>L-DEO must use dedicated, trained, and NMFS-approved PSOs. The PSOs must have no tasks other than to conduct observational effort, record observational data, and communicate with and instruct relevant vessel crew with regard to the presence of marine mammals and mitigation requirements. PSO resumes shall be provided to NMFS for approval.</P>
                    <P>At least one of the visual and two of the acoustic PSOs (discussed below) aboard the vessel must have a minimum of 90 days at-sea experience working in those roles, respectively, with no more than 18 months elapsed since the conclusion of the at-sea experience. One visual PSO with such experience shall be designated as the lead for the entire protected species observation team. The lead PSO shall serve as primary point of contact for the vessel operator and ensure all PSO requirements per the IHA are met. To the maximum extent practicable, the experienced PSOs should be scheduled to be on duty with those PSOs with appropriate training but who have not yet gained relevant experience.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Vessel-Based Visual Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described above, PSO observations would take place during daytime airgun operations. During seismic survey operations, at least five visual PSOs would be based aboard the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth.</E>
                         Two visual PSOs would be on duty at all times during daytime hours. Monitoring shall be conducted in accordance with the following requirements:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • The operator shall provide PSOs with bigeye binoculars (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         25 x 150; 2.7 view angle; individual ocular focus; height control) of appropriate quality solely for PSO use. These shall be pedestal-mounted on the deck at the most appropriate vantage point that provides for optimal sea surface observation, PSO safety, and safe operation of the vessel; and
                    </P>
                    <P>• The operator will work with the selected third-party observer provider to ensure PSOs have all equipment (including backup equipment) needed to adequately perform necessary tasks, including accurate determination of distance and bearing to observed marine mammals.</P>
                    <P>PSOs must have the following requirements and qualifications:</P>
                    <P>• PSOs shall be independent, dedicated, trained visual and acoustic PSOs and must be employed by a third-party observer provider;</P>
                    <P>• PSOs shall have no tasks other than to conduct observational effort (visual or acoustic), collect data, and communicate with and instruct relevant vessel crew with regard to the presence of protected species and mitigation requirements (including brief alerts regarding maritime hazards);</P>
                    <P>• PSOs shall have successfully completed an approved PSO training course appropriate for their designated task (visual or acoustic). Acoustic PSOs are required to complete specialized training for operating PAM systems and are encouraged to have familiarity with the vessel with which they will be working;</P>
                    <P>• PSOs can act as acoustic or visual observers (but not at the same time) as long as they demonstrate that their training and experience are sufficient to perform the task at hand;</P>
                    <P>
                        • NMFS must review and approve PSO resumes accompanied by a relevant training course information packet that includes the name and qualifications (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         experience, training completed, or educational background) of the instructor(s), the course outline or syllabus, and course reference material as well as a document stating successful completion of the course;
                    </P>
                    <P>• PSOs must successfully complete relevant training, including completion of all required coursework and passing (80 percent or greater) a written and/or oral examination developed for the training program;</P>
                    <P>
                        • PSOs must have successfully attained a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university with a major in one of the natural sciences, a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18050"/>
                        minimum of 30 semester hours or equivalent in the biological sciences, and at least one undergraduate course in math or statistics; and
                    </P>
                    <P>• The educational requirements may be waived if the PSO has acquired the relevant skills through alternate experience. Requests for such a waiver shall be submitted to NMFS and must include written justification. Requests shall be granted or denied (with justification) by NMFS within 1 week of receipt of submitted information. Alternate experience that may be considered includes, but is not limited to (1) secondary education and/or experience comparable to PSO duties; (2) previous work experience conducting academic, commercial, or government-sponsored protected species surveys; or (3) previous work experience as a PSO; the PSO should demonstrate good standing and consistently good performance of PSO duties.</P>
                    <P>• For data collection purposes, PSOs shall use standardized electronic data collection forms. PSOs shall record detailed information about any implementation of mitigation requirements, including the distance of animals to the airgun array and description of specific actions that ensued, the behavior of the animal(s), any observed changes in behavior before and after implementation of mitigation, and if shutdown was implemented, the length of time before any subsequent ramp-up of the airgun array. If required mitigation was not implemented, PSOs should record a description of the circumstances. At a minimum, the following information must be recorded:</P>
                    <P>○ Vessel name, vessel size and type, maximum speed capability of vessel;</P>
                    <P>○ Dates (MM/DD/YYYY) of departures and returns to port with port name;</P>
                    <P>○ PSO names and affiliations, PSO ID (initials or other identifier);</P>
                    <P>○ Date (MM/DD/YYYY) and participants of PSO briefings;</P>
                    <P>○ Visual monitoring equipment used (description);</P>
                    <P>○ PSO location on vessel and height (meters) of observation location above water surface;</P>
                    <P>○ Watch status (description);</P>
                    <P>○ Dates (MM/DD/YYYY) and times (Greenwich Mean Time/UTC) of survey on/off effort and times (GMC/UTC) corresponding with PSO on/off effort;</P>
                    <P>○ Vessel location (decimal degrees) when survey effort began and ended and vessel location at beginning and end of visual PSO duty shifts;</P>
                    <P>○ Vessel location (decimal degrees) at 30-second intervals if obtainable from data collection software, otherwise at practical regular interval;</P>
                    <P>○ Vessel heading (compass heading) and speed (knots) at beginning and end of visual PSO duty shifts and upon any change;</P>
                    <P>○ Water depth (meters) (if obtainable from data collection software);</P>
                    <P>○ Environmental conditions while on visual survey (at beginning and end of PSO shift and whenever conditions changed significantly), including BSS and any other relevant weather conditions including cloud cover, fog, sun glare, and overall visibility to the horizon;</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Factors that may have contributed to impaired observations during each PSO shift change or as needed as environmental conditions changed (description) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vessel traffic, equipment malfunctions); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Vessel/Survey activity information (and changes thereof) (description), such as airgun power output while in operation, number and volume of airguns operating in the array, tow depth of the array, and any other notes of significance (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pre-start clearance, ramp-up, shutdown, testing, shooting, ramp-up completion, end of operations, streamers, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>• Upon visual observation of any marine mammals, the following information must be recorded:</P>
                    <P>○ Sighting ID (numeric);</P>
                    <P>○ Watch status (sighting made by PSO on/off effort, opportunistic, crew, alternate vessel/platform);</P>
                    <P>○ Location of PSO/observer (description);</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Vessel activity at the time of the sighting (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         deploying, recovering, testing, shooting, data acquisition, other);
                    </P>
                    <P>○ PSO who sighted the animal/ID;</P>
                    <P>○ Time/date of sighting (GMT/UTC, MM/DD/YYYY);</P>
                    <P>○ Initial detection method (description);</P>
                    <P>○ Sighting cue (description);</P>
                    <P>○ Vessel location at time of sighting (decimal degrees);</P>
                    <P>○ Water depth (meters);</P>
                    <P>○ Direction of vessel's travel (compass direction);</P>
                    <P>○ Speed (knots) of the vessel from which the observation was made;</P>
                    <P>○ Direction of animal's travel relative to the vessel (description, compass heading);</P>
                    <P>○ Bearing to sighting (degrees);</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Identification of the animal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         genus/species, lowest possible taxonomic level, or unidentified) and the composition of the group if there is a mix of species;
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Species reliability (an indicator of confidence in identification) (1 = unsure/possible, 2 = probable, 3 = definite/sure, 9 = unknown/not recorded);</P>
                    <P>○ Estimated distance to the animal (meters) and method of estimating distance;</P>
                    <P>○ Estimated number of animals (high/low/best) (numeric);</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Estimated number of animals by cohort (adults, yearlings, juveniles, calves, group composition, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        );
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Description (as many distinguishing features as possible of each individual seen, including length, shape, color, pattern, scars or markings, shape and size of dorsal fin, shape of head, and blow characteristics);</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Detailed behavior observations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         number of blows/breaths, number of surfaces, breaching, spyhopping, diving, feeding, traveling; as explicit and detailed as possible; note any observed changes in behavior);
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Animal's closest point of approach (meters) and/or closest distance from any element of the airgun array;</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Description of any actions implemented in response to the sighting (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         delays, shutdown, ramp-up) and time and location of the action.
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Photos (Yes/No);</P>
                    <P>○ Photo Frame Numbers (List of numbers); and</P>
                    <P>○ Conditions at time of sighting (Visibility; BSS).</P>
                    <P>If a marine mammal is detected while using the PAM system, the following information should be recorded:</P>
                    <P>• An acoustic encounter identification number, and whether the detection was linked with a visual sighting;</P>
                    <P>• Date and time when first and last heard;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Types and nature of sounds heard (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         clicks, whistles, creaks, burst pulses, continuous, sporadic, strength of signal); and
                    </P>
                    <P>• Any additional information recorded such as water depth of the hydrophone array, bearing of the animal to the vessel (if determinable), species or taxonomic group (if determinable), spectrogram screenshot, and any other notable information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reporting</HD>
                    <P>
                        L-DEO shall submit a draft comprehensive report on all activities and monitoring results within 90 days of the completion of the survey or expiration of the IHA, whichever comes sooner. The report must describe all activities conducted and sightings of marine mammals, must provide full documentation of methods, results, and interpretation pertaining to all monitoring, and must summarize the dates and locations of survey operations 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18051"/>
                        and all marine mammal sightings (dates, times, locations, activities, associated survey activities). The draft report shall also include geo-referenced time-stamped vessel tracklines for all time periods during which airgun arrays were operating. Tracklines should include points recording any change in airgun array status (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         when the sources began operating, when they were turned off, or when they changed operational status such as from full array to single gun or vice versa). Geographic Information System files shall be provided in Environmental Systems Research Institute shapefile format and include the UTC date and time, latitude in decimal degrees, and longitude in decimal degrees. All coordinates shall be referenced to the WGS84 geographic coordinate system. In addition to the report, all raw observational data shall be made available. The report must summarize data collected as described above in Proposed Monitoring and Reporting. A final report must be submitted within 30 days following resolution of any comments on the draft report.
                    </P>
                    <P>The report must include a validation document concerning the use of PAM, which should include necessary noise validation diagrams and demonstrate whether background noise levels on the PAM deployment limited achievement of the planned detection goals. Copies of any vessel self-noise assessment reports must be included with the report.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reporting Injured or Dead Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Discovery of injured or dead marine mammals</E>
                        —In the event that personnel involved in the survey activities discover an injured or dead marine mammal, the L-DEO shall report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources (OPR) as soon as feasible. The report must include the following information:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the first discovery (and updated location information if known and applicable);</P>
                    <P>• Species identification (if known) or description of the animal(s) involved;</P>
                    <P>• Condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition if the animal is dead);</P>
                    <P>• Observed behaviors of the animal(s), if alive;</P>
                    <P>• If available, photographs or video footage of the animal(s); and</P>
                    <P>• General circumstances under which the animal was discovered.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Vessel strike</E>
                        —In the event of a strike of a marine mammal by any vessel involved in the activities covered by the authorization, L-DEO shall report the incident to OPRas soon as feasible. The report must include the following information:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;</P>
                    <P>• Vessel's speed during and leading up to the incident;</P>
                    <P>• Vessel's course/heading and what operations were being conducted (if applicable);</P>
                    <P>• Status of all sound sources in use;</P>
                    <P>• Description of avoidance measures/requirements that were in place at the time of the strike and what additional measure were taken, if any, to avoid strike;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Environmental conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         wind speed and direction, BSS, cloud cover, visibility) immediately preceding the strike;
                    </P>
                    <P>• Species identification (if known) or description of the animal(s) involved;</P>
                    <P>• Estimated size and length of the animal that was struck;</P>
                    <P>• Description of the behavior of the marine mammal immediately preceding and following the strike;</P>
                    <P>• If available, description of the presence and behavior of any other marine mammals present immediately preceding the strike;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Estimated fate of the animal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dead, injured but alive, injured and moving, blood or tissue observed in the water, status unknown, disappeared); and
                    </P>
                    <P>• To the extent practicable, photographs or video footage of the animal(s).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be “taken” through harassment, NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         intensity, duration), the context of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         critical reproductive time or location, foraging impacts affecting energetics), as well as effects on habitat, and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS' implementing regulations (54 FR 40338, September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the baseline (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, or ambient noise levels).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid repetition, the discussion of our analysis applies to all the species listed in table 1, given that the anticipated effects of this activity on these different marine mammal species are expected to be similar. Where there are meaningful differences between species, they are included as separate subsections below. NMFS does not anticipate that serious injury or mortality would occur as a result of L-DEO's planned survey, even in the absence of mitigation, and no serious injury or mortality is proposed to be authorized. As discussed in the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section above, non-auditory physical effects and vessel strike are not expected to occur. NMFS expects that the majority of potential takes would be in the form of short-term Level B behavioral harassment, resulting from temporary avoidance of the area or decreased foraging (if such activity was occurring), reactions that are considered to be of low severity and with no lasting biological consequences (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2021). These low-level impacts of behavioral harassment are not likely to impact the overall fitness of any individual or lead to population level effects of any species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing to authorize a limited number of Level A harassment events of five species in the form of PTS (Bryde's whale, sei whale, minke whale, and 
                        <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                         spp. (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pygmy and dwarf sperm whales)). If any PTS is incurred in marine mammals as a result of the specified activity, we expect only a small degree of PTS that would not result in severe hearing impairment because of the constant movement of both the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth</E>
                         and of the marine mammals in the project areas and the unlikelihood that an individual would stay near the active source for 24 hours, as well as the fact that the vessel is not expected to remain in any one area in which individual marine mammals would be expected to concentrate for an extended period of time. Additionally, L-DEO would shut down the airgun array if marine mammals approach 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18052"/>
                        within 500 m (with the exception of specific genera of dolphins, see Proposed Mitigation), further reducing the expected duration and intensity of sound and therefore, the likelihood of marine mammals incurring PTS. Since the duration of exposure to loud sounds will be relatively short, it would be unlikely to affect the fitness of any individuals. Also, as described above, we expect that marine mammals would likely move away from a sound source that represents an aversive stimulus, especially at levels that would be expected to result in PTS, given sufficient notice of the 
                        <E T="03">Langseth'</E>
                        s approach due to the vessel's relatively low speed when conducting seismic surveys.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the maximum expected Level B harassment zone around the survey vessel is 6,733 m. Therefore, the ensonified area surrounding the vessel is relatively small compared to the overall distribution of animals in the area and their use of the habitat. Feeding behavior is not likely to be significantly impacted as prey species are mobile and are broadly distributed throughout the survey area; therefore, marine mammals that may be temporarily displaced during survey activities are expected to be able to resume foraging once they have moved away from areas with disturbing levels of underwater noise. Because of the short duration (20 days of seismic operation) and temporary nature of the disturbance and the availability of similar habitat and resources in the surrounding area, the impacts to marine mammals and marine mammal prey species are not expected to cause significant or long-term fitness consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the acoustic “footprint” of the proposed survey would be very small relative to the ranges of all marine mammals that would potentially be affected. Sound levels would increase in the marine environment in a relatively small area surrounding the vessel compared to the range of the marine mammals within the proposed survey area. The seismic array would be active 24 hours per day throughout the duration of the proposed survey. However, the very brief overall duration of the proposed survey (20 days of seismic operation) would further limit potential impacts that may occur as a result of the proposed activity.</P>
                    <P>Of the marine mammal species that are likely to occur in the project area, the following species are listed as endangered under the ESA: fin whales, blue whales, sei whales, and sperm whales. The take numbers proposed for authorization for these species (table 6) are minimal relative to their modeled population sizes; therefore, we do not expect population-level impacts to any of these species. Moreover, the actual range of the populations extends past the area covered by the model, so modeled population sizes are likely smaller than their actual population size. The other marine mammal species that may be taken by harassment during L-DEO's seismic survey are not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA. There is no designated critical habitat for any ESA-listed marine mammals within the project area.</P>
                    <P>There are no rookeries, mating, or calving grounds known to be biologically important to marine mammals within the survey area, and there are no feeding areas known to be biologically important to marine mammals within the survey area.</P>
                    <P>In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect any of the species through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:</P>
                    <P>• No serious injury or mortality is anticipated or authorized;</P>
                    <P>• We are proposing to authorize a limited number of Level A harassment events of five species in the form of PTS; for any PTS that is incurred as a result of the specified activity, we expect only a small degree of PTS that would not result in severe hearing impairment because of the constant movement of both the vessel and of the marine mammals in the project areas and the unlikelihood that an individual would stay near the active source for 24 hours, as well as the fact that the vessel is not expected to remain in any one area in which individual marine mammals would be expected to concentrate for an extended period of time.</P>
                    <P>• The proposed activity is temporary and of relatively short duration (20 days of planned seismic activity);</P>
                    <P>• The majority of anticipated impacts of the proposed activity on marine mammals would be temporary behavioral changes due to avoidance of the ensonified area, which is relatively small (see table 4);</P>
                    <P>• The availability of alternative areas of similar habitat value for marine mammals to temporarily vacate the survey area during the proposed survey to avoid exposure to sounds from the activity is readily abundant;</P>
                    <P>• The potential adverse effects on fish or invertebrate species that serve as prey species for marine mammals from the proposed survey would be temporary and spatially limited and impacts to marine mammal foraging would be minimal;</P>
                    <P>
                        • The proposed mitigation measures are expected to reduce the number and severity of takes, to the extent practicable, by visually and/or acoustically detecting marine mammals within the established zones and implementing corresponding mitigation measures (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         delay; shutdown).
                    </P>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds that the marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers</HD>
                    <P>As noted previously, only take of small numbers of marine mammals may be authorized under sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, where estimated numbers are available, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals. When the predicted number of individuals to be taken is fewer than one-third of the species or stock abundance, the take is considered to be of small numbers. Additionally, other qualitative factors may be considered in the analysis, such as the temporal or spatial scale of the activities.</P>
                    <P>The number of takes NMFS proposes to authorize is below one-third of the modeled abundance for all relevant populations (specifically, take of individuals is less than three percent of the modeled abundance of each affected population, see table 6). This is conservative because the modeled abundance represents a population of the species and we assume all takes are of different individual animals, which is likely not the case. Some individuals may be encountered multiple times in a day, but PSOs would count them as separate individuals if they cannot be identified.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the estimated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds that small numbers 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18053"/>
                        of marine mammals would be taken relative to the population size of the affected species populations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 7(a)(2) of the ESA of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) requires that each Federal agency ensure that any action it authorizes, funds, or carries out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. To ensure ESA compliance for the issuance of MMPA incidental take authorizations, NMFS consults internally whenever we propose to authorize take for species listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS is proposing to authorize take of fin whales, blue whales, sei whales, and sperm whales, which are listed under the ESA. The NMFS Office of Protected Resources (OPR) Permits and Conservation Division has requested initiation of section 7 consultation under the ESA with the OPR ESA Interagency Cooperation Division for the issuance of this IHA. NMFS will conclude the ESA consultation prior to reaching a determination regarding the proposed issuance of the authorization.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Authorization</HD>
                    <P>
                        As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue an IHA to L-DEO for conducting a marine geophysical survey off the Eastern North American Margin in the Western Central Atlantic Ocean, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. A draft of the proposed IHA can be found at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-research-and-other-activities.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Public Comments</HD>
                    <P>We request comment on our analyses, the proposed authorization, and any other aspect of this notice of proposed IHA for the proposed marine geophysical survey. We also request comment on the potential renewal of this proposed IHA as described in the paragraph below. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform decisions on the request for this IHA or a subsequent renewal IHA.</P>
                    <P>
                        On a case-by-case basis, NMFS may issue a one-time, 1-year renewal IHA following notice to the public providing an additional 15 days for public comments when (1) up to another year of identical or nearly identical activities as described in the Description of Proposed Activity section of this notice is planned or (2) the activities as described in the Description of Proposed Activity section of this notice would not be completed by the time the IHA expires and a renewal would allow for completion of the activities beyond that described in the 
                        <E T="03">Dates and Duration</E>
                         section of this notice, provided all of the following conditions are met:
                    </P>
                    <P>• A request for renewal is received no later than 60 days prior to the needed renewal IHA effective date (recognizing that the renewal IHA expiration date cannot extend beyond 1 year from expiration of the initial IHA).</P>
                    <P>• The request for renewal must include the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) An explanation that the activities to be conducted under the requested renewal IHA are identical to the activities analyzed under the initial IHA, are a subset of the activities, or include changes so minor (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         reduction in pile size) that the changes do not affect the previous analyses, mitigation and monitoring requirements, or take estimates (with the exception of reducing the type or amount of take).
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) A preliminary monitoring report showing the results of the required monitoring to date and an explanation showing that the monitoring results do not indicate impacts of a scale or nature not previously analyzed or authorized.</P>
                    <P>• Upon review of the request for renewal, the status of the affected species or stocks, and any other pertinent information, NMFS determines that there are no more than minor changes in the activities, the mitigation and monitoring measures will remain the same and appropriate, and the findings in the initial IHA remain valid.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: April 7, 2026.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Kimberly Damon-Randall,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06854 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
            </NOTICE>
        </NOTICES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="18055"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Environmental Protection Agency</AGENCY>
            <CFR>40 CFR Part 60</CFR>
            <TITLE>Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18056"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 60</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358; FRL-12031-02-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 2060-AW35</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is finalizing amendments to the New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) and Emission Guidelines (EG) for Existing Sources for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas Source Category in response to petitions for reconsideration of the March 8, 2024, final rule. Specifically, this action finalizes discrete technical changes to two aspects of the rules. First, this action finalizes discrete technical changes to the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations. Second, this action finalizes discrete technical changes to the vent gas net heating value (NHV) continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and enclosed combustion device(s) (ECD). In a letter dated May 6, 2024, the EPA notified petitioners and the public that the Agency granted reconsideration on these two aspects of the final rule. These amendments neither finalize changes to any other aspect of the March 8, 2024, final rule, nor finalize alterations to the substance of any emission standards within that final rule. This action also finalizes a technical correction to reinstate regulatory text for the reporting requirements in 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15), which were mistakenly deleted by the December 2025 Final Rule. Also, in this action, the EPA finalizes changes to the regulatory text to meet the Office of the Federal Register formatting and style requirements.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule is effective on June 8, 2026. The incorporation by reference of certain material listed in the rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of June 8, 2026.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            The EPA has established a docket for this rulemaking under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                             website. Although listed, some information is not publicly available, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available electronically through 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            For questions about this final rule, contact Amy Hambrick, Natural Resources Division (E143-05), Office of Clean Air Programs, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 109 T.W. Alexander Drive, P.O. Box 12055 RTP, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-0964; and email address: 
                            <E T="03">hambrick.amy@epa.gov.</E>
                             Additional questions may be directed to the following email address: 
                            <E T="03">O&amp;GMethaneRule@epa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Preamble acronyms and abbreviations.</E>
                         Throughout this document the use of “we,” “us,” or “our” is intended to refer to the EPA. We use multiple acronyms and terms in this preamble. While this list may not be exhaustive, to ease the reading of this preamble and for reference purposes, the EPA defines the following terms and acronyms here:
                    </P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ALT alternative</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AGR acid gas removal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">APA Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">API American Petroleum Institute</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ASTM American Society for Testing and Materials</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AXPC American Exploration and Production Council</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BSER best system of emission reduction</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Btu/lb British thermal units per pound</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Btu/scf British thermal units per standard cubic feet</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">°C degrees Celsius</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAA Clean Air Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CBI Confidential Business Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            CO
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                             carbon dioxide
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CRA Congressional Review Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DRE destruction removal efficiency</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ECD enclosed combustion device(s)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EG emissions guidelines</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EIA U.S. Energy Information Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EOR enhanced oil recovery</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EPA U.S. Environmental Protection Agency</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GC gas chromatograph</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GHG greenhouse gas</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HP high-pressure</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            H
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                            S hydrogen sulfide
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ICR information collection request</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IFR interim final rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LP low-pressure</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MACT maximum achievable control technology</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MCF thousand cubic feet</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MS mass spectrometer</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NAICS North American Industry Classification System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NHV net heating value(s)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            NHV
                            <E T="52">cz</E>
                             combustion zone NHV
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            NHV
                            <E T="22">dil</E>
                             NHV dilution parameter
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NRU nitrogen removal units</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NSPS new source performance standards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NTTAA National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OGI Optical Gas Imaging</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PRA Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFA Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RLSO redline strike out</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RTC Response to Comment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">scf standard cubic feet</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TAR Tribal Authority Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TCEQ Texas Commission on Environmental Quality</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TXOGA Texas Oil and Gas Association</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UMRA Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S. United States</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VISR Video Imaging Spectro-Radiometry</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VOC volatile organic compound(s)</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Organization of this document.</E>
                         The information in this preamble is organized as follows:
                    </P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. General Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Does this action apply to me?</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Where can I get a copy of this document and other related information?</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Statutory Background and Regulatory History</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Statutory Background of CAA Sections 111(b), 111(d), and General Implementing Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. What is the regulatory history and background of NSPS and EG for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category?</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Judicial Review and Administrative Review</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary of Final Amendments to NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Temporary Flaring Provisions for Associated Gas in Certain Situations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Vent Gas NHV Continuous Monitoring Requirements and Alternative Performance Test (Sampling Demonstration) Option for Flares and Enclosed Combustion Devices</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Correction of Inadvertent Deletion of Regulatory Text</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Significant Comments and Changes Since Proposal for NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Temporary Flaring Provisions for Associated Gas in Certain Situations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Vent Gas NHV Continuous Monitoring Requirements and Alternative Performance Test (Sampling Demonstration) Option for Flares and Enclosed Combustion Device</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. How do these final amendments impact the implementation of EG OOOOc?</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                            B. Executive Order 14192: Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation
                            <PRTPAGE P="18057"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Executive Order 13211: Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR Part 51</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Congressional Review Act (CRA)</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>On March 8, 2024, the EPA published a final rule for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category under CAA section 111(b) and (d) at 89 FR 16820 (“March 2024 Final Rule”). The EPA finalized NSPS OOOOb for GHG and VOC emissions from new, modified, and reconstructed sources in this source category. The EPA also finalized EG OOOOc for GHG emissions from existing sources in this source category. The March 2024 Final Rule became effective on May 7, 2024. The March 2024 Final Rule applies to thousands of new sources and will apply to hundreds of thousands of existing sources when the EG is implemented in the crude oil and natural gas source category. Crude oil production applicability includes the well and extends to the point of custody transfer to the crude oil transmission pipeline or any other forms of transportation; and natural gas production applicability includes processing, transmission, and storage, which includes the well and extends to, but does not include, the local distribution company custody transfer station.</P>
                    <P>
                        After the publication of the March 2024 Final Rule, the EPA received multiple petitions 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for reconsideration. On May 6, 2024, we notified certain petitioners and the public that we granted reconsideration on two discrete aspects of the March 2024 Final Rule: the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations; and the vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and enclosed combustion devices.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             See Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358 for petitions for reconsideration received.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             See Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358 for May 6, 2024, letter granting reconsideration.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On January 15, 2025, the EPA proposed amendments to the New Source Performance Standards and Emission Guidelines for Existing Sources for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas Source Category in response to these petitions for reconsideration (“January 2025 Proposal”).
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, we proposed discrete technical changes to two different aspects of the rules (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         technical changes to the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations; technical changes to the vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and enclosed combustion devices).
                        <SU>.</SU>
                         This action finalizes amendments to the March 2024 Final Rule resulting from our reconsideration of these two discrete issues.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             90 FR 3734 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             In the May 6, 2024, letter to petitioners, the EPA also took the opportunity to clarify the applicable timeframe for performance testing with respect to NHV sampling.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On January 20, 2025, the President issued Executive Orders 14154 (Unleashing American Energy) 
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 14156 (Declaring a National Energy Emergency).
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Then, on January 31, 2025, the President issued Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity through Deregulation).
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On March 12, 2025, against this backdrop, the EPA announced plans for deregulatory actions to, among other things, unleash American energy.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On that same day, and as part of the larger Agency plan, the EPA announced plans to reconsider the regulations promulgated via the March 2024 Final Rule “to ensure they do not prevent America from unleashing energy dominance.” 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             90 FR 8353 (January 29, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             90 FR 8433 (January 29, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             90 FR 9065 (February 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/newsreleases/epa-launches-biggest-deregulatory-action-us-history.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/newsreleases/trump-epa-announces-oooo-bc-reconsideration-biden-harris-rules-strangling-american.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On July 31, 2025, the EPA promulgated an IFR which extended deadlines for certain provisions related to control devices, equipment leaks, storage vessels, process controllers, and covers and closed vent systems in the NSPS OOOOb.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Within that IFR, the EPA also extended the date for future implementation of the Super Emitter Program and extended the State plan submittal deadline in the EG OOOOc. In December 2025, the EPA promulgated a final rule which responded to comments received on the July 2025 IFR and concluded that the regulatory amendments made in the IFR were still appropriate after consideration of comments.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to comments received, the December 2025 Final Rule also provided an additional 180-day extension (from the final rule's effective date) (until June 1, 2026) to the compliance dates related to NHV monitoring of flares and ECD found in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(i) through (iv) and (vi), as well as 360 days from the effective date of the December 2025 Final Rule (November 30, 2026) for owners or operators to submit initial annual reports pursuant to 40 CFR 60.5420(b).
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             90 FR 35966 (July 31, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             See 90 FR at 35970-35972 (July 31, 2025), and 90 FR 55675-55676 (December 3, 2025) for discussion of the rationale for NHV monitoring extension.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In this final rule, the EPA is finalizing changes to two aspects of the March 2024 Final Rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         temporary flaring and NHV monitoring) after consideration of comments received on the January 2025 Proposal.
                    </P>
                    <P>First, this action finalizes discrete technical changes to the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations. These changes include:</P>
                    <P>• Extending the baseline time limit for temporary flaring of associated gas in certain situations from 24 hours to 72 hours with allowances to go beyond 72 hours in the event of exigent circumstances such as extreme inclement weather that prevent an owner or operator from safely accessing a well site to resolve an emergency or maintenance issue:</P>
                    <P>○ Requiring owners and operators to cease flaring as soon as the malfunction is resolved or the temporary flaring limit is reached, whichever occurs first, and</P>
                    <P>○ Clarifying recordkeeping and reporting requirements to include a written description of the exigent circumstance, steps taken to resolve the issue, date and time when it took place, and the total duration of flaring.</P>
                    <P>Second, this action finalizes discrete technical changes to the vent gas net heating value (NHV) continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and ECDs. These changes include:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Revising numerous aspects of vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) options for flares and enclosed combustion devices by:
                        <PRTPAGE P="18058"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Expanding gas streams that are exempt from monitoring due to high NHV content to include all flare types (unassisted and assisted), as well as ECDs for both new and existing sources, and</P>
                    <P>○ Requiring NHV monitoring via continuous monitoring or alternative sampling demonstration in cases where inert gases are added, or for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV content of the inlet gas stream for all flare types and ECDs for both new and existing sources.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Summary of the Major Provisions of This Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>After considering comments received on the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA is allowing up to 72 hours for certain types of temporary flaring of associated gas based on information indicating that more than 24 or 48 hours is needed in some instances. While we acknowledge owners or operators have an economic incentive not to flare due to product (natural gas) loss that can equate to lost revenue, we have included a backstop requirement that owners or operators cease flaring after resolving the incident causing the need to flare. Collectively, the EPA is increasing the allowance of temporary flaring to 72 hours and including a backstop requirement, so owners or operators have both the economic incentive and a regulatory obligation to cease flaring of associated gas after an equipment malfunction or failure is addressed.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the EPA solicited comments in the January 2025 Proposal on specific situations that would be considered “exigent circumstances.” Based on comments received and a re-assessment of data provided to the EPA, we are finalizing an allowance to flare for greater than 72 hours if an exigent circumstance persists and there is a need to extend the temporary flaring duration for maintenance, safety issues, or repairs. While we expect that the vast majority of temporary flaring situations to be addressed within the 72-hour timeframe, we recognize that there may be equipment malfunction incidents that require more than 72 hours to resolve due to circumstances beyond an owner's or operator's control. However, to ensure flaring does not continue beyond the time that is necessary to resolve a malfunction incident, we are including a backstop to this extended timeframe of flaring until such equipment malfunctions during these exigent circumstances are resolved or no longer present, whichever is sooner.</P>
                    <P>After considering input from commenters, the EPA is finalizing that an “exigent circumstance” must be a situation that restricts an owner's or operator's ability to reasonably access a site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address and resolve equipment malfunction incidents that cause the need to temporarily flare associated gas for more than 72 hours.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, the EPA is finalizing recordkeeping and reporting requirements when exigent circumstances are invoked. The EPA anticipates that exigent circumstances will be invoked only in limited cases, and that these additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements will not add undue burden to owners and operators.</P>
                    <P>The March 2024 Final Rule requires owners and operators to perform NHV sampling for flares and ECD through continuous monitoring of NHV or through periodic testing with sampling demonstrations. Industry petitioners submitted reconsideration petitions in response to the January 2025 proposal claiming that the compliance demonstrations are unnecessary, technically infeasible, and provide a limited timeline for compliance. The petitioners argued that over 99 percent of historical Btu stream data already complies with the prescribed minimum NHV content values (depending on flare type) outlined in the March 2024 Final Rule. Industry petitioners asserted that NHV content is usually a concern when inert gases are added to the process streams, which typically occurs during scheduled situations and is known to the operator of the affected source. The EPA made amendments to the NHV provisions based on data submitted by industry supporting their claims that the majority (over 99 percent) of facilities already complied with the minimum NHV requirements, and NHV content is only a concern when inert gases (and other miscellaneous scenarios) are added to the process streams.</P>
                    <P>Based on information from these petitions, as well as further information provided by industry following the January 2025 proposal, the EPA is finalizing changes to the continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test options (sampling demonstration) of NHV for flares and ECD. First, the EPA is expanding the gas streams that are exempt from monitoring due to high NHV content to include all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources. However, the EPA is also requiring that NHV monitoring be performed (via either continuous monitoring or the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option currently prescribed in the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc regulations) in cases where inert gases are added and for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas to all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources. In addition, the EPA is providing additional flexibility for alternative performance testing via the NHV grab sampling option by allowing samples to be taken upstream of the control device, provided that the sample is representative of the gas being introduced to the control device. Additionally, we are finalizing as proposed to allow breaks during weekends and holidays for the March 2024 Final Rule's consecutive 14-day sampling demonstration requirements to account for reasonable operational pauses provided no sampling is spaced more than 3 operating days apart from the previous sampling day. The EPA is also allowing less than one-hour sampling times in cases where low or intermittent flow makes it infeasible for both NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOC sources, provided the sampling time used and reason for the reduced sampling time is documented and reported. Finally, the EPA is clarifying NHV testing must be reported in volumetric units (Btu/scf) instead of specific units (Btu/lb) in order to facilitate consistency in reporting.</P>
                    <P>
                        This action also finalizes a technical correction to reinstate regulatory text for the reporting requirements in 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15), which were mistakenly deleted by the December 2025 Final Rule,
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under the authority of section 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), which states, when an agency for good cause finds that public notice and comment procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, the agency may issue a rule without providing notice and an opportunity for public comment. Lastly, in this action, the EPA is finalizing formatting changes to the regulatory text to meet the required formatting standards of the Office of the Federal Register.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             To view the final formatting changes, see the full redline strike out (RLSO) of the regulatory text located in the public docket at EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA estimated present values (PV) and equivalent annualized values (EAV) of the estimated cost savings of this final reconsideration in 2024 dollars over the 2024 to 2038 period. The cost savings are represented in this analysis as the reduction in the number of affected sources and a reduction in the number of tests required for each affected source for the changes finalized 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18059"/>
                        in this reconsideration. In simple terms, these cost savings are an estimate of the decreased industry expenditures resulting from the final changes to the March 2024 Final Rule requirements. Under this final action, emissions changes and benefits from emission changes were not quantified. Qualitatively, the changes to the temporary flaring limitation could result in increases to emissions, while we do not expect any emissions changes to result from the changes to the NHV testing compliance demonstration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Table 1 presents the estimated cost savings of this proposed action in 2024 dollars for the baseline which includes the March 2024 Final Rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the primary baseline analyzed in the EIA). This table presents the PV and EAV of these estimates discounted at three percent and seven percent.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s125,23,23">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Present Value and Equivalent Annualized Value of Compliance Cost Savings Estimates of the Final Action From 2024-2038 </TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Millions of 2024$]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">3 Percent discount rate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">7 Percent discount rate</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Present Value</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,480</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,900</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Equivalent Annualized Value</ENT>
                            <ENT>208</ENT>
                            <ENT>209</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                    <P>The source category that is the subject of this final action is the Crude Oil and Natural Gas Source Category regulated under Clean Air Act (CAA) section 111 through New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) and Emission Guidelines (EG). The 2022 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes for the source category are summarized in Table 2. The NAICS codes serve as a guide for readers outlining the entities that this final action is likely to affect. The NSPS codified in 40 CFR part 60, subpart OOOOb, are directly applicable to affected facilities that begin construction, reconstruction, or modification after December 6, 2022. As shown in Table 1, Federal, State, and local government entities would not be affected by the NSPS action.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s75,12,r75">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Industrial Source Categories Affected by NSPS Action</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS code</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Examples of regulated entities</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Industry</ENT>
                            <ENT>211120</ENT>
                            <ENT>Crude Petroleum Extraction.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>211130</ENT>
                            <ENT>Natural Gas Extraction.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>221210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Natural Gas Distribution.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>486110</ENT>
                            <ENT>Pipeline Distribution of Crude Oil.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>486210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Pipeline Transportation of Natural Gas.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Federal Government</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Not affected.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">State and Local Government</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Not affected.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tribal Government</ENT>
                            <ENT>921150</ENT>
                            <ENT>American Indian and Alaska Native Tribal Governments.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        This table is not intended to be exhaustive but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be affected by this action. Other types of entities not listed in the table could also be affected by this action. To determine whether your entity is affected by this action, you should carefully examine the applicability criteria found in NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc. If you have questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section, your State air pollution control agency with delegated authority for NSPS OOOOb, or your EPA Regional Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The issuance of the CAA section 111(d) EG in March of 2024 did not impose binding requirements directly on existing sources. The EG codified in 40 CFR part 60, subpart OOOOc, apply to States in the development, submittal, and implementation of State plans to establish performance standards to reduce emissions of greenhouse gas (GHG) in the form of limitations on methane from designated facilities that commence construction, modification, or reconstruction on or before December 6, 2022. Under the Tribal Authority Rule (TAR), eligible Tribes may seek approval to implement a plan under CAA section 111(d) in a manner similar to a State. See 40 CFR part 49, subpart A. Tribes may, but are not required to, seek approval for treatment as a State for purposes of developing a Tribal Implementation Plan (TIP) implementing the EG codified in 40 CFR part 60, subpart OOOOc. The TAR authorizes Tribes to develop and implement their own air quality programs, or portions thereof, under the CAA. However, it does not require Tribes to develop a CAA program. Tribes may implement programs that are most relevant to their air quality needs. If a Tribe does not seek and obtain authority from the EPA to establish a TIP, the EPA has authority to establish a Federal CAA section 111(d) plan for designated facilities that are located in areas of Indian country.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A Federal plan would apply to all designated facilities located in the areas of Indian country unless the EPA approves a TIP applicable to those facilities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             See the EPA's website, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/tribal/tribes-approved-treatment-state-tas,</E>
                             for information on those Tribes that have treatment as a State for specific environmental regulatory programs, administrative functions, and grant programs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Where can I get a copy of this document and other related information?</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this action is available on the internet. A brief summary of this final rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358. Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA will post a copy of this final action at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/controlling-air-pollution-oil-and-natural-gas-operations.</E>
                         Following publication in the 
                        <E T="04">
                            Federal 
                            <PRTPAGE P="18060"/>
                            Register
                        </E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         the EPA will post the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         version of the final rule and key technical documents at this same website.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A memorandum showing the edits to 40 CFR part 60 subpart OOOOb and 40 CFR part 60 subpart OOOOc finalized in this action is available in the docket for this action (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358). Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA also will post a copy of this document to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/controlling-air-pollution-oil-and-natural-gas-operations.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Statutory Background and Regulatory History</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. CAA Sections 111(b) and 111(d)</HD>
                    <P>The EPA's authority for this rulemaking is CAA section 111, 42 U.S.C. 7411, which governs the establishment of standards of performance for stationary sources. This CAA section requires the EPA to list source categories to be regulated, establish standards of performance for air pollutants emitted by new sources in that source category, and promulgate EG for States to establish standards of performance for certain pollutants emitted by existing sources in that source category. For more information on the statutory background of CAA sections 111(b) and 111(d), and general implementing regulations, refer to the discussion provided in section IV.A (Statutory Background of the CAA sections 111(b), 111(d), and General Implementing Regulations) of the March 2024 final rule preamble. (89 FR 16846-16848; March 8, 2024).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the regulatory history and background of NSPS and EG for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category?</HD>
                    <P>On November 15, 2021, the EPA published a “proposed rule” (“November 2021 Action”) to reduce GHG and volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions from the oil and natural gas industry, specifically the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category, but did not provide proposed regulatory text. In the November 2021 Action, the EPA discussed new standards of performance under CAA section 111(b) for GHG and VOC emissions from new, modified, and reconstructed sources in this source category, as well as changes to standards of performance already codified at 40 CFR part 60, subparts OOOO and OOOOa. The EPA also proposed EG under CAA section 111(d) for GHG emissions from existing sources in this source category for the first time. The EPA also discussed a protocol under the NSPS general provisions for optical gas imaging (OGI).</P>
                    <P>On December 6, 2022, the EPA published a supplemental proposed rule (“December 2022 Supplemental Proposal”) that addressed two additional issues. First, the EPA proposed to update and expand the NSPS OOOOb standards in the November 2021 Action for GHG and VOC emissions from new, modified, and reconstructed sources. Second, the EPA proposed to update and expand the EG OOOOc standards in the November 2021 Action for GHG emissions from existing sources. For purposes of EG OOOOc, the EPA also proposed implementation requirements for State plans.</P>
                    <P>On March 8, 2024, the EPA published a final rule for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category under CAA section 111(b) and (d) at 89 FR 16820 (“March 2024 Final Rule”). The EPA finalized NSPS OOOOb for GHG and VOC emissions from new, modified, and reconstructed sources in this source category. The EPA also finalized EG OOOOc for GHG emissions from existing sources in this source category. The March 2024 Final Rule became effective on May 7, 2024. The March 2024 Final Rule applies to thousands of new sources and will apply to hundreds of thousands of existing sources when the EG is implemented in the crude oil and natural gas source category. Crude oil production applicability includes the well and extends to the point of custody transfer to the crude oil transmission pipeline or any other forms of transportation; and natural gas production applicability includes processing, transmission, and storage, which includes the well and extends to, but does not include, the local distribution company custody transfer station.</P>
                    <P>
                        After the publication of the March 2024 Final Rule, the EPA identified, through its own internal reassessment, as well as through communications with stakeholders and the Office of the Federal Register, erroneous cross-references and typographical errors within the regulatory text. Through those same processes, the EPA also identified the need for some minor wording changes to clarify erroneous language (or, in some cases, erroneous omissions) in the regulatory text, and to ensure that the regulatory text aligns with the descriptions of the relevant provisions in the March 2024 Final Rule preamble and other parts of the regulation(s). The EPA published an IFR 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which made minor and non-substantive corrections to the identified inadvertent errors in the March 2024 Final Rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             89 FR 62872 (August 1, 2024); Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317-4057.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, after the publication of the March 2024 Final Rule, the EPA received multiple petitions 
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for reconsideration. On May 6, 2024, we notified certain petitioners and the public that we granted reconsideration on two discrete aspects of the March 2024 Final Rule: the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations; and the vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and enclosed combustion devices.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The American Petroleum Institute (API) and the AXPC,
                        <E T="51">19 20</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the TXOGA,
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the GPA Midstream,
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the Environmental Integrity Project 
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         submitted petitions for reconsideration on those issues. This action finalizes amendments to the March 2024 Final Rule resulting from our reconsideration of these two discrete issues.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             See Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358 for petitions for reconsideration received.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             See Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358 for May 6, 2024, letter granting reconsideration.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             Letter to Michael S. Regan, EPA Administrator, from API and AXPC. Re: Provisions in the EPA's Final Rule “New Source Performance Standards and Emission Guidelines for Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities: Climate Review.” Reconsideration of the Final Rule. April 5, 2024. Hereinafter referred to as the “April 2024 API and AXPC petition.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Letter to Michael S. Regan, EPA Administrator, from API and AXPC. Re: Request for Administrative Reconsideration of EPA's Final Rule “New Source Performance Standards and Emission Guidelines for Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities: Climate Review” May 6, 2024. Hereinafter referred to as the “May 2024 API and AXPC petition.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             Letter to Michael S. Regan, EPA Administrator, from TXOGA. Request for Reconsideration of the EPA's Final Rule “New Source Performance Standards and Emission Guidelines for Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities: Climate Review.” May 7, 2024. Hereinafter referred to as the “May 2024 TXOGA petition.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             Letter to Michael S. Regan, EPA Administrator; Gautam Srinivasan, Associate General Counsel, EPA; and Amy Hambrick, SPPD, EPA; from GPA Midstream Association. GPA Midstream Association Petition for Reconsideration and Request for Stay of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review. May 2, 2024. Hereinafter referred to as the “May 2024 GPA Midstream petition.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Letter to Michael S. Regan, EPA Administrator, from Air Alliance Houston; Clean Air Council; and Environmental Integrity Project. Re: Petition for Reconsideration of the Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review; Final Rule, 89 FR 16,820 (March 8, 2024), Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317. May 7, 2024. Hereinafter referred to as the “May 2024 EIP et al. petition.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             In the May 6, 2024, letter to petitioners, the EPA also took the opportunity to clarify the 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            applicable timeframe for performance testing with respect to NHV sampling.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18061"/>
                    <P>
                        On January 20, 2025, the President issued Executive Orders 14154 (Unleashing American Energy) 
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 14156 (Declaring a National Energy Emergency).
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Then, on January 31, 2025, the President issued Executive Order 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity through Deregulation).
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On March 12, 2025, against this backdrop, the EPA announced plans for deregulatory actions to, among other things, unleash American energy.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On that same day, and as part of the larger Agency plan, the EPA announced plans to reconsider the regulations promulgated via the March 2024 Final Rule “to ensure they do not prevent America from unleashing energy dominance.” 
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             90 FR 8353 (January 29, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             90 FR 8433 (January 29, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             90 FR 9065 (February 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/newsreleases/epa-launches-biggest-deregulatory-action-us-history.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/newsreleases/trump-epa-announces-oooo-bc-reconsideration-biden-harris-rules-strangling-american.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On July 31, 2025, the EPA promulgated an IFR which extended deadlines for certain provisions related to control devices, equipment leaks, storage vessels, process controllers, and covers and closed vent systems in the NSPS OOOOb.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Within that IFR, the EPA also extended the date for future implementation of the Super Emitter Program and extended the State plan submittal deadline in the EG OOOOc. In December 2025, the EPA promulgated a final rule which responded to comments received on the July 2025 IFR and concluded that the regulatory amendments made in the IFR were still appropriate after consideration of comments.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to comments received, the December 2025 Final Rule also provided an additional 180-day extension (from the final rule's effective date) (until June 1, 2026) to the compliance dates related to NHV monitoring of flares and ECD found in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(i) through (iv) and (vi), as well as 360 days from the effective date of the December 2025 Final Rule (November 30, 2026) for owners or operators to submit initial annual reports pursuant to 40 CFR 60.5420(b).
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             90 FR 35966 (July 31, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             See 90 FR at 35970-35972 (July 31, 2025), and 90 FR 55675-55676 (December 3, 2025) for discussion of the rationale for NHV monitoring extension.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Judicial Review and Administrative Review</HD>
                    <P>Under CAA section 307(b)(1), judicial review of this final rulemaking is available only by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit by June 8, 2026. Under CAA section 307(b)(2), the requirements established by this final rule may not be challenged separately in any civil or criminal proceedings brought by the EPA to enforce the requirements. 42 U.S.C. 7607(b)(1)-(2).</P>
                    <P>
                        CAA section 307(d)(7)(B) further provides that “[o]nly an objection to a rule or procedure which was raised with reasonable specificity during the period for public comment (including any public hearing) may be raised during judicial review.” This section also provides a mechanism for the EPA to convene a proceeding for reconsideration “[i]f the person raising an objection can demonstrate to the EPA that it was impracticable to raise such objection within [the period for public comment] or if the grounds for such objection arose after the period for public comment, (but within the time specified for judicial review) and if such objection is of central relevance to the outcome of the rule.” 42 U.S.C. 7607(d)(7)(B). Any person seeking to make such a demonstration to us should submit a Petition for Reconsideration to the Office of the Administrator, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Room 3000, WJC South Building, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460, with a copy to both the person(s) listed in the preceding 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section, and the Associate General Counsel for the Air and Radiation Law Office, Office of General Counsel (Mail Code 2344A), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary of Final Amendments to NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc</HD>
                    <P>
                        The amendments in this final action relate to two aspects of the March 2024 Final Rule: the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas in certain situations; and the vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and enclosed combustion devices. The two issues addressed in this final rule are separate and distinct from each other. Each of these two issues concern different portions of the March 2024 Final Rule that do not rely on the other. This action also finalizes a technical correction to reinstate regulatory text for the reporting requirements in 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15), which were mistakenly deleted by the December 2025 Final Rule.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Also, in this action, the EPA is finalizing formatting changes to the regulatory text to meet the required formatting standards of the Office of the Federal Register.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             To view the final formatting changes, see the full redline strike out (RLSO) of the regulatory text located in the public docket at EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Each regulatory change included in this final action is severable from the other. First, each of the two groups of substantive provisions amended in this action (temporary flaring of associated gas and vent gas NHV) is functionally independent from the other—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         may operate in practice independently of the other requirements being amended here, such that the amendment of one set of requirements does not turn on the amendment of any other set of requirements. Put another way, the amendments to the temporary flaring provisions in no way impact or depend on the separate amendments to the NHV provisions. The same is true in the opposite direction. The amendments to the NHV provisions in no way impact or depend on the separate amendments to the temporary flaring provisions. Second, as explained in this final rule preamble and the preamble to the proposed rule, the reasoning for each regulatory change is distinct and independent from the others. For example, amendments to the NHV provisions are separately justified from the amendments made to the temporary flaring of associated gas provisions. Again, the same is true in the opposite direction. Amendments to the temporary flaring of associated gas provisions are separately justified from the amendments made to the NHV provisions. Likewise, the formatting changes are also separate, distinct, and severable.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Temporary Flaring Provisions for Associated Gas in Certain Situations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section XI.F.2 of the March 2024 Final Rule preamble presents a discussion of reasons why an owner or operator would need to flare or vent associated gas. Based on the reasons set out in that preamble, the EPA in the March 2024 Final Rule allowed owners and operators to temporarily route associated gas to a flare or control device for 24 hours in certain situations, including during a deviation caused by a malfunction (including for reasons of safety) and during repair, maintenance such as blowdowns, a bradenhead test, a packer leakage test, a production test, or commissioning. On January 15, 2025, the EPA proposed extending the allowable time for these situations from 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18062"/>
                        24 hours to 48 hours (“January 2025 Proposal”).
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA proposed the extended temporary flaring limit based in part on data provided by API, which showed that 85 percent of flaring events ended within 46 hours for activities such as maintenance, addressing safety issues, and repairs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             90 FR 3734 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in section III.A.2 of the preamble to the January 2025 Proposal, industry petitioners indicated that the 24-hour limitation for temporary routing of associated gas to a flare or control device in the March 2024 Final Rule is not sufficient in situations where a malfunction or an unintended incident endangers the safety of operator personnel and the public; as well as during repairs, maintenance (including blow downs), production tests, and commissioning. Petitioners claimed that a 72-hour timeframe for temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device for these situations is more appropriate due to the unique characteristics of some well sites (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         due to the differing location and composition/amount of gas produced by wells), weather conditions, or a combination of both.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After consideration of comments received on the January 2025 Proposal and revisiting the data API provided to the Agency, the EPA is finalizing two primary changes to the January 2025 Proposal related to the temporary flaring of associated gas. First, the EPA finds that increasing the temporary flaring provisions up to 72 hours is appropriate. This extended timeframe gives owners and operators enough time to travel to facilities (including geographically remote facilities), troubleshoot, obtain necessary equipment, and complete repairs. It also provides sufficient time to overcome many inclement weather situations where access to a site may be temporarily limited. Further, moving to 72 hours will reduce the number of incidents where invoking exigent circumstances is necessary, thus reducing burden on the industry. Lastly, the extended timeframe also reduces the need to shut-in operations (where a well is temporarily closed off to restrict oil and gas flow and production due to unusual or unsafe conditions) in situations where the issue(s) cannot be addressed within 24 or 48 hours. Shutting-in operations can often result in the depressurization of equipment, which may lead to the venting of associated gas to the atmosphere without control. The venting of associated gas in these scenarios may exceed the emissions that would have otherwise occurred if the provisions allowed for an additional 24 hours of flaring thereby defeating the environmental objectives of the rule.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             See 89 FR 16843-44 (March 8, 2024), section III.B.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, and relatedly, the EPA is requiring owners and operators to stop temporary flaring when repairs or maintenance are completed to avoid flaring longer than necessary during an individual incident. If repair or maintenance is completed within 72 hours, then flaring must stop at the time of completion. In other words, temporary flaring must cease as early as practicable and within 72 hours unless the facility properly invokes the procedures for a longer duration. While the 72 hours is a default maximum duration, if a situation arises that requires an owner or operator to temporarily flare beyond those 72 hours, then the final rule's additional provisions on exigent circumstances may apply. See section IV.A.1 of this preamble for further discussion of exigent circumstances. Also see section IV.A.2 for further discussion on temporary flaring beyond 72 hours.</P>
                    <P>By finalizing an upper limit of temporary flaring up to 72 hours, the final rule gives operators room to continue to develop ways to manage delays tied to these malfunctions and failures. At the same time, it prevents unnecessary flaring when problems are already fixed, thereby protecting against unnecessary emissions. This balance encourages owners and operators to keep improving how they detect and fix problems while providing flexibility and relief. It also supports better planning, faster repairs, and the potential for greater emission reductions in the future.</P>
                    <P>In summary, the EPA is allowing up to 72 hours for certain types of temporary flaring of associated gas based on information indicating that more than 24 or 48 hours is needed in some instances. While we acknowledge owners or operators have an economic incentive not to flare due to product (natural gas) loss that can equate to lost revenue, we have included a backstop requirement that owners or operators cease flaring after resolving the incident causing the need to flare. Collectively, the EPA is increasing the allowance of temporary flaring to 72 hours and including a backstop requirement, so owners or operators have both the economic incentive and a regulatory obligation to cease flaring of associated gas after an equipment malfunction or failure is addressed.</P>
                    <P>
                        Petitioners raised inclement weather as a circumstance that may deter an owner or operator from accessing an affected facility site and as a primary cause for the need to temporarily flare (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frozen gas lines, power outages). While the API dataset classifies inclement weather as the cause of 86 flaring events, the dataset classifies the primary cause of over 600 flaring events as “[u]nknown” and these events exhibited the highest average flaring durations and standard deviations. While we do not know the exact cause of the over 600 “unknown” flaring events in API's data set, maintaining a 24-hour flaring timeframe as promulgated in the March 2024 Final Rule based on the percentage of reported inclement weather-impacted events only presents a narrow reading of the data and does not reflect the unknown flaring events that exhibited the highest flaring durations and standard deviations. The EPA recognizes that the API data show that many temporary flaring events are resolved within 24 hours, and even more within 48 hours. Specifically, 83 percent of the instances were resolved within 24 hours and 85 percent within 48 hours. The EPA considered establishing cutoffs at 24 hours or 48 hours. However, the data indicate that 15 percent of instances could not be resolved within 48 hours. Industry noted that weather is a factor, but not the only factor, impacting temporary flaring events longer than 24 hours, and geographically dispersed sites, such as the Willison Basin which contained the majority (78%) of the &gt;24 hour flaring events, add additional challenge when responding to flaring events. Other causes of temporary flaring include non-scheduled maintenance or malfunction, planned maintenance, repair, or tests, and other issues such as weather or power outages. We determined based on the data and comments received on the proposal that establishing a cutoff at 24 hours or 48 hours is not supported because it necessarily fails to include a portion of the industry that is meaningful in this context. As such, we are finalizing an allowance to flare up to 72 hours for most situations, and are providing a mechanism to go beyond 72 hours to allow owners and operators the time they need to resolve equipment malfunction incidents and to include a backstop measure to ensure that temporary flaring does not continue after a malfunction incident is resolved.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In section III.A.3 of the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA acknowledged that rare instances may occur in which an owner or operator encounters a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18063"/>
                        malfunction, safety, repair, or maintenance event that requires routing to a flare or control device beyond the proposed 48-hour duration. To address such instances, the EPA solicited comments on specific situations that would be considered “exigent circumstances.” Based on comments received and a re-assessment of data provided to the EPA, we are finalizing an allowance to flare for greater than 72 hours if an exigent circumstance persists and there is a need to extend the temporary flaring duration for maintenance, safety issues, or repairs. While we expect that the vast majority of temporary flaring situations to be addressed within the 72-hour timeframe, we recognize that there may be equipment malfunction incidents that require more than 72 hours to resolve due to circumstances beyond an owner's or operator's control. However, to ensure flaring does not continue beyond the time that is necessary to resolve a malfunction incident, we are including a backstop to this extended timeframe of flaring until such equipment malfunctions during these exigent circumstances are resolved or no longer present, whichever is sooner.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After considering input from commenters, the EPA is finalizing that an “exigent circumstance” must be a situation that restricts an owner's or operator's ability to reasonably access a site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address and resolve equipment malfunction incidents that cause the need to temporarily flare associated gas for more than 72 hours. Reasonable site access is the ability of an owner or operator to safely transport the necessary personnel and equipment to a site experiencing an incident. Examples of possible situations that could limit site access include, but are not limited to, road washout from flooding; roads obstructed by snow, debris, or trees; and unsafe travel conditions from extreme weather, wildfires, and hazmat emergencies. Impediments to resolving equipment malfunctions also include when an owner or operator is unable to secure the required equipment to resolve an equipment malfunction incident due to reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         supply chain issues), or where there is a temporary shortage of personnel due to reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a national pandemic). Examples of possible situations that could limit an owner's or operator's ability to secure required equipment to resolve an unexpected malfunction due to reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control include equipment transportation disruptions, trade disputes, equipment demand competition or national supply chain issues that cause major delays in securing parts or even render them unavailable for extended periods of time.
                    </P>
                    <P>Not all situations that result in the need for temporary flaring qualify as exigent circumstances. Put another way, not all situations that result in the need to temporary flare will qualify as exigent circumstances. For example, inclement weather that results in equipment failures at a site, such as gas line freezing and power outages, would generally not constitute an exigent circumstance weather event if access to the site is not disrupted and equipment and personnel to resolve equipment malfunctions or failures are available.</P>
                    <P>Once the site is accessible and necessary equipment and personnel are available to resolve an equipment malfunction, flaring can continue until the malfunction is resolved. However, this must be no longer than 72 hours after the site is accessible, and the necessary equipment and personnel are available to resolve an equipment malfunction. The exigent circumstances provisions in the final rule are intended to accommodate rare instances where an owner or operator needs more than 72 hours to return the site to normal operations due to legitimate unforeseen circumstances outside of their control. The EPA does not expect that owners and operators will utilize these provisions often, and these provisions are not intended to allow for indefinite or long-term flaring. As always, the EPA may bring an enforcement action against an owner or operator whose actions do not comport with applicable regulatory provisions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, the EPA is finalizing recordkeeping and reporting requirements when exigent circumstances are invoked. The EPA anticipates that exigent circumstances will be invoked only in limited cases, and that these additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements will not add undue burden to owners and operators. If an owner or operator claims that an exigent circumstance occurred and utilizes the extended temporary flaring timeframe, the owner or operator must maintain records that include: a written description of the “exigent circumstance” requiring the need to flare or route to a control device beyond 72 hours; a description of steps taken to resolve the need for temporary flaring/routing to a control device; the dates and times an identified “exigent circumstance” started and ended (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         when owners or operators are able to access site, when personnel and/or equipment are available) and the total duration of each “exigent circumstance”; and the dates and times temporary flaring/routing to a control device started and ended and the total duration of temporary flaring/routing to a control device due to the identified “exigent circumstance.” We require owners and operators to report this information in their annual report. Owners and operators are already required to complete recordkeeping and reporting for temporary flaring events and the additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements that would result from the extension of flaring duration beyond the temporary flaring limit for exigent circumstances should not impose any additional undue burden on the industry.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Vent Gas NHV Continuous Monitoring Requirements and Alternative Performance Test (Sampling Demonstration) Option for Flares and Enclosed Combustion Devices</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA finalized compliance requirements for continuous monitoring and initial and periodic performance testing for flares and enclosed combustion device(s) (ECDs) in the March 2024 Final Rule. Of relevance here are the requirements for those two control devices regarding the NHV monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option. In the March 2024 Final Rule, with exceptions for catalytic vapor incinerators, boilers and process heaters, and enclosed combustors where temperature is an indicator of destruction efficiency, all flares and ECD must maintain the NHV of the gas sent to it above a minimum NHV if the control device is pressure-assisted or uses no assist gas.
                        <E T="51">37 38</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18064"/>
                        owner or operator uses a steam- or air-assisted flare or flare, the owner or operator must maintain the combustion zone NHV (NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                        ) above a minimum level. If the owner or operator uses a perimeter assist air ECD or flare, the owner or operator must maintain the NHV dilution parameter (NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                        ) above a minimum level. The NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         parameter terms account for the reduction in heating value caused by the introduction of air and/or steam. These terms were intended to ensure that the assist gas does not overwhelm the heating value provided by the vent gas to the point where proper combustion does not occur. Owners or operators also have the option to apply an alternative test method that either demonstrates continuous compliance with the combustion efficiency limit or directly demonstrates continuous compliance with the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         operating limit and, if applicable, the NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         operating limit.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             NHV is the potential energy available in a fuel sample, which is an indicator of flare performance and combustion efficiency. More specifically, it is the total energy released when a substance undergoes complete combustion with oxygen under standard conditions (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             the amount of heat released when gas is burned). See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/controlling-air-pollution-oil-and-natural-gas-operations/frequently-asked-questions-control-devices#nhv.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             In NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, NHV is typically expressed in units of Btus per standard cubic feet (scf). In the March 2024 Final Rule, NHV monitoring is used to determine the Btu content of a gas stream which indicates whether a control device (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a flare or an ECD) is reaching the required efficiency by combusting at least 95 percent of the pollutants of concern (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             methane and/or VOC). The March 2024 Final Rule requires that an NHV value must be at or above a certain Btu/scf threshold, depending on the design of the flare or ECD. An NHV value below the prescribed applicable minimum NHV value can be an indicator of reduced control device performance and efficiency at less than an acceptable level.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Associated gas from a well site affected facility was exempt from NHV monitoring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         assumed to always have high NHV) under the March 2024 Final Rule. Also under the March 2024 Final Rule, for each flare and ECD used to control gases other than associated gas from a well site affected facility, the owner or operator must conduct continuous monitoring using a calorimeter, gas chromatograph (GC), or mass spectrometer (MS) in order to determine the NHV of the vent stream.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As an alternative to continuous monitoring of NHV, the March 2024 Final Rule allows the owner or operator to conduct a performance test to demonstrate the NHV of the vent stream that consistently exceeds the applicable NHV operating limit in one of two ways: continuous sampling for 14 consecutive days plus ongoing (three samples every five years), or manual sampling (twice daily for 14 consecutive days) plus ongoing (three samples every five years) sampling.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The March 2024 Final Rule requires a minimum collection time of at least one hour for each individual manually collected sample. If inlet gas flow is intermittent such that collecting 28 samples in 14 days is infeasible, an owner or operator must continue to collect samples beyond 14 days in order to collect a minimum of 28 samples.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             89 FR 16820 (March 8, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             See 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(A) and 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(G) for NSPS OOOOb sources and 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(A) and 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(G) for EG OOOOc sources.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Owners or operators also have the option to use an alternative test method that demonstrates continuous compliance with the combustion efficiency limit.
                        <E T="51">41 42</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If there are no values of the combustion efficiency measured by the alternative test method over the 14-day period that are less than 95 percent, the gas stream is considered to consistently exceed the applicable NHV operating limit and the owner or operator is not required to continuously monitor or conduct sampling of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or ECD.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the March 2024 Final Rule, owners or operators of steam- and air-assisted flares and ECD also must monitor the vent gas and assist gas flow rates and calculate NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         in accordance with the provisions in 40 CFR 63.670 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the refinery maximum achievable control technology (MACT) rule, or “Refinery MACT” as codified in 40 CFR 63, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) subpart CC). Alternatively, owners or operators of air-assisted flares may provide a one-time demonstration based on maximum air assist rates, minimum waste gas flow rates (based on backpressure regulator setting), and minimum NHV from the most recent sampling rather than continuously monitor vent gas and assist gas flow rates.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Under the provisions outlined in 40 CFR 60.5412b(d) and 60.5415b(f)(1)(xi), sources can request to use an “equivalent method” pursuant to 40 CFR 60.8(b)(2), or “an alternative method the results of which [the Administrator] has determined to be adequate for indicating whether a specific source is in compliance” pursuant to 40 CFR 60.8(b)(3). The EPA is currently accepting and reviewing applications for alternative (ALT) test methods for NHV monitoring in the oil and natural gas sector. See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/emc/oil-and-gas-alternative-test-methods#:~:text=The%20application%20portal%20can%20be,Air%20Emission%20Measurement%20Center%20webpage.</E>
                             Since the March 2024 Final Rule's publication, two alternative test method requests have been approved by the EPA for use under NSPS subpart OOOOb: (1) ALT-156 Alternative Test Method to monitor the NHV of the flare combustion zone at facilities subject to NSPS OOOOb and (2) ALT-157 Alternative Test Method for determining NHV from gas sent to an ECD or Flare subject to NSPS OOOOb. A list of the EPA's approved alternative test methods can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Per 40 CFR 60.8(b)(5), the EPA has more general authority to approve alternative test methods involving “shorter sampling times and smaller sample volumes when necessitated by process variables or other factors.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             See 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(D) and 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(D).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             See 40 CFR 63.670(j)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In this Final Rule, the EPA is revising numerous aspects of the NHV monitoring and testing provisions in the March 2024 Final Rule. The EPA presented the rationale for these revisions in section III.B of the preamble of the January 2025 Proposal, with additional details provided in section IV.B of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA is expanding the gas streams that are exempt from monitoring due to high NHV content to include all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources. However, the EPA is also requiring that NHV monitoring be performed (via either continuous monitoring or the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option currently prescribed in the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc regulations) in cases where inert gases are added and for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas to all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Examples of these known operational scenarios include combining acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still column vent gas with affected facility vent gas, combining glycol dehydration unit reboiler vent gas with affected facility vent gas streams without water removal, high water content in vent streams from certain storage vessels, and enhanced oil recovery (EOR) sites in fields using water or carbon dioxide (CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) flooding. The EPA is finalizing recordkeeping and reporting requirements to specifically indicate whether the flare or ECD receives (or does not receive) inert gases (inerts) or other streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and, if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of those inert gases or other streams.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             For the purposes of the NHV compliance provisions, inert gases (or “inerts”) are gases that do not readily undergo combustion. Inert gases consist of or contain high concentrations of nitrogen, CO
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                            , water, or other compounds that have a net heating value of zero. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             90 FR 3742 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The EPA is also finalizing, as proposed, to replace the general exemption from NHV monitoring for associated gas for any control device used at “well site affected facilities” with NHV monitoring that is more reflective of industry operations, in order to be consistent with the overall NHV monitoring requirements for all affected OOOOb and OOOOc sources.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             90 FR 3746 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, when an owner or operator chooses to meet the NHV compliance demonstration by conducting the alternative performance test via the NHV grab sampling option, the EPA is finalizing, as proposed, a clarification that sampling may be conducted upstream of the inlet to the control device, provided that the sample is representative of the gas inlet to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18065"/>
                        control device. For example, sampling may be conducted from a location on the control device piping header, provided the sampling location is downstream of all waste gas inlets into the header.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA is finalizing, as proposed, a clarification that the NHV of the vent stream must be determined in British thermal units per standard cubic feet (Btu/scf), where standard conditions are 20 degrees Celsius (°C), not British thermal units per pound (Btu/lb). If the composition is determined in weight percent, those concentrations can be used, but they will need to be converted to volume percent (equivalent to mole percent) based on the molecular weight of the constituents.</P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA is also finalizing, as proposed, that the 14-day period for the performance test (sampling demonstration) option must be consecutive operating days, while also allowing for breaks in performance testing over weekends and holidays which may occur during the 14-day sampling period, provided that no sampling day is spaced more than 3 operating days apart from the previous sampling day.
                        <E T="51">47 48</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             In this context, an “operating day” is considered a normal business day of operation (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             Monday-Friday), and weekends and holidays are considered calendar days, but not “operating days.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             However, if the affected source is operating during a given weekend or holiday, the facility may elect to either sample or not sample during the weekend or holiday.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the EPA is specifying that for the purposes of determining the hourly average for continuous samples, the average shall be a block hourly average.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA is not amending the sampling frequency (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         two samples per day for 14 days with an ongoing demonstration of three samples every five years) for the performance test (sampling demonstration) option for either NSPS OOOOb or EG OOOOc.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             Each block average value for each 1-hour period (or shorter periods) are to be calculated from all measured data during each period. If the inlet stream is continuously sampled for 14 days, the hourly block average will be determined on a noon to 1 p.m., 1 p.m. to 2 p.m., etc. basis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The EPA is also retaining the one-hour minimum sampling time for the twice daily samples, except in cases where low or intermittent flow makes one-hour sampling infeasible for both NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc sources. In such a case, the EPA is allowing less than one-hour sampling times, provided that the sampling time used and the reason for the reduced sampling time is documented and reported.</P>
                    <P>The EPA is finalizing, as proposed, a clarification in both NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc to more clearly allow the use of the sampling methodology alternative to the continuous monitoring in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) for all types of air- and steam-assisted flares or ECD.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, for NSPS OOOOb, the EPA is retaining the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         monitoring requirements but more clearly including the provisions at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(vi) to allow for the use of approved alternative test methods as provided in 40 CFR 60.5412b(d)(1)(i) and (ii) for continuous monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and, if applicable, NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                        . We are also finalizing, as proposed, a clarification in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv) regarding when flare flow or assist rates are not required to be monitored. In addition, as proposed, for EG OOOOc, the EPA is removing the requirement to comply with and conduct monitoring for NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         for air- and steam-assisted flares and ECD used for existing sources. This series of revisions in EG OOOOc includes changes in the initial compliance requirements for air- or steam-assisted flares or ECD in 40 CFR 60.5412c, the continuous compliance requirements for these control devices in 40 CFR 60.5415c, and the continuous monitoring requirements for these control devices in 40 CFR 60.5417c. We are also finalizing, under EG OOOOc, that air- or steam-assisted or flares or ECD must meet an increase in the minimum NHV in the vent gas from 270 to 300 Btu/scf.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Correction of Inadvertent Deletion of Regulatory Text</HD>
                    <P>
                        As discussed above, in the July 2025 IFR, the EPA amended certain compliance deadlines and timeframes for implementation in response to information received after promulgation of the 2024 Final Rule to address significant concerns that certain regulatory provisions in the March 2024 Final Rule were not workable or contained problematic regulatory language that prevented compliance. On December 3, 2025, the EPA published a final rule that included discrete changes to specific regulatory text within 40 CFR part 60 subpart OOOOb (December 2025 Final Rule).
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, the EPA finalized amendments to the compliance deadline for NHV monitoring and provided additional time for the submission of initial annual reports at 40 CFR 60.5420b(b). The amendatory instructions for the final rule inadvertently amended all of 40 CFR 60.5420b(b) paragraph (b) in lieu of just the introductory text for paragraph (b), as intended. This resulted in the erroneous deletion of paragraphs 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15), which was neither intended nor proposed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To correct this inadvertent error, the EPA is finalizing a technical correction to reinstate regulatory text for the reporting requirements in 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15). The substance of the December 2025 Final Rule remains unchanged by reinstating this erroneously-deleted regulatory text. Section 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), provides that, when an agency for good cause finds that public notice and comment procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, the agency may issue a rule without providing notice and an opportunity for public comment. The EPA has determined that there is good cause for making this technical correction final without prior proposal. Such notice and opportunity for comment is unnecessary, as this technical correction restores the unintentional deletion of regulatory text made by the regulatory revisions associated with the December 2025 Final Rule.</P>
                    <P>The application of the APA's “good cause” exemption in this final rule is limited to correcting the inadvertent deletion of 40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(1) through (15) and does not extend to any other portion of this final rule. Further, by correcting this unintentional error, EPA is not reopening any issues from the December 2025 Final Rule or the associated IFR from July of 2025.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Significant Comments and Changes Since Proposal for NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc (January 2025 Proposal)</HD>
                    <P>This section of the preamble presents in each subsection a detailed summary of the significant comments received on, and changes made, since the January 2025 Proposal for the topic addressed in that subsection. This final action does not address or take any position on the best system of emission reduction (BSER) analysis included in the March 2024 Final Rule record which the EPA used to support promulgation of the standards included in NSPS OOOOb and the presumptive standards included in EG OOOOc.</P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18066"/>
                    <P>
                        The EPA's full response to comments on the January 2025 Proposal, including any comments not discussed in this preamble, is available in the EPA's Response to Comment (RTC) document for this final rule.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review: Response to Public Comments on the January 2025 Proposed Rule (90 FR 3734; January 15, 2025). Included in Docket ID EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Temporary Flaring Provisions for Associated Gas in Certain Situations</HD>
                    <P>
                        For oil wells that are not routinely flaring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         wells that route associated gas to sales lines or an equivalent alternative), the March 2024 Final Rule allowed owners and operators to route associated gas to a flare or control device in certain situations for 24 hours. These situations include times when there is a need to flare due to malfunctions, including for safety reasons. Further, these situations may include repair, maintenance (including blowdowns), bradenhead test, packer leakage test, production test, or commissioning. As stated in the January 2025 Proposal, industry petitioners seeking reconsideration claimed that the 24-hour limitation for temporary flaring is not sufficient for malfunctions, including for reasons of safety, and/or for repair and maintenance. Additionally, they claimed well sites may not be accessible during weather events (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         winter storms), which are a significant factor for temporary flaring that lasts for more than 24 hours. Industry petitioners maintained that a 72-hour timeframe is more appropriate for temporary flaring due to the unique characteristics of each wellsite, weather conditions, or a combination of both. In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed to allow 48 hours for temporary flaring based on submitted industry data. The EPA agreed that the data showed that 24 hours was insufficient to resolve all malfunction, maintenance, and repair events. In the January 2025 proposal, the EPA also solicited comments on allowing owners and operators of associated gas affected facilities to route to a flare or control device for up to 72 hours if exigent circumstances exist, since the industry indicated that some events last for more than 48 hours. In particular, the EPA solicited comments on whether there are other specific exigent circumstances for which the EPA should consider allowing an owner or operator to route to a flare or control device beyond the proposed 48-hour allowance for repairs and malfunctions. Furthermore, the EPA solicited comments on recordkeeping and reporting requirements if the EPA were to include an allowance for owners or operators of associated gas affected facilities to route to a flare or control device for up to 72 hours for exigent circumstances.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA received several comments on this aspect of the January 2025 Proposal. The EPA received comments on exigent circumstances, the temporary flaring timeframe, and recordkeeping and reporting requirements. These comments and the EPA's responses are provided in sections IV.A.1 through 4 of this preamble. The EPA also received comments requesting alternative exemptions and cutoffs to limit temporary flaring. These comments and the EPA's responses are provided in section IV.A.5 of this preamble. The EPA's full response to comments on the January 2025 Proposal, including any comments not discussed in this preamble, is available in the EPA's RTC document for the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Exigent Circumstances</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA solicited comment on allowing owners or operators of associated gas affected facilities to temporarily route the associated gas to a flare or control device for up to 72 hours in certain situations if exigent circumstances exist. Such exigent circumstances would include situations where an owner or operator cannot physically access a site due to weather or other conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         road closures). In addition to extreme weather events and road closures, the EPA solicited comment on whether there are other specific exigent circumstances for which the EPA should consider allowing an owner or operator to route to a flare or control device beyond the proposed 48-hour allowance for repairs and malfunctions. The EPA received several comments on this aspect of the January 2025 Proposal. These comments and the EPA responses are provided in this section of the preamble.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters requested that the EPA include other exigent circumstances in addition to those proposed. One commenter requested that the EPA clarify that exigent circumstances include, but are not limited to, flooding, road washouts, fires and explosions, personnel shortages due to illness or labor disputes, wildfires, earthquakes, hazmat emergencies, evacuation orders, war or civil unrest, and equipment supply chain issues.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0082.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter 
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         noted that, as stated in previous comments they submitted on the December 2022 Supplemental Proposal,
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         it is often necessary to temporarily route gas to control devices for safety and/or operational purposes in situations when associated gas could not be routed to a sales line or used for other beneficial purposes. The commenter requested that the EPA provide additional flexibility to allow temporary routing of gas to control devices when other exigent circumstances exist, including, but not limited to, interruption in service, extreme weather events, and road closures that prevent access to sites. The commenter stated that the January 2025 Proposal cites an API survey that concluded the average duration for temporary flaring was 46 hours per event. While the changes in the January 2025 Proposal to allow temporary flaring from 24 to 48 hours might accommodate the average temporary flaring event determined in the study, the commenter urged the EPA to consider allowing temporary flaring of 72 hours or more to account for the varying configurations of well sites and exigent circumstances.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0085.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with the previous comment, another commenter noted that the EPA requested input on other exigent circumstances that warrant flaring beyond 48 hours.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter listed inclement weather, site access, operations outside normal business hours, availability of service providers and equipment, safety of operator personnel or the public, and repair, maintenance, production testing, or commissioning as exigent circumstances warranting longer flaring times. However, the commenter recommended that the EPA allow other scenarios when 72 hours of flaring would result in lower emissions than the alternative, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         shutting down a facility requiring blowdowns that vent emissions to the atmosphere resulting in greater emissions as compared to those from flaring. As such, the commenter requested that the EPA consider all exigent circumstances to include situations where the alternative operation would result in more emissions, rather than allowing flaring for 72 hours.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As noted in section III.A.4 of the January 2025 Proposal (Basis for Proposed Changes), the EPA acknowledges that there are special 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18067"/>
                        situations where a longer timeframe than proposed may be needed and such circumstances may be beyond the owner's and operator's control. While the EPA agrees with some commenters that other exigent circumstances should be included in addition to extreme weather events and road closures, not every situation suggested by commenters qualifies as an exigent circumstance. As explained in section III.A of this preamble, the events that qualify for the exigent circumstances extension should be severe in nature and have a direct impact on the owner's or operator's ability to physically access the site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address the equipment malfunction incident which caused the need to temporarily flare. For instances where there is a need to flare beyond 72 hours due to an unexpected malfunction event and equipment and/or personnel are not readily available due to supply chain issues and/or temporary personnel shortages due to reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control, the EPA agrees that allowing an owner or operator to flare beyond 72 hours meets EPA's intent of what is considered an “exigent circumstance” and we revised the final rule to specifically allow flaring beyond 72 hours for such instances. While the EPA acknowledges that there may be instances when extraordinary circumstances, such as a national pandemic which is beyond an owner's or operator's control, could result in a temporary shortage of personnel being available to resolve an unexpected malfunction or to access a facility within 72 hours of an event, we do not consider personnel shortages due to illness or labor disputes to qualify as exigent circumstances. Personnel shortages due to illness or labor disputes are best characterized as an internal operational matter for which the owner or operator holds primary responsibility and is expected to manage through appropriate contingency planning.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To address commenters' concerns, the final rule defines an “exigent circumstance” to be a situation that results in the inability to reasonably access a site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address and resolve incidents that cause the need to temporarily flare associated gas for more than 72 hours. This includes circumstances where there is a need to flare beyond 72 hours due to an unexpected malfunction event and equipment needed to resolve an incident are not readily available due to an owner's or operator's inability to secure the required equipment for reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         supply chain issues); or there is a temporary shortage of personnel needed to resolve an incident due to a circumstance such as a declared national pandemic that is beyond an owner's or operator's control.
                    </P>
                    <P>To address a commenter's request that we allow flaring for exigent circumstances to include situations where an alternative operation would result in more emissions rather than allowing flaring for 72 hours, we revised the final rule to allow flaring for up to 72 hours and beyond 72 hours for exigent circumstances, reducing the need for well shut ins.</P>
                    <P>
                        In this final action, we are revising the March 2024 Final Rule to allow temporary flaring of associated gas for up to 72 hours for situations where the owner or operator cannot comply with the standard due to malfunctions, including reasons for safety, repairs, and maintenance. For exigent circumstances, an owner or operator can temporarily route to a flare or control device for durations over 72 hours until an exigent circumstance is no longer present. Following the new temporary flaring timeframe extension and clarification of what constitutes an exigent circumstance as stated in section III.A of this preamble, we disagree that some of the events listed by commenters (operations outside normal business hours, availability of service or equipment, safety of the operator or the public, and activities like repair, maintenance, production testing, or commissioning) on their own qualify as exigent circumstances. In these instances, an owner or operator will have up to 72 hours to resolve equipment malfunctions, which is in line with what the commenter requested. However, we also acknowledge that some of these situations may fall under an exigent circumstance if the necessary equipment and personnel are not available to resolve a malfunction incident within a 72 hour timeframe due to circumstances that are beyond an owner's or operator's control, or access to a site is restricted due to worker safety (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         if traveling to the site is unreasonably dangerous due to a wildfire). After invoking exigent circumstances, flaring can continue until the equipment malfunction incident is resolved. However, this must be no longer than 72 hours after the site can be accessed, and the necessary equipment and personnel are obtained (72 hours after the exigent circumstances which prevented access and equipment malfunction repair are no longer present).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Allowance for Temporary Flaring of 72 Hours or More</HD>
                    <P>In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed extending the allowable time for temporary flaring of associated gas during malfunctions, including for reasons of safety and during repair and maintenance. The proposed allowable timeframe was 48 hours, an increase from 24 hours in the March 2024 Final Rule. In response, several commenters requested that the EPA further extend the temporary flaring allowance to 72 hours. These commenters argued that a longer duration would better reflect field conditions, particularly in areas where access to equipment or personnel is delayed due to weather, geography, or other logistical barriers. They stated that even with proactive planning, certain malfunctions or maintenance activities may require more than 48 hours to resolve. The commenters also noted that forcing operators to end flaring before the issue is resolved could create safety risks or lead to unnecessary equipment shutdowns.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters disagreed and urged the EPA to retain the original 24-hour limit or allow for extensions only when operators clearly justify the need based on specific facts. They expressed concern that a blanket 72-hour window could weaken enforcement and lead to longer periods of uncontrolled emissions. They emphasized the need for clear limits to ensure that temporary flaring remains a last resort and is used only when necessary. The API data submitted to the EPA along with information from other stakeholders 
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         show a range of flaring durations, with a notable percentage of events exceeding both 24 and 72 hours. These data suggest that while an extended flaring duration is not the norm, it does occur with some regularity, especially in cases involving equipment failure, inclement weather conditions and/or limited site access. Several comments were received on this aspect of the January 2025 Proposal. These comments and EPA's responses are provided in this section of the preamble.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter 
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         appreciated the EPA's acknowledgment that a 24-hour limit on temporary flaring during situations they describe as “Critical Circumstances” (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         due to a malfunction or incident that endangers the safety of operator personnel or the public or during repair and maintenance 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18068"/>
                        activities) is often infeasible and warrants additional time, particularly for remote, unmanned sites in areas prone to extreme weather events and poor road conditions.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, they expressed that they do not believe that the proposed 48-hour allowance will allow sufficient time to fix the problem and return the site to normal operations such that temporary flaring can stop during many “critical circumstances.” The commenter suggested that a 72-hour temporary flaring duration would provide sufficient time to respond to, troubleshoot, and repair equipment during most, but not all, “critical circumstances” in areas where extreme weather and road conditions are frequent, such as during the winter months in North Dakota.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, the commenter added that these repairs are often dangerous to undertake due to the extreme weather in, for example, North Dakota's Williston Basin. For instance, the commenter reported that on February 10th, 2025, the National Weather Service issued an Extreme Cold Warning in the majority of counties in North Dakota, advising that “life threatening wind chills as low as 55 below zero could cause frostbite on exposed skin in as little as 5 minutes.” 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The National Weather Service also advised to take precautions “if you must go outside.” 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that requiring operators to undertake immediate repair work in these conditions can unnecessarily put them in harm's way. For those “critical circumstances” that would otherwise require longer than 72 hours, the commenter noted that operators “must innovate and improve their maintenance, response, and repair practices to meet what would remain a challenging deadline in many instances.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             The EPA notes that while the commenter uses the term “Critical Circumstances,” we interpret this to mean “exigent circumstances.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             To date, Hess (the commenter) has provided the EPA with extensive documentation of circumstances affecting its Williston Basin production operations that necessitate up to 72-hours for temporary flaring in these circumstances. See November Hess Presentation; Hess Corporation, Hess Briefing for EPA: Oil and Natural Gas Final Methane Rule NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0020 (Feb. 29, 2024) (“February Hess Presentation”); Hess Corporation, Hess Briefing for EPA: NSPS OOOOb Safety, Malfunction &amp; Repair Temporary Flaring Allowance, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0031 (June 3, 2024) (“June Hess Presentation”); Hess Corporation, McKenzie County Frost Restrictions, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0037 (July 19, 2024); Hess Corporation, Examples of North Dakota Road Closures and Restrictions, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0037 (July 19, 2024); Hess Corporation, Hess E.O. 12866 Meeting with OMB/OIRA: Oil and Natural Gas NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc Reconsideration Proposal, 13, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0038-0046 (Nov. 7, 2024) (“November Hess Presentation”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             National Weather Service, NWS Alerts, 
                            <E T="03">https://alerts.weather.gov/search?history=1&amp;zone=NDZ009</E>
                             (last visited Feb. 28, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Id.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The same commenter provided that, in the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA cited survey data provided by API (the “Temporary Flaring Survey”) to support extending the temporary flaring allowance up to 48 hours.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA proposed extending the temporary flaring allowance from 24 to 48 hours in the January 2025 Proposal based on the Temporary Flaring Survey's average flaring duration time of 46 hours. In doing so, the commenter asserted that the EPA ignored that the data shows the average flaring duration is not uniform across basins. According to the commenter, both the Temporary Flaring Survey and the commenter's own data 
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         demonstrate that the widely dispersed facilities and extreme winter weather conditions in the Williston Basin (North Dakota and Montana) can necessitate longer temporary flaring for responding to “Critical Circumstances” other than warmer and more easily accessed basins, like the Permian Basin (Texas and New Mexico). They highlighted that the Temporary Flaring Survey data shows that Williston Basin flaring incidents exceeded 72 hours in 78 percent of the reported data, compared to just 11 percent in the Permian Basin.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For the Permian Basin, they highlighted that 12 percent of flaring events exceeded 24 hours, claiming that where flaring exceeded 24 hours, it is extremely probable the flaring continued beyond 72 hours. The commenter reported that its extensive temporary flaring data (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Temporary Flaring Survey) shows that an average of approximately 72 hours of temporary flaring is necessary during their “Critical Circumstances.” The commenter asserted that the data and information provided by both API and Hess suggest that a 72-hour temporary flaring duration allowance is an appropriate default for a nationwide rule.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             See American Petroleum Institute, Operator Survey: Temporary Flaring, 4, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0038 (July 2024) (“Temporary Flaring Survey”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             Hess's operations in the Bakken formation span roughly 7,200 square miles and include many unmanned sites. Hess provided information demonstrating that it often cannot physically access a site within 48 hours, and seasonal conditions and extreme weather events may delay accessibility for days and up to over a week until access roads to a wellsite are passable. See November Hess Presentation at 10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             Temporary Flaring Survey at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             See Hess Corporation, Hess E.O. 12866 Meeting with OMB/OIRA: Oil and Natural Gas NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc Reconsideration Proposal, 13, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0046 (Nov. 7, 2024) (“November Hess Presentation”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter added that it provided temporary flaring data that reflected events that it had identified internally as the highest priority of work (“break-in work”).
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter explained that this is the priority given to “Critical Circumstance” responses. The commenter added that its sites are often not accessible within 24 hours due to difficult terrain, long travel distances between facilities, and extreme weather. These conditions are an impediment to the first step in response: travelling to the facility to investigate the cause of the “Critical Circumstance.” The commenter added that its data show the average response time from notification creation to resolution was slightly more than 72 hours; however, as an average implies, many events lasted longer than 72 hours. The commenter contended that its data demonstrate that 48 hours is often not long enough to travel to the facility, troubleshoot, obtain necessary equipment, and complete repair, even with normal business processes that incorporate efficiencies.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter asserted that the EPA's proposed 48-hour limit inappropriately relied on a summary report from New Mexico and from a Colorado regulation to assert that a 48-hour period is sufficient for temporary flaring for malfunction/safety and repair/maintenance situations. However, the commenter noted that areas such as North Dakota are subject to more frequent and more extreme weather events than those areas.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             Hess's “highest priority notifications” response system prioritizes repair work that can result in temporary flaring above previously scheduled work. Hess provided the EPA with data showing that the average notification creation to resolution cycle times between 2020 and 2024 averaged 3.2 days. See June Hess Presentation at 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             Under Hess's “highest priority notifications” response system, it can still sometimes take up to 21 hours for an operator to access the facility and identify the problem necessitating the temporary flaring. If a maintenance crew is required for repair, it can take multiple days even with equipment available. See June Hess Presentation at 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the commenter explained that oil and gas facilities in North Dakota are spread across expansive and geographically remote locations.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter expressed that it does not believe it is appropriate to finalize a one-size-fits-all approach based on these two unique States (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Colorado and New Mexico). Moreover, the commenter reiterated that the Permian Basin data in the Temporary Flaring Survey shows that where flaring exceeded 24 hours, it 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18069"/>
                        is extremely probable that flaring exceeded 72 hours. In conclusion, the commenter argued that a blanket 72-hour temporary flaring allowance for “Critical Circumstances” provides a more reasonable timeframe and will force operator innovation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             See Hess Corporation, Hess' Bakken Operating Area, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0038-0037_attachment 1 (July 19, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, another commenter urged the EPA not to allow operators to temporarily route associated gas to a flare or control device for up to 72 hours for weather-related delays.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter did not support any additional allowances for temporary flaring for up to 72 hours. In the commenter's opinion, the Temporary Flaring Survey does not support the need for a 72-hour allowance for weather-related delays. The commenter reported that only three percent of the total data demonstrated that inclement weather was the cause of needing time to mitigate flaring with an average duration of 21 hours of temporary flaring per event.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also pointed to the Temporary Flaring Survey data on reportable emission events from the 2021 winter storm Uri that impacted Texas.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The data includes all reportable emission events the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ) received from all industry sectors in the State. The commenter expressed that it is vital that the EPA examines this data in more detail before moving forward with any extension of temporary flaring duration based on weather. The commenter highlighted that the TCEQ dataset includes 328 emission events, but 78 percent of those events occurred at facilities that are not upstream oil and gas facilities and argued that those events are therefore not relevant to any decision to allow for extended flaring due to inclement weather.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             See API, Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0038, attachment 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA appreciates the information and insights provided by commenters and agrees overall with the recommendations for extending the temporary flaring allowance to 72 hours. We agree with the commenters that the proposed 48-hour temporary flaring limit, while directionally helpful, does not adequately address the logistical complexities present in the widely dispersed locations in the oil and gas industry. Allowing for up to 72 hours promotes administrability and equitable treatment among sites for the vast majority of flaring incidents discussed in this preamble, while also providing for emissions reductions in tandem with the requirement that sources stop flaring as soon as the qualifying incident is resolved. Compliance with these requirements will be reported to the EPA and enforced through a combination of new (finalized in this rule) and preexisting (from the 2024 rule) emissions-reporting obligations, and many facilities have an independent economic incentive to cease unnecessary flaring where the gas could otherwise be captured and sold.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Temporary Flaring Survey indicates that more than 17 percent of flaring events required more than 24 hours of temporary flaring of associated gas per event, and more than 15 percent of flaring events required more than 72 hours of temporary flaring per event. The causes of these extended flaring durations were multifaceted and included inclement weather, primarily in the Williston Basin which routinely faces harsh winter weather conditions, and other factors such as the unique characteristics of each wellsite (unmanned, remote, and dispersed).</P>
                    <P>
                        Critically, weather is not the only contributor to extended flaring events, as demonstrated in the dataset and comments provided by petitioners. Information gathered from industry meetings and the Temporary Flaring Survey indicate that these logistical challenges exist regardless of weather and are often intensified by routine operational hurdles such as scheduling contractor support, transporting heavy equipment, and adhering to internal safety procedures. Further analysis reveals the Temporary Flaring Survey reported 86 flaring events as weather-impacted events, and the survey classified over 600 flaring events as “[u]nknown.” While we do not know the cause of the need to flare for the over 600 flaring events in the Temporary Flaring Survey, maintaining a 24-hour, or even 48-hour, flaring timeframe based on the percentage of reported inclement weather-impacted events presents a narrow reading of the data and does not reflect the “[u]nknown” flaring events that exhibited the highest flaring durations and standard deviations. The commenter's argument centers on a narrow interpretation of weather-related flaring events that indicates that only three percent of total incidents in the Temporary Flaring Survey cite weather as the cause for the need to flare and that those averaged 21 hours per event.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While it is true that the Temporary Flaring Survey indicates that flaring events often can be resolved quickly, the data and information provided by industry also indicate that other factors can impact an owner's or operator's ability to limit the duration of flaring that are beyond their control. In instances where an owner or operator is able to limit the duration of flaring by addressing the cause of the need for flaring in a timely manner, an owner or operator is encouraged to limit the flaring duration to the maximum extent possible. The EPA is extending the flaring allowance based on the ability of an owner or operator to access their flaring event site and resolve the cause of the need to flare. As noted previously, while weather can be a contributing factor affecting access to a site, it is not the only potential reason limiting access to a site. As such, the EPA has extended the allowance to flare up to 72 hours in absence of an exigent circumstance and allows more than 72 hours in instances where an owner or operator makes a legitimate exigent circumstance claim that limits their ability to access and resolve the cause for a flaring event within 72 hours. This extended timeframe gives owners and operators enough time to travel to facilities (including geographically remote facilities), troubleshoot, obtain necessary equipment, and complete repairs. It also provides sufficient time to overcome many inclement weather situations. This extended timeframe, coupled with the ability to claim exigent circumstances for even more time, should limit or eliminate the need to shut-in operations in situations of temporary flaring for malfunction, safety, or maintenance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, the Temporary Flaring Survey shows regional variation in flaring durations, as a commenter notes. For instance, 78 percent of flaring incidents in the Williston Basin exceeded 72 hours, compared to just 11 percent in the Permian Basin. This variation highlights that a rigid one-size-fits-all approach based exclusively on national averages, and which does not allow for any flexibility, does not account for critical differences in field conditions, wellsite uniqueness, or operational complexity. The data confirm that events where flaring exceeds 24 hours often continue well beyond 72 hours. As such, setting the upper limit at 72 hours with the possibility of additional time for exigent circumstances better aligns with field data, while still placing expectations on owners and operators to promptly resolve issues.</P>
                    <P>
                        As explained in sections IV.A.4 (Support for a 24-hour Allowance for Temporary Flaring) and IV.A.5 (Consideration of Additional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18070"/>
                        Limitations and Targeted Exceptions to Temporary Flaring) of this preamble, the EPA considered but did not adopt several approaches raised by petitioners and public comments on the proposal, including a 24-hour or 48-hour flaring allowance and additional temporary flaring limits or targeted geographical exceptions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Recordkeeping and Reporting</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the EPA also solicited comment on the recordkeeping and reporting requirements if the Agency were to include an allowance for owners or operators of associated gas affected facilities to route to a flare or control device for up to 72 hours for “exigent circumstances.” 
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The topics of exigent circumstances and temporary flaring duration are discussed more in section IV.A.1 and IV.A.2 of this preamble respectively. Specifically, we solicited comment on requiring an owner or operator who must make use of the extended timeframe to maintain records that include a written description of the exigent circumstance, the rationale for the need to route to a flare or control device beyond the default allowable timeline, a description of the measures taken to minimize temporary flaring/routing to a control device, and the duration of temporary flaring/routing to a control device due to the identified exigent circumstance. Lastly, we solicited comment on requiring an owner or operator to include a summary of their exigent circumstance recorded events in their annual report.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             90 FR 3740-41 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The EPA received two groups of comments about recordkeeping and reporting requirements for exigent circumstances. Support for recordkeeping and reporting came from environmental groups, who argued that these requirements are important for accountability, ensuring the flaring event was an appropriate action, and encouraging owners and operators to limit flare durations. Industry commenters opposed this proposed requirement. They argued that extending recordkeeping and reporting requirements for exigent circumstances would not provide any environmental benefit and would not expedite the repair or maintenance process. Industry commenters further asserted that having additional recordkeeping and reporting provisions would add unnecessary burden to owners and operators at a time when they should prioritize resources to address the emergency or maintenance event.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on comments received and EPA's decision to broaden what constitutes an “exigent circumstance” to include instances where the necessary equipment and/or personnel are not available to conduct the necessary repairs for reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control, the EPA is finalizing the following recordkeeping and reporting requirements when an exigent circumstance is invoked: a written description of the “exigent circumstance” requiring the need to flare or route to a control device beyond 72 hours; a description of the steps taken to resolve the need for temporary flaring/routing to a control device; the dates and times an identified “exigent circumstance” started and ended (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         when owners or operators are able to access site, when personnel and/or equipment are available) and the total duration of each “exigent circumstance”; and the dates and times temporary flaring/routing to a control device started and ended and the total duration of temporary flaring/routing to a control device due to the identified “exigent circumstance.” We require owners and operators to report this information in their annual report. See section IV.A.1 of this preamble for comments received on exigent circumstances and EPA's response to those comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>As mentioned above, we received several comments on this aspect of the January 2025 Proposal. These comments and the EPA responses are provided in this section of the preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several industry commenters did not support the EPA requiring records and reporting (in annual reports) of information regarding exigent circumstances necessitating temporary flaring beyond the default time allowance. One commenter 
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         stated that operators should focus on resolving emergencies and/or maintenance issues that arise to reduce and/or remove the need to flare, instead of recordkeeping and reporting requirements that provide no environmental benefit.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, according to the commenter, such recordkeeping and reporting causes burden for the operator and the EPA. The commenter requested that the EPA implement a blanket timeframe of at least 72 hours for temporary flaring without the need for recordkeeping and reporting such events.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, one commenter 
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         noted that the additional administrative recordkeeping and reporting burden to conduct, document, and report an exigent circumstance would not provide a corresponding environmental benefit.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules already require recordkeeping and reporting for temporary flaring events that are sufficient to provide transparency into operators' temporary associated gas flaring activities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter expressed concern about the documentation required for exigent circumstances, stating that it is unnecessary and unduly burdensome as a blanket 72-hour allowance is warranted.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, another commenter expressed that if the EPA finalizes a nationwide exception for exigent circumstances, then the EPA must add specific recordkeeping and reporting requirements to the rule.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter supported the recordkeeping and reporting that the EPA listed in the proposal as a minimum requirement to document and justify any temporary flaring or routing to control devices that goes beyond the baseline limit. The commenter asked that this documentation include a description of the circumstance requiring extended flaring, the rationale for routing to a flare or control device beyond the allowed limit, documentation from public information that supports the claim that extended flaring was necessary (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         traffic information showing road closures), a description of the measures taken to minimize temporary flaring, and the duration of temporary flaring. Also, the commenter requested that the annual report require a summary of the number, cause, and duration of extended flaring events.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA agrees that the near-term focus of owners and operators in these situations should be on the immediate need of resolving emergencies and/or maintenance issues as quickly as possible to mitigate the need to flare. However, we disagree that recordkeeping and reporting is unnecessary and that any such requirements will cause undue burden to the owners and operators. First, base-level recordkeeping and reporting requirements already exist for owners and operators in the regulations (40 CFR 60.5420b(b)(4)(i) and (2) and (c)(3) (i) and (ii); and 40 CFR 60.5420c(b)(3)(i) and (ii) and (c)(2)(i) and (ii)) for all temporary flaring that are not at issue in this rulemaking. Including exigent circumstance recordkeeping and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18071"/>
                        reporting only adds additional requirements when an exigent circumstance occurs. Thus, if the exigent circumstance provision is not invoked, owners and operators are not required to complete any additional recordkeeping and reporting beyond the base-level requirements for all temporary flaring situations. The additional information that we will collect for exigent circumstances does not duplicate the base-level recordkeeping requirements included in the March 2024 Final Rule and is not time-consuming or resource intensive.
                    </P>
                    <P>Second, requiring additional recordkeeping and reporting for exigent circumstances documents compliance with the allowance for temporary flaring beyond 72 hours for exigent circumstances. Specifically, the additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements only apply when an owner or operator invokes an extension of flaring duration due to an exigent circumstance and only includes minimal documentation to ensure that owners and operators are properly invoking and implementing the flaring extension.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, in response to comments that claim that owners and operators should first focus on returning the site to normal operations, the EPA agrees. The recordkeeping requirements included in the final amendments can be completed after the owner or operator addresses the underlying issue that gave rise to the need for temporary flaring. None of the recordkeeping requirements mandate action contemporaneous with conducting repair or maintenance. The recordkeeping can occur after repair or maintenance but should happen relatively close in time so that the owner or operator can record accurate information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Support for a 24-Hour Allowance for Temporary Flaring</HD>
                    <P>Following the January 2025 Proposal, several industry representatives and State agency commenters recommended extending the temporary flaring allowance to 72 hours. In contrast, other commenters, including environmental organizations and private citizens, urged the EPA to retain the original 24-hour limit from the March 2024 Final Rule, with limited allowances for extensions up to 48 hours in exigent circumstances or until the event is resolved. As part of the proposed rule, the EPA requested data and feedback on whether the revised flaring duration could potentially increase primary or secondary emissions and invited additional information to either substantiate the proposed 48-hour allowance or justify maintaining the 24-hour duration in the March 2024 Final Rule.</P>
                    <P>The EPA received several comments on this aspect of the January 2025 Proposal. These comments and the EPA's responses are provided in this section of the preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Two commenters requested that the EPA retain the 24-hour allowance for temporary flaring.
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One commenter disagreed with the EPA's determination that the information provided in the Temporary Flaring Survey supports allowing temporary flaring for up to 48 hours during malfunctions but believes the information provided in the Temporary Flaring Survey supports retaining the 24-hour allowance, potentially with limited exceptions.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter agreed with the EPA's statement that the Temporary Flaring Survey supports an expectation “that owners and operators can feasibly limit temporary flaring to less than 24 hours in a large majority of situations.” 
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that the Temporary Flaring Survey had 2,804 instances of temporary flaring of associated gas at sites in the San Joaquin, Permian, and Williston Basins.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), the primary producers of associated gas in the U.S. are the Permian, Bakken, Eagle Ford, Anadarko, and Niobrara Basins.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter observed that the Temporary Flaring Survey did not include any information on temporary flaring in the other three basins identified by the EIA. For the EPA to justify a nationwide change, the commenter contended that the agency should examine data from all basins where associated gas is primarily produced (and thus has the greatest potential for a need to temporarily route to a flare or control device) to determine whether the current allowance of 24 hours is appropriate. According to the commenter, the Temporary Flaring Survey does not support the EPA's proposed change to allow up to 48 hours for temporary flaring of associated gas, and data from other basins may also further demonstrate this change is not justified. The commenter asserted that the Temporary Flaring Survey therefore is not complete enough to justify an alteration of the standard for the entire country.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             Document ID Nos. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0080, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             90 FR at 3740 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             See API, Document ID. No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-003, attachment 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             U.S. EIA, “U.S. associated gas production increased nearly 8% in 2023.” November 13, 2024. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=63704#.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the commenter stated that an analysis of the Temporary Flaring Survey shows the average duration of temporary flaring of associated gas is 46 hours, which the EPA used as the basis for its proposal. However, they reported that a detailed examination of this data does not support a blanket allowance of 48 hours.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter noted that most of the data come from the Permian Basin (2,581, or 92 percent) and show that the average duration of temporary flaring was 26 hours, with 318 instances requiring greater than 24 hours (12 percent of the total instances for this basin). Nearly 75 percent of the instances (1,930) are labeled as “high priority,” and the average duration of temporary flaring for these events was five hours, with only 14 instances greater than 24 hours (0.7 percent). In the commenter's opinion, this demonstrates that operators can address issues, such as maintenance and safety concerns, leading to temporary flaring well within the currently allowed 24-hour duration for sites in the Permian Basin.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             See Attachments A and B of the commenter's letter.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The commenter further observed that the 46-hour average duration in the Temporary Flaring Survey is skewed by data from the Williston Basin, representing only 166 total instances, or just six percent, of the Temporary Flaring Survey data. The commenter reported that the average duration of temporary flaring for these instances is 378 hours. Additional details provided by Hess, and within the Temporary Flaring Survey data, show that separator backpressure valve issues dominate as the cause of temporary flaring (89 percent of instances for the Williston Basin), and inclement weather is only listed as an issue for 10 instances, which have an average duration of 125 hours for temporary flaring. The commenter provided that additional information from Hess specifies these backpressure valve issues are unscheduled maintenance or malfunctions due to separator backpressure valve issues, but it is not clear whether these issues are preventable. The commenter asserted that this outlier data for the Willison Basin does not justify a blanket 48-hour nationwide allowance.</P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also noted that the Temporary Flaring Survey includes a total of 57 instances from the San Joaquin Basin, which is not one of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18072"/>
                        primary producers of associated gas. Moreover, the commenter indicated that the data for this basin demonstrate an ability to return to normal operations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         stop flaring of associated gas) after eight hours on average, with only four instances requiring more than 24 hours. The commenter pointed out that of those four instances exceeding 24 hours, three are labeled as “high priority” and the cause is listed as power failure (two instances), compressor failure (one instance), and valve failure (one instance). While these limited exceptions do exist, the commenter suggested that the overall data from the San Joaquin Basin further support the position that the EPA should retain the 24-hour allowance.
                    </P>
                    <P>Also, the commenter evaluated data from New Mexico exploration and production operators, which the commenter claimed demonstrate that operators can comply with a 24-hour limit on temporary flaring during malfunctions or incidents that endanger the safety of operator personnel or the public, as well as during repair and maintenance activities.</P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter argued that New Mexico requires exploration and production operators (“upstream operators”) to report flaring or venting of natural gas on form C-129 “that exceeds 50 thousand cubic feet (MCF) in volume and either results from an emergency or malfunction, or lasts eight hours or more cumulatively within any 24-hour period from a single event.” 
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The report must include the time of venting or flaring and the nature and cause of the venting or flaring.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             N.M. Admin. Code Section 19.15.27.8.G.(1)(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             Id. at Section 19.15.27.8.G.(1)(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter evaluated all C-129 reports filed with the New Mexico Oil Conservation Commission (OCC) between 2021 and 2025.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter reported that the database contains reports filed by upstream and midstream operators. According to the commenter, of all the causes listed, 13 were identified that could be classified as a malfunction or incident that could endanger the safety of operator personnel or the public or as occurring during a repair or maintenance activities. The commenter listed in their comment letter the various causes for these events, including corrosion, downhole well maintenance, equipment failure, freeze, human error, lightning, liquids unloading, overflow-tank, pit, packer leakage test, power failure, repair and maintenance, production test, and commissioning to purge.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             See Attachments C and D of the commenter's letter for the Excel workbooks that include their analysis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In its analysis of the New Mexico OCC dataset, the commenter stated that 99.7 percent of the total reported flaring incidents lasted 24 hours or less. According to the commenter, this data demonstrates that operators can comply with a 24-hour limit on flaring during malfunctions or incidents that endanger the safety of operator personnel or the public and also during repair and maintenance activities.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             See Attachments C and D of the commenter's letter for the Excel workbooks that include their analysis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Another commenter contended that the EPA's proposal to extend the temporary flaring allowance from 24 to 48 hours and include exigent circumstances to allow flaring up to 72 hours is a massive step in the wrong direction. The commenter contended that this policy, while trying to meet the demands of a changing industry, critically ignores the health and environmental implications that the commenter attributed to flaring. The commenter stated that instead of responding to concerns raised by oil and gas companies, thereby allowing what the commenter described as further damage to health and safety, there should be more focus on stricter regulations that veer toward alternative modes of energy production.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For the reasons explained here, the EPA found comments suggesting that the EPA should retain the 24-hour allowance for temporary flaring of associated gas for malfunction, including for reasons of safety, and during all repairs and maintenance finalized in the March 2024 Final Rule to be unpersuasive.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             With respect to the portion of the comments suggesting that the EPA should “veer toward alternative modes of energy production,” the Agency first notes that such comments are out of scope for this action which concerns limited technical amendments to the temporary flaring provisions for associated gas and to NHV. Moreover, basing a regulation under Clean Air Act section 111 on a shift to “alternative modes of energy production” does not comport with caselaw. See 
                            <E T="03">West Virginia</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                             597 U.S. 697 (2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In finalizing the required timeframe for this provision, the EPA considered additional factors beyond the average flaring duration proposed in the January 2025 Proposal due to variabilities that exist in the industry at large.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters appear to suggest that a strict 24-hour limit on temporary flaring is warranted based on the claim that most events in the Temporary Flaring Survey, particularly in the Permian Basin, are resolved within that timeframe. However, this narrow interpretation of the data, when considered in the context of setting a national standard, ignores critical realities demonstrated across the full dataset and operational field conditions. First, while the Permian Basin represents a large portion of the data, flaring behavior and operational challenges do not appear to be uniform across the representative basins. Other regions, particularly the Williston Basin, face significantly harsher environmental conditions and logistical barriers that are not captured by simply focusing on Permian Basin averages. Commenters argue that because one region generally operates under favorable conditions, all other regions should be held to the same standard, an approach that is neither practical nor technically sound.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, commenters rely on averages without giving proper weight to variability. The same dataset across all responses shows that 17 percent of flaring events lasted longer than 24 hours, and 15 percent lasted longer than 72 hours—a meaningful minority that cannot simply be ignored. Averages can hide important outliers that matter operationally. For instance, the high standard deviation of 156 hours across the full dataset demonstrates that flaring durations vary dramatically and treating all events as if they should conform to an average disregards the complex, often unpredictable nature of these unique situations that may result in routing associated gas. Emergencies, severe weather, and mechanical failures in remote, unmanned sites frequently require more than 24 hours to troubleshoot, repair, and safely restore operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA also disagrees with the claim that the datasets and other information available to the Agency are too limited to support a nationwide 72-hour flaring allowance. While the Temporary Flaring Survey does not include every basin, it contains 2,804 flaring events from several major oil and natural gas producing regions, providing a meaningful sample of real-world operations. Events exceeding both 24 and 72 hours occurred across different categories. For example, in the “Other—specify” category of the Temporary Flaring Survey, gas sales line freezing led o flaring durations as high as 117 hours, power outages resulted in delays up to 48 hours, and high hydrogen sulfide (H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        S) levels forced compressor shutdowns lasting 29 hours. In the C-129 reports filed with the New Mexico OCC that the commenter evaluated, while these events represent a small portion of the more than 28,000 total upstream incidents examined, there were still 127 flaring incidents lasting more than 24 hours and 103 incidents 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18073"/>
                        lasting more than 72 hours during repair and maintenance activities. So, even the data from New Mexico shows that 24, or even 48, hours is not sufficient time in some instances. These examples show that extended flaring durations can result from malfunction or safety related issues that are not tied to any single region.
                    </P>
                    <P>A national default limit of 72 hours is straightforward in terms of compliance, especially for operators who work in more than one basin. It gives enough time to fix most issues without needing to claim an exigent circumstance. It also avoids subjecting sources across different regions to unequal treatment, as well as avoiding situations where sources are subject to the conditions discussed above that may contribute to longer flaring incidents but are captured in the existing record or analysis. Such sources could be existing sources or new sources, and a nationwide standard for new sources obviated the need to continually analyze and adjust regional-based considerations. For rare cases that go beyond 72 hours, the rule allows limited flexibility as addressed in section IV.A.1 of this preamble. And, as discussed previously, the EPA is also requiring flaring to cease when the incident triggering flaring has been resolved, which serves as a protective backstop to reduce emissions notwithstanding the 72 hour allowance. We expect that incidents that previously have been resolved within 24 or 48 hours would continue to be resolved as quickly as practicable and that flaring would cease when the issue is resolved.</P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA does not dispute the general idea that the data available to the Agency in this rulemaking docket demonstrate that many instances of temporary flaring of associated gas are resolved, with the site returning to normal operations, within 24 hours. However, we view this information within the context that these instances mostly occurred at sites that were not subject to 2024 final rule NSPS 24-hour limit at the time of the data collection. As such, owner and operators were already responding quickly to address repair, maintenance, and safety issues and returning their sites to normal operations (ceasing flaring) due to considerations outside the NSPS and EG. We have no reason to believe that those other considerations, whatever they may be (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         State or local laws/regulations economic incentives to restore flow to sales lines), would vanish upon finalizing the amendments to increase the NSPS and EG timeline to 72 hours. We also have no reason to predict that allowing up to 72 hours, or more with exigent circumstances, in the NSPS and EG will result in owners and operators always taking up to 72 hours to return their sites to normal operations. It is reasonable to assume that if owners and operators were addressing these issues quickly before the NSPS, they will continue to do so after these amendments. Seventy-two hours is a limit, not a minimum. The EPA's regulations in no way interfere with the efforts of owners and operators to address problems as quickly as possible. In fact, the final regulations clarify that temporary flaring must stop when the issue giving rise to the need to flare has been resolved. The requirement only allows flaring for the duration of time necessary to return the site to normal operations. If that is accomplished in eight hours instead of 72, then the rule does not allow, let alone require, flaring for 72 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA finds that certain commenters overestimate the potential environmental consequences of revising the 24-hour requirement to a 72-hour requirement. If the regulations provide owners and operators with no options aside from shutting-in operations if repairs are incomplete after 24-hours, these circumstances may lead to depressurizing equipment directly to the atmosphere (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         venting). A shut-in occurs when an owner or operator temporarily closes the valves on an oil or gas well to stop the flow of hydrocarbons, often for maintenance, safety, equipment issues, or economic issues. The act of restarting the well after a shut-in can result in significant emissions due to pressure buildup while the well was shut-in, as owners and operators perform blowdown operations to release pressure from the well, often resulting in significant releases of methane and other harmful emissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Venting in these situations may release far more harmful emissions than controlled flaring would over an additional 24 to 48 hours. Thus, a rigid 24-hour limit, when compared to what is being finalized, could result in marginally greater pollution, not less, undermining the EPA's emission reduction goals. Further, in accordance with 40 CFR 60.5377b(d), emissions from flares and ECD are to be controlled at 95 percent reduction efficiency (see also 40 CFR 60.5391c(b) within the model rule for the EG). While the change from 24 hours to 72 hours for flaring in these situations, and longer for exigent circumstances, can theoretically allow more flaring by total duration, the natural gas being routed to a flare during this time is still being controlled at a 95 percent reduction efficiency. And as noted above, any increase in emissions from flaring is speculative given the backstop requirement that flaring must cease as soon as the underlying issue is resolved.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, while one commenter dismissed data from the Williston Basin as “outliers,” this overlooks the fact that the data from the Williston Basin represent real operating conditions faced by numerous facilities.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The fact that the sample size from the Williston Basin is smaller does not mean that the issues operators face there are less legitimate. The EPA believes that utilizing a regulatory framework that fails to accommodate areas with severe climates and operational challenges would penalize responsible owners and operators working in these difficult environments. The information presented to the EPA clearly indicates that in some instances—and more than just a few outliers—owners and operators credibly require more than 24 hours to temporarily flare before they can resolve the problem and return the site to normal operations. It is not appropriate for the EPA to establish a rigid and universal, nation-wide, requirement that the Agency has credible reason to believe cannot be met. Allowing up to 72 hours for most situations, and providing a mechanism to go beyond 72 hours, will allow owners and operators the time they need while also ensuring that temporary flaring does not continue indefinitely or unchecked. To use an example from one commenter, flaring for 378 hours due to a separator backpressure valve issue where the site is accessible would not be in compliance with the finalized amendments. We believe that a fair and reasonable standard should reflect the full diversity of U.S. oil and natural gas operations. A flexible allowance permitting up to 72 hours of flaring under these circumstances is both more practical and environmentally responsible.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Consideration of Additional Limitations and Targeted Exceptions to Temporary Flaring</HD>
                    <P>
                        In response to the January 2025 Proposal to extend the allowable duration for flaring associated gas from 24 to 48 hours under certain situations, commenters also raised two distinct but related issues. The first is whether there should be a clear cutoff for flaring within the 48-hour period. Some commenters advocated for a more restrictive application of the proposed 48-hour allowance by recommending that the EPA adopt an additional cutoff 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18074"/>
                        mechanism. They requested that the EPA require owners and operators to stop flaring as soon as the repair, maintenance, or safety issue is resolved, even if that happens before the end of the 48-hour period. They argued that this was needed to avoid extra flaring that serves no technical purpose. For example, if a repair is done after 8 hours, the commenter asserts flaring should not continue for the full allowed temporary flaring duration. The commenter requested that the EPA clearly state that flaring must stop when the cause of the disruption is resolved.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Second, a separate set of comments urged the EPA to consider geographical targeted exemptions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         to explore whether exemptions to the flaring limit should apply only in certain geographic areas such as specific basins). These commenters argued that the EPA should not apply the proposed 48-hour flaring allowance across the country. Instead, they suggested that the Agency consider basin-specific exemptions where data shows they are needed. The commenters pointed to past EPA rules that have allowed for regional differences. For example, the EPA has given exemptions for Alaska North Slope facilities due to cold weather conditions. In this case, the commenter referred to the Temporary Flaring Survey data from the Williston Basin and said it does not support a nationwide change to the flaring limit. They further asserted that any extended flaring allowance based on that data should apply only in the Williston Basin.
                    </P>
                    <P>These comments suggest that a blanket 48-hour allowance may not be the best fit for all situations. These comments and the EPA's responses are provided in sections IV.A.5.a and IV.A.5.b of this preamble.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Additional Cutoff To Limit Temporary Flaring</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter requested that, if the EPA finalizes the 48-hour allowance as proposed, the EPA explicitly include an additional cutoff for the stated allowed duration to ensure the temporary flaring or routing to control devices ceases as soon as the malfunction is resolved, including for reasons of safety, repair, or maintenance.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter contended that it is necessary for the EPA to specifically put restrictions on the duration to require operators to stop temporary flaring when repairs or maintenance are completed, thus avoiding continued flaring longer than necessary during each incident. For example, the commenter stated that if a repair or maintenance is completed within eight hours of the need to temporarily flare associated gas, then the flaring of associated gas should be limited to eight hours, not a full 24 hours as allowed in the March 2024 Final Rule. The commenter recommended regulatory text changes to 40 CFR 60.5377b(d)(1) and (2) and 40 CFR 60.5391c(c)(1) and (2) placing a cutoff for temporary flaring to end as soon as the malfunction, safety concern, or maintenance repair is resolved, if it did not require the full 24 hours allowed in the March 2024 Final Rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, the commenter stated that their recommendations are consistent with other requirements in NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, which place an upper limit on how long provisions for certain extenuating circumstances may apply before the baseline requirements once again take effect, including the allowance of temporary flaring until gas composition meets specifications or up to 72 hours, whichever is less (40 CFR 60.5377b(d)(4)); delayed repair of centrifugal compressors (40 CFR 60.5380b(a)(8)(i)), reciprocating compressors (40 CFR 60.5385b(a)(3)(i)), fugitive emissions components until the next scheduled shutdown or up to two years (40 CFR 60.5397b(h)(3)(i)), whichever is earliest; repairs of pressure relief devices at gas plants the next time monitoring personnel are onsite or within 30 days, whichever is sooner (40 CFR 60.5400b(d)(2)). The commenter supported this additional cutoff to ensure that temporary flaring is limited as much as possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA agrees with the commenter's recommendation that the finalized time for temporary flaring allowance of associated gas should operate as a maximum timeframe. Temporary flaring or routing of associated gas to control devices should end as soon as the malfunction, maintenance, or safety issue is resolved. The EPA's intent with the provisions for temporary flaring of associated gas is to allow necessary flexibility to manage equipment issues or emergencies, while limiting emissions to those which are associated with actions that are required to fix the problem. This approach will encourage owners and operators to limit flaring to the time necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA agrees that there is clear precedent for this type of backstop. The March 2024 Final Rule already includes a maximum time limit of 24 hours for temporary flaring to prevent avoidable emissions during operational disruptions.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adding a requirement that flaring must cease when the issue is resolved builds on this principle.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             (Docket ID: EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317) Preamble, Table 17—Situations and Durations Where Associated Gas May Temporarily be Routed to a Flare or Control Device.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The monthly and annual datasets provided by industry stakeholders show wide variation in flaring durations. The average flaring duration across all responses was 46 hours, but the median was four hours. This gap suggests that while some events last longer, most can be resolved much sooner. In particular, several months showed high percentages of events exceeding 24 and even 72 hours—up to 34 percent and 32 percent, respectively, in January. But in other months, most events were short, with medians below five hours. These numbers support the idea that many events can be resolved well before the maximum time is reached and that a cutoff based on when the issue is fixed would reduce emissions without affecting needed flexibility. Further, in the Temporary Flaring Survey, the Williston Basin data shows that the causes of temporary flaring vary, including equipment failures like compressor shutdowns, frozen gas lines, and power outages. We believe these events do not all require the same response time. Some events can be resolved in under 10 hours. Implementing requirements to end flaring once the cause is addressed will limit emissions to what is necessary for safe and reliable operations. Industry stakeholders have repeatedly stated that owners and operators are already taking steps to reduce flaring times and that a 72-hour allowance would promote planning and operational changes to further reduce emissions.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA concludes that a backstop limit and a requirement to stop flaring when the issue is resolved can work together to maintain the Agency's objectives while allowing industry to respond to operational needs in an efficient and timely manner.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0044.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        b. Alternative Exemptions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Basin-Specific)
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested that the EPA consider adopting basin-specific exemptions from the temporary flaring provisions rather than extending the temporary flaring allowance beyond 24 hours for all wells nationwide.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter acknowledged, however, that the current record does not support basin-specific exemptions. In particular, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18075"/>
                        the commenter recommended that the EPA consider which limited exceptions to the 24-hour duration allowance are warranted and specify an appropriate allowance for temporary flaring or routing to control based on data that supports that exception. According to the commenter, the EPA has historically provided location-specific exceptions in its oil and gas standards that account for the unique circumstances those owners and operators face. The commenter referred to a statement the EPA made: “the information provided by petitioners is persuasive in demonstrating that a blanket 24-hour limit on temporary flaring can pose compliance challenges for certain owners and operators.” 
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             90 FR 3740 (January 5, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter summarized key observations from the 166 instances that the Temporary Flaring Survey API provided for temporary flaring of associated gas in the Williston Basin (see page nine of commenter's letter) and concluded that the Williston Basin data provides insufficient evidence to provide a blanket nationwide exemption. The commenter further expressed that though their position is that the data are insufficiently clear to warrant adjusting the March 2024 Final Rule at this time, any change in the duration of the temporary flaring allowance based on the Williston Basin data should be limited to that basin. The commenter noted that the EPA took similar actions on limited exceptions for fugitive emissions monitoring requirements and process controllers on the Alaska North Slope, citing concerns about the technical feasibility of conducting monitoring when temperatures are below the operating envelope of the monitoring technologies, and the EPA noted “there is no assurance that the initial and semiannual monitoring that must occur during that period of time are technically feasible.” 
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             83 FR 10628, 10632 (March 12, 2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Regarding process controllers, the commenter highlighted that the EPA provided two standards for sites in Alaska in the March 2024 Final Rule: zero emissions for all process controllers at sites with access to electrical power, and the use of process controllers with low emission rates at sites with no access to electrical power (40 CFR 60.5390b(b)). Instead of the blanket move to allow 48 hours for temporary flaring as proposed nationwide, the commenter reiterated that any changes to the duration allowance for temporary flaring based on the Williston Basin data should be limited to the Williston Basin and based on a demonstrated need in the basin.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the comment requesting that the EPA consider adopting basin-specific exemptions from the temporary flaring provisions rather than extending the temporary flaring allowance beyond 24 hours for all wells nationwide, the EPA acknowledges that we have historically allowed some location-specific variations in oil and gas standards to reflect operational challenges that are unique to certain geographic regions. However, we do not find that such an approach is necessary or supported by the current data for this rule. In the March 2024 Final Rule, the Alaska-specific provisions cited by the commenter were granted because of distinct technical challenges related to that region (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         controllers without electric power and uniqueness of large compressors different from those in the lower 48 States 
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ). For example, we took a different approach for process controllers in Alaska at sites without reliable access to power.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This was in part due to Alaska's northern latitude, where long periods of darkness during winter reduce the ability of solar panels to generate electricity. That situation presented a clear, location-specific operational barrier that justified a different standard for certain sources. The examples presented by the commenter both involve subcategorization that resulted in different standards for different sources. The differences there were meaningful enough to justify different treatment. However, here, the differences are not as pronounced or meaningful, and the different treatment that commenters advocate for is only in regard to a limited variation provision that comprises one piece of the larger applicable standard (these amendments are not changing the substance of the NSPS standards or the EG presumptive standards for associated gas).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             The “lower 48” consists of the 48 adjoining U.S. States and the District of Columbia of the U.S. The term excludes the only two noncontiguous States, which are Alaska and Hawaii, and all other offshore insular areas, such as the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The circumstances described by the commenter and the data for the Williston Basin and other regions do not meet the same threshold as the examples that commenters cite and do not warrant the same outcome of creating subcategories. The Temporary Flaring Survey shows that 17 percent of temporary flaring events across all reported basins lasted longer than 24 hours, and 15 percent exceeded 72 hours. While these numbers suggest some operational challenges, the data also show significant variation across both the durations and underlying causes of these flaring events. For instance, the monthly flaring dataset shows that in many months, the median flaring duration was just four to six hours, even though averages were higher due to outlier events. In June and July, for example, the average flaring durations were 11 and 19 hours, respectively, with medians of four hours. This pattern suggests that while extended events do occur, many are resolved within a short timeframe, even in colder months. In the Williston Basin dataset of the Temporary Flaring Survey, temporary flaring causes range from compressor shutdowns and frozen gas lines to facility restarts and power outages. These are operational issues that may occur across multiple basins. The possibility of inclement weather as a contributing factor to site inaccessibility is not unique to any one location. The Temporary Flaring Survey shows that events flagged as “[u]nknown” accounted for a much higher average flaring duration (86 hours) compared to events where the impact of weather was known to be present (21 hours) or absent (36 hours). This inconsistency indicates that factors beyond location such as the nature of the malfunction, site accessibility, and access to equipment play a large role in extended flaring durations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, we find that a single, flexible nationwide approach with clear, uniform provisions for additional time is more appropriate, equitable, and easier to implement than finalizing different maximum flaring times for different geographic regions of the country. As some commenters suggested, basin-specific timelines would likely introduce unnecessary complexity into an already complex regulatory scheme, which could result in enforcement and compliance inconsistencies. The standards for associated gas are already subcategorized in the NSPS based on when a new well commenced construction. (
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Table 16 in the March 2024 Final Rule).
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These amendments only address two of the four scenarios for temporary flaring (
                        <E T="03">see id.</E>
                         at Table 17). Further, the presumptive standards in the EG model rule are also already subcategorized on different terms than the NSPS (
                        <E T="03">see id.</E>
                         at Table 4). These temporary flaring provisions are only one piece of the regulatory scheme for associated gas, and they do not relate to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18076"/>
                        the standards directly. Layering basin-specific variations on top of this scheme for certain instances of temporary flaring, which generally should not occur often, is too complex for little to no benefit when considered in conjunction with the requirement that flaring must cease when the issue giving rise to the need to temporary flare is resolved.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             89 FR 16887 (March 8, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Lastly, the record does not support the conclusion that any one basin faces persistent technical barriers that would justify a regional variation to the originally proposed 48-hour or finalized 72-hour temporary flaring limit. Instead, we support an approach that allows limited extensions under exigent circumstances, as discussed in section IV.A.1 of this preamble, but maintains a consistent framework across all basins. This ensures fairness, limits emissions, and encourages continued operational innovation in the oil and gas industry.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Vent Gas NHV Continuous Monitoring Requirements and Alternative Performance Test (Sampling Demonstration) Option for Flares and Enclosed Combustion Devices</HD>
                    <P>The March 2024 Final Rule requires owners and operators to perform NHV sampling for flares and ECD through continuous monitoring of NHV or through periodic testing with sampling demonstrations. As stated in the January 2025 Proposal, industry petitioners stated in their reconsideration petitions that the compliance demonstrations are unnecessary, technically infeasible, and provide a limited timeline for compliance. The petitioners argued that over 99 percent of historical Btu stream data already complies with the prescribed minimum NHV content values (depending on flare type) outlined in the March 2024 Final Rule. Industry petitioners asserted that NHV content is usually a concern when inert gases are added to the process streams, which typically occurs during scheduled situations and is known to the operator of the affected source.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on information from these petitions, as well as further information provided by industry, in the January 2025 Proposal the EPA proposed changes to the continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test options (sampling demonstration) of NHV for flares and ECD. First, for the continuous monitoring requirement, we proposed to expand the streams that are exempt from monitoring NHV to include unassisted flares and ECD at new sources, and unassisted, air-assisted, and steam-assisted flares and ECD at existing sources. We also proposed to replace the general exemption from NHV monitoring for associated gas for any control device used at “well site affected facilities” with NHV monitoring that is more reflective of industry operations. Additionally, we proposed to require NHV monitoring for streams where inert gases were added and for operational scenarios where NHV is known to decrease (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         nitrogen and acid gas removal, glycol dehydration, etc.) in flares and ECD that are subject to the 200 or 300 Btu/scf minimum requirements. The EPA relied on data provided by industry, which showed reduced NHV from the dilution of inlet streams by effluent streams with known high content of inerts, such as those from amine units or produced water tank streams. In the event of stream dilution (for any reason), owners and operators would need to satisfy more robust recordkeeping and reporting requirements. Second, for the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) requirements, we proposed to allow breaks during weekends and holidays for the March 2024 Final Rule's consecutive 14-day sampling demonstration requirements to account for reasonable operational pauses. We also addressed ambiguity regarding the location of NHV grab sampling methods by specifying in the January 2025 Proposal that samples should be taken upstream of the control device, provided that the sample is representative of the gas being introduced to the control device. Finally, in the January 2025 Proposal the EPA clarified NHV testing must be reported in volumetric units (Btu/scf) instead of specific units (Btu/lb) in order to facilitate consistency in reporting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA received several comments on the proposed amendments regarding the NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and ECD in the January 2025 Proposal. Highlights of these comments and the EPA's responses are provided, as well as discussion of changes from the January 2025 Proposal as applicable. This preamble does not discuss the EPA's response to any of those comments. The agency's responses are available in the EPA's RTC document (Chapter 4) for the final rule.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review: Response to Public Comments on the January 2025 Proposed Rule (90 FR 3734; January 15, 2025). See Docket No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. 60-Day Deadline</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed to allow 60 days for owners and operators to conduct the continuous NHV monitoring required by one of the options in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D), if the results of the periodic sampling (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         three samples every five years) indicate that the NHV is less than 1.2 times the applicable threshold NHV level in the rule. The EPA considers it necessary to specify a timeframe to install and operate the required continuous monitors to provide owners and operators with regulatory certainty for when this must occur. We consider 60 days to be an expedited time schedule for the installation of continuous monitoring systems, but we also consider it a reasonable timeframe for installing the necessary grab sampling systems to automatically collect samples at least once every eight hours as provided in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii)(D). The proposal would require facilities to collect grab samples every eight hours until such time that a continuous monitor can be installed, and installation of such a system may require more than 60 days. We requested comment on the proposed 60-day compliance provision when a five-year sampling event indicates the vent stream is not sufficiently above the required NHV.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter supported the EPA's proposed 60-day deadline to require continuous NHV monitoring after either a periodic sample or a post-process change re-evaluation demonstrates the flare or ECD inlet gas is below the applicable NHV limit.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that more deadlines are necessary to provide clear compliance obligations. The commenter also suggested that where a post-NHV demonstration periodic sample is below the applicable NHV limit, the operator must commence continuous NHV monitoring or recomplete the NHV demonstration within 60 days of receiving the analytical results. The commenter suggested that the opportunity to recomplete the NHV demonstration would account for the possibility of errors in sampling or analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA received only supportive comments regarding the proposed clarification of allowing 60 days for implementing the continuous NHV monitoring required by one of the options in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D) if the results of the periodic sampling (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         three samples every five years) indicate that the NHV is less than 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18077"/>
                        1.2 times the applicable threshold NHV level in the rule. Hence, we are finalizing this particular provision as proposed. Owners and operators could resolve any potential error in sampling or analysis by implementing a continuous NHV monitor within the newly clarified 60-day window.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(E) and 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(E) requires that if process operations are revised that could impact (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         lower) the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare, such as the removal or addition of process equipment, owners and operators must perform a re-evaluation of the NHV of the gas stream. The EPA is clarifying that this re-evaluation must be performed within 60 days of the process operations being revised, on those enclosed combustion devices and flares subject to NHV testing.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Revisions to Inlet Gas Streams Exempt From Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        Based on information provided by petitioners after the publication of the March 2024 Final Rule regarding NHV characteristics of sample streams, in the January 2025 Proposal the EPA proposed changes to the March 2024 Final Rule that would expand the scope of the exclusion for the NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option so that the following control devices would not be required to make any such demonstration: unassisted flares or ECDs at new sources; and unassisted, air-assisted, or steam-assisted flares or ECDs at existing sources. New data submitted in API and AXPC's joint petition for reconsideration dated April 2024 demonstrated that, for over 22,000 NHV low-pressure (LP) data points, 99.5 percent of those data points showed that the NHV was at least 800 Btu/scf and more than 99.9 percent of those data points showed that the NHV was at least 300 Btu/scf. Notably, these data were consistent across different basins.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Data supplied by GPA Midstream in its July 2024 letter supported its prior petition submittals that gas streams in the midstream consist of natural gas and field gas with NHVs greater than 1,000 Btu/scf, with the exception of certain streams in which inert gases or other known low-NHV streams were added.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because these new data further demonstrate that the NHV of the vent gas is consistently well above the 200 or 300 Btu/scf vent gas requirements for these control devices when inerts are not present, and because there are no combustion zone or dilution parameters for these control devices, the EPA proposed to determine that an expanded exclusion from the monitoring requirements is appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             99 percent of the data were from five basins: Permian, Anadarko, Gulf Coast (Eagleford), Williston (Bakken), and Powder River. See March 18, 2024, API/AXPC Slides in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0094.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA did not propose to exclude pressure-, steam-, or air-assisted flares or ECD from the NHV compliance demonstration requirements for new sources. After the January 2025 Proposal, based upon the EPA's solicitation for comment for the sampling requirements for pressure-assisted flares and ECDs at new and existing sources and for air- and steam-assisted flares or ECDs at new sources,
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in April 2025 API supplemented its comment letter with new high-pressure (HP) stream data (39,000 samples) from 11 basins with over 99.5 percent of these data greater than 800 Btu/scf, which was comparable to that of the LP NHVs previously analyzed in 2024. Again, these were consistent across different basins.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For the combined data sets from April 2024 and April 2025, which consisted of over 60,000 data points from both LP and HP gas streams, over 99.5 percent of the data showed NHV contents of at least 800 Btu/scf and over 99.9 percent of the data showed NHV contents of at least 300 Btu/scf.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                         In this combined data set, over 99 percent of the data samples from LP gas streams resulted in a NHV content of greater than 900 Btu/scf and over 95 percent of the data samples from HP gas streams resulted in a NHV content of greater than 900 Btu/scf. Of particular note, while less than 0.5 percent of the total samples yielded NHV contents of 800 Btu/scf or less, these instances were from known scenarios where inerts were added, namely vent gas streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU), acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, compressors in acid gas service, or vent streams containing water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         used for EOR.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             90 FR 3748 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             97 percent of the data were from eight basins: Permian, Anadarko, Gulf Coast (Eagleford), Williston (Bakken), Powder River, East Texas, Appalachian, and Arkla (Haynsville). See April 2, 2025, API Slides in Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As demonstrated by the July 2024 GPA Midstream data set, the addition of inert gases or streams from amine units or produced water tanks can decrease the NHV content of the gas stream to the point that the NHV thresholds for non-pressure-assisted flares or ECD may not be achieved. In addition to sources of inert streams previously identified in the March 2024 Final Rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         streams from compressors in acid gas service and streams from EOR facilities), the July 2024 GPA Midstream letter explained that other operating scenarios can result in the addition of low-Btu streams into the vent gas stream, which lowers the overall NHV for the vent stream.
                    </P>
                    <P>Based upon the information and data provided after the publication of both the March 2024 Final Rule and January 2025 Proposal, which demonstrated that over 99.5 percent of the data (consisting of both LP and HP sources) showed NHV contents of 800 Btu/scf or greater and over 99.9 percent of the data showed NHV contents of 300 Btu/scf or greater, the EPA is expanding the streams that are exempt from monitoring due to high NHV content to include all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources.</P>
                    <P>
                        We are finalizing that NHV sampling is only required for any new or existing flare or ECD in cases where there are contributions from inerts, and for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV content, using the continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) options currently prescribed in the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules and summarized in section III.B of this preamble.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA expects that the operational scenarios described in section IV.B.2.c. of this preamble can be easily validated and documented through the physical presence (or absence) of process equipment, process piping, engineering analysis, or process flow diagrams in order to determine when the owner or operator should monitor the NHV of the stream.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             See 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8) and 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For example, in the case of the acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still column vent gas, it would be easy to trace process piping to determine whether the vent stream was routed to a dedicated control device or was combined with affected facility vent gas streams. Similarly, for the glycol dehydration unit reboiler vent gas, the lack of a process condenser would indicate that higher water content (and lower Btu) reboiler vent gas streams were combined with affected facility vent gas streams. The use of nitrogen as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18078"/>
                        a blanket gas can be readily determined through the presence of nitrogen storage, supply systems, and process piping. Finally, we expect that storage tanks with water content high enough to depress overall NHVs typically would not meet the applicability thresholds of the rule and would not be combined with other vent streams routed to a flare or ECD. However, when gas streams from produced water tanks are vented to controls, vent lines from these tanks can be traced to identify sources that require monitoring or sampling.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Since we proposed to remove the general monitoring exemption for when the only inlet gas stream to the flare or ECD is associated gas from a well affected facility, we also directly resolved one of the issues raised in the May 2024 EIP et al. petition. We consider the data submitted by the industry petitioners to support the proposed exclusion from monitoring for flares and ECD subject to a vent gas NHV requirement of 200 or 300 Btu/scf (and not subject to NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirement) when no inerts are present because the results were consistently much higher than these levels. The May 2024 EIP et al. petition also contended that the EPA did not support its conclusion in the March 2024 Final Rule that initial assessments of flares and other control devices, in lieu of continuous monitoring, can capture the variability of NHV in the oil and gas sector. The EPA has concluded that the data submitted by the industry petitioners supports the conclusion that the NHV demonstrations required for pressure-, air-, and steam-assisted control devices are adequate to show that the NHV from those demonstrations is above the required thresholds specified by the rule and that continuous monitoring is not needed. When inerts are added intermittently or process operations change in ways that that may lower the NHV, the proposed standards require a re-demonstration with a new 14-day sampling effort.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The re-demonstration would consider the variability associated with these operations and determine a reasonable lower-range value to use in compliance assessments. As such, we proposed that the sampling requirements, with the revisions proposed and now being finalized, are robust and sufficient to demonstrate that continuous monitoring is not needed when the NHV of the gas stream being controlled is sufficiently high, when considering the range of vent gas and assist gas flow rates, to meet the required standards.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             800 Btu/scf for pressure-assisted flares and 270 Btu/scf for steam- and air-assisted flares.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While we previously excluded monitoring for associated gas from the NHV compliance demonstration requirements, some petitioners have identified instances where the NHV for associated gas streams could be compromised. Specifically, the use of water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         flooding for EOR could introduce significant inerts as part of the associated gas produced and thereby lower the NHV of the associated gas. We found the information presented by the petitioners compelling and therefore proposed to conclude that the March 2024 Final Rule's exclusion of associated gas from the NHV compliance demonstration requirements is overly broad. Because the definition of associated gas in the March 2024 Final Rule specifically excludes these inert gases that may be released with the natural gas during the initial stage of separation after the wellhead, there are cases where associated gas can have high levels of inerts and low NHV. Therefore, the EPA proposed to remove this exclusion for associated gas in its entirety and also requested comment on the proposed removal of the associated gas monitoring exemption, as well as any additional miscellaneous operating scenarios that can compromise the NHV for associated gas streams as well as all flare types and ECD.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Exemptions From NHV Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters requested exemptions from all NHV monitoring. One commenter stated that the EPA's proposal to reconsider the streams that are exempt from monitoring due to high NHV content for flares or ECD at new and existing sources would allow for additional flexibility and compliance options for regulated entities.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The same commenter asserted that extending the exemption from NHV sampling/monitoring requirements for affected facilities under NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc to streams other than associated gas to include other equipment with consistently high NHV vent streams would allow for many upstream facilities to demonstrate effective control of VOCs and methane while providing flexibility and reducing the compliance burden associated with continuous monitoring. The commenter suggested that the EPA consider expanding the streams exempt from monitoring for unassisted flares or ECD at new sources, and unassisted, air-assisted, and steam-assisted flares or ECD at existing sources to create consistency between requirements for new sources and existing sources. The commenter added that this would provide flexibility and lessen the compliance burden associated with applying the monitoring standards to affected facilities under NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0085.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter urged the EPA to remove all NHV monitoring requirements for all upstream sector flares and ECD in both the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, regardless of whether inert gas is added, and to remove the NHV standards which prompt such monitoring.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that operators in the Williston Basin already collect and analyze data throughout the well's lifecycle for permitting, compliance, and reporting purposes and that midstream companies sample associated gas routinely (often monthly, including composition and NHV) to handle custody transfer payments. The commenter stated that these operators sample and analyze using established standards and that therefore the March 2024 Final Rule NHV monitoring requirements are redundant.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0091.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The same commenter added that the manufacturer of control devices specifies the minimum or required range of the NHV for the inlet gas which is necessary to operate the control device effectively. Regarding lower-Btu gas, the commenter stated that flare and ECD technology exists (and continues to evolve) which can ensure stable combustion at lower heating values and that imposing rigid NHV monitoring requirements can limit innovation. The commenter stated that upstream sector flares and ECD have consistently been designed and tested to ensure high combustion efficiency (destruction removal efficiency (DRE) exceeding 99 percent) without the need for complex NHV monitoring typically required for petroleum refinery flares. The commenter pointed to comments in the May 2024 API and AXPC petition which highlighted fundamental differences between upstream sector flares and petroleum refinery flares regarding NHV requirements. The commenter explained that upstream flares are not designed with NHV requirements because they operate under non-steady state conditions, with a more consistent gas composition, including NHV. In contrast, the commenter noted that the Refinery MACT includes NHV requirements and operates under steady state conditions with varying gas 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18079"/>
                        composition (which can include different NHV contents). The commenter stated that upstream flares are specifically designed to maintain high combustion efficiency even in non-steady state conditions due to the limited variability of the vent gas composition and relatively few gas streams routed to the control device.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters requested that NHV continuous monitoring only apply in situations where inert gases are introduced into the vent gas stream.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Two of the commenters 
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         referred to data 
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         previously provided to the EPA which they state demonstrates that oil and gas facilities consistently exceed the minimum NHV limits, except for known scenarios.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083, -0088, -0090, -0092, -0093, -0094, -0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092, -0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Letter from American Petroleum Institute and American Exploration &amp; Production Council, to Michael S. Regan, US EPA Administrator, Provisions Creating Immediate Compliance and Implementation Issues EPA's Final Rule “Proposed Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review,” 5, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0009 (April 5, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter requested that the EPA not require NHV monitoring unless inert gases are added or for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease vent gas NHV regardless of type of control device.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that, in previous comments submitted to the EPA, they provided data that shows the vent gas NHV is typically well above 900 Btu/scf, and therefore the NHV monitoring requirements are unnecessary except in specific operations which introduce inert gases into the vent gas stream. The commenter provided that the previous data set represented LP vent gas streams and included over 22,000 data points from 18 operators covering approximately 4,200 sites, including well sites, central production facilities, and compressor stations. A second data set for HP vent gas streams, collected in the same operator survey in coordination with AXPC, is included in the commenter's letter and represents an additional 39,000 data points from 12 operators covering approximately 22,100 sites, primarily from well sites and central production facilities. The commenter concluded that NHV monitoring should only be required when inert gases are added or for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease vent gas NHV regardless of type of control device.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter also urged the EPA to exempt NHV monitoring for flares and ECD that control associated gas from any oil well (not just well affected facilities under NSPS OOOOb or well designated facilities under EG OOOOc).
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter explained that the composition of associated gas does not change due to regulatory applicability, and the current associated gas exemption arbitrarily limits the scope of the exemption.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, a commenter recommended that the EPA allow the NHV monitoring exemption to apply to pressure-assisted control devices.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter referenced the January 2025 Proposal in which the EPA states that because the NHV of methane (896 Btu/scf) is not significantly higher than the required minimum NHV of 800 Btu/scf for pressure-assisted flares and ECD, the Agency will continue to require either continuous monitoring or alternative performance testing (14-day NHV test) for these devices. The commenter urged the EPA to reconsider this approach, which they say is not supported by the record and is contrary to common sense. The commenter further provided that the EPA further stated in the January 2025 Proposal that “ . . . we find that it is much easier for the NHV in the vent gas samples from these control devices to decrease and approach the 800 Btu/scf NHV threshold. . .” According to the commenter, this reason does not support costly continuous monitoring.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0094.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, two commenters opposed the EPA's proposal to exempt flares and ECD from NHV monitoring. One of the commenters agreed with the EPA's proposal to require certain flares and other control devices controlling emissions from associated gas to monitor or sample for NHV. According to the commenter, the EPA must do so given that some petitioners have identified instances where the NHV for associated gas streams could be compromised, such as in water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         flooding which can introduce a large amount of inerts as part of the associated gas produced. However, the commenter disagreed with the EPA's proposal to require this monitoring or sampling only for pressure-assisted flares and other controls at new and existing sources and air- and steam-assisted flares and other controls at new sources. The commenter stated that the EPA must also require NHV monitoring or sampling for unassisted flares at new and existing sources and air- and steam-assisted flares at existing sources. The commenter stated that the EPA has failed to establish that the NHV of gases sent to flares and other controls, including those where no inert gases are added and nothing else decreases the NHV content of the inlet stream gas, will always be above the March 2024 Final Rule's NHV limits. According to the commenter, this means that the EPA cannot rationally justify a complete exemption from NHV monitoring and sampling.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The other commenter strongly opposed the EPA's proposal to remove NHV monitoring requirements for all new unassisted flares and ECD (with limited exceptions due to inerts) and for existing air-assisted and steam-assisted flares and ECD and asserted that the EPA has changed its position without adequate justification.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter urged the EPA to maintain NHV monitoring requirements for all unassisted flares and ECD.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The same commenter referenced the EPA's justification for its proposed exemption from all NHV monitoring for unassisted flares and ECD, which cited new data 
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provided by API, AXPC, and GPA Midstream that the EPA claims “appear to demonstrate that the NHV of the vent gas is consistently well above the 200 or 300 Btu/scf vent gas requirements for these control devices when inerts are not present, and because there are no combustion zone or dilution parameters for these control devices.” 
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter suggested that several deficiencies in the data cut strongly against the EPA's decision to exempt all unassisted flares and ECD from the monitoring requirements. The commenter disagreed that the Temporary Flaring Survey contains enough information to ensure the NHV figures represent the entire vent gas stream going to the flare or ECD. The commenter contended that because the data sets do not specify that all samples were taken after all vent streams were combined, it is inappropriate for the EPA to make a sweeping exemption based solely on the data presented.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             See API-AXPC NHV Survey Results v1.0 at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0044;</E>
                             July 31, 2024 Email from GPA (Response for additional information) at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0039.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             See 90 FR 3747 (January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The same commenter also supported the proposed removal of the exemption for associated gas waste streams, which they state is supported by the record. The commenter agreed with the EPA's assessment of information, provided that the NHV of associated gas does not always exceed the minimum limits as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18080"/>
                        the EPA expected it would when it finalized the exemption in the March 2024 Final Rule. Further, the commenter agreed that the information provided demonstrates that associated gas can be combined with inerts, which in turn may reduce the NHV below the required minimum thresholds. The commenter urged the EPA to expand the inclusion of NHV monitoring for unassisted flares and ECD where the only vent stream is associated gas for these reasons and for the reasons discussed in other remarks by the commenter which address the EPA's proposed exemption of unassisted flares and ECD from all NHV monitoring.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA received numerous comments regarding the vent gas NHV continuous monitoring requirements and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for flares and ECD discussed in the January 2025 Proposal.
                    </P>
                    <P>In general, most commenters were in favor of the EPA's proposal to expand the streams to include unassisted flares or ECD at new sources and to include unassisted, air-assisted, and steam-assisted flares or ECD at existing sources, and to only require NHV monitoring for streams where inert gases were added or in the event of operational scenarios where NHV is known to decrease. However, most commenters disagreed with the EPA's proposal to continue to require the NHV monitoring that is currently required for all pressure-, air-, and steam-assisted flares or ECD at new sources and for pressure-assisted flares or ECD at existing sources.</P>
                    <P>
                        To support this argument, as discussed in section IV.B.2 of this preamble, in April 2025 API provided new HP stream data (39,000 samples) from 11 basins with over 99.5 percent of these data greater than 800 Btu/scf, which was comparable to that of the LP NHV previously analyzed in 2024. For the combined data sets from April 2024 and April 2025, which consisted of over 60,000 total combined data points from both LP and HP gas streams, over 99.5 percent of the data showed NHV contents of at least 800 Btu/scf and over 99.9 percent of the data showed NHV contents of at least 300 Btu/scf. In this combined data set, over 99 percent of the data samples from LP gas streams resulted in an NHV content of greater than 900 Btu/scf and over 95 percent of the data samples from HP gas streams resulted in an NHV content of greater than 900 Btu/scf. The EPA reviewed the “Sample Description/Source” field in both the LP and HP data sets and concluded that the sources for which NHVs were determined are representative of gases that may be controlled by a flare or ECD. In turn, the EPA found this additional data form a robust, reliable, and representative data set to support a compelling argument to include both the LP and HP data (which comprises data from unassisted, air-assisted, and steam-assisted flares and ECD) as its justification to expand the streams that are exempt from monitoring (due to typically high NHV contents, on average) to include all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             As summarized in footnotes 106 and 108, 99 percent of the LP data were from five basins and 97 percent of the HP data were from eight basins, which geographically represent the primary basins located throughout the United States.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While the EPA recognizes that in some instances sources may not achieve the applicable and prescribed NHV content values in NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, industry commenters have presented sufficient information to conclude that these instances occur where inert gases are added or under other miscellaneous scenarios that decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas to all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources. As such, and as proposed, the EPA is requiring an NHV demonstration where inert gases are added, or for other miscellaneous scenarios that decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas for all flare and ECD for both new and existing sources. The EPA is also finalizing recordkeeping and reporting requirements to indicate whether the flare or ECD receives (or does not receive) inert gases or other streams that may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and, if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) that may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of those inert gases or other streams. Moreover, the EPA is also clarifying that when a required NHV demonstration is performed, the samples must be taken during the period with the lowest expected NHV (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the period with the highest percentage of inerts).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the comments opposing the January 2025 Proposal in this respect, one commenter 
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         asserted that the EPA changed its position without adequate justification and lacked sufficient evidence to support such an exemption. The EPA disagrees. The combined data set described earlier in this response presented tens of thousands of data points (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         fuel analysis samples for NHV content) for consideration and analysis. Moreover, as the EPA has already discussed in this preamble, it will not completely exempt flares and ECD as a whole from all NHV monitoring. That is, the EPA will still require an NHV demonstration where inert gases are added, and for other miscellaneous scenarios that decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas for all flare and ECDs for both new and existing sources. Given the EPA received over 60,000 data points for consideration and analysis, which were spread over the primary basins that geographically represent the oil and gas industry, with over 99.5 percent of the results being above the NHV thresholds currently prescribed by the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules, the EPA considers the data submitted to be sufficiently reliable and persuasive to finalize the NHV exemptions included in this action. Moreover, by providing these NHV exemptions, the EPA believes that the industry will be in a better position to redirect and focus its cost expenditures, manpower, and emissions reduction efforts on the issues of most concern, such as equipment inspections, maintenance, and leak prevention measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, the EPA is finalizing its proposal to replace the general exemption from NHV monitoring for associated gas for any control device used at “well site affected facilities” with NHV monitoring that is more reflective of industry operations. However, consistent with the finalized rule requirements for all flare and ECDs, associated gas streams will still be subject to NHV monitoring where inert gases are added, or in the event of operational scenarios where NHV is known to decrease.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Distinction of “New” and “Existing” Flares and Enclosed Combustion Devices</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter expressed disagreement with the EPA's distinction between “new” and “existing” flares and ECD, especially as it relates to proposed exemptions from NHV monitoring because, in practice, this effectively exempts all flares and ECD from NHV monitoring unless the flare or ECD is brand new.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the commenter, that means that only new affected facilities using new flares and ECD would be required to comply with the NHV monitoring requirements, and any modified or reconstructed affected facilities (and existing designated facilities) would be exempt from these provisions. The commenter believed that the EPA has not explained or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18081"/>
                        justified this type of distinction related to flares and ECD nor how these exemptions for “existing” flares address the concerns about “pervasive issues with combustion sources.” 
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             87 FR 74793 (December 6, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The commenter further asserted that control devices, including flares and ECD, are not by themselves “new” or “existing” sources under the NSPS or EG. Instead, these control devices are used to meet certain emission reduction standards for “new” affected facilities or “existing” designated facilities. Therefore, the commenter contended that the EPA must clearly define how it distinguishes the terms “new” and “existing” for purposes of the exemptions proposed if it moves forward with finalizing any exemptions from NHV monitoring.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For the purposes of this final rule, “new” sources are designated as NSPS OOOOb sources, which are crude oil and natural gas facilities for which construction, modification, or reconstruction commenced after December 6, 2022, and “existing” sources are designated as EG OOOOc sources, which are crude oil and natural gas facilities for which construction, modification, or reconstruction commenced on or before December 6, 2022.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the revisions to both NSPS OOOOb (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         new, modified, and reconstructed sources) and EG OOOOc (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         existing sources) as a result of this final rule, NSPS OOOOb sources and EG OOOOc sources will now have identical NHV sampling requirements and exemption qualifiers, with the exception of the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements that will only apply to NSPS OOOOb sources, as described in section IV.B.5 of this preamble. Hence, any distinction between “new” and “existing” sources would no longer apply in this context as it relates to the exemptions from NHV monitoring, since both “new” and “existing” sources will now have the same NHV sampling requirements and categorical exemptions with the finalization of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Inert Gas and Other Vent Gas Stream Example Scenarios</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Numerous commenters provided recommendations, clarifications, and suggestions “where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added.” One commenter cited the proposed regulatory text at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii) to describe the inert gas added scenarios under which NHV continuous monitoring or alternative sampling demonstration would be required, noting that the corresponding language was proposed for EG OOOOc.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter provided the following recommendations and supporting rationale for both subparts (NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc): (1) remove “vent streams from storage vessel with high water content,” (2) “vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers” should be revised to “vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal” and (3) “vent streams from enhanced oil recovery facilities” should be revised to “vent stream containing water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         used for enhanced oil recovery.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter stated that the EPA's intent was to require NHV monitoring when the higher water content from a storage vessel could lower the vent gas NHV below the applicable minimum, but the proposed regulatory language could be interpreted as any produced water tank. The commenter noted that the EPA cites GPA Midstream's comment letter as the basis for this example, though GPA Midstream's letter states that even in these cases, the NHV remained above the applicable limit.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter contended that the LP NHV dataset also supports removing “storage vessel with high water content” since all data points from produced water tanks were greater than 300 Btu/scf, which meets the minimum vent gas NHV requirement for unassisted, steam-assisted, and air-assisted control devices. While vent streams from produced water tanks can be lower than 900 Btu/scf in certain scenarios, the commenter stated that they are not typically routed to pressure-assisted control devices (minimum vent gas NHV of 800 Btu/scf), since produced water tanks operate at near atmospheric pressure.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             GPA Midstream—EPA 06/24/24 Meeting Follow-Up. Re: Response to EPA Request for Additional Information Regarding OOOOb GPA Midstream Net Heating Value Case Scenarios and Data. (Attachment Summarizing NHV Data Included).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The commenter also requested that “[v]ent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers” be revised to “vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal”, to be consistent with the preamble. The commenter explained that vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers have higher water content which lowers the NHV, but they are typically routed through a condenser or other similar equipment to remove water before being routed to combustion control. According to the commenter, the Agency should only require NHV monitoring in cases where the glycol dehydrator unit reboiler does not have water removal.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, the commenter requested that “[v]ent streams from enhanced oil recovery facilities” be revised to “vent stream containing water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         used for enhanced oil recovery” to clarify that only vent streams that contain the inert gas involved in EOR, not any vent stream at an EOR site, should require NHV monitoring. According to the commenter, based on process knowledge, operators are able to identify which vents streams at an EOR site contain the inert gas used in EOR and therefore have lower NHV and should be subject to NHV monitoring.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter agreed that the universe of low-NHV streams identified in the proposal encompasses the scenarios of which they are aware, except the commenter is unclear what the EPA means by “vent streams from storage vessels with high water content.” 
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter explained that the proposed language may include crude oil or condensate tanks that share a closed vent system and control device with produced water tanks. The commenter stated that the data they provided includes such tanks systems and shows that low-NHV is not an issue in these systems, given the relatively high NHV of the hydrocarbon components of storage tank vapors. The commenter requested that the EPA not include these storage tank systems in the list of low-NHV scenarios.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, the commenter asserted that methane, the lightest hydrocarbon organic molecule in process streams at oil and gas facilities, is already above the minimum NHV required for these pressure-assisted devices. Therefore, when a process stream includes any quantities of heavier hydrocarbons, the stream will have a higher heat content and be even further above the minimum NHV requirement. The commenter contended that the EPA's assertion that “it is easier” for the streams going to these devices to experience a decrease in NHV is not based on direct or empirical evidence in the rulemaking record. According to the commenter, if inert gases are not added to the hydrocarbon process stream sent to the control device, the NHV will meet the requirements at all times. As with the proposed requirements for non-assisted flares and ECD, the commenter stated that pressure-assisted devices should be assumed to meet minimum NHV requirements. As such, the commenter 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18082"/>
                        suggested that the EPA treat pressure-assisted devices in the same manner as non-assisted flares and ECD and “require NHV monitoring only in cases where inert gases are added, or for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare.”
                    </P>
                    <P>The same commenter also stated that infrequent nitrogen purges should not prevent a flare from qualifying for the NHV testing exemption. The commenter explained that many gas processing facilities within the industry use nitrogen purging during maintenance procedures to displace air or other gases within a system and create an inert environment by removing oxygen and other potentially reactive components which is crucial for safety, preventing unwanted chemical reactions within pipelines and equipment, and reducing emissions by avoiding potential leaks. The commenter also explained that facilities typically perform nitrogen purging no more than one to three times a year and these purges are small in volume relative to the overall flow going to a flare or ECD. Thus, the commenter reported that they do not expect nitrogen purging to have an impact significant enough to lower the NHV to levels below the compliance limits.</P>
                    <P>The same commenter additionally suggested that the EPA allow the NHV monitoring exemption when intermittent nitrogen purging occurs in volumes that will not significantly impact the NHV of the total gas stream going to the flare. The commenter stated that the EPA should include an option to demonstrate compliance using site-specific data and process knowledge, such as nitrogen purge volumes and total volume sent to the control device, in the rule language to allow the owner/operator to continue using the NHV monitoring exemption by documenting that intermittent nitrogen purging did not result in the NHV of the total gas stream going to the control device decreasing below the compliance limits.</P>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, a commenter agreed with the EPA's proposal to not exclude pressure-assisted flares and ECD from NHV demonstration requirements.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter asserted that this is the only lawful and rational approach given the Agency's prior findings that the required minimum NHV of 800 Btu/scf for pressure-assisted control devices is not significantly higher than the NHV of methane, that sources that contain primarily methane would not require much dilution from inert components to be below the 800 Btu/scf NHV threshold, and that, while data provided by petitioners indicated that the majority of samples had NHVs above 800 Btu/scf, it is much easier for the NHV in the vent gas samples from these control devices to decrease and approach the 800 Btu/scf NHV threshold.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0086.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA appreciates the suggestions and clarifications from the commenters to further expand upon the particular “miscellaneous scenarios” that could decrease the NHV content of the of the inlet stream gas to all flare and ECDs for both new and existing sources. Based upon the received comments, as well as those scenarios already included in the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA considers the following miscellaneous operating scenarios as those that could potentially decrease the NHV content of a given inlet stream, and which therefore will not be exempted from the NHV sampling requirements under NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc for all flare and ECDs for both new and existing sources, where applicable:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        1. Combining AGR system amine regenerator still column vent gas with affected facility vent gas streams—AGR amine regenerator still column vent gases typically are routed to an individual control device due to the low flow rate, low pressure, and corrosive nature of the vent stream, and that the low NHV of the stream typically requires supplemental gas for proper control device operation. However, it is possible to combine the still column vent gas with other vent gas streams, which would lower the NHV of the combined stream, primarily due to the high CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         content of the still column vent gas.
                    </P>
                    <P>2. Combining glycol dehydration unit reboiler vent gas with affected facility vent gas streams without water removal—typically, glycol dehydration unit reboiler vent gas is routed through a condenser to remove liquids (including VOC and water vapor) and then routed to a process or control device. However, it is possible to combine the glycol dehydration unit reboiler gas, without routing through a condenser, with other vent gases routed to common control. The high water content of the reboiler vent gas stream could lower the NHV of the combined vent gas streams.</P>
                    <P>3. Use of inert gases and entrainment in affected facility vent gas streams—midstream operations usually do not employ the use of inert gases such as nitrogen because if a blanket gas is needed, its midstream operations use natural gas as it is readily available and compatible with control devices due to the high NHV. In instances where an inert gas such as nitrogen is used as a blanket gas, this could cause lower NHV of the vent gas stream.</P>
                    <P>
                        4. High water content in vent gas streams from storage vessels—midstream operations employ the use of storage vessels for storing hydrocarbons and produced water (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         produced water tanks), which typically have NHVs well above the minimum thresholds required by the March 2024 Final Rule. However, it is possible that some production areas could have higher water content in the vent stream coming from the storage vessels, which would lower the NHV. In these cases, the high water content would increase the probability that the storage vessel emissions thresholds for applicability would not be exceeded. The EPA also clarifies that this scenario pertains to a higher water content from a storage vessel that could lower the NHV below the applicable minimum value, and not “any produced water tank.” It is the EPA's understanding that operators have various means of making this determination on an operating history, best engineering judgement, or manufacturer's recommendation basis as a response to known operating scenarios that could lower the NHV below the applicable minimum value.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        5. Compressors in acid gas service—also known as sour gas service, these compressors are used to compress gases containing H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        S and CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         for various applications, including injection into underground disposal wells, which are in turn used for natural gas processing and the disposal of acid gas components.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        6. Sites in fields with vent streams containing water or CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         flooding used for EOR.
                    </P>
                    <P>7. Flares at gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units.</P>
                    <P>8. NRUs—NRUs in the oil and gas industry are used for separating nitrogen from natural gas streams, improving the heating value and marketability of the gas, and meeting pipeline specifications. This is often achieved using cryogenic distillation. However, during the NRU process, nitrogen dilutes the NHV content of the natural gas, making it less efficient.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Flare Tip Maximum Velocity Limits</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed revisions to 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv), which includes requirements for the usage of one-time assessments in lieu of installing vent gas flow monitors and, in the case of assisted flares, assist gas flow monitors if certain provisions are met. In the March 2024 Final Rule, while we 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18083"/>
                        finalized provisions requiring owners and operators of unassisted flares to conduct an initial determination to ensure the flare tip velocity falls within limits under worst-case flow provisions, we did not finalize similar “initial determination” requirements for air-assisted flares, even though the velocity limits apply. Therefore, we proposed to add this maximum velocity assessment to the existing provisions in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv)(D) and (E) for air-assisted flares. This provision is not applicable to ECD. In reviewing these provisions, we also noted that there was no corresponding provision for steam-assisted flares or ECD. This was an oversight in the March 2024 Final Rule, and we proposed new provisions at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv)(F) similar to those for air-assisted devices that are specific to steam-assisted flares or ECD. These revisions are not needed in EG OOOOc because these provisions are specific to evaluations for flares complying with an NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         parameter. The EPA solicited comment on these proposed provisions to ensure compliance with the velocity operating limit and whether, for those devices that have conducted NHV demonstrations, the velocity limit used in the assessment should be based on the allowable velocity at the lowest NHV result from the demonstration rather than being based on the default of 18.3 meters/second (60 feet/second).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         For air-assisted flares, several commenters believed that the proposed text for alternatives to inlet flow monitoring at 40 CFR 60.5417(d)(8)(iv) references incorrect flare tip maximum exit velocity limits. One commenter 
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         asserted that the maximum flare tip velocity limit should be based on the methodology in 40 CFR 60.18 rather than a default limit of 60 feet/second for alternative flow monitoring demonstrations. The commenter stated that NSPS OOOOb at 40 CFR 60.5412b(a)(3)(v) states that flares (except for pressure-assisted flares) must comply with the maximum flare tip velocity limits in 40 CFR 60.18. The commenter stated that the rule, however, then uses a default maximum tip velocity of 18.3 meters/second (60 feet/second) for the alternative flow monitoring demonstration requirements at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv)(B)(1) for unassisted devices. The commenter stated that the EPA is proposing to add similar regulatory text for air- and steam-assisted flares at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv)(D)(3), (E)(3), and (F)(3) in this rulemaking. The commenter indicated that most gas streams in upstream and midstream operations have sufficient minimum NHV to allow maximum tip velocities greater than 60 feet/second in accordance with 40 CFR 60.18.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The commenter further added that they do not believe it was the EPA's intent that when the backpressure regulator is used in lieu of (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         as an alternate to) flow monitoring, the flare tip velocity must be maintained below 60 feet/second, as 40 CFR 60.18 allows for higher tip velocities based on NHV. The commenter suggested that the EPA should therefore update the alternative flow monitoring demonstrations requirements to reference the applicable 40 CFR 60.18 requirements for maximum tip velocity rather than use a default of 60 feet/second.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Two commenters explained that while the proposed text requires that the maximum flow rate to the flare should not exceed 18.3 meter/second, this is not the 40 CFR 60.18 standard that applies to air-assisted flares.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Instead, the commenter stated, 40 CFR 60.18(c)(5) requires that air-assisted flares “be designed and operated with an exit velocity less than the velocity, V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                        , as determined by the methods specified in [40 CFR 60.18(f)(6)].” According to the commenter, using V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         provides a much larger acceptable flare operating range without compromising flare performance. The commenter stated that if the EPA does not make this change, the scope of flares subject to this alternative could be significantly reduced, and, in turn, the EPA's assumption that “few facilities will have to install continuous monitoring systems” would be incorrect. Another commenter also explained that the NSPS OOOOb proposal text and the March 2024 Final Rule both apply the same maximum exit velocity of 18.3 meter/second to steam-assisted and unassisted flares.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter assumed that the EPA derived this limit from 40 CFR 60.18(c)(4)(i), but explained that while they agree that this limit does apply to certain steam-assisted and unassisted flares, multiple limits could apply, depending on the operating conditions. Similarly, another commenter noted that the January 2025 Proposal did not reference or incorporate all of the applicable 40 CFR 60.18(c) provisions for unassisted flares.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter requested that, for unassisted flares, the EPA allow operators to demonstrate compliance with any of the options in 40 CFR 60.18(c)(3)(i) or (4). For these reasons, commenters requested that the EPA provide the full suite of options under 40 CFR 60.18 for flare tip exit velocity limits.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Document ID Nos. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088, -0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter also stated that the corresponding edits should also be made to the EG OOOOc alternative flow monitoring demonstration requirements in 40 CFR 60.5417c(d)(8)(iv)(B)(1).
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, one commenter agreed with the EPA's previous recognition that 40 CFR 60.18(d) mandates the Agency to establish monitoring for 40 CFR 60.18(c)(3)(ii)'s NHV limits, which the March 2024 Final Rule adopted for unassisted flares.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                         
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter contended that the EPA's proposed exemption from NHV monitoring violates 40 CFR 60.18(d), which requires each applicable subpart to include provisions stating how owners or operators using flares will monitor them.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0086.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             87 FR 74702 and 74792-93 (December 6, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We agree with the commenters that 40 CFR 60.18(c) and (f) provide alternative values for the maximum flare tip velocity, V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                        . We included the 18.3 meters/second (60 feet/second) value for V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         because it was the lowest V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         value for the 40 CFR 60.18 alternatives and because there were exemptions from NHV monitoring, so data may not be available to assess V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         using the alternatives in 40 CFR 60.18. However, the exemptions from NHV monitoring are based on data supplied by petitioners and commenters, which show that NHV of gases generated at oil and gas facilities are consistently above 800 Btu/scf, provided no inert gases are added. At these high NHV vent gas values, V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         values of up to 122 meters/second (400 feet/second) are allowed. As such, we agree with the commenters that the proposed 18.3 meters/second (60 feet/second) V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         limits unnecessarily impose more stringent limitations when the engineering assessment is used to demonstrate compliance. We agree that this could require the installation of flow meters on many flares where, if more accurate estimates of NHV were allowed, the flare could have demonstrated continuous compliance with the V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         limit based on the engineering calculations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We also note that we allow the use of “. . . the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18084"/>
                        combustion device or flare based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare . . .” when conducting engineering assessments used to demonstrate compliance with the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements (see 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv)(D)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) and (E)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        )). Because we allow the use of previous sampling results or process knowledge for determining minimum NHV in these engineering assessments, we find it is more consistent and reasonable to allow these same provisions in the V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         engineering calculations. Therefore, we are revising the engineering assessments related to maximum flare tip velocities to determine V
                        <E T="52">max</E>
                         as specified in the applicable provisions in 40 CFR 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter using the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or ECD based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the flare or ECD.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the 40 CFR 60.18(d) requirement that each applicable subpart include provisions stating how owners or operators using flares will monitor these control devices, the EPA disagrees that these finalized exemptions from the NHV requirements violate 40 CFR 60.18(d), since this final rule is only revising and clarifying the monitoring alternatives in the existing NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules, rather than removing the monitoring provisions altogether, which will continue to be prescribed and required by 40 CFR 60.5417b and 40 CFR 60.5417c, respectively.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Sampling Location and Duration of Alternative Performance Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA reconsidered the requirements in the March 2024 Final Rule regarding the sampling duration for the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for the NHV compliance demonstration and proposed to allow for shorter sampling times when it is technically infeasible to collect a grab sample for a minimum of one hour. While the March 2024 Final Rule included provisions for sampling periods of longer than 14 days (where needed) to collect a total of 28 samples, and the general provisions in 40 CFR 60.8(b)(5) also allow for “shorter sampling times and smaller sample volumes when necessitated by process variables or other factors,” we found compelling the petitioner's arguments and newly presented supporting information regarding the potential instances of intermittent flow of gas streams, which makes sampling for one hour technically infeasible in those cases (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         intermittent flow from sources with low pressure). As such, we found it appropriate to propose additional flexibility in the January 2025 Proposal to fully address these intermittent flow situations. Therefore, we proposed that sampling must be conducted for a minimum of one hour, when technically feasible. When it is not technically feasible to collect the sample for a minimum of one hour, the owner or operator should collect the sample for as long as possible, up to one hour. For samples taken during low or intermittent flow events, the owner or operator must document and report the collection time and the reason for not obtaining a full one-hour sample with the NHV sampling results. We requested comment on the actual duration of flow that is achievable in practice for those cases where sampling for one-hour is technically infeasible on low pressure and intermittent gas streams, and why a one-hour sample would be technically infeasible for those cases.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the location for sampling, we noted that the March 2024 Final Rule required taking a sample of the inlet gas to the control device but did not require that the gas sample be taken directly at the inlet of the control device. We consider an “inlet gas sample” to be a sample taken within the control device header system in a location after all vent stream sources have been added to the control device header. While the EPA recognizes petitioners' concerns with installing sampling ports or “taps” on these source types, the March 2024 Final Rule does not specify a physical location where the sampling must occur. We therefore do not believe it is necessary to specify that sampling may occur at another “representative” location or specify such “representative” locations. The EPA also notes that the General Provisions in 40 CFR part 60 include procedures for alternatives to monitoring, including alternative locations for monitoring “when the owner or operator can demonstrate that installation at alternate locations will enable accurate and representative measurements”—these provisions already address site-specific issues with conducting the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, we did not propose to change the current provisions in the March 2024 Final Rule regarding sampling location for the NHV grab sample option.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             See footnotes 48 and 49.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Sampling Frequency</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter stated that while the EPA proposed revisions to the performance testing requirements, the EPA did not propose amendments to some of the most burdensome requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the sampling frequency of two samples per day for 14 days with an ongoing demonstration of three samples every five years) for the sampling demonstration option for NSPS OOOOb or EG OOOOc, and the one-hour minimum sampling time for the twice daily samples, except in cases where low or intermittent flow makes one-hour sampling infeasible.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter suggested that sampling using grab samples across multiple days adds useful flexibility and is a sound approach.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter appreciated the additional flexibility that the EPA provided in the 14-day sampling process for control devices using grab samples for compliance purposes. The commenter stated that there would not be an expected change in control device vent gas compositions on days when samples could not be taken. As such, they stated that allowing breaks in the 14-day periods for sites that do not use continuous sampling systems would provide representative results at a reduced cost and burden.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0094.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter requested that the EPA require only one daily sample for manual grab sampling since two daily samples unnecessarily increases costs and emissions from travel.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This commenter asserted that two daily samples are unnecessary, and that the EPA should reduce the requirement to a single daily sample since the vent gas NHV is not expected to vary much between the two samples. The commenter asked the EPA to reduce this unnecessary sampling burden and revise the requirement to one daily sample for a total of 14 total samples.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that if the EPA retains continuous vent gas monitoring requirements for air- and steam-assisted control devices, the commenter supports the EPA's proposal to broaden the use of the 14-day alternative sampling methodology in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) to include steam-assisted and premix air-assisted flares and ECD.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0094.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA is finalizing the rule to only require a 14-day NHV 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18085"/>
                        sampling demonstration for certain operating scenarios as summarized in section IV.B.2 of this preamble for all flare and ECDs. These exemptions will significantly reduce the sampling burden of acquiring two samples per day for 14 days. The EPA disagrees that the potential reduced vent gas NHV content for these operating scenarios will not vary much between the two daily samples and is maintaining the two samples per day requirement over a period of 14 days, as currently prescribed by the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, as previously explained in sections III.B and IV.B of this preamble, the EPA is allowing breaks for weekends and holidays which may occur during the 14-day sampling period, such that the 14 days do not have to be consecutive. Consecutive operating days are reasonable for continuous monitoring because these systems are present continuously. However, manual grab sample collection requires someone to be present at the site to collect samples each day, which, if required to be done on consecutive days, would require collection on weekends and potentially on holidays. The March 2024 Final Rule already allows for sampling beyond the 14 days if 28 samples cannot be collected during that timeframe. Allowing additional flexibility for non-consecutive operating day sampling can lengthen the time needed to collect samples and delay the conclusion of the NHV determination, but it does not reduce the number of samples required nor the representativeness of those samples. As such, we consider it reasonable to provide some flexibility in the grab sampling approach to allow twice daily sampling to determine the average NHV of the gas stream for 14 operating days, with no sampling day spaced more than 3 operating days apart from the previous sampling day.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Sampling Location and Duration</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed support for the EPA's proposed revision to allow NHV sampling at a representative location. Specifically, one of the commenters supported the proposed revisions to clarify that NHV sampling may be conducted “on the inlet gas which is routed to the enclosed combustion device or flare” to allow NHV sampling to occur at a representative location.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter stated that the EPA's January 2025 Proposal would require that operators conduct the initial NHV demonstration sampling on “the inlet gas which is routed to the enclosed combustion device or flare.” 
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter noted that this may not address their concerns. Specifically, the commenter expressed concern that control devices receiving intermittent flow would require flaring solely for the purpose of collecting samples for NHV analysis. Instead, the commenter suggested the EPA should allow the option to collect samples from the process that can be diverted to a control device, in addition to collecting samples from the piping to the control device. For example, for associated gas control devices, the commenter stated that the operator could collect a sample from the on-pad sales gas system before entering the sales pipeline, rather than having to divert sales gas to a control device to collect a sample from the piping to the control device. In addition, the commenter urged the EPA to allow the collection of NHV samples from representative facilities, and they contended that operators should be allowed to collect representative samples if the sample originates from a representative well site or centralized production facility.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters stated that the NHV demonstration should allow for “representative” grab sampling and that the proposal may not go far enough in allowing this flexibility. One commenter explained that the proposed requirement to conduct sampling at “the inlet gas which is routed to enclosed combustor or flare” is unclear, given the EPA's statement that the change “will clarify that sampling upstream of the inlet to the control device is allowed, provided that the sample is representative of the gas inlet to the control device.” 
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated their concern that “upstream of the inlet of the control device” is limiting and that the EPA should allow sampling from anywhere in the process that is representative of the gas that would be routed to the flare. As an example, the commenter described an associated gas process stream that can route to a sales line or a control device and stated that the rule should allow the operator to collect a sample from a location in the process going to the sales line, rather than along the piping or at the inlet to the control device. The commenter explained that, if required to collect the sample from the latter, the operator must divert gas to the flare that would otherwise go to sales, resulting in unnecessary emissions. Further, the commenter stated that if multiple streams route to the control device, it should be necessary only to sample the stream which the operator expects to have the lowest NHV. The commenter stated that the EPA proposed that “sampling may be conducted from a location on the control device piping header, provided the sampling location is downstream of all waste gas inlets into the header.” The commenter stated their concern that this suggests that the operator must route all process streams to the control device to collect a sample, downstream of the comingling point; this could require diverting streams to the control device which normally routed to a non-emitting process and would result in additional emissions. The commenter provided as a solution that the EPA allow the operator to sample the process stream with the lowest expected NHV and if that stream is above the applicable NHV limit, it is unnecessary to sample the other, higher NHV streams. Finally, the commenter requested that the final rule allow operators to use samples from nearby, representative facilities that produce from the same reservoir/formation and have similar operating conditions and equipment. The commenter concluded that it is reasonable to expect these facilities to have very similar gas compositions and NHV.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the minimum one-hour sampling times for collecting NHV samples, several commenters contended that it is unnecessary to conduct one-hour sampling. One of the commenters 
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         indicated that the EPA proposes that the collection time for an individual NHV sample may be less than one hour when it is not technically feasible (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         low or intermittent), but the collection time must be as long as possible up to one hour. The commenter stated that while the proposed revision partially alleviates their concerns with sampling duration, it does not recognize that a one-hour sample collection time is unnecessary and should be removed. The commenter explained that typical sampling techniques require only a few minutes to collect a valid sample for NHV analysis, regardless of the flow conditions. According to the commenter, collecting or trying to collect a sample for an entire hour is unnecessary to demonstrate compliance with the minimum vent gas NHV requirement since the vent gas NHV of a stream is not expected to vary much within that hour.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18086"/>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters stated that one-hour sampling is contrary to the norms of sampling.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One commenter noted that while the proposal allows for reduced sampling where it is technically infeasible to conduct a one-hour sample due to LP or intermittent gas flow, which addresses technical infeasibility issues they raised in prior comments, it remains unnecessary to require the collection of a one-hour sample in any event.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter requested that the EPA finalize the representative grab sampling revisions that they provided for NSPS OOOOb and include the same revisions in EG OOOOc.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             See SPL, Inc., SPL Letter to EPA, 1-2, EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0038-0032 (March 19, 2024) (“March SPL Letter”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter stated that for the NHV demonstration in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(A) and (F), the EPA proposes to retain the one-hour minimum sampling time for twice-daily samples, except in cases where sampling for one hour is technically infeasible on LP or intermittent gas streams.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter supported allowing an offramp for the one-hour minimum sampling time, and they suggested that the EPA go further and allow the use of representative grab samples for the initial compliance demonstrations requirements, rather than requiring a one-hour sample period.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, two commenters expressed that they do not support shorter sampling times. More specifically, a sample collected over a specified period of time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         one hour) is considered a composite sample because the sample collected is a “composite” of the gases which flowed through the source location over that specified time period, but a grab sample is considered a moment in time.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to one commenter, there is a significant risk that the combination of the allowance for the use of Tedlar bags and the use of the term “grab sample” will replace the needed one-hour composite sample with a short duration sample. The commenter reported that over the past year, many samples collected to comply with NSPS OOOOb did not meet the minimum one-hour collection period. The commenter stated that early testing, which attempted to comply more with the one-hour collection periods, resulted in high test failure rates. The commenter asserted that in order to resolve these high test failure rates, without implementing the evacuated containers, heated lines, and other needed sampling system items, industry simply shortened the duration of collection. The commenter stated that industry has shown the compositions and the associated calculated NHVs of the flare/ECD gas will highly vary over the one-hour collection period. Accordingly, the commenter stated, a short duration sample will not be representative of combustion gases. According to the commenter, this issue is further complicated by the EPA's proposal to allow for shorter duration testing as stated in the January 2025 Proposal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0084, -0096.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>According to the commenter, the industry collected one-hour samples at thousands of flares over the past year, in compliance with NSPS OOOOb and throughout the prior NSPS OOOOa testing. The commenter noted that tests show that the collection of gases has been technically feasible. In cases where the industry has struggled to produce compliant results as a result of collection practices, facility constraints, cost, and existing testing infrastructure the industry has claimed the testing itself is not feasible, cautioned the commenter.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As noted in the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA does not believe it is necessary to specify that sampling may occur at another “representative” location or to specify such “representative” locations, and we assert that our clarification in the January 2025 Proposal that sampling may be conducted upstream of the inlet to the control device, provided that the sample is representative of the gas inlet to the control device, is sufficient. This is imperative considering that the finalized NHV sampling requirements will entail miscellaneous operating scenarios, where sampling further upstream of the control device (or at “representative facilities”) would not provide a representative NHV sample. We recognize that some case-by-case determinations may be necessary due to the number of potentially affected sources, and potential operating design configurations. As previously noted in section IV.B.3 of this preamble, the General Provisions in 40 CFR part 60 include procedures for alternatives to monitoring, including alternative locations for monitoring “when the owner or operator can demonstrate that installation at alternate locations will enable accurate and representative measurements.” 
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             See footnotes 48 and 49.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the proposed provision to allow sampling times of less than one hour, the EPA notes that it will still require a minimum one-hour sample duration, except in cases where low or intermittent flow makes one-hour sampling infeasible for both NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc sources. The EPA recognizes that NHV content can vary over a given sampling period. However, the EPA also recognizes that industry has demonstrated that there can be some cases where sampling for a minimum period of one-hour may not be physically possible in certain situations. Accordingly, the EPA is allowing less than one-hour sampling times for cases where low or intermittent flow is present, provided that the sampling time used and the reason for the reduced sampling time is documented and reported and that the samples were taken during the period with the lowest expected NHV (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the period with the highest percentage of inerts). While sampling for a period of less than one hour is not considered ideal, the EPA believes that the NHV content during this shorter sampling period should be representative of the NHV content for that particular period of operation, which should also be indicative of the NHV content for that source had a one-hour sample been obtained. In turn, if there is any variance in the NHV content, it would then be reflected in the multiple samples taken over the course of the entire sampling program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Methodologies for Compositional Analysis of the Gas Stream</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA reconsidered the requirements in the March 2024 Final Rule that limited the test method for determining the compositional analysis of the gas stream to American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D1945-14 (R2019). The EPA recognizes that other rules in which vent gases are analyzed, such as 40 CFR part 63, NESHAP subpart CC (Refinery MACT)), allow the use of other test methods. In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA solicited comment to expand the use of similar consensus-based standards (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         GPA Midstream 2166 and GPA Midstream 2261) to consider if these additional available methods would alleviate petitioners' concerns that ASTM D1945-14 is not widely available and that testing laboratories do not have the capacity currently to enable its use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA also proposed to clarify that Tedlar bags may be used to satisfy the grab sampling requirements, provided that the Tedlar bag qualifies as an “evacuated container” as prescribed by section 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18087"/>
                        8.2.1.1 of EPA Method 18. We requested comment on the need to clarify that Tedlar bags can be used and the limitation proposed on when Tedlar bags can be used.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters suggested that the EPA expand the use of consensus-based standards to those commonly and readily used by the oil and gas industry. These include, but are not limited to, the following:
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Combined Standards API MPMS 14.1 (8th ed.)/GPA 2166 (22)—Collecting and Handling of Natural Gas Samples for Analysis by Gas Chromatography</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• GPA 2261—Analysis for Natural Gas and Similar Gaseous Mixtures by Gas Chromatography</FP>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that this will allow the operators to use the same service providers and laboratories retained for their other operations and ensure adequate capacity.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, these service providers and laboratories have typically been thoroughly vetted and audited by the operators and have been proven to provide accurate and defensible data.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0084.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter remarked that including these consensus-based standards will alleviate concerns that ASTM D1945-14 is not widely available and that testing laboratories do not currently have the capacity to support its use.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, this commenter contended that ASTM D1945-14 is inappropriate for well sites, centralized production facilities, compressor stations, and gas plants since it evaluates components not typically found in vent gas from these operations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         helium). The commenter noted that concerns expressed about the availability of labs, analysis time, and cost with ASTM D1945-14 have not changed since the commenter submitted its previous reconsideration letter.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that GPA Midstream 2261 is equivalent to ASTM D1495-14D1945 in constituents, has a broader range of heavier hydrocarbons, elutes all gases sequentially without material peak overlap (including nitrogen and methane), meets the regulatory requirements of 40 CFR 60.54717b(d)(8), and employs thermal conductivity detectors.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter provided a detailed analysis/rationale for each of these factors in its comment letter.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0089.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters expressed that allowing more test methods would help lab capacity issues but may lead to inconsistent results. One commenter suggested that it is essential to ensure that all approved methods provide equally accurate and precise data.
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0078.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding Tedlar bags, one commenter suggested that Tedlar bags be excluded from use for the collection of flare gas samples.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter explained that Tedlar bags are not designed for the compositions and sampling handling requirements of typical flare gas. The commenter stated that the January 2025 Proposal cites section 8.2.1.1 of EPA Method 18. According to the commenter, EPA Method 18 is not a valid method for the collection and analysis of the gas typically found in flares. Section 1.2.1 of EPA Method 18 states, “[t]his method is designed to measure gaseous organics emitted from an industrial source. While designed for parts per million (ppm) level sources, some detectors are quite capable of detecting compounds at ambient levels, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         ECD, ELCD, and helium ionization detectors.” The commenter asserted that this method, and its allowed use of Tedlar bags, was designed for ppm level and ambient sources and that it was not designed and validated for percent level gaseous compounds, as found in typical flare gas. According to the commenter, the more appropriate EPA method for the sampling of the typical compositions and compound concentrations found in flare gas is EPA Method 0040, Sampling of Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents from Combustion Sources Using Tedlar Bags. However, the commenter stated that EPA Method 0040 clearly states that Tedlar bags are not applicable for the compounds typically found in flare gas. The commenter stated that hydrocarbon contamination contributed by the Tedlar bag has the potential of distorting the sample and biasing the NHV high. Therefore, the commenter suggested that Tedlar bags be excluded from use for flare gas sampling.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0084.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter recommended that the final rule allow for the use of single cavity stainless steel constant volume cylinders as a vent gas collection method.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that the EPA proposed to allow Tedlar bags as an alternative sample collection method. The commenter agreed that alternative sample collection methods are necessary, as Summa canisters are not a good option for vent gas collection. The commenter strongly supported allowing Tedlar bags as an alternative sample collection method. In addition, the commenter requested that the EPA clarify that operators and laboratories may collect grab samples using single cavity stainless steel constant volume cylinders for sample collection, so long as they are maintained according to the requirements set forth in 43 CFR 3175 (Onshore Oil and Gas Operations; Federal and Indian Oil and Gas Leases; Measurement of Gas).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0092.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters supported the use of Tedlar bags over air sampling canisters primarily due to cost, convenience, and ease of handling. One commenter explained that cleaning canisters is nearly impossible, particularly for rich gas streams (such as those from storage vessels), which leave residuals in canisters and further complicate cleaning and reuse.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter explained that the conditioning of Tedlar bags is easier (as they fit easily into standard heating ovens), and Tedlar bags are available in larger quantities per shipment (which makes getting supplies easier).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0089.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The EPA acknowledges that allowing additional test methods, especially GPA Midstream 2261 (which was the most cited addition to testing method options), would provide additional flexibility to sources, as well as potential relief to analytical laboratories with substantial backlogs. Since GPA 2261 utilizes the same analytical equipment, including a similar procedure as the existing standard method, and generally provides equivalent results, we are allowing this method as an option (as GPA 2261-19) in the final rule for all sources. For those owners or operators with streams expecting a significant concentration of inert compounds, they should conduct the analysis according to ASTM D1945 or utilize the “single column method” in Section 2.1.4 of GPA 2261. Due to the concerns expressed by several commenters about potential issues that could arise from allowing the use of Tedlar bags to satisfy the grab sampling requirements specified by NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc, we will not be revising the sample media requirements for canisters currently specified by 40 CFR 60.5413b(d)(5), 60.5417b(d)(8), 60.5413c(d)(5), and 60.5417c(d)(8).
                        <PRTPAGE P="18088"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        5. NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         for Air- and Steam-Assisted Flares and Enclosed Combustion Devices at Existing and New Sources
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed to retain the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements for air- and steam-assisted flares for sources subject to NSPS OOOOb because, as noted in the November 2021 Action (86 FR 63246; November 15, 2021), we had received some data indicating that air- and steam-assisted flares have been found operating outside of the conditions necessary to achieve at least 98 percent control efficiency on a continuous basis. In the January 2025 Proposal, we disagreed with petitioners that these NHV-related parameters are not appropriate for assisted flares in the oil and gas industry, because we had evidence of poor-performing assisted flares in the oil and gas industry. We, therefore, proposed to conclude (as we had in the March 2024 Final Rule) that sufficient evidence exists demonstrating poor destruction efficiencies due to over-assisting a flare or ECD, and thus NHV compliance demonstrations are necessary to show that these particular control devices meet the requisite efficiency. The EPA requested comment on the proposed retention of the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         provisions for new sources. We also requested comment on whether the NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         parameter is appropriate for ECD with perimeter assist air and the appropriate effective diameter to use in the calculation of NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                        , if it is retained, particularly for devices with multiple burner tips within the ECD.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding statements that 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(H) appears to not allow alternative test methods to continuously monitor NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                        , we noted that the provisions at 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) are specific to the 14-day alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option and do not apply to continuous monitoring. We did not include provisions for a 14-day demonstration using continuous monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         because assist rates could be changed and alter the control device's performance. Continuous monitoring using alternative test methods is expressly provided for in 40 CFR 60.5412b(d) and 60.5415b(f)(1)(xi). Additionally, we proposed to clarify in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(vi) that continuous monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and, if applicable, NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         using an approved alternative method as provided under 40 CFR 60.5412b(d)(1)(i) and (ii) is allowed and that, when using this alternative test method, owners and operators are not required to monitor NHV of the vent gas as specified in 40 CFR 60.5412b(d)(8)(ii) or monitor flow rates as specified in 40 CFR 60.5412b(d)(8)(vi) provided they can demonstrate that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed 18.3 meter/second (60 feet/second). The EPA requested comment on the proposed clarifications when using the alternative test method to demonstrate continuous compliance and requested comment on whether and how to use such monitoring as part of the 14-day sampling demonstration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the monitoring requirements for NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         for air- and steam-assisted flares at new sources, the EPA acknowledged the petitioners' concerns but did not propose significant changes to this requirement for new sources subject to NSPS OOOOb. However, in reviewing these requirements, we noted that the requirements in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(vi) reference NHV determinations using the lowest NHV result of the sampling demonstration in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii), but 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) does not have provisions for steam-assisted nor for certain air-assisted flares or ECD. Therefore, we proposed to clarify that 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) can be used for any steam- or air-assisted flare (including perimeter assist air) or ECD, and that the effective vent gas NHV to allow the use of the demonstration is 300 Btu/scf when using continuous 14-day sampling or 360 Btu/scf when using the 14-day grab sampling approach. This revision in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) is necessary considering the calculation provision in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(vi) and corrects an unintended error in the March 2024 Final Rule. The EPA also requested comment on the use of the proposed use of the 14-day sampling demonstration in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) for air- and steam-assisted flares, particularly those at new sources subject to the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With the alternative sampling provisions being proposed in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii) and the assessments outlined in 40 CFR 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv), we expect that few facilities will need to install continuous monitoring systems. With the monitoring options provided, we considered the costs of the monitoring provisions to be reasonable and necessary to ensure proper operation of these flares at new sources and therefore retain the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements in NSPS OOOOb.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, the requirement to conduct monitoring for NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         at existing sources was included in EG OOOOc in error. The EPA did not conduct Refinery MACT cost level monitoring for existing sources and stated in the preamble to the March 2024 Final Rule that monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         was not required for existing sources due to concerns about retrofitting existing flares to meet the requirements.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The EPA proposed to correct this inadvertent error by removing the requirements to conduct monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         at existing sources and specifying the requirements for these control systems is an NHV of 300 Btu/scf in the vent gas. The EPA requested comment on the appropriateness of using an NHV of 300 Btu/scf in the vent gas for air- and steam-assisted flares or ECD at existing sources for demonstrating compliance with the combustion efficiency requirements for these control devices.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             89 FR 16895, 16967 (March 8, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         The EPA received numerous comments regarding the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         provisions discussed in the January 2025 Proposal, many of which were out-of-scope from the proposal. Regarding the issues for which the EPA specifically requested comment, one commenter 
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         noted that for new NSPS OOOOb sources, the EPA proposed to retain the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements, which is already a Refinery MACT requirement. The commenter reminded the EPA that petitioners provided data, experience, and knowledge on why these testing requirements are inappropriate (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         non-steady state flow) and are excessively costly ($1 million or more). The commenter requested that the EPA remove this requirement from the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0095.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, one commenter 
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         believed the Agency should retain the requirement to monitor NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         for air- and steam-assisted flares and ECD at new NSPS OOOOb sources. The commenter agreed with the EPA's statement in the proposed rule that there is sufficient evidence to demonstrate that over-assisting a flare or ECD leads to poor destruction efficiencies, necessitating NHV compliance demonstrations. The commenter also agreed that the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         parameter terms account for the reduction in heating value caused by the introduction of air or steam and that requiring compliance with the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         limits for air- and steam-assisted flares and ECD constitutes BSER under CAA section 111(a)(1).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0086.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18089"/>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the alternative test method option to demonstrate continuous compliance and whether and how to use such monitoring as part of the 14-day sampling demonstration for air- and steam-assisted flares, particularly those at new sources subject to NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements, one commenter 
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         stated that although NSPS OOOOb includes provisions for alternate test methods and alternate NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         demonstrations in lieu of monitoring, those alternatives may not be feasible for every control device. For example, the commenter stated that OTM-56 can only be used for flares since the Video Imaging Spectral Radiometer (VISR) camera needs a clear view of the flame. The commenter explained that alternate test methods are costly to implement and take time for Agency approval, so they are not an option for immediate compliance and unlikely to be used by small operators. Moreover, the alternate NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         demonstrations are problematic given the intermittent operation of control devices at production sites, explained the commenter.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0083.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter 
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         urged the EPA to remove the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements for all control devices subject to NSPS OOOOb. The commenter explained that oil and natural gas facilities are fundamentally different than petroleum refineries in that they do not operate at steady state conditions. The commenter explained that this highly variable, non-steady state flow mandates that equipment be sized much larger than ideal steady state conditions and makes flow measurement infeasible. The commenter explained that costs are also an issue, in that upstream facilities do not have the necessary utilities and instrumentation resources that a refinery has, nor do they have instruments that can operate reliably under the varying operating conditions found at oil and natural gas facilities. The commenter added that the alternative NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         demonstrations also are problematic, given that the production site does not operate under steady state conditions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0088.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the appropriateness of using an NHV of 300 Btu/scf in the vent gas for air- and steam-assisted flares or ECD at existing sources for demonstrating compliance with the combustion efficiency requirements for these control devices, one commenter 
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         stated that EG OOOOc air- and steam-assist flare vent gas limit of 300 Btu/scf is a reasonable alternative to the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         limits. The commenter supported the flare vent gas limit of 300 Btu/scf as a reasonable alternative to the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         limits in EG OOOOc. The commenter noted that the EPA did not conduct Refinery MACT cost level monitoring for existing sources and stated in the preamble to the March 2024 Final Rule that monitoring of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         was not recommended as part of the EGG for existing sources due to concerns about retrofitting existing flares to meet the requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             Document ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358-0094.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While some commenters have requested that the removal of NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements from NSPS OOOOb, the EPA has made it clear that these monitoring requirements are appropriate and necessary for these types of devices, as there is sufficient evidence to demonstrate that over-assisting a flare or ECD leads to poor destruction efficiencies, necessitating NHV compliance demonstrations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it is understood that inert gases can be introduced to steam-assisted, air-assisted, and perimeter assist air flares). However, the EPA recognizes that the operation of control devices at oil and natural gas facilities can be fundamentally different than petroleum refineries, which also have NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         requirements prescribed under the Refinery MACT. The EPA believes that this final rule, which will impose NHV sampling requirements for only those sources and situations where inert gases are present or under miscellaneous operating scenarios that may lower the NHV of the inlet gas stream, will result in a more manageable monitoring and testing situation industry-wide, and allow the evaluation of certain situations on a case-by-case basis. As previously noted in section IV.B.3 of this preamble, the General Provisions in 40 CFR part 60 include procedures for alternatives to monitoring, including alternative locations for monitoring “when the owner or operator can demonstrate that installation at alternate locations will enable accurate and representative measurements”.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             See footnotes 48 and 49.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on our analysis of the data submitted by industry, we find that gas streams expected to be routed to a flare or ECD at sites that do not have sources with inerts will have a NHV of well over 800 Btu/scf. At these high NHVs, we expect that facilities will always be compliant with the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         operating limits, even at low flare gas flow rates. Because of the high assurance that these flares or ECD will operate at a high efficiency at all times that vent gas is directed to the devices, we find it reasonable to exempt these flares and ECD from the monitoring and compliance requirements, provided that these devices do not receive streams with inerts that can lower the NHV inlet to the flare or ECD. When inerts are included in the inlet gas stream, it is much more likely that the NHV of the vent gas would fall below 800 Btu/scf and that the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         will fall below the Btu content thresholds. Therefore, we are finalizing the requirement to conduct assessments or monitor NHV and flows to determine continuous compliance with the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         operating limits in cases where inert gases are added or for other miscellaneous scenarios which decrease the NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         or NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         content of the inlet stream gas to all flare and ECDs for new sources.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA did not receive adverse comments on the proposal to increase the minimum NHV content threshold from 270 to 300 Btu/scf for air- or steam-assisted flares or ECD for existing EG OOOOc sources. Hence, the EPA is finalizing this aspect of the rule as proposed.</P>
                    <P>
                        The EPA did not receive specific comments on whether the NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         parameter is appropriate for ECD with perimeter assist air and the appropriate effective diameter to use in the calculation of NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                        , particularly for devices with multiple burner tips within the ECD. Hence, the EPA is finalizing these aspects of the rule as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        No additional changes are being made to the NHV
                        <E T="52">dil</E>
                         and NHV
                        <E T="52">cz</E>
                         requirements at this time based upon other comments and suggestions received, which are considered out-of-scope for this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Other Miscellaneous Comments on the NHV Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following subsections describe other miscellaneous provisions of the NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc rules that pertain to NHV sampling that the EPA either wishes to address or clarify based upon comments received regarding the January 2025 Proposal.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. NHV Temperature Basis</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA proposed to clarify that the NHV of the vent gas stream must be determined in Btu/scf and not Btu/lb, where the standard condition temperature is 20°C. More specifically, regarding the units in which the NHV is determined as prescribed in the March 2024 Final Rule, we do not disallow the use of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18090"/>
                        measurement methods that determine concentrations in terms of weight fractions, but the weight fractions must be converted to volume fractions because the calculations referenced therein from 40 CFR part 63 use Btu/scf, not Btu/lb. Therefore, we did not propose to change the units in the March 2024 Final Rule but rather proposed to clarify that NHV for individual components must be determined in units of Btu/scf consistent with the existing specification using published values of the component NHV per mole at 25°C and one atmosphere and using 20°C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas. We proposed to clarify that since the standard temperature at 40 CFR 60.18(f)(3) is 20°C, the NHV under NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc must be determined at this standard temperature. The Agency proposed these clarifications to ensure the NHV determinations are conducted consistently and accurately.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA received only supporting comments on this issue and is finalizing this clarification as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Averaging Periods</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the January 2025 Proposal, the EPA also proposed to clarify that for the purpose of determining the hourly average of the NHV for continuously sampled (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         sampled continuously for 14 consecutive days) inlet streams, the hourly average shall be determined on a block (and not a rolling) average. The EPA proposed this clarifying edit to ensure that all owners and operators are using the same averaging timeframe and that it is not left to individual interpretation whether the average should be a block average or a rolling average. Block averages are required for other averaging time periods in the March 2024 Final Rule, and we consider this change to be warranted for consistency and clarity.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA received no comments on this issue and is finalizing this clarification as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Compliance Timing and Deadlines</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA also proposed a change to address compliance timing pending the re-evaluation that must occur after a process change that potentially reduces the NHV of the gas sent to an flare or ECD. More specifically for continuous monitoring, which must occur after the results of periodic monitoring indicate the vent stream is not sufficiently above the required NHV, we proposed that continuous monitoring should commence within 60 days after the re-evaluation indicates that the inlet gas stream does not meet the limits. The EPA also proposed to clarify, for both periodic testing and re-evaluations which occur after a process change, that if the results of the grab sampling indicate that the vent stream is not sufficiently above the required NHV, continuous monitoring using a calorimeter, GC, MS, or continuous grab sampling (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         once every eight hours) must commence within the specified timeframe.
                    </P>
                    <P>The EPA received no comments on this issue and is finalizing this clarification as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. How do these final amendments impact the implementation of EG OOOOc?</HD>
                    <P>The EPA's final amendments discussed in section III of this preamble will not significantly impact the implementation of EG OOOOc or the State planning process. Based on the EPA's reconsideration, we are finalizing amendments that revise two narrow aspects of the EG: the associated gas temporary flaring provisions for certain situations, and the NHV continuous monitoring and alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) provisions for certain combustion control devices. These final amendments do not alter in any way the EPA's identified BSER in the EG, or the EPA's identified degree of emissions limitation achievable via application of that BSER. Any changes that a State or Tribe may make to their developing plan as a result of this final action will be minor, and the State or Tribe should be able to make such changes before their plans are required to be submitted for approval. The EPA does not anticipate that States will require additional time for State plan submittal solely because of the changes finalized in this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, after the January 2025 Proposal was published, the EPA published an IFR to extend certain deadlines pertaining to the March 2024 Final Rule in July 2025 and later issued a final rule in December 2025 confirming those amendments and making further changes to the compliance deadlines in the IFR related to NHV monitoring and the initial reporting deadline.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Relevant to this discussion, in the IFR, the EPA extended the State plan submittal deadline in EG OOOOc from March 9, 2026, to January 22, 2027.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             90 FR 35966 (July 31, 2025) and 90 FR 55671 (December 3, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As indicated in section I.B of this preamble, the issuance of the CAA section 111(d) final EG does not impose binding requirements directly on existing sources. The EG (codified in 40 CFR part 60, subpart OOOOc) applies to States in the development, submittal, and implementation of State plans to establish performance standards to reduce emissions of GHGs from designated facilities (those that were existing sources on or before December 6, 2022). Further, under the TAR, eligible Tribes may seek approval to implement a plan under CAA section 111(d) in a manner similar to a State, and Tribes are authorized under the TAR to develop and implement their own air quality programs, or portions thereof, under the CAA. The response to comments on the January 2025 Proposal on this section of this preamble is in the EPA's RTC document for the final rule.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             Reconsideration of Standards of Performance for New, Reconstructed, and Modified Sources and Emissions Guidelines for Existing Sources: Oil and Natural Gas Sector Climate Review. Response to Public Comments on the January 2025, Proposed Rule (90 FR 3734; January 15, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                    <P>
                        Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders (EO) is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/laws-and-executive-orders.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action is a significant action under E.O. 12866 that was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. Any changes made in response to OMB recommendations have been documented in the docket. The EPA prepared an analysis of the potential costs and benefits associated with this action. This analysis, 
                        <E T="03">Economic Impact Analysis for 2025 Oil and Natural gas NSPS &amp; EG Reconsideration,</E>
                         is available in the docket.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We present the estimated PV and EAV of the estimated cost savings of this final reconsideration in 2024 dollars over the 2024 to 2038 period. The cost savings are represented in this analysis as the reduction in the number of affected sources and a reduction in the number of tests required for each affected source for the changes finalized in this reconsideration. In simple terms, these cost savings are an estimate of the decreased industry expenditures resulting from the final changes to the March 2024 Final Rule requirements. Under this final action, emissions changes and benefits from emission changes were not quantified, nor were 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18091"/>
                        cost changes from the temporary flaring provisions. Qualitatively, the changes to the temporary flaring limitation could result in cost savings and increases to emissions, while we do not expect any emissions changes to result from the changes to the NHV testing compliance demonstration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Table 3 presents the estimated cost savings of this proposed action in 2024 dollars for the baseline which includes the March 2024 Final Rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the primary baseline analyzed in the EIA).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the primary baseline analyzed in the EIA). This table presents the PV and EAV of these estimates discounted at three percent and seven percent.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Present Value and Equivalent Annualized Value of Compliance Cost Savings Estimates of the Final Action From 2024-2038</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Millions of 2024$]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                3
                                <LI>percent</LI>
                                <LI>discount</LI>
                                <LI>rate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                7
                                <LI>percent</LI>
                                <LI>discount</LI>
                                <LI>rate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Present Value</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,480</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,900</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Equivalent Annualized Value</ENT>
                            <ENT>208</ENT>
                            <ENT>209</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <FP>The analysis, which is contained in the Economic Impact Analysis for this rulemaking, is consistent with E.O. 12866 and is available in the docket for this action.</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 14192: Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</HD>
                    <P>This action is considered an Executive Order 14192 deregulatory action. Details on the estimated cost savings of this final rule can be found in the EPA's analysis of the potential costs and benefits associated with this action.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                    <P>OMB has approved the information collection activities contained in this rule under the PRA and has assigned OMB control number 2060-0721 to NSPS OOOOb and EG OOOOc. You can find a copy of the information collection request (ICR) in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here. The EPA has revised the approved ICR to include small changes to incorporate the EPA's final recordkeeping and reporting to indicate whether the flare or ECD receives inert gases or other streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream as discussed in section III.B of this preamble. The EPA estimates an average of 48 respondents will be affected by this requirement over the three-year period (2024-2026). The average annual burden for the recordkeeping and reporting requirements for these owners and operators is estimated at 83 person-hours, with an average annual cost of $6,393 (2024$) over the three-year period.</P>
                    <P>The EPA has also revised the approved ICR to include burden estimates for the maintenance of records associated with the final requirements. Specifically, the EPA includes burden estimates in the revised ICR for the records and annual reporting included in the final rule related to the use of the associated gas extended flaring allowance under “exigent circumstances” as specified in section III.A of this preamble. The incremental increase in burden that would be associated with these recordkeeping and reporting requirements relative to the baseline is estimated at two hours per event annually over the three-year period (2024-2026) at an average annual cost of $176 per flaring event over the three-year period. The occurrence of flaring that could potentially be claimed due to “exigent circumstances” is unknown. However, we expect that a maximum of 16 percent of flaring events could potentially require an owner or operator to need to extend flaring beyond 72 hours due to “exigent circumstances.”</P>
                    <P>The burden associated with the two aforementioned requirements under this final action minimally affects the ICR burden estimated for compliance with EG OOOOc with an estimated annual cost increase of less than one percent for the States. Provided below is a summary of the ICR burden associated with the final notification, recordkeeping and reporting requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                         Oil and natural gas owners and operators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                         Mandatory.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         48.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                         Annually.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Total estimated burden:</E>
                         86 hours per year. Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Total estimated cost:</E>
                         $6,570 per year (2024$). There are no capital or operation and maintenance costs.
                    </P>
                    <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, an ICR unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9.</P>
                    <P>The approved ICR document that the EPA prepared was assigned OMB Control No. 2060-0721 and EPA ICR number 2523.07. You can find a copy of the previously submitted ICR in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2021-0317. The revised ICR document that the EPA prepared for this reconsideration final rule has been assigned OMB Control No. 2060-0721 and EPA ICR number 2523.08. You can find a copy of the revised ICR in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0358.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                    <P>
                        I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the EPA concludes that the impact of concern for this rule is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities and that the Agency is certifying that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because the rule has reduced net regulatory burden on the small entities subject to the rule. This action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements,
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         providing additional flexibilities to entities subject to the NSPS requirements and to the model rules within EG OOOOc. Specifically, those flexibilities include extending the limitation on temporary flaring from 24 to 72 hours, granting exemptions from monitoring for an expanded number of gas streams due to high NHV content, allowing sampling to be conducted upstream of the control device inlet for operators meeting the NHV compliance demonstration via the alternative performance test, and allowing breaks in performance testing over weekends and holidays during the 14-day period for the performance test option. We have therefore concluded that this action will have reduced net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities. For instance, on average, we estimate cost savings of roughly $19,000 per well site due to the changes to the NHV testing provisions across all business size classifications. For further details, see the document, 
                        <E T="03">Economic Impact Analysis for 2025 Oil and Natural Gas NSPS &amp; EG Reconsideration,</E>
                         in the docket.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             The EPA convened a Small Business Advocacy Review (SBAR) Panel prior to the November 2021 Action that was ultimately finalized in the March 2024 Final Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18092"/>
                        1531-1538 and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. This action imposes no enforceable duty on any State, local or Tribal governments or the private sector. This action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                    <P>This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. However, the EPA recognizes that States will have a substantial interest in this action and any future revisions to associated requirements. This action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                    <P>This action does not have Tribal implications as specified in E.O. 13175. This action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements. Thus, E.O. 13175 does not apply to this action. However, consistent with the EPA Policy on Consultation with Indian Tribes, the EPA offered consultation to all Federally Recognized Tribes during the development of this action on December 23, 2024. No Tribes requested consultation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</HD>
                    <P>The EPA interprets E.O. 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the E.O. The EPA believes that it is not practicable to assess whether an environmental health risk or safety risk affecting children may exist prior to this action. This action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements and does not result in any changes to the BSER of NSPS OOOOb or EG OOOOc. The EPA believes that the EPA's Policy on Children's Health also does not apply.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk. Since this action does not concern human health, EPA's Policy on Children's Health also does not apply.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Executive Order 13211: Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</HD>
                    <P>This action is not a “significant energy action” because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Further, we have concluded that this action is not likely to have any adverse energy effects because this action addresses two discrete compliance requirement aspects of NSPS OOOOb and the model rules within EG OOOOc based on petitions for reconsideration received on the March 2024 Final Rule requirements and does not result in any changes to the BSER of NSPS OOOOb or EG OOOOc.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) and 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                    <P>This action does not involve any new technical standards. Therefore, the NTTAA does not apply. In this rule, the EPA is including regulatory text for 40 CFR part 60, subparts OOOOb and OOOOc that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 40 CFR 60.17, the EPA is incorporating the following two standards by reference.</P>
                    <P>• GPA Standard 2261-19 (GPA 2261-19), Analysis for Natural Gas and Similar Gaseous Mixtures by Gas Chromatography, (Revised 2019), IBR approval requested for NSPS subpart OOOOb § 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii)(D) and NSPS subpart OOOOc § 60.5417c(d)(8)(ii)(D). This is a method for determining the chemical composition of natural gas and similar gaseous mixtures using a Gas Chromatograph. This method uses a gas chromatograph to separate and quantify hydrocarbons and non-hydrocarbons. This information can be used to calculate the Btu content of the natural gas sample.</P>
                    <P>• ASTM D1945-14 (Reapproved 2019), Standard Test Method for Analysis of Natural Gas by Gas Chromatography, approved December 1, 2019; IBR approval requested for §§ 60.5417b(d)(8)(ii)(D); 60.5417c(d)(8)(ii)(D). This method covers the determination of the chemical composition of natural gases and similar gaseous mixtures within the range of composition. The method uses gas chromatography to physically separate the component in the sample and compares them against calibration data from a reference standard. This method is used to determine gas properties such as heating value.</P>
                    <P>
                        The GPA 2261-19 standard is available at the GPA Midstream website at the following location: GPA Midstream Association, 6060 American Plaza, Suite 700, Tulsa, OK 74135; phone: (918) 493-3872; website: 
                        <E T="03">www.gpamidstream.org.</E>
                         GPA offers memberships or subscriptions that allows access to their methods.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ASTM D1945-14 is available at ASTM International, 1850 M Street NW, Suite 1030, Washington, DC 20036. See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.astm.org/.</E>
                         This standard is available to everyone at a cost determined by the ASTM ($96). The ASTM also offers memberships or subscriptions that allow unlimited access to their methods. The cost of obtaining these methods is not a significant financial burden, making the methods reasonably available to stakeholders.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Congressional Review Act (CRA)</HD>
                    <P>This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit the rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action meets the criteria set forth in 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 60</HD>
                        <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedures, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Lee Zeldin,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends part 60 of title 40, chapter I, of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 60—STANDARDS OF PERFORMANCE FOR NEW STATIONARY SOURCES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 60 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>
                                 42 U.S.C. 7401, 
                                <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                                  
                            </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <PRTPAGE P="18093"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 60.17 by revising paragraphs (h)(78) and (m)(5) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(h) * * *</P>
                        <P>(78) ASTM D1945-14 (Reapproved 2019), Standard Test Method for Analysis of Natural Gas by Gas Chromatography, approved December 1, 2019; IBR approved for §§ 60.485b(g); 60.5417b(d); 60.5417c(d).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(m) * * *</P>
                        <P>(5) GPA Standard 2261-19 (GPA 2261-19), Analysis for Natural Gas and Similar Gaseous Mixtures by Gas Chromatography, (Revised 2019), IBR approved for §§ 60.4415(a); 60.5417b(d); 60.5417c(d).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart OOOOb—Standards of Performance for Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities for Which Construction, Modification or Reconstruction Commenced After December 6, 2022</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 60.5377b by revising paragraphs (b) through (g) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5377b</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What GHG and VOC standards apply to associated gas wells at well affected facilities?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) For associated gas wells that commenced construction between May 7, 2024 and May 7, 2026, you can comply with the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section continually upon startup instead of paragraph (a) of this section until May 7, 2026 if you demonstrate and certify that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. After May 7, 2026, you must continually comply with paragraph (a) of this section at all times.</P>
                            <P>(c) For associated gas wells that commenced construction between December 6, 2022, and May 7, 2024, and for associated gas wells that undergo reconstruction or modification after December 6, 2022, you can comply with the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section instead of paragraph (a) of this section if you demonstrate and certify that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. Associated gas wells that are modified or reconstructed must comply with paragraph (a) or (f) of this section upon startup and at all times thereafter.</P>
                            <P>(d) If you are complying with paragraph (a) of this section, you may temporarily route the associated gas to a flare or control device that achieves a 95.0 percent reduction in VOC and methane emissions in the situations and for the durations identified in paragraph (d)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section. The associated gas must be routed through a closed vent system that meets the requirements of § 60.5411b(a) and (c) and the control device must meet the conditions specified in § 60.5412b during the period when the associated gas is routed to the flare. Records must be kept of all instances in which associated gas is temporarily routed to a flare or to a control device in accordance with § 60.5420b(c)(3)(i)(B) and reported in the annual report in accordance with § 60.5420b(b)(4)(i)(B).</P>
                            <P>(1) During a malfunction or incident that endangers the safety of operator personnel or the public you are allowed to route associated gas to a flare or control device until the malfunction or incident is resolved, but not longer than 72 hours per incident. Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed only until the malfunction or incident is resolved. Notwithstanding the previous sentences, if there are exigent circumstances that reasonably require routing to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section apply.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) An “exigent circumstance” for purposes of this paragraph (d)(1) is a situation that results in the inability to reasonably access a site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address and resolve incidents that cause the need to temporarily flare associated gas for more than 72 hours. This includes circumstances where there is a need to flare beyond 72 hours due to an unexpected malfunction event and equipment needed to resolve an incident are not readily available due to an owner's or operator's inability to secure the required equipment for reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 supply chain issues); or there is a temporary shortage of personnel needed to resolve an incident due to a circumstance such as a declared national pandemic that is beyond the owner's or operator's control.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed until the malfunction or incident is resolved, but shall not be longer than 72 hours after the site can be accessed following the passing of the exigent circumstance.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) For instances where you route associated gas to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, you must meet the reporting requirements specified in § 60.5420b(b)(4)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) and must maintain the records specified in § 60.5420b(c)(3)(v).
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) During repair and maintenance, including blow downs, a production test, or commissioning, you are allowed to route associated gas to a flare or control device until the incident is resolved, but no longer than 72 hours per incident. Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed only until the incident is resolved. Notwithstanding the previous sentences, if there are exigent circumstances that reasonably require routing to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) apply.</P>
                            <P>(3) For wells complying with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, during a temporary interruption in service from the gathering or pipeline system you are allowed to route to a flare or route to a control device for the duration of the temporary interruption not to exceed 30 days per incident.</P>
                            <P>(4) During periods when the composition of the associated gas does not meet pipeline specifications for sources complying with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or when the composition of the associated gas does not meet the quality requirements for use as a fuel for sources complying with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or when the composition of the associated gas does not meet the quality requirements for another useful purpose for sources complying with paragraph (a)(3) of this section, you are allowed to route to a flare or control device until the associated gas meets the required specifications or for 72 hours per incident, whichever is less.</P>
                            <P>(e) If you are complying with paragraph (a), (d), or (f) of this section, you may vent the associated gas in the situations and for the durations identified in paragraph (e)(1), (2), or (3) of this section per incident. The cumulative period of venting must not exceed 24 hours for any calendar year. Records must be kept of all venting instances in accordance with § 60.5420b(c)(3)(ii) and reported in the annual report in accordance with § 60.5420b(b)(4)(ii).</P>
                            <P>(1) For up to 12 hours per incident to protect the safety of personnel.</P>
                            <P>(2) For up to 30 minutes per incident during bradenhead monitoring.</P>
                            <P>(3) For up to 30 minutes per incident during a packer leakage test.</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) You must route the associated gas to a control device that reduces methane and VOC emissions by at least 95.0 percent. The associated gas must be routed through a closed vent system that 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18094"/>
                                meets the requirements of § 60.5411b(a) and (c) and the control device must meet the conditions specified in § 60.5412b.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) For associated gas wells identified in paragraph (b) of this section, you can comply with the requirements in this paragraph (f) for up to a one year period if you demonstrate and certify that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. This allowance is renewable each year with an updated technical infeasibility demonstration and certification in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. Associated gas wells identified in paragraph (b) of this section are not allowed to comply with the requirements in this paragraph (f) after May 7, 2026.</P>
                            <P>(2) For associated gas wells identified in paragraph (c) of this section, you can comply with the requirements in this paragraph (f) for up to a one year period if you demonstrate and certify that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. This allowance is renewable each year with an updated technical infeasibility demonstration and certification in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(g) For affected sources identified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section that are complying with the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section, you must demonstrate that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons by providing a detailed analysis documenting and certifying the technical reasons for this infeasibility.</P>
                            <P>(1) The demonstration must address the technical infeasibility for all options identified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(2) This demonstration must be certified by a professional engineer or another qualified individual with expertise in the uses of associated gas. The following certification, signed and dated by the qualified professional engineer or other qualified individual shall state: “I certify that the assessment of technical and safety infeasibility was prepared under my direction or supervision. I further certify that the assessment was conducted, and this report was prepared pursuant to the requirements of § 60.5377b(b). Based on my professional knowledge and experience, and inquiry of personnel involved in the assessment, the certification submitted herein is true, accurate, and complete.”</P>
                            <P>(3) This demonstration and certification are valid for no more than 12 months. You must re-analyze the feasibility of complying with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section and finalize a new demonstration and certification each year.</P>
                            <P>(4) Documentation of these demonstrations, along with the certifications, must be maintained in accordance with § 60.5420b(c)(3)(iii) and submitted in annual reports in accordance with § 60.5420b(b)(4)(iii)(C) and (D).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 60.5417b by revising paragraph (c)(1) introductory text, paragraphs (d)(7) and (8), (g)(1), and (i)(6)(v) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5417b</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the continuous monitoring requirements for my control devices?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) Except for continuous parameter monitoring systems used to detect the presence of a pilot or combustion flame, each continuous parameter monitoring system must measure data values at least once every hour and record the values for each parameter as required in paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section. Continuous parameter monitoring systems used to detect the presence of a pilot or combustion flame must record a reading at least once every 5 minutes.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(7) For a combustion control device whose model is tested under § 60.5413b(d), continuous monitoring systems as specified in paragraphs (d)(8)(i) through (iv) and (vi) of this section and visible emission observations conducted as specified in paragraph (d)(8)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(8) For an enclosed combustion device, other than those listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) and (7) of this section, or for a flare, continuous monitoring systems as specified in paragraphs (d)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section and visible emission observations conducted as specified in paragraph (d)(8)(v) of this section. Additionally, for enclosed combustion devices or flares that are air-assisted or steam-assisted, the continuous monitoring systems specified in paragraph (d)(8)(vi) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) After January 22, 2027, continuously monitor at least once every five minutes for the presence of a pilot flame or combustion flame using a device (including, but not limited to, a thermocouple, ultraviolet beam sensor, or infrared sensor) capable of detecting that the pilot or combustion flame is present at all times. After January 22, 2027, an alert must be sent to the nearest control room whenever the pilot or combustion flame is unlit. Continuous monitoring systems used for the presence of a pilot flame or combustion flame are not subject to a minimum accuracy requirement beyond being able to detect the presence or absence of a flame and are exempt from the calibration requirements of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) Except as provided in this paragraph (d)(8)(ii) and paragraphs (d)(8)(iii) and (vi) of this section, use one of the following methods to continuously determine the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare at standard conditions. If the inlet gas stream to the flare or enclosed combustion device does not include streams from processes or equipment where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams containing water or CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 used for enhanced oil recovery, vent streams from storage vessels with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV, vent streams from gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units, and vent streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU)), the NHV of the inlet stream is considered to be sufficiently above the minimum required NHV for the inlet gas, and you are not required to conduct the continuous monitoring in this paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section or the demonstration in paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section, but you must submit the report in § 60.5420b(b)(11)(v)(I) and maintain the record in § 60.5420b(c)(11)(vi) indicating that the flare or enclosed combustion device does not receive inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream.
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) A calorimeter with a minimum accuracy of ±2 percent of span.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) A gas chromatograph that meets the requirements in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must follow the procedure in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B of this part, except that a 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18095"/>
                                single daily mid-level calibration check can be used (rather than triplicate analysis), the multi-point calibration can be conducted quarterly (rather than monthly), and the sampling line temperature must be maintained at a minimum temperature of 60 °C (rather than 120 °C). Calibration gas cylinders must be certified to an accuracy of 2 percent and traceable to National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standards.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must meet the accuracy requirements in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B of this part.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) You must use a calibration gas or multiple gases that includes the compounds that are reasonably expected to be present in the flare gas stream. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. You may only use the compounds used to calibrate the gas chromatograph in the calculation of the vent gas NHV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) In lieu of the calibration gas described in paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, you may use a surrogate calibration gas consisting of hydrogen and C1 through C5 normal hydrocarbons. All of the calibration gases may be combined in one cylinder. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. Use the response factor for the nearest normal hydrocarbon (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 n-alkane) in the calibration mixture to quantify unknown components detected in the analysis. Use the response factor for n-pentane to quantify unknown components detected in the analysis that elute after n-pentane.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use any published values for the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere and use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) A mass spectrometer that meets the requirements in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must meet applicable requirements in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B of this part for continuous monitoring system acceptance including, but not limited to, performing an initial multi-point calibration check at three concentrations following the procedure in Section 10.1. A single daily mid-level calibration check can be used (rather than triplicate analysis), the multi-point calibration can be conducted quarterly (rather than monthly), and the sampling line temperature must be maintained at a minimum temperature of 60 °C (rather than 120 °C). Calibration gas cylinders must be certified to an accuracy of 2 percent and traceable to NIST standards.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The average instrument calibration error (CE) for each calibration compound at any calibration concentration must not differ by more than 10 percent from the certified cylinder gas value. The CE for each component in the calibration blend must be calculated using the following equation:
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                                Equation 1 to Paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                )
                            </HD>
                            <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="28">
                                <GID>ER09AP26.005</GID>
                            </GPH>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Where:</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    C
                                    <E T="52">m</E>
                                     = Average instrument response (ppm).
                                </FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    C
                                    <E T="52">a</E>
                                     = Certified cylinder gas value (ppm).
                                </FP>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) You must use a calibration gas or multiple gases that includes the compounds that are reasonably expected to be present in the flare gas stream. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. You may only use the compounds used to calibrate the mass spectrometer in the calculation of the vent gas NHV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) In lieu of the calibration gas described in paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, you may use a surrogate calibration gas consisting of hydrogen and C1 through C5 normal hydrocarbons. All of the calibration gases may be combined in one cylinder. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. For unknown gas components that have similar analytical mass fragments to calibration compounds, you may report the unknowns as an increase in the overlapped calibration gas compound. For unknown compounds that produce mass fragments that do not overlap calibration compounds, you may use the response factor for the nearest molecular weight hydrocarbon in the calibration mix to quantify the unknown component. You may use the response factor for n-pentane to quantify any unknown components detected with a higher molecular weight than n-pentane.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) You must perform an initial calibration to identify mass fragment overlap and response factors for the target compounds.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use any published value for the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere and use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) A grab sampling system capable of collecting an evacuated canister sample for subsequent compositional analysis at least once every eight hours. Subsequent compositional analysis of the samples must be performed according to ASTM D1945-14 (R2019) or alternatively GPA 2261-19 (incorporated by reference, see § 60.17). To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use any published value for the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere and use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) As an alternative to the continuous composition monitoring requirements in paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section, a sampling demonstration may be used as specified in this paragraph. Flares or enclosed combustion devices that are not required to monitor flare gas composition because the inlet gas streams to the flare or enclosed combustion device does not include streams from processes or equipment where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams containing water or CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 used for enhanced oil recovery, vent streams from storage vessels with high water content where the owner or operator has determined 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18096"/>
                                that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV, vent streams from gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units, and vent streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU)), are not required to conduct sampling demonstrations specified in this paragraph. For an unassisted or pressure-assisted flare or enclosed combustion device, if you demonstrate according to the methods described in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section that the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare consistently exceeds the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B) or (C), continuous monitoring of the NHV is not required, but you must conduct the ongoing sampling in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(G) of this section. For flares and enclosed combustion devices that use assist air (including perimeter assist air) or assist steam, if you demonstrate according to the methods described in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section that the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare consistently exceeds 300 Btu/scf, continuous monitoring of the NHV is not required, but you must conduct the ongoing sampling in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(G) of this section. For an unassisted or pressure-assisted flare or enclosed combustion device, in lieu of conducting the demonstration outlined in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (D) of this section, you may conduct the demonstration outlined in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(H) of this section, but you must still comply with paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(E) through (G) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (A) Continuously monitor the inlet stream which is routed to the flare or enclosed combustion device for 14 operating days or collect a sample of the inlet gas which is routed to the enclosed combustion device or flare twice daily to determine the average NHV of the gas stream for 14 operating days with no sampling day to be spaced more than 3 operating days apart from the previous sampling day. If you do not continuously monitor the NHV, the minimum time of collection for each individual sample be at least one hour when technically feasible. When it is not technically feasible to collect individual samples for at least one hour (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 low or intermittent flow), the collection time must be as long as possible up to one hour. For samples taken during low or intermittent flow events, the collection time and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample must be documented and reported with the NHV sampling results. Samples must be separated by at least 6 hours. If inlet gas flow is intermittent such that there are not at least 28 samples over the 14 operating day period, you must continue to collect samples of the inlet gas beyond the 14 operating day period until you collect a minimum of 28 samples.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If you collect samples twice per day, count the number of samples where the NHV value is less than 1.2 times the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B), (C), or this paragraph (d)(8)(iii) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 240, 360, or 960 Btu/scf, as applicable) during the sample collection period in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) If you continuously sample the inlet stream for 14 days, count the number of hourly block average (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 noon to 1 p.m., 1 p.m. to 2 p.m., etc.) NHV values that are less than the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B), § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(C), or this paragraph (d)(8)(iii) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 200, 300, or 800 Btu/scf, as applicable), during the sample collection period in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) If there are no samples counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(B) of this section or there are no hourly block average values counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(C) of this section, the gas stream is considered to consistently exceed the applicable NHV operating limit and on-going continuous monitoring is not required.</P>
                            <P>
                                (E) If process operations are revised that could reduce the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare, such as the removal or addition of process equipment, and at any time the Administrator requires, re-evaluation of the gas stream must be performed according to paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days of the revisions to process operations to ensure the gas stream still consistently exceeds the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B), (C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ), or this paragraph (d)(8)(iii). If any of the samples counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(B) of this section or any hourly block average values counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(C) of this section are less than the limits in the respective paragraph you must conduct the continuous monitoring required by one of the options paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days of the re-evaluation of the gas stream.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (F) When collecting samples under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section, the owner or operator must account for any sources of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from AGR system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams from enhanced oil recovery facilities, or vent streams from storage vessel with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV) that can be sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare. The owner or operator must document in the report in § 60.5420b(b)(11)(v)(I) and the records in § 60.5420b(c)(11)(vi) must note the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams, and whether the sampling included periods where the highest percentage of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream were sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare. If the introduction of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream is intermittent and does not occur during the initial demonstration, the introduction of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream will be considered a revision to process operations that triggers a re-evaluation under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(E). If conditions at the site did not allow sampling during periods where the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream was at the highest percentage possible, increasing the percentage of inerts will be considered a revision to process operations that triggers a re-evaluation under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(E).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (G) You must collect three samples of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare at least once every 5 years. The minimum time of collection for each individual sample must be at least one hour, when technically feasible. When it is not technically feasible to collect individual samples for at least one hour (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 low or intermittent flow), the collection time must be as long as possible up to one hour. For samples taken during low or intermittent flow events, the collection time and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample must be documented and reported with the NHV sampling results. The samples must be taken during the period with the lowest expected NHV (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 the period with the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18097"/>
                                highest percentage of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream). The first set of periodic samples must be taken, or continuous monitoring commenced, no later than 60 calendar months following the last sample taken under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section. Subsequent periodic samples must be taken, or continuous monitoring commenced, no later than 60 calendar months following the previous sample. If any sample taken in accordance with this paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(G) has an NHV value less than 1.2 times the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B), (C), or this paragraph (d)(8)(iii) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 240, 360, or 960 Btu/scf, as applicable), you must conduct the continuous monitoring required by one of the options in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days of receipt of the last sample.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (H) You may request an alternative test method under § 60.5412b(d) to demonstrate that the flare or enclosed combustion device reduces methane and VOC in the gases vented to the device by 95.0 percent by weight or greater. You must use an alternative test method that demonstrates compliance with the combustion efficiency limit; you may not use an alternative test method that demonstrates compliance with NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 and NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                 in lieu of measuring combustion efficiency directly. You must measure data values at the frequency specified in the alternative test method and conduct the quality assurance and quality control requirements outlined in the alternative test method at the frequency outlined in the alternative test method. You must monitor the combustion efficiency of the flare continuously for 14 days. If there are no values of the combustion efficiency measured by the alternative test method that are less than 95.0 percent, the gas stream is considered to consistently exceed the applicable NHV operating limit, and you are not required to continuously monitor the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion device.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) Except as noted in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(A) through (F) and (vi) of this section, a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the flow of gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare. You may use direct flow meters or other parameter monitoring systems combined with engineering calculations, such as inlet line pressure, line size, and burner nozzle dimensions, to satisfy this requirement. The monitoring instrument must have an accuracy of ±10 percent or better at the maximum expected flow rate.</P>
                            <P>(A) Pressure-assisted flares and pressure-assisted enclosed combustion devices are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Unassisted flares are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the flare and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to increase the maximum flow rate to the flare, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the flare is compliant with the applicable maximum flare tip velocity provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) Unassisted enclosed combustion devices are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the enclosed combustion device and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustion device cannot cause the maximum inlet flow rate established in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section to be exceeded. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to impact the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustion device, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustor is less than the maximum inlet flow rate established in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (D) Air-assisted flares or enclosed combustion devices that use only perimeter assist air and have no assist steam or premix assist air are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device or the flow of assist air if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(D)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, as applicable. For these flares and enclosed combustion devices, NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 is assumed to be equal to the vent gas NHV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18098"/>
                                engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) If you are required to monitor vent gas composition for the flare or enclosed combustion device according to paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section, you must demonstrate, based on the maximum flow rate of perimeter assist air to the enclosed combustion device or flare and applicable engineering calculations, that the NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                 can never be less than the minimum required NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                . The demonstration must clearly document why the maximum flow rate of perimeter assist air will never exceed the rate used in the demonstration. You must use the minimum flow rate of vent gas allowed by your backpressure regulator valve and the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare in your demonstration. You must update this demonstration if there are changes to the backpressure regulator valve, the backpressure regulator valve set point, or the maximum flow rate of perimeter assist air. You must also update this demonstration if any sampling results of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare under paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section are lower than the NHV vent gas value used in your demonstration.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) For air-assisted flares, you must also demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the flare and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to increase the maximum flow rate to the flare, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the flare is compliant with the applicable maximum flare tip velocity provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (E) Air-assisted flares or enclosed combustion devices that use only premix assist air and have no assist steam or perimeter assist air are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device or the flow of assist air if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(E)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) If you are required to monitor vent gas composition for the flare or enclosed combustion device according to paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section, you must demonstrate, based on the maximum flow rate of premix assist air to the enclosed combustion device or flare and applicable engineering calculations, that the NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 will never be less than the minimum required NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                . The demonstration must clearly document why the maximum flow rate of premix assist air will never exceed the rate used in the demonstration. You must use the minimum flow rate of vent gas allowed by your backpressure regulator valve in and the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare in your demonstration. You must update this demonstration if there are changes to the backpressure regulator valve, the backpressure regulator valve set point, or the maximum flow rate of premix assist air. You must also update this demonstration if any sampling results of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare under paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section are lower than the NHV vent gas value used in your demonstration.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) For air-assisted flares, you must also demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the flare and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to increase the maximum flow rate to the flare, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the flare is compliant with the applicable maximum flare tip velocity provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (F) Steam-assisted flares or enclosed combustion devices that have no premix assist air and or perimeter assist air (other than perimeter assist air intentionally entrained in lower and/or upper steam at the flare tip and the effective diameter of the flare tip is 9 inches or greater) are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device or the flow of assist steam if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(F)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) If you are required to monitor vent gas composition for the flare or enclosed combustion device according to paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section, you must demonstrate, based on the maximum flow rate of assist steam to the enclosed combustion device or flare and applicable engineering calculations, that the NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 will never be less than the minimum required NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                . The demonstration must clearly document why the maximum flow rate of assist steam will never exceed the rate used in the demonstration. You must use the minimum flow rate of vent gas allowed by your backpressure 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18099"/>
                                regulator valve in and the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare in your demonstration. You must update this demonstration if there are changes to the backpressure regulator valve, the backpressure regulator valve set point, or the maximum flow rate of assist steam. You must also update this demonstration if any sampling results of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare under paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or (iii) of this section are lower than the NHV vent gas value used in your demonstration.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) For steam-assisted flares, you must also demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the flare and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to increase the maximum flow rate to the flare, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the flare is compliant with the applicable maximum flare tip velocity provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>(v) Conduct inspections monthly and at other times as requested by the Administrator to monitor for visible emissions from the combustion device using section 11 of Method 22 of appendix A of this part or conduct visible emissions monitoring according to paragraph (h) of this section. The observation period shall be 15 minutes or once the amount of time visible emissions is present has exceeded 1 minute. Devices must be operated with no visible emissions, except for periods not to exceed a total of 1 minute during any 15-minute period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (vi) If you use a flare or enclosed combustion device that is air-assisted or steam-assisted and that receives streams from processes or equipment where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams containing water or CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 used for enhanced oil recovery, vent streams from storage vessels with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV, vent streams from gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units, and vent streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU)), you must either meet the applicable requirements in (d)(8)(vi)(A) through (D) of this section or you must use an approved alternative method allowed under § 60.5412b(d)(1)(i) and (ii) to continuously monitor NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 and, if applicable, NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                . If you elect to continuously monitor NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 and, if applicable, NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                 using an approved alternative method as provided under § 60.5412b(d)(1)(i) and (ii), you are not required to monitor NHV of the vent gas as specified in paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section or monitor flow rates as specified in this paragraph (d)(8)(vi) provided you can demonstrate that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (A) Except as allowed by paragraph (d)(8)(iv)(E) or (F) of this section, you must monitor and calculate NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 as specified in § 63.670(m) of this chapter. Additionally, for flares and enclosed combustion devices that use only perimeter assist air and do not use steam assist or premix assist air, the NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 is equal to the vent gas NHV. When NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 is equal to the vent gas NHV, you are not required to continuously monitor NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 if you meet the requirements in paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Except as allowed by paragraph (d)(8)(iv)(D) of this section, for each flare using perimeter assist air, you must also monitor and calculate NHV
                                <E T="52">dil</E>
                                 as specified in § 63.670(n) of this chapter. If the only assist air provided to the flare or enclosed combustion control device is perimeter assist air intentionally entrained in lower and/or upper steam at the flare tip and the effective diameter is 9 inches or greater, you are only required to comply with the NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 limit specified in paragraph (f)(8)(vi)(A) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) Except as allowed by paragraph (d)(8)(iv) of this section, you must monitor the flare vent gas and assist gas as specified in § 63.670(i) of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>(D) You must determine the flare vent gas net heating value as specified in § 63.670(l) of this chapter using one of the methods specified in paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section. Where the phrase “petroleum refinery” is used, for purposes of this subpart, it will refer to flares controlling an affected facility under this subpart. If you are not required to continuously monitor the NHV of the inlet gas because you have demonstrated that it consistently exceeds the applicable operating limit as provided in paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section, you must use the lowest net heating value measured in the sampling program in paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section for the calculations performed in paragraphs (d)(8)(vi)(A) and (B). You must update this value if a subsequent sampling result of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare under paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section is lower than the NHV vent gas value used in your calculations.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(g) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) A deviation occurs when the average value of a monitored operating parameter determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section is less than the minimum operating parameter limit (and, if applicable, greater than the maximum operating parameter limit) established in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; for flares, when the average value of a monitored operating parameter determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section is below the applicable limits specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) or above the limit specified in § 60.5415b(f)(1)(vii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ); or for each flare or enclosed combustion device except for boilers and process heaters meeting the requirements in § 60.5412b(a)(1)(iii) and catalytic vapor incinerators meeting the requirements in § 60.5412b(a)(1)(v), when the heat sensing device indicates that there is no pilot or combustion flame present for any time period. If you use a backpressure regulator valve to maintain the inlet gas flow to an enclosed combustion device or flare above the minimum value, a deviation occurs if the annual inspection finds that the backpressure regulator valve set point is not set correctly or indicates that the backpressure regulator valve does not 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18100"/>
                                fully close when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                        <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 60.5420b by revising paragraphs (a)(4), (b), (c)(3) through (6), (c)(11) through (15), and paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5420b</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are my notification, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(4) An owner or operator who commences well closure activities must submit the following notices to the Administrator according to the schedule in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section. The notification shall include contact information for the owner or operator; the United States Well Number; the latitude and longitude coordinates for each well at the well site in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983. You must submit notifications in portable document format (PDF) following the procedures specified in paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) You must submit a well closure plan to the Administrator within 30 days of the cessation of production from all wells located at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(ii) You must submit a notification of the intent to close a well site 60 days before you begin well closure activities.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Reporting requirements.</E>
                                 You must submit annual reports containing the information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (14) of this section following the procedure specified in paragraph (b)(15) of this section. You must submit performance test reports as specified in paragraph (b)(12) or (13) of this section, if applicable. Subject to the exception in the next sentence, the initial annual report is due no later than 90 days after the end of the initial compliance period as determined according to § 60.5410b; subsequent annual reports are due no later than the same date each year as the initial annual report. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, no annual report is due before November 30, 2026, on or before which date you must submit all annual reports that were due before November 30, 2026, per the timing specified in the preceding sentence; then subsequent annual reports thereafter are due no later than 90 days after the end of each annual compliance period. If you own or operate more than one affected facility, you may submit one report for multiple affected facilities provided the report contains all of the information required as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (14) of this section. Annual reports may coincide with title V reports as long as all the required elements of the annual report are included. You may arrange with the Administrator a common schedule on which reports required by this part may be submitted as long as the schedule does not extend the reporting period. You must submit the information in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section, as applicable, for your well affected facility which undergoes a change of ownership during the reporting period, regardless of whether reporting under paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section is required for the well affected facility.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The general information specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section is required for all reports.</P>
                            <P>(i) The company name, facility site name associated with the affected facility, U.S. Well ID or U.S. Well ID associated with the affected facility, if applicable, and address of the affected facility. If an address is not available for the site, include a description of the site location and provide the latitude and longitude coordinates of the site in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(ii) An identification of each affected facility being included in the annual report.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Beginning and ending dates of the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iv) A certification by a certifying official of truth, accuracy, and completeness. This certification shall state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete. If your report is submitted via CEDRI, the certifier's electronic signature during the submission process replaces the requirement in this paragraph (b)(1)(iv).</P>
                            <P>(v) Identification of each well affected facility for which ownership changed due to sale or transfer of ownership including the United States Well Number; the latitude and longitude coordinates of the well affected facility in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983; and the information in paragraph (b)(1)(v)(A) or (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) The name and contact information, including the phone number, email address, and mailing address, of the owner or operator to which you sold or transferred ownership of the well affected facility identified in this paragraph (b)(1)(v).</P>
                            <P>(B) The name and contact information, including the phone number, email address, and mailing address, of the owner or operator from whom you acquired the well affected facility identified in this paragraph (b)(1)(v).</P>
                            <P>(2) For each well affected facility that is subject to § 60.5375b(a) or (f), the records of each well completion operation conducted during the reporting period, including the information specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (xiv) of this section, if applicable. In lieu of submitting the records specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (xiv) of this section, the owner or operator may submit a list of each well completion with hydraulic fracturing completed during the reporting period, and the digital photograph required by paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section for each well completion. For each well affected facility that routes all flowback entirely through one or more production separators, only the records specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) and (vi) of this section are required to be reported. For periods where salable gas is unable to be separated, the records specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (viii) through (xii) of this section must also be reported, as applicable. For each well affected facility that is subject to § 60.5375b(g), the record specified in paragraph (b)(2)(xv) of this section is required to be reported. For each well affected facility which makes a claim that the exemption in § 60.5375b(h) was met, the records specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) through (iv) and (xvi) of this section are required to be reported.</P>
                            <P>(i) Well Completion ID.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Latitude and longitude of the well in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(iii) U.S. Well ID.</P>
                            <P>(iv) The date and time of the onset of flowback following hydraulic fracturing or refracturing or identification that the well immediately starts production.</P>
                            <P>(v) The date and time of each attempt to direct flowback to a separator as required in § 60.5375b(a)(1)(ii).</P>
                            <P>(vi) The date and time that the well was shut in and the flowback equipment was permanently disconnected, or the startup of production.</P>
                            <P>(vii) The duration (in hours) of flowback.</P>
                            <P>
                                (viii) The duration (in hours) of recovery and disposition of recovery (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 routed to the gas flow line or collection system, re-injected into the well or another well, used as an onsite fuel source, or used for another useful purpose that a purchased fuel or raw material would serve).
                                <PRTPAGE P="18101"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(ix) The duration (in hours) of combustion.</P>
                            <P>(x) The duration (in hours) of venting.</P>
                            <P>(xi) The specific reasons for venting in lieu of capture or combustion.</P>
                            <P>(xii) For any deviations recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>
                                (xiii) For each well affected facility subject to § 60.5375b(f), a record of the well type (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 wildcat well, delineation well, or low pressure well (as defined § 60.5430b)) and supporting inputs and calculations, if applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>(xiv) For each well affected facility for which you claim an exception under § 60.5375b(a)(2), the specific exception claimed and reasons why the well meets the claimed exception.</P>
                            <P>(xv) For each well affected facility with less than 300 scf of gas per stock tank barrel of oil produced, the supporting analysis that was performed in order the make that claim, including but not limited to, GOR values for established leases and data from wells in the same basin and field.</P>
                            <P>(xvi) For each well affected facility which meets the exemption in § 60.5375b(h), a statement that the well completion operation requirements of § 60.5375b(a)(1) through (3) were met.</P>
                            <P>(3) For each well affected facility that is subject to § 60.5376b(a)(1) or (2), your annual report is required to include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each well affected facility where all gas well liquids unloading operations comply with § 60.5376b(a)(1), your annual report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(A) through (C) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each well affected facility (U.S. Well ID or U.S. Well ID associated with the well affected facility) that conducts a gas well liquid unloading operation during the reporting period using a method that does not vent to the atmosphere and the technology or technique used. If more than one non-venting technology or technique is used, you must identify all of the differing non-venting liquids unloading methods used during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Number of gas well liquids unloading operations conducted during the year where the well affected facility identified in (b)(3)(i)(A) had unplanned venting to the atmosphere and best management practices were conducted according to your best management practice plan, as required by § 60.5376b(c). If no venting events occurred, the number would be zero. Other reported information required to be submitted where unplanned venting occurs is specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Log of best management practice plan steps used during the unplanned venting to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The number of liquids unloading events during the year where deviations from your best management practice plan occurred, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, documentation of why best management practice plan steps were not followed, and what steps, in lieu of your best management practice plan steps, were followed to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) The number of liquids unloading events where unplanned emissions are vented to the atmosphere during a gas well liquids unloading operation where you complied with best management practices to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each well affected facility where all gas well liquids unloading operations comply with § 60.5376b(b) and (c) best management practices, your annual report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each well affected facility that conducts a gas well liquids unloading during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(B) Number of liquids unloading events conducted during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(C) Log of best management practice plan steps used during the reporting period to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(D) The number of liquids unloading events during the year that best management practices were conducted according to your best management practice plan.</P>
                            <P>(E) The number of liquids unloading events during the year where deviations from your best management practice plan occurred, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, documentation of why best management practice plan steps were not followed, and what steps, in lieu of your best management practice plan steps, were followed to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(4) For each associated gas well subject to § 60.5377b, your annual report is required to include the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (vi) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each associated gas well that complies with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) your annual report is required to include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each associated gas well constructed, modified, or reconstructed during the reporting period that complies with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4).</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) of this section for each incident when the associated gas was temporarily routed to a flare or control device in accordance with § 60.5377b(d).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The reason in § 60.5377b(d)(1), (2), (3), or (4) for each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(2)</E>
                                 The start date and time of each incident of routing associated gas to the flare or control device, along with the total duration in hours of each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(3)</E>
                                 Documentation that all CVS requirements specified in § 60.5411b(a) and (c) and all applicable flare or control device requirements specified in § 60.5412b were met during each period when the associated gas is routed to the flare or control device.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) For each instance where you route associated gas to a flare or control device beyond 72 hours due to “exigent circumstances” according to § 60.5377b(d)(1) or (2), you must include the record information specified in paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section in your annual report.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For all instances where you temporarily vent the associated gas in accordance with § 60.5377b(e), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section. This information is required to be reported if you are routinely complying with § 60.5377b(a) or (f) or temporarily complying with § 60.5377b(d). In addition to this information for each incident, you must report the cumulative duration in hours of venting incidents and the cumulative VOC and methane emissions in pounds for all incidents in the calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(A) The reason in § 60.5377b(e)(1), (2), or (3) for each incident.</P>
                            <P>(B) The start date and time of each incident of venting the associated gas, along with the total duration in hours of each incident.</P>
                            <P>(C) The VOC and methane emissions in pounds that were emitted during each incident.</P>
                            <P>(D) The total duration of venting for all incidents in the year, along with the cumulative VOC and methane emissions in pounds that were emitted.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5377b(f) your annual report must 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18102"/>
                                include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section. The information in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section is only required in the initial annual report.
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each associated gas well that commenced construction between May 7, 2024, and May 7, 2026. This identification must include the certification of why it is infeasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) in accordance with § 60.5377b(g).</P>
                            <P>(B) An identification of each associated gas well that commenced construction between December 6, 2022, and May 7, 2024. This identification must include the certification of why it is infeasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) in accordance with § 60.5377b(g).</P>
                            <P>(C) An identification of each associated gas well modified or reconstructed during the reporting period that complies by routing the gas to a control device that reduces VOC and methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent. This identification must include the certification of why it is infeasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) in accordance with § 60.5377b(g).</P>
                            <P>(D) For each associated gas well that was constructed, modified or reconstructed in a previous reporting period that complies by routing the gas to a control device that reduces VOC and methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent, a re-certification of why it is infeasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) in accordance with § 60.5377b(g).</P>
                            <P>(E) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If you comply with § 60.5377b(f) with a control device, identification of the associated gas well using the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(11)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each deviation recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(5) For each wet seal centrifugal compressor affected facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (v) of this section. For each self-contained wet seal centrifugal compressor, Alaska North Slope centrifugal compressor equipped with sour seal oil separator and capture system, or dry seal centrifugal compressor affected facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(5)(vi) through (ix) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) An identification of each centrifugal compressor constructed, modified, or reconstructed during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If required to comply with § 60.5380b(a)(2) or (3), the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If complying with § 60.5380b(a)(1) with a control device, identification of the centrifugal compressor with the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(11)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If complying with § 60.5380b(a)(4), (5), or (6) for a self-contained wet seal centrifugal compressor, Alaska North Slope centrifugal compressor equipped with sour seal oil separator and capture system, or dry seal centrifugal compressor requirements, the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since May 7, 2024, or since the previous volumetric flow rate emissions measurement, as applicable, which have elapsed prior to conducting your volumetric flow rate emission measurement or emissions screening.</P>
                            <P>(vii) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric emissions measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Number and type of seals on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(ix) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any seals that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(6) For each reciprocating compressor affected facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) through (vii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) The cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since May 7, 2024, since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, or since the previous reciprocating compressor rod packing replacement, as applicable, which have elapsed prior to conducting your volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening. Alternatively, a statement that emissions from the rod packing are being routed to a process or control device through a closed vent system.</P>
                            <P>(ii) If applicable, for each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, duration of the deviation in hours and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If complying with § 60.5385b(d)(1) or (2), the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section. If complying by routing emissions to a control device, as required in § 60.5385b(d)(2), the information in paragraph (b)(11)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) Number and type of rod packing replacements/repairs on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any rod packing replacements/repairs that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(vii) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(7) For each process controller affected facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(i) through (iii) of this section in your initial annual report and in subsequent annual reports for each process controller affected facility that is constructed, modified, or reconstructed during the reporting period. Each annual report must contain the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(iv) through (x) of this section for each process controller affected facility.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) An identification of each process controller that is driven by natural gas, as required by § 60.5390b(d), that allows traceability to the records required in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18103"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For each process controller in the affected facility complying with § 60.5390b(a), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5390b(a) by routing the emissions to a process.</P>
                            <P>(B) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5390b(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each process controller affected facility located at a site in Alaska that does not have access to electrical power and that complies with § 60.5390b(b), you must report the information specified in paragraph (b)(7)(iii)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) For each process controller complying with § 60.5390b(b)(1) process controller bleed rate requirements, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(iii)(A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The identification of process controllers designed and operated to achieve a bleed rate less than or equal to 6 scfh.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Where necessary to meet a functional need, the identification and demonstration why it is necessary to use a process controller with a natural gas bleed rate greater than 6 scfh.
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) An identification of each intermittent vent process controller complying with the requirements in paragraph § 60.5390b(b)(2).</P>
                            <P>(C) An identification of each process controller complying with the requirements in § 60.5390b(b) by routing emissions to a control device in accordance with § 60.5390b(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(iv) Identification of each process controller which changes its method of compliance during the reporting period and the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(v) through (ix) of this section for the new method of compliance.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each process controller in the affected facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5390b(a) by routing the emissions to a process, you must report the information specified in (b)(11)(i) through (iii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each process controller in the affected facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5390b(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(vi)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416b(b); and</P>
                            <P>(B) Each defect or leak identified during each natural gas-driven-self-contained process controller system inspection, and the date of repair or date of anticipated repair if repair is delayed.</P>
                            <P>(vii) For each process controller in the affected facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5390b(b)(2), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(vii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Dates and results of the intermittent vent process controller monitoring required by § 60.5390b(b)(2)(ii).</P>
                            <P>(B) For each instance in which monitoring identifies emissions to the atmosphere from an intermittent vent controller during idle periods, the date of repair or replacement or the date of anticipated repair or replacement if the repair or replacement is delayed, and the date and results of the re-survey after repair or replacement.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For each process controller affected facility complying with § 60.5390b(b)(3) by routing emissions to a control device, you must report the information specified in paragraph (b)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ix) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(x) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(7)(vi) and (vii) and (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(8) For each storage vessel affected facility, the information in paragraphs (b)(8)(i) through (x) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) An identification, including the location, of each storage vessel affected facility, including those for which construction, modification, or reconstruction commenced during the reporting period, and those provided in previous reports. The location of the storage vessel affected facility shall be in latitude and longitude coordinates in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Documentation of the methane and VOC emission rate determination according to § 60.5365b(e)(1) for each tank battery that became an affected facility during the reporting period or is returned to service during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(7)(iii) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, duration of the deviation in hours and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each storage vessel affected facility constructed, modified, reconstructed, or returned to service during the reporting period complying with § 60.5395b(a)(2) with a control device, report the identification of the storage vessel affected facility with the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(11)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If required to comply with § 60.5395b(b)(1), the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vii) You must identify each storage vessel affected facility that is removed from service during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5395b(c)(1)(ii), including the date the storage vessel affected facility was removed from service. You must identify each storage vessel that that is removed from service from a storage vessel affected facility during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5395b(c)(2)(iii), including identifying the impacted storage vessel affected facility and the date each storage vessel was removed from service.</P>
                            <P>(viii) You must identify each storage vessel affected facility or portion of a storage vessel affected facility returned to service during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5395b(c)(4), including the date the storage vessel affected facility or portion of a storage vessel affected facility was returned to service.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ix) You must identify each storage vessel affected facility that no longer complies with § 60.5395b(a)(3) and instead complies with § 60.5395b(a)(2). You must identify whether the change in the method of compliance was due to fracturing or refracturing or whether the change was due to an increase in the monthly emissions determination. If the change was due to an increase in the monthly emissions determination, you must provide documentation of the emissions rate. You must identify the date that you complied with § 60.5395b(a)(2) and must submit the information in (b)(8)(iii) through (vii) of this section.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18104"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(x) You must submit a statement that you are complying with § 60.112b(a)(1) or (2), if applicable, in your initial annual report.</P>
                            <P>(9) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility, report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(i) through (v) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i)(A) Designation of the type of site (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 well site, centralized production facility, or compressor station) at which the fugitive emissions components affected facility is located.
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site or centralized production facility that became an affected facility during the reporting period, you must include the date of the startup of production or the date of the first day of production after modification. For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a compressor station that became an affected facility during the reporting period, you must include the date of startup or the date of modification.</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site, you must specify what type of well site it is (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 single wellhead only well site, small wellsite, multi-wellhead only well site, or a well site with major production and processing equipment).
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site where during the reporting period you complete the removal of all major production and processing equipment such that the well site contains only one or more wellheads, you must include the date of the change to status as a wellhead only well site.</P>
                            <P>(E) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site where you previously reported under paragraph (b)(9)(i)(D) of this section the removal of all major production and processing equipment and during the reporting period major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site, the date that the first piece of major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site.</P>
                            <P>(F) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site where during the reporting period you undertake well closure requirements, the date of the cessation of production from all wells at the well site, the date you began well closure activities at the well site, and the dates of the notifications submitted in accordance with paragraph (a)(4) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each fugitive emissions monitoring survey performed during the annual reporting period, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(ii)(A) through (G) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Date of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(B) Monitoring instrument or, if the survey was conducted by AVO methods, notation that AVO was used.</P>
                            <P>(C) Any deviations from the monitoring plan elements under § 60.5397b(c)(1), (2), and (7), (c)(8)(i), or (d) or a statement that there were no deviations from these elements of the monitoring plan.</P>
                            <P>(D) Number and type of components for which fugitive emissions were detected.</P>
                            <P>(E) Number and type of fugitive emissions components that were not repaired as required in § 60.5397b(h).</P>
                            <P>(F) Number and type of fugitive emission components (including designation as difficult-to-monitor or unsafe-to-monitor, if applicable) on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(G) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any components that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility complying with an alternative fugitive emissions standard under § 60.5399b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The alternative standard with which you are complying.</P>
                            <P>(B) The site-specific reports specified by the specific alternative fugitive emissions standard, submitted in the format in which they were submitted to the state, local, or Tribal authority. If the report is in hard copy, you must scan the document and submit it as an electronic attachment to the annual report required in this paragraph (b).</P>
                            <P>(C) If the report specified by the specific alternative fugitive emissions standard is not site-specific, you must submit the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(i) and (ii) of this section for each individual site complying with the alternative standard.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For well closure activities which occurred during the reporting period, the information in paragraphs (b)(9)(iv)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) A status report with dates for the well closure activities schedule developed in the well closure plan. If all steps in the well closure plan are completed in the reporting period, the date that all activities are completed.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If an OGI survey is conducted during the reporting period, the information in paragraphs (b)(9)(iv)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Date of the OGI survey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Monitoring instrument used.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) A statement that no fugitive emissions were found, or if fugitive emissions were found, a description of the steps taken to eliminate those emissions, the date of the resurvey, the results of the resurvey, and the date of the final resurvey which detected no emissions.
                            </P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(10) For each pump affected facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section in your initial annual report and in subsequent annual reports for each pump affected facility that is constructed, modified, or reconstructed during the reporting period. Each annual report must contain the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(v) through (ix) of this section for each pump affected facility.</P>
                            <P>(i) The identification of each of your pumps that are driven by natural gas, as required by § 60.5393b(a) that allows traceability to the records required by paragraph (c)(15)(i) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each pump affected facility for which there is a control device on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 percent emissions reduction, the certification that there is a control device available on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 percent emissions reduction required under § 60.5393b(b)(5). You must also report the emissions reduction percentage the control device is designed to achieve.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each pump affected facility for which there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site, the certification required under § 60.5393b(b)(6) that there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each pump affected facility for which it is technically infeasible to route the emissions to a process or control device, the certification of technically infeasibility required under § 60.5393b(b)(7).</P>
                            <P>
                                (v) For any pump affected facility which has previously reported as required under paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section and for which a change in the reported condition has occurred during the reporting period, provide the identification of the pump affected facility and the date that the pump affected facility meets one of the change 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18105"/>
                                conditions described in paragraph (b)(10)(v)(A), (B), or (C) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) If you install a control device or vapor recovery unit, you must report that a control device or vapor recovery unit has been added to the site and that the pump affected facility now is required to comply with § 60.5393b(b)(2), (3) or (5), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If your pump affected facility previously complied with § 60.5393b(b)(2), (3) or (5) by routing emissions to a process or a control device and the process or control device is subsequently removed from the site or is no longer available such that there is no ability to route the emissions to a process or control device at the site, or that it is not technically feasible to capture and route the emissions to another control device or process located on site, report that you are no longer complying with the applicable requirements of § 60.5393b(b)(2), (3), or (5) and submit the information provided in paragraph (b)(10)(v)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) or (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Certification that there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Certification of the engineering assessment that it is technically infeasible to capture and route the emissions to another control device or process located on site.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) If any pump affected facility or individual natural gas-driven pump changes its method of compliance during the reporting period other than for the reasons specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(v)(A) and (B) of this section, identify the new compliance method for each natural gas-driven pump within the affected facility which changes its method of compliance during the reporting period and provide the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(ii) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section for the new method of compliance.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each pump affected facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5393b(a) or (b)(1) or (3) by routing the emissions to a process, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vii) For each pump affected facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5393b(b)(3) or (5) by routing the emissions to a control device, you must report the information required under paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(ix) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(11) For each well, centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, storage vessel, process controller, pump, or process unit equipment affected facility which uses a closed vent system routed to a control device to meet the emissions reduction standard, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (v) of this section. For each reciprocating compressor, process controller, pump, storage vessel, or process unit equipment which uses a closed vent system to route to a process, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (iv) of this section. For each centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, and storage vessel equipped with a cover, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416b(a) and (b).</P>
                            <P>(ii) Each defect or emissions identified during each inspection and the date of repair or the date of anticipated repair if the repair is delayed.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Date and time of each bypass alarm or each instance the key is checked out if you are subject to the bypass requirements of § 60.5416b(a)(4).</P>
                            <P>(iv) You must submit the certification signed by the qualified professional engineer or in-house engineer according to § 60.5411b(c) for each closed vent system routing to a control device or process in the reporting year in which the certification is signed.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with the emissions standard for your well, centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, storage vessel, process controller, pump, or process unit equipment affected facility with a control device, the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(v)(A) through (L) of this section, unless you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412b(d). If you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412b(d), the information in paragraphs (b)(11)(v)(A) through (C) and (L) through (P) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of the control device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Make, model, and date of installation of the control device.</P>
                            <P>(C) Identification of the affected facility controlled by the device.</P>
                            <P>(D) For each continuous parameter monitoring system used to demonstrate compliance for the control device, a unique continuous parameter monitoring system identifier and the make, model number, and date of last calibration check of the continuous parameter monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>
                                (E) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417b(g)(1) through (3) or (g)(5) through (7) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, the type of the deviation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 NHV operating limit, lack of pilot or combustion flame, condenser efficiency, bypass line flow, visible emissions), and cause of the deviation.
                            </P>
                            <P>(F) For each instance where there is a deviation of the continuous parameter monitoring system in accordance with § 60.5417b(g)(4) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(G) For each visible emissions test following return to operation from a maintenance or repair activity, the date of the visible emissions test or observation of the video surveillance output, the length of the observation in minutes, and the number of minutes for which visible emissions were present.</P>
                            <P>(H) If a performance test was conducted on the control device during the reporting period, provide the date the performance test was conducted. Submit the performance test report following the procedures specified in paragraph (b)(12) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (I) An indication of whether the enclosed combustion device or flare receives inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams. If a demonstration of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare was conducted during the reporting period in accordance with § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii), an indication of whether this is a re-evaluation of vent gas NHV and the reason for the re-evaluation; the applicable required minimum vent gas NHV; if twice daily samples of the vent stream were taken, the number of samples with NHV values that are less than 1.2 times the applicable required minimum NHV, an indication of whether full one hour samples were 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18106"/>
                                collected or if shorter sampling times were used, and, if shorter sampling times were used, the collection time(s) used and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample; if continuous NHV sampling of the vent stream was conducted, the number of hourly block average NHV values that are less than the required minimum vent gas NHV; if continuous combustion efficiency monitoring was conducted using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412b(d), the number of values of the combustion efficiency that were less than 95.0 percent; the resulting determination of whether continuous NHV monitoring is required or not in accordance with § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(D), (E), or (H); and if the enclosed combustion device or flare received inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, whether the sampling included periods where the highest percentage of inert gases or other gases which may lower the NHV of the combined stream were sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare.
                            </P>
                            <P>(J) If a demonstration was conducted in accordance with § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv) that the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to an enclosed combustion device or flare cannot cause the maximum inlet flow rate established in accordance with § 60.5417b(f)(1) or a flare tip velocity limit of 18.3 meter/second (60 feet/second) to be exceeded, an indication of whether this is a re-evaluation of the gas flow and the reason for the re-evaluation; the demonstration conducted; and applicable engineering calculations.</P>
                            <P>(K) For each periodic sampling event conducted under § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(G), provide the date of the sampling, the required minimum vent gas NHV, and the NHV value for each vent gas sample.</P>
                            <P>(L) For each flare and enclosed combustion device, provide the date each device is observed with OGI in accordance with § 60.5415b(f)(1)(x) and whether uncombusted emissions were present. Provide the date each device was visibly observed during an AVO inspection in accordance with § 60.5415b(f)(1)(x), whether the pilot or combustion flame was lit at the time of observation, and whether the device was found to be operating properly.</P>
                            <P>(M) An identification of the alternative test method used.</P>
                            <P>
                                (N) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417b(i)(6)(i) or (iii) through (v) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, the type of the deviation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 NHV
                                <E T="52">cz</E>
                                 operating limit, lack of pilot or combustion flame, visible emissions), and cause of the deviation.
                            </P>
                            <P>(O) For each instance where there is a deviation of the data availability in accordance with § 60.5417b(i)(6)(ii) include the date of each operating day when monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours.</P>
                            <P>(P) If no deviations occurred under paragraph (b)(11)(v)(N) or (O) of this section, a statement that there were no deviations for the control device during the annual report period.</P>
                            <P>(Q) Any additional information required to be reported as specified by the Administrator as part of the alternative test method approval under § 60.5412b(d).</P>
                            <P>
                                (12) Within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test (see § 60.8) required by this subpart, except testing conducted by the manufacturer as specified in § 60.5413b(d), you must submit the results of the performance test following the procedures specified in paragraph (d) of this section. Data collected using test methods that are supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT website (
                                <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/electronic-reporting-air-emissions/electronic-reporting-tool-ert</E>
                                ) at the time of the test must be submitted in a file format generated using the EPA's ERT. Alternatively, you may submit an electronic file consistent with the extensible markup language (XML) schema listed on the EPA's ERT website. Data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT website at the time of the test must be included as an attachment in the ERT or alternate electronic file.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (13) For combustion control devices tested by the manufacturer in accordance with § 60.5413b(d), an electronic copy of the performance test results required by § 60.5413b(d) shall be submitted via email to 
                                <E T="03">Oil_and_Gas_PT@EPA.GOV</E>
                                 unless the test results for that model of combustion control device are posted at the following website: 
                                <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/controlling-air-pollution-oil-and-natural-gas-industry.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(14) If you had a super-emitter event during the reporting period, the start date of the super-emitter event, the duration of the super-emitter event in hours, and the affected facility associated with the super-emitter event, if applicable.</P>
                            <P>(15) You must submit your annual report using the appropriate electronic report template on the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) website for this subpart and following the procedure specified in paragraph (d) of this section. If the reporting form specific to this subpart is not available on the CEDRI website at the time that the report is due, you must submit the report to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 60.4. Once the form has been available on the CEDRI website for at least 90 calendar days, you must begin submitting all subsequent reports via CEDRI. The date reporting forms become available will be listed on the CEDRI website. Unless the Administrator or delegated state agency or other authority has approved a different schedule for submission of reports, the report must be submitted by the deadline specified in this subpart, regardless of the method in which the report is submitted.</P>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) For each associated gas well, you must maintain the applicable records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) or (ii) and (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i)(A) and (B).</P>
                            <P>(A) Documentation of the specific method(s) in § 60.5377b(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) that is used.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) For instances where you temporarily route the associated gas to a flare or control device in accordance with § 60.5377b(d), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The reason in § 60.5377b(d)(1), (2), (3), or (4) for each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(2)</E>
                                 The date of each incident, along with the times when routing the associated gas to the flare or control device started and ended, along with the total duration of each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(3)</E>
                                 Documentation that all CVS requirements specified in § 60.5411b(a) and (c) and all applicable flare or control device requirements specified in § 60.5412b are met during each period when the associated gas is routed to the flare or control device.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For instances where you temporarily vent the associated gas in accordance with § 60.5377b(e), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section. These records are required if you are routinely complying with § 60.5377b(a) or § 60.5377b(f) or temporarily complying with § 60.5377b(d).</P>
                            <P>(A) The reason in § 60.5377b(e)(1), (2), or (3) for each incident.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) The date of each incident, along with the times when venting the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18107"/>
                                associated gas started and ended, along with the total duration of each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) The VOC and methane emissions that were emitted during each incident.</P>
                            <P>(D) The cumulative duration of venting incidents and VOC and methane emissions for all incidents in each calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5377b(f) because it has demonstrated that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1) through (4) due to technical reasons in accordance with § 60.5377b(g), records of each annual demonstration and certification of the technical reason that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5377b(a)(1) through (4) in accordance with § 60.5377b(g).</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5377b(f), meet the recordkeeping requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(iv)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each instance when associated gas was vented and not routed to a control device that reduces VOC and methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent.</P>
                            <P>(B) If you comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5377b with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraphs (c)(11) and (13) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must maintain records of the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(12) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each instance where you route associated gas to a flare or control device beyond 72 hours due to an “exigent circumstance” according to § 60.5377b(d)(1) or (2), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(v)(A) through (D) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) A written description of the “exigent circumstance” requiring the need to flare or route to a control device beyond 72 hours.</P>
                            <P>(B) A description of the steps taken to resolve the need for temporary flaring/routing to a control device;</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) The dates and times an identified “exigent circumstance” started and ended (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 when owners or operators are able to access site, when personnel and/or equipment are available) and the total duration of each “exigent circumstance”; and
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) The dates and times temporary flaring/routing to a control device started and ended and the total duration of temporary flaring/routing to a control device due to the identified “exigent circumstance.”</P>
                            <P>(vi) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(4) For each centrifugal compressor affected facility, you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each centrifugal compressor affected facility, you must maintain records of deviations in cases where the centrifugal compressor was not operated in compliance with the requirements specified in § 60.5380b, including a description of each deviation, the date and time each deviation began and the duration of each deviation.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each wet seal compressor complying with the emissions reduction standard in § 60.5380b(a)(1), you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section. For each wet seal compressor complying with the alternative standard in § 60.5380b(a)(3) by routing the closed vent system to a process, you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii)(B) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) If you comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5380b(a)(1) with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must maintain the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of the cover inspections as specified in paragraph (c)(9) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(9) of this section, you must maintain the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(12) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each centrifugal compressor affected facility using a self-contained wet seal compressor, centrifugal compressor equipped with sour seal oil separator and capture system, or dry seal compressor complying with the standard in § 60.5380b(a)(4), (5) or (6), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(A) through (H) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Records of the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since May 7, 2024, or since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(B) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) Records for all flow meters, composition analyzers and pressure gauges used to measure volumetric flow rates as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Description of standard method published by a consensus-based standards organization or industry standard practice.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Records of volumetric flow rate emissions calculations conducted according to paragraphs § 60.5380b(a)(4) through (6), as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) Records of manufacturer's operating procedures and measurement methods.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) Records of manufacturer's recommended procedures or an appropriate industry consensus standard method for calibration and results of calibration, recalibration, and accuracy checks.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) Records which demonstrate that measurements at the remote location(s) can, when appropriate correction factors are applied, reliably and accurately represent the actual temperature or total pressure at the flow meter under all expected ambient conditions. You must include the date of the demonstration, the data from the demonstration, the mathematical correlation(s) between the remote readings and actual flow meter conditions derived from the data, and any supporting engineering calculations. If adjustments were made to the mathematical relationships, a record and description of such adjustments.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) Record of each initial calibration or a recalibration which failed to meet the required accuracy specification and the date of the successful recalibration.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) Date when performance-based volumetric flow rate is exceeded.</P>
                            <P>(E) The date of successful repair of the compressor seal, including follow-up performance-based volumetric flow rate measurement to confirm successful repair.</P>
                            <P>(F) Identification of each compressor seal placed on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>
                                (G) For each compressor seal or part needed for repair placed on delay of 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18108"/>
                                repair because of replacement seal or part unavailability, the operator must document: the date the seal or part was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement seal or part was ordered, the anticipated seal or part delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the seal or part.
                            </P>
                            <P>(H) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any seals or parts that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(5) For each reciprocating compressor affected facility, you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (x) and (c)(8) through (13) of this section, as applicable. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each reciprocating compressor affected facility, you must maintain records of deviations in cases where the reciprocating compressor was not operated in compliance with the requirements specified in § 60.5385b, including a description of each deviation, the date and time each deviation began and the duration of each deviation in hours.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Records of the date of installation of a rod packing emissions collection system and closed vent system as specified in § 60.5385b(d).</P>
                            <P>(iii) Records of the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since May 7, 2024, or since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, as applicable. Alternatively, a record that emissions from the rod packing are being routed to a process through a closed vent system.</P>
                            <P>(iv) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(v) Records for all flow meters, composition analyzers and pressure gauges used to measure volumetric flow rates as specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(v)(A) through (F).</P>
                            <P>(A) Description of standard method published by a consensus-based standards organization or industry standard practice.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of volumetric flow rate calculations conducted according to § 60.5385b(b) or (c), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of manufacturer operating procedures and measurement methods.</P>
                            <P>(D) Records of manufacturer's recommended procedures or an appropriate industry consensus standard method for calibration and results of calibration, recalibration, and accuracy checks.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records which demonstrate that measurements at the remote location(s) can, when appropriate correction factors are applied, reliably and accurately represent the actual temperature or total pressure at the flow meter under all expected ambient conditions. You must include the date of the demonstration, the data from the demonstration, the mathematical correlation(s) between the remote readings and actual flow meter conditions derived from the data, and any supporting engineering calculations. If adjustments were made to the mathematical relationships, a record and description of such adjustments.</P>
                            <P>(F) Record of each initial calibration or a recalibration which failed to meet the required accuracy specification and the date of the successful recalibration.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Date when performance-based volumetric flow rate is exceeded.</P>
                            <P>(vii) The date of successful replacement or repair of reciprocating compressor rod packing, including follow-up performance-based volumetric flow rate measurement to confirm successful repair.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Identification of each reciprocating compressor placed on delay of repair because of rod packing or part unavailability and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(ix) For each reciprocating compressor that is placed on delay of repair because of replacement rod packing or part unavailability, the operator must document: the date the rod packing or part was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement rod packing or part was ordered, the anticipated rod packing or part delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the rod packing or part.</P>
                            <P>(x) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any reciprocating compressors that have been placed on delay of repair due to the unavailability of rod packing or parts to conduct repairs.</P>
                            <P>(6) For each process controller affected facility, you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(i) through (vii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) Records identifying each process controller that is driven by natural gas and that does not function as an emergency shutdown device.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each process controller affected facility complying with § 60.5390b(a), you must maintain records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) If you are complying with § 60.5390b(a) by routing process controller vapors to a process through a closed vent system, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(ii)(A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) An identification of all the natural gas-driven process controllers in the process controller affected facility for which you collect and route vapors to a process through a closed vent system.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The records specified in paragraphs (c)(8), (10), and (12) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If you are complying with § 60.5390b(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5390b(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416b(b); and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) Each defect or leak identified during each natural gas-driven-self-contained process controller system inspection, and date of repair or date of anticipated repair if repair is delayed.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iii) For each process controller affected facility complying with the § 60.5390b(b)(1) process controller bleed rate requirements, you must maintain records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The identification of process controllers designed and operated to achieve a bleed rate less than or equal to 6 scfh and records of the manufacturer's specifications indicating that the process controller is designed with a natural gas bleed rate of less than or equal to 6 scfh.</P>
                            <P>(B) Where necessary to meet a functional need, the identification of the process controller and demonstration of why it is necessary to use a process controller with a natural gas bleed rate greater than 6 scfh.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each intermittent vent process controller in the affected facility complying with the requirements in paragraphs § 60.5390b(b)(2), you must keep records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(iv)(A) through (C) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The identification of each intermittent vent process controller.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Dates and results of the intermittent vent process controller monitoring required by § 60.5390b(b)(2)(ii).
                                <PRTPAGE P="18109"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) For each instance in which monitoring identifies emissions to the atmosphere from an intermittent vent controller during idle periods, the date of repair or replacement, or the date of anticipated repair or replacement if the repair or replacement is delayed and the date and results of the re-survey after repair or replacement.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each process controller affected facility complying with § 60.5390b(b)(3), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(6)(v)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each process controller for which emissions are routed to a control device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records specified in paragraphs (c)(8) and (10) through (13) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Records of each change in compliance method, including identification of each natural gas-driven process controller which changes its method of compliance, the new method of compliance, and the date of the change in compliance method.</P>
                            <P>(vii) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(11) Records for each control device used to comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5377b(d) or (f) for associated gas wells, § 60.5380b(a)(1) or (9) for centrifugal compressor affected facilities, § 60.5385b(d)(2) for reciprocating compressor affected facilities, § 60.5390b(b)(3) for your process controller affected facility in Alaska, § 60.5393b(b)(3) for your pump affected facility, § 60.5395b(a)(2) for your storage vessel affected facility, § 60.5376b(g) for well affected facility gas well liquids unloading, or § 60.5400b(f) or 60.5401b(e) for your process equipment affected facility, as required in paragraphs (c)(11)(i) through (viii) of this section. If you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412b(d), keep records of the information in paragraph (c)(11)(ix) of this section, in lieu of the records required by paragraphs (c)(11)(i) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) For a control device tested under § 60.5413b(d) which meets the criteria in § 60.5413b(d)(11) and (e), keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(11)(i)(A) through (E) of this section, in addition to the records in paragraphs (c)(11)(ii) through (ix) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Serial number of purchased device and copy of purchase order.</P>
                            <P>(B) Location of the affected facility associated with the control device in latitude and longitude coordinates in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(C) Minimum and maximum inlet gas flow rate specified by the manufacturer.</P>
                            <P>(D) Records of the maintenance and repair log as specified in § 60.5413b(e)(4), for all inspection, repair, and maintenance activities for each control device failing the visible emissions test.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the manufacturer's written operating instructions, procedures, and maintenance schedule to ensure good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For all control devices, keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(11)(ii)(A) through (G) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Make, model, and date of installation of the control device, and identification of the affected facility controlled by the device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of deviations in accordance with § 60.5417b(g)(1) through (7), including a description of the deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and the cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(C) The monitoring plan required by § 60.5417b(c)(2).</P>
                            <P>(D) Make and model number of each continuous parameter monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of minimum and maximum operating parameter values, continuous parameter monitoring system data (including records that the pilot or combustion flame is present at all times), calculated averages of continuous parameter monitoring system data, and results of all compliance calculations.</P>
                            <P>(F) Records of continuous parameter monitoring system equipment performance checks, system accuracy audits, performance evaluations, or other audit procedures and results of all inspections specified in the monitoring plan in accordance with § 60.5417b(c)(2). Records of calibration gas cylinders, if applicable.</P>
                            <P>(G) Periods of monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions and required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities Records of repairs on the monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each carbon adsorption system, records of the schedule for carbon replacement as determined by the design analysis requirements of § 60.5413b(c)(2) and (3) and records of each carbon replacement as specified in §§ 60.5412b(c)(1) and 60.5415b(f)(1)(viii).</P>
                            <P>(iv) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, records of visible emissions observations as specified in paragraph (c)(11)(iv)(A) or (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Records of observations with Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part, including observations required following return to operation from a maintenance or repair activity, which include: company, location, company representative (name of the person performing the observation), sky conditions, process unit (type of control device), clock start time, observation period duration (in minutes and seconds), accumulated emission time (in minutes and seconds), and clock end time. You may create your own form including the above information or use Figure 22-1 in Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part.</P>
                            <P>(B) If you monitor visible emissions with a video surveillance camera, location of the camera and distance to emission source, records of the video surveillance output, and documentation that an operator looked at the feed daily, including the date and start time of observation, the length of observation, and length of time visible emissions were present.</P>
                            <P>(v) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, video of the OGI inspection conducted in accordance with § 60.5415b(f)(1)(x). Records documenting each enclosed combustion device and flare was visibly observed during each inspection conducted under § 60.5397b using AVO in accordance with § 60.5415b(f)(1)(x).</P>
                            <P>
                                (vi) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, an indication of whether the enclosed combustion device or flare receives inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams. Records of each demonstration of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare conducted in accordance with § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii), including the sampling approach used (continuous NHV, twice daily sampling, alternative method), the date, time and results of each analysis, and, if shorter sampling 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18110"/>
                                times were used with twice daily sampling, the collection time(s) used and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample. For each re-evaluation of the NHV of the inlet gas, records of process changes and explanation of the conditions that led to the need to re-evaluation the NHV of the inlet gas. For each demonstration where the enclosed combustion device or flare received inert gases, record the highest percentage of inert gases that can be sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare and the highest percent of inert gases sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare during the NHV demonstration. Records of periodic sampling conducted under § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iii)(G).
                            </P>
                            <P>(vii) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, if you use a backpressure regulator valve, the make and model of the valve, date of installation, and record of inlet flow rating. Maintain records of the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications that identify the pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate, the annual confirmation that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications, and the annual confirmation that the backpressure regulator valve fully closes when not in open position.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, records of each demonstration required under § 60.5417b(d)(8)(iv).</P>
                            <P>(ix) If you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412b(d), keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(11)(ix)(A) through (H) of this section, in lieu of the records required by paragraphs (c)(11)(i) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of the alternative test method used.</P>
                            <P>(B) Data recorded at the intervals required by the alternative test method.</P>
                            <P>(C) Monitoring plan required by § 60.5417(i)(2).</P>
                            <P>(D) Quality assurance and quality control activities conducted in accordance with the alternative test method.</P>
                            <P>(E) If required by § 60.5412b(d)(4) to conduct visible emissions observations, records required by paragraph (c)(11)(iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(F) If required by § 60.5412b(d)(5) to conduct pilot or combustion flame monitoring, record indicating the presence of a pilot or combustion flame and periods when the pilot or combustion flame is absent.</P>
                            <P>(G) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417b(i)(6)(i) through (v), the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(H) Any additional information required to be recorded as specified by the Administrator as part of the alternative test method approval under § 60.5412b(d).</P>
                            <P>(12) For each closed vent system routing to a control device or process, the records of the assessment conducted according to § 60.5411b(c):</P>
                            <P>(i) A copy of the assessment conducted according to § 60.5411b(c)(1); and</P>
                            <P>(ii) A copy of the certification according to § 60.5411b(c)(1)(i) and (ii).</P>
                            <P>(13) A copy of each performance test submitted under paragraph (b)(12) or (13) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(14) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility, maintain the records identified in paragraphs (c)(14)(i) through (viii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The date of the startup of production or the date of the first day of production after modification for the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site and the date of startup or the date of modification for the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a compressor station.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site, you must maintain records specifying what type of well site it is (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 single wellhead only well site, small wellsite, multi-wellhead only well site, or a well site with major production and processing equipment.)
                            </P>
                            <P>(iii) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility at a well site where you complete the removal of all major production and processing equipment such that the well site contains only one or more wellheads, record the date the well site completes the removal of all major production and processing equipment from the well site, and, if the well site is still producing, record the well ID or separate tank battery ID receiving the production from the well site. If major production and processing equipment is subsequently added back to the well site, record the date that the first piece of major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site.</P>
                            <P>(iv) The fugitive emissions monitoring plan as required in § 60.5397b(b), (c), and (d).</P>
                            <P>(v) The records of each monitoring survey as specified in paragraphs (c)(14)(v)(A) through (I) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Date of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(B) Beginning and end time of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(C) Name of operator(s), training, and experience of the operator(s) performing the survey.</P>
                            <P>(D) Monitoring instrument or method used.</P>
                            <P>(E) Fugitive emissions component identification when Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part is used to perform the monitoring survey.</P>
                            <P>
                                (F) Ambient temperature, sky conditions, and maximum wind speed at the time of the survey. For compressor stations, operating mode of each compressor (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 operating, standby pressurized, and not operating-depressurized modes) at the station at the time of the survey.
                            </P>
                            <P>(G) Any deviations from the monitoring plan or a statement that there were no deviations from the monitoring plan.</P>
                            <P>(H) Records of calibrations for the instrument used during the monitoring survey.</P>
                            <P>
                                (I) Documentation of each fugitive emission detected during the monitoring survey, including the information specified in paragraphs (c)(14)(v)(I)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">9</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Location of each fugitive emission identified.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Type of fugitive emissions component, including designation as difficult-to-monitor or unsafe-to-monitor, if applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) If Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part is used for detection, record the component ID and instrument reading.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) For each repair that cannot be made during the monitoring survey when the fugitive emissions are initially found, a digital photograph or video must be taken of that component or the component must be tagged for identification purposes. The digital photograph must include the date that the photograph was taken and must clearly identify the component by location within the site (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 the latitude and longitude of the component or by other descriptive landmarks visible in the picture). The digital photograph or identification (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 tag) may be removed after the repair is completed, including verification of repair with the resurvey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) The date of first attempt at repair of the fugitive emissions component(s).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) The date of successful repair of the fugitive emissions component, including the resurvey to verify repair and instrument used for the resurvey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">7</E>
                                ) Identification of each fugitive emission component placed on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18111"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">8</E>
                                ) For each fugitive emission component placed on delay of repair for reason of replacement component unavailability, the operator must document: the date the component was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement fugitive component or part thereof was ordered, the anticipated component delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the component.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">9</E>
                                ) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any components that have been placed on delay of repair.
                            </P>
                            <P>(vi) For the fugitive emissions components affected facility complying with an alternative means of emissions limitation under § 60.5399b, you must maintain the records specified by the specific alternative fugitive emissions standard for a period of at least 5 years.</P>
                            <P>(vii) For well closure activities, you must maintain the information specified in paragraphs (c)(14)(vii)(A) through (G) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The well closure plan developed in accordance with § 60.5397b(l) and the date the plan was submitted.</P>
                            <P>(B) The notification of the intent to close the well site and the date the notification was submitted.</P>
                            <P>(C) The date of the cessation of production from all wells at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(D) The date you began well closure activities at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(E) Each status report for the well closure activities reported in paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(A) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(F) Each OGI survey reported in paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(B) of this section including the date, the monitoring instrument used, and the results of the survey or resurvey.</P>
                            <P>(G) The final OGI survey video demonstrating the closure of all wells at the site. The video must include the date that the video was taken and must identify the well site location by latitude and longitude.</P>
                            <P>(viii) If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(14)(iv) and (v) of this section, you must maintain the records specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(15) For each pump affected facility, you must maintain the records identified in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) through (ix) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) Identification of each pump that is driven by natural gas and that is in operation 90 days or more per calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(ii) If you are complying with § 60.5393b(a) or (b)(1) by routing pump vapors to a process through a closed vent system, identification of all the pumps in the pump affected facility for which you collect and route vapors to a process through a closed vent system and the records specified in paragraphs (c)(8), (10), and (12) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If you are complying with § 60.5393b(b)(1) by routing pump vapors to control device achieving a 95.0 percent reduction in methane and VOC emissions, you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(8) and (10) through (13) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398b, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424b.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If you are complying with § 60.5393b(b)(5) by routing pump vapors to control device achieving less than a 95.0 percent reduction in methane and VOC emissions, you must maintain records of the certification that there is a control device on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 percent emissions reduction and a record of the design evaluation or manufacturer's specifications which indicate the percentage reduction the control device is designed to achieve.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you have less than three natural gas-driven diaphragm pumps in the pump affected facility, and you do not have a vapor recovery unit or control device installed on site by the compliance date, you must retain a record of your certification required under § 60.5393b(b)(6), certifying that there is no vapor recovery unit or control device on site. If you subsequently install a control device or vapor recovery unit, you must maintain the records required under paragraph (c)(15)(ii), (iii) or (iv) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If you determine, through an engineering assessment, that it is technically infeasible to route the pump affected facility emissions to a process or control device, you must retain records of your demonstration and certification that it is technically infeasible as required under § 60.5393b(b)(5).</P>
                            <P>(vii) If the pump is routed to a control device that is subsequently removed from the location or is no longer available such that there is no option to route to a control device, you are required to retain records of this change and the records required under paragraph (c)(15)(vi) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Records of each change in compliance method, including identification of each natural gas-driven pump which changes its method of compliance, the new method of compliance, and the date of the change in compliance method.</P>
                            <P>(ix) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Electronic reporting.</E>
                                 If you are required to submit notifications or reports following the procedure specified in this paragraph (d), you must submit notifications or reports to the EPA via CEDRI, which can be accessed through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) (
                                <E T="03">https://cdx.epa.gov/</E>
                                ). The EPA will make all the information submitted through CEDRI available to the public without further notice to you. Do not use CEDRI to submit information you claim as CBI. Although we do not expect persons to assert a claim of CBI, if you wish to assert a CBI claim for some of the information in the report or notification, you must submit a complete file in the format specified in this subpart, including information claimed to be CBI, to the EPA following the procedures in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section. Clearly mark the part or all of the information that you claim to be CBI. Information not marked as CBI may be authorized for public release without prior notice. Information marked as CBI will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR part 2. All CBI claims must be asserted at the time of submission. Anything submitted using CEDRI cannot later be claimed CBI. Furthermore, under CAA section 114(c), emissions data is not entitled to confidential treatment, and the EPA is required to make emissions data available to the public. Thus, emissions data will not be protected as CBI and will be made publicly available. You must submit the same file submitted to the CBI office with the CBI omitted to the EPA via the EPA's CDX as described earlier in this paragraph (d).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) The preferred method to receive CBI is for it to be transmitted electronically using email attachments, File Transfer Protocol, or other online file sharing services. Electronic submissions must be transmitted directly to the OAQPS CBI Office at the email address 
                                <E T="03">oaqpscbi@epa.gov,</E>
                                 and as described above, should include clear CBI markings. ERT files should be flagged to the attention of the Group Leader, Measurement Policy Group; all other files should be flagged to the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18112"/>
                                attention of the Oil and Natural Gas Sector Lead. If assistance is needed with submitting large electronic files that exceed the file size limit for email attachments, and if you do not have your own file sharing service, please email 
                                <E T="03">oaqpscbi@epa.gov</E>
                                 to request a file transfer link.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) If you cannot transmit the file electronically, you may send CBI information through the postal service to the following address: U.S. EPA, Attn: OAQPS Document Control Officer, Mail Drop: C404-02, 109 T.W. Alexander Drive, P.O. Box 12055, RTP, NC 27711. ERT files should be sent to the secondary attention of the Group Leader, Measurement Policy Group, and all other files should be sent to the secondary attention of the Oil and Natural Gas Sector Lead. The mailed CBI material should be double wrapped and clearly marked. Any CBI markings should not show through the outer envelope.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart OOOOc—Emissions Guidelines for Greenhouse Gas Emissions From Existing Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 60.5391c by revising paragraphs (b) through (e) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5391c</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What GHG standards apply to associated gas wells at well designated facilities?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) If you meet one of the conditions in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section, you may route the associated gas to a control device that reduces methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent instead of complying with paragraph (a) of this section. The associated gas must be routed through a closed vent system that meets the requirements of § 60.5411c(a) and (c) and the control device must meet the conditions specified in § 60.5412c(a) through (c).</P>
                            <P>(1) If the annual methane contained in the associated gas from your oil well is 40 tons per year or less at the initial compliance date, determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(2) If you demonstrate and certify that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section due to technical reasons by providing a detailed analysis documenting and certifying the technical reasons for this infeasibility in accordance with paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) In order to demonstrate that it is not feasible to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, you must provide a detailed analysis documenting and certifying the technical reasons for this infeasibility. The demonstration must address the technical infeasibility for all options identified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4). Documentation of these demonstrations must be maintained in accordance with § 60.5420c(c)(2)(iv).</P>
                            <P>(ii) This demonstration must be certified by a professional engineer or another qualified individual with expertise in the uses of associated gas. The following certification, signed and dated by the qualified professional engineer or other qualified individual shall state: “I certify that the assessment of technical and safety infeasibility was prepared under my direction or supervision. I further certify that the assessment was conducted, and this report was prepared pursuant to the requirements of § 60.5391c(b)(2). Based on my professional knowledge and experience, and inquiry of personnel involved in the assessment, the certification submitted herein is true, accurate, and complete.”</P>
                            <P>(iii) This demonstration and certification are valid for no more than 12 months. You must re-analyze the feasibility of complying with paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section and finalize a new demonstration and certification each year.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Documentation of these demonstrations, along with the certifications, must be maintained in accordance with § 60.5420c(c)(2)(iv) and submitted in annual reports in accordance with § 60.5420c(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(c) If you are complying with paragraph (a) of this section, you may temporarily route the associated gas to a flare or control device in the situations and for the durations identified in paragraph (c)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section. The associated gas must be routed through a closed vent system that meets the requirements of § 60.5411c(a) and (c) and the control device must meet the conditions specified in § 60.5412c. If you are routing to a flare, you must demonstrate that the § 60.18 flare requirements are met during the period when the associated gas is routed to the flare. Records must be kept of all temporary flaring instances in accordance with § 60.5420c(c)(2) and reported in the annual report in accordance with § 60.5420c(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(1) During a malfunction or incident that endangers the safety of operator personnel or the public you are allowed to route associated gas to a flare or control device until the malfunction or incident is resolved but not longer than 72 hours per incident. Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed only until the malfunction or incident is resolved. Notwithstanding the previous sentences, if there are exigent circumstances that reasonably require routing to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section apply.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) An “exigent circumstance” for purposes of this paragraph (c)(1) is a situation that results in the inability to reasonably access a site with the necessary equipment and personnel to address and resolve incidents that cause the need to temporarily flare associated gas for more than 72 hours. This includes circumstances where there is a need to flare beyond 72 hours due to an unexpected malfunction event and equipment needed to resolve an incident are not readily available due to an owner's or operator's inability to secure the required equipment for reasons beyond an owner's or operator's control (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 supply chain issues); or there is a temporary shortage of personnel needed to resolve an incident due to a circumstance such as a declared national pandemic that is beyond an owner's or operator's control.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed until the malfunction or incident is resolved, but shall not be longer than 72 hours after the site can be accessed following the passing of the exigent circumstance.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) For instances where you route associated gas to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, you must meet the reporting requirements specified in § 60.5420c(b)(3)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) and must maintain the records specified in § 60.5420c(c)(2)(vi).
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) During repair and maintenance, including blow downs, a production test, or commissioning, you are allowed to route associated gas to a flare or control device until the incident is resolved, but not longer than 72 hours per incident. Temporarily routing associated gas to a flare or control device is allowed only until the incident is resolved. Notwithstanding the previous sentences, if there are exigent circumstances that reasonably require routing to a flare or control device for more than 72 hours, paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) apply.</P>
                            <P>(3) For wells complying with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for the duration of a temporary interruption in service from the gathering or pipeline system, or 30 days, whichever is less.</P>
                            <P>
                                (4) For 72 hours from the time that the associated gas does not meet pipeline specifications, or until the associated 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18113"/>
                                gas meets pipeline specifications, whichever is less.
                            </P>
                            <P>(d) If you are complying with paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, you may vent the associated gas in the situations and for the durations identified in paragraph (d)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. Records must be kept of all venting instances in accordance with § 60.5420c(c)(2) and reported in the annual report in accordance with § 60.5420c(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(1) For up to 12 hours to protect the safety of personnel.</P>
                            <P>(2) For up to 30 minutes during bradenhead monitoring.</P>
                            <P>(3) For up to 30 minutes during a packer leakage test.</P>
                            <P>(e) Calculate the methane content in associated gas as specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and comply with paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(1) Calculate the methane content in associated gas from your oil well using the following equation:</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Equation 1 to Paragraph (e)(1)</HD>
                            <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="20">
                                <GID>ER09AP26.006</GID>
                            </GPH>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Where:</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    AG
                                    <E T="52">methane</E>
                                     = Amount of methane in associated gas from the oil well, tons methane per year.
                                </FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">GOR = Gas to oil ratio for the well in standard cubic feet of gas per barrel of oil; oil here refers to hydrocarbon liquids produced of all API gravities. GOR is to be determined for the well using available data, an appropriate standard method published by a consensus-based standards organization which include, but are not limited to, the following: ASTM International, the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), the American Gas Association (AGA), the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), the American Petroleum Institute (API), and the North American Energy Standards Board (NAESB), or in industry standard practice.</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V = Volume of oil produced in the calendar year preceding the initial compliance date, in barrels per year.</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    M
                                    <E T="52">methane</E>
                                     = mole fraction of methane in the associated gas.0.0192 = density of methane gas at 60 °F and 14.7 psia in kilograms per cubic foot.
                                </FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">907.2 = conversion of kilograms to tons, kilograms per ton.</FP>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>(2) You must maintain records of the calculation of the methane in associated gas from your oil well results in accordance with § 60.5420c(c)(2), and submit the information, as well as the background information, in the next annual report in accordance with § 60.5420c(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(3) If a process change occurs that could increase the methane content in the associated gas, you must recalculate the methane content in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 60.5412c by revising paragraphs (a)(1)(iv), (a)(3), and (d)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5412c </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What additional requirements must I meet for determining initial compliance of my control devices?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(iv) For an enclosed combustion device other than those meeting the operating limits in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v) of this section, you must maintain the net heating value (NHV) of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device at or above the applicable limits specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv)(A) through (C) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) For enclosed combustion devices that do not use assist gas or pressure-assisted burner tips to promote mixing at the burner tip, 200 British thermal units (Btu) per standard cubic foot (Btu/scf).</P>
                            <P>(B) For enclosed combustion devices that use pressure-assisted burner tips to promote mixing at the burner tip, 800 Btu/scf.</P>
                            <P>(C) For steam-assisted and air-assisted enclosed combustion devices, 300 Btu/scf.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(3) Each flare must be designed and operated according to the requirements specified in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (vii) of this section, as applicable. Alternatively, flares must meet the requirements specified in paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) For unassisted flares, you must maintain the NHV of the vent gas sent to the flare at or above 200 Btu/scf.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For flares that use pressure-assisted burner tips to promote mixing at the burner tip, you must maintain the NHV of the vent gas sent to the flare at or above 800 Btu/scf.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For steam-assisted and air-assisted flares, you must maintain the NHV of the vent gas sent to the flare at or above 300 Btu/scf.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For flares other than pressure-assisted flares, you must determine the maximum flow rate of vent gas to the control system based on the design considerations of the designated facilities to demonstrate compliance with the flare tip velocity limits in § 60.18(b) according to § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iv). The maximum flare tip velocity limits do not apply for pressure-assisted flares.</P>
                            <P>(v) You must operate the flare at or above the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The minimum inlet gas flow rate is established based on manufacturer recommendations.</P>
                            <P>(vi) You must operate the flare with no visible emissions, except for periods not to exceed a total of 1 minute during any 15-minute period. You must conduct the compliance determination with the visible emission limits using Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part, or you must monitor the flare according to § 60.5417c(h).</P>
                            <P>(vii) You must install and operate a continuous burning pilot or combustion flame. An alert must be sent to the nearest control room whenever the pilot flame is unlit.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) The alternative method must be capable of demonstrating continuous compliance with a combustion efficiency of 95.0 percent or greater.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Amend § 60.5415c by revising paragraphs (c), (e)(1)(vii), (e)(1)(xi)(A), (f), (h), and (i)(15) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5415c </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How do I demonstrate continuous compliance with the standards for each of my designated facilities?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Centrifugal compressor designated facility.</E>
                                 For each centrifugal compressor designated facility complying with the volumetric flow rate measurements requirements in § 60.5392c(a)(1) and (2), you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraphs (c)(1), (3), and (4) of this section. Alternatively, for each centrifugal compressor designated facility complying with § 60.5392c(a)(3) and either § 60.5392c(a)(4) or (5) by routing emissions to a control device or to a process, you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) You must maintain volumetric flow rate at or below the volumetric flow rates specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section for your centrifugal compressor, as applicable, and you must conduct the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18114"/>
                                required volumetric flow rate measurement of your dry or wet seal in accordance with § 60.5392c(a)(1) and (2) on or before 8,760 hours of operation after your last volumetric flow rate measurement which demonstrates compliance with the applicable volumetric flow rate.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) For your wet seal centrifugal compressors (including self-contained wet seal centrifugal compressors), you must maintain the volumetric flow rate at or below 3 scfm per seal (or in the case of manifolded groups of seals, 3 scfm multiplied by the number of seals).</P>
                            <P>(ii) For your Alaska North Slope centrifugal compressor equipped with sour seal oil separator and capture system, you must maintain the volumetric flow rate at or below 9 scfm per seal (or in the case of manifolded groups of wet seals, 9 scfm multiplied by the number of seals).</P>
                            <P>(iii) For your dry seal compressor, you must maintain the volumetric flow rate at or below 10 scfm per seal (or in the case of manifolded groups of wet seals, 10 scfm multiplied by the number of seals).</P>
                            <P>(2) For each wet seal and dry seal centrifugal compressor designated facility complying by routing emissions to a control device or to a process, you must operate the wet seal emissions collection system and dry seal system to route emissions to a control device or a process through a closed vent system and continuously comply with the closed vent requirements of § 60.5416c. If you comply with § 60.5392c(a)(4) by using a control device, you also must comply with the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(3) You must submit the annual reports as required in § 60.5420c(b)(1), (4) and (10)(i) through (iv), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(4) You must maintain records as required in § 60.5420c(c)(3) and (7) through (9) and (11), as applicable.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(vii) If you use an enclosed combustion device to meet the requirements of § 60.5412c(a)(1) and you demonstrate compliance using the test procedures specified in § 60.5413c(b), or you use a flare designed and operated in accordance with § 60.5412c(a)(3), you must comply with the applicable requirements in paragraphs (e)(1)(vii)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) For each enclosed combustion device which is not a catalytic vapor incinerator and for each flare, you must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1)(vii)(A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(1)</E>
                                 A pilot or combustion flame must be present at all times of operation. An alert must be sent to the nearest control room whenever the pilot or combustion flame is unlit.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Devices must be operated with no visible emissions, except for periods not to exceed a total of 1 minute during any 15-minute period. A visible emissions test conducted according to section 11 of Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part, must be performed at least once every calendar month, separated by at least 15 days between each test. The observation period shall be 15 minutes or once the amount of time visible emissions is present has exceeded 1 minute, whichever time period is less. Alternatively, you may conduct visible emissions monitoring according to § 60.5417c(h).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) Devices failing the visible emissions test must follow manufacturer's repair instructions, if available, or best combustion engineering practice as outlined in the unit inspection and maintenance plan, to return the unit to compliant operation. All repairs and maintenance activities for each unit must be recorded in a maintenance and repair log and must be available for inspection.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) Following return to operation from maintenance or repair activity, each device must pass a Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part visual observation as described in paragraph (e)(1)(vii)(D) of this section or be monitored according to § 60.5417c(h).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) For flares, you must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1)(vii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) For unassisted flares, maintain the NHV of the gas sent to the flare at or above 200 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) If you use a pressure assisted flare, maintain the NHV of gas sent to the flare at or above 800 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) For steam-assisted and air-assisted flares, maintain the NHV of gas sent to the flare at or above 300 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) Unless you use a pressure-assisted flare, maintain the flare tip velocity below the applicable limits in § 60.18(b).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(5</E>
                                ) Maintain the total gas flow to the flare above the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The minimum inlet gas flow rate is established based on manufacturer recommendations.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) For enclosed combustion devices for which, during the performance test conducted under § 60.5413c(b), the combustion zone temperature is not an indicator of destruction efficiency, you must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1)(vii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) of this section, as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Maintain the total gas flow to the enclosed combustion device at or above the minimum inlet gas flow rate and at or below the maximum inlet flow rate for the enclosed combustion device established in accordance with § 60.5417c(f).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) For unassisted enclosed combustion devices, maintain the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device at or above 200 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) For enclosed combustion devices that use pressure-assisted burner tips to promote mixing at the burner tip, maintain the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device at or above 800 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) For steam-assisted and air-assisted enclosed combustion devices, maintain the NHV-of gas sent to the flare at or above 300 Btu/scf.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (D) For enclosed combustion devices for which, during the performance test conducted under § 60.5413c(b), the combustion zone temperature is demonstrated to be an indicator of destruction efficiency, you must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1)(vii)(D)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Maintain the temperature at or above the minimum temperature established during the most recent performance test. The minimum temperature limit established during the most recent performance test is the average temperature recorded during each test run, averaged across the 3 test runs (average of the test run averages).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Maintain the total gas flow to the enclosed combustion device at or above the minimum inlet gas flow rate and at or below the maximum inlet flow rate for the enclosed combustion device established in accordance with § 60.5417c(f).
                            </P>
                            <P>(E) For catalytic vapor incinerators you must operate the catalytic vapor incinerator at or above the minimum temperature of the catalyst bed inlet and at or above the minimum temperature differential between the catalyst bed inlet and the catalyst bed outlet established in accordance with § 60.5417c(f).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(xi) * * *</P>
                            <P>(A) You must maintain the combustion efficiency at or above 95.0 percent.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Reciprocating compressor designated facility.</E>
                                 For each reciprocating compressor designated facility complying with § 60.5393c(a) through (c), you must demonstrate 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18115"/>
                                continuous compliance according to paragraphs (f)(1), (3), (5), and (6) of this section. For each reciprocating compressor designated facility complying with § 60.5393c(d)(1) or (2), you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraphs (f)(2), (5), and (6) of this section. For each reciprocating compressor affected facility complying with § 60.5393c(d)(3), you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraphs (f)(3) through (6) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) You must maintain the volumetric flow rate at or below 2 scfm per cylinder (or at or below the combined volumetric flow rate determined by multiplying the number of cylinders by 2 scfm), and you must conduct the required volumetric flow rate measurement of your reciprocating compressor rod packing vents in accordance with § 60.5393c(b) or (c) on or before 8,760 hours of operation after your last volumetric flow rate measurement which demonstrated compliance with the applicable volumetric flow rate.</P>
                            <P>(2) You must operate the rod packing emissions collection system to route emissions to a control device or to a process through a closed vent system and continuously comply with the cover and closed vent requirements of § 60.5416c. If you comply with § 60.5393c(d) by using a control device, you also must comply with the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(3) You must continuously monitor the number of hours of operation for each reciprocating compressor affected facility since initial startup, since 60 days after the state plan submittal deadline (as specified in § 60.5362c(c)), since the previous flow rate measurement, or since the date of the most recent reciprocating compressor rod packing replacement, whichever date is latest.</P>
                            <P>(4) You must replace the reciprocating compressor rod packing on or before the total number of hours of operation reaches 8,760 hours.</P>
                            <P>(5) You must submit the annual reports as required in § 60.5420c(b)(1) and (5) and (b)(10)(i) through (iv), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(6) You must maintain records as required in § 60.5420c(c)(4), (7) through (9), and (11), as applicable.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Storage vessel designated facility.</E>
                                 For each storage vessel designated facility, you must demonstrate continuous compliance with the requirements of § 60.5396c according to paragraphs (h)(1) through (10) of this section, as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) For each storage vessel designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5396c(a)(2), you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraphs (h)(5) and (9) and (10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(2) For each storage vessel designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5396c(a)(3), you must demonstrate continuous compliance according to paragraph (h)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section, as applicable, and paragraphs (h)(9) and (10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) You must maintain the uncontrolled actual methane emissions from the storage vessel designated facility at less than 14 tpy.</P>
                            <P>(ii) You must comply with paragraph (h)(5) of this section as soon as liquids from the well are routed to the storage vessel designated facility following fracturing or refracturing according to the requirements of § 60.5396c(a)(3)(i).</P>
                            <P>(iii) You must comply with paragraph (h)(5) of this section within 30 days of the monthly determination according to the requirements of § 60.5396c(a)(3)(ii), where the monthly emissions determination indicates that methane emissions from your storage vessel designated facility increase to 14 tpy or greater and the increase is not associated with fracturing or refracturing of a well feeding the storage vessel designated facility.</P>
                            <P>(3) For each storage vessel designated facility or portion of a storage vessel designated facility removed from service, you must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 60.5396c(c)(1) or (2) by complying with paragraphs (h)(6), (7), (9), and (10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(4) For each storage vessel designated facility or portion of a storage vessel designated facility returned to service, you must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 60.5396c(c)(3) and (4) by complying with paragraphs (h)(8) through (10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(5) For each storage vessel designated facility, you must comply with paragraphs (h)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) You must reduce methane emissions as specified in § 60.5396c(a)(2).</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each control device installed to meet the requirements of § 60.5396c(a)(2), you must demonstrate continuous compliance with the performance requirements of § 60.5412c for each storage vessel designated facility using the procedure specified in paragraphs (h)(5)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section. When routing emissions to a process, you must demonstrate continuous compliance as specified in paragraph (h)(5)(ii)(A) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) You must comply with § 60.5416c for each cover and closed vent system.</P>
                            <P>(B) You must comply with the requirements specified in paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(6) You must completely empty and degas each storage vessel, such that each storage vessel no longer contains crude oil, condensate, produced water or intermediate hydrocarbon liquids. For a portion of a storage vessel designated facility to be removed from service, you must completely empty and degas the storage vessel(s), such that the storage vessel(s) no longer contains crude oil, condensate, produced water or intermediate hydrocarbon liquids. A storage vessel where liquid is left on walls, as bottom clingage or in pools due to floor irregularity is considered to be completely empty.</P>
                            <P>(7) You must disconnect the storage vessel(s) from the tank battery by isolating the storage vessel(s) from the tank battery such that the storage vessel(s) is no longer manifolded to the tank battery by liquid or vapor transfer.</P>
                            <P>(8) You must determine the designated facility status of a storage vessel returned to service as provided in § 60.5386c(e)(5).</P>
                            <P>(9) You must submit the annual reports as required by § 60.5420c(b)(1) and (7) and (b)(10)(i) through (iv).</P>
                            <P>(10) You must maintain the records as required by § 60.5420c(c)(6) through (9) and (11), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) * * *</P>
                            <P>(15) You must maintain the records specified by § 60.5420c(c)(7), (9), and (11) as applicable and § 60.5421c.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 60.5417c by revising paragraphs (d)(8), (e), (f)(1)(iv), (g)(1), (6) and (7), and (i)(6)(i) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5417c </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> What are the continuous monitoring requirements for my control devices?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(8) For an enclosed combustion device, other than those listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) and (7) of this section, or for a flare, continuous monitoring systems as specified in paragraphs (d)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section and visible emission observations conducted as specified in paragraph (d)(8)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) Continuously monitor at least once every five minutes for the presence of a pilot flame or combustion flame using a device (including, but not limited to, a thermocouple, ultraviolet beam sensor, or infrared sensor) capable of detecting that the pilot or combustion flame is 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18116"/>
                                present at all times. An alert must be sent to the nearest control room whenever the pilot or combustion flame is unlit. Continuous monitoring systems used for the presence of a pilot flame or combustion flame are not subject to a minimum accuracy requirement beyond being able to detect the presence or absence of a flame and are exempt from the calibration requirements of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) Except as provided in this paragraph (d)(8)(ii) and paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section, use one of the following methods to continuously determine the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare at standard conditions. Except for pressure assisted flares and pressure assisted enclosed combustion devices, if the inlet gas stream to the flare or enclosed combustion device does not include streams from processes or equipment where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams containing water or CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 used for enhanced oil recovery, vent streams from storage vessels with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV, vent streams from gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units, and vent streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU)), the NHV of the inlet stream is considered to be sufficiently above the minimum required NHV for the inlet gas, and you are not required to conduct the continuous monitoring in this paragraph (d)(8)(ii) or the demonstration in paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section, but you must submit the report in § 60.5420c(b)(10)(v)(I) and maintain the record in § 60.5420c(c)(10)(vi) indicating that the flare or enclosed combustion device does not receive inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream.
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) A calorimeter with a minimum accuracy of ±2 percent of span.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) A gas chromatograph that meets the requirements in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must follow the procedure in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B to this part, except that a single daily mid-level calibration check can be used (rather than triplicate analysis), the multi-point calibration can be conducted quarterly (rather than monthly), and the sampling line temperature must be maintained at a minimum temperature of 60 °C (rather than 120 °C). Calibration gas cylinders must be certified to an accuracy of 2 percent and traceable to National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standards.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must meet the accuracy requirements in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B to this part.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) You must use a calibration gas or multiple gases that includes the compounds that are reasonably expected to be present in the flare gas stream. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. You may only use the compounds used to calibrate the gas chromatograph in the calculation of the vent gas NHV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) In lieu of the calibration gas described in paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, you may use a surrogate calibration gas consisting of hydrogen and C1 through C5 normal hydrocarbons. All of the calibration gases may be combined in one cylinder. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. Use the response factor for the nearest normal hydrocarbon (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 n-alkane) in the calibration mixture to quantify unknown components detected in the analysis. Use the response factor for n-pentane to quantify unknown components detected in the analysis that elute after n-pentane.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use any published values for the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere and use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) A mass spectrometer that meets the requirements in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must meet applicable requirements in Performance Specification 9 of appendix B of this part for continuous monitoring system acceptance including, but not limited to, performing an initial multi-point calibration check at three concentrations following the procedure in Section 10.1. A single daily mid-level calibration check can be used (rather than triplicate analysis), the multi-point calibration can be conducted quarterly (rather than monthly), and the sampling line temperature must be maintained at a minimum temperature of 60 °C (rather than 120 °C). Calibration gas cylinders must be certified to an accuracy of 2 percent and traceable to NIST standards.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The average instrument calibration error (CE) for each calibration compound at any calibration concentration must not differ by more than 10 percent from the certified cylinder gas value. The CE for each component in the calibration blend must be calculated using the following equation:
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                                Equation 1 to Paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                )
                            </HD>
                            <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="28">
                                <GID>ER09AP26.007</GID>
                            </GPH>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Where:</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    C
                                    <E T="52">m</E>
                                     = Average instrument response (ppm).
                                </FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                    C
                                    <E T="52">a</E>
                                     = Certified cylinder gas value (ppm).
                                </FP>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) You must use a calibration gas or multiple gases that includes the compounds that are reasonably expected to be present in the flare gas stream. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. You may only use the compounds used to calibrate the mass spectrometer in the calculation of the vent gas NHV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) In lieu of the calibration gas described in paragraph (d)(8)(ii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section, you may use a surrogate calibration gas consisting of hydrogen and C1 through C5 normal hydrocarbons. All of the calibration gases may be combined in one cylinder. If multiple calibration gases are necessary to cover all compounds, you must calibrate the instrument on all of the gases. For unknown gas components that have similar analytical mass fragments to calibration compounds, you may report the unknowns as an increase in the overlapped calibration gas compound. For unknown compounds that produce mass fragments that do not overlap calibration compounds, you may use the response factor for the nearest molecular weight hydrocarbon in the calibration mix to quantify the unknown component. You may use the response factor for n-pentane to quantify any unknown components detected with a higher molecular weight than n-pentane.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) You must perform an initial calibration to identify mass fragment 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18117"/>
                                overlap and response factors for the target compounds.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use any published value for the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) A grab sampling system capable of collecting an evacuated canister sample for subsequent compositional analysis at least once every eight hours. Subsequent compositional analysis of the samples must be performed according to ASTM D1945-14 (R2019) or alternatively GPA 2261-19 (incorporated by reference, see § 60.17). To determine the NHV of the vent gas, determine the product of the volume fraction of the individual component in the vent gas and the net heating value of that individual component. Sum the products for all components in the vent gas to determine the NHV for the vent gas. For the net heating value of each individual component, use the net heating value per mole at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere use 20 °C as the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one mole of vent gas.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) As an alternative to the continuous composition monitoring requirements in paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section, a sampling demonstration may be used as specified in this paragraph. Flares or enclosed combustion devices that are not required to monitor flare gas composition because the inlet gas streams to the flare or enclosed combustion device does not include streams from processes or equipment where inert gas or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream are added (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from acid gas removal (AGR) system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers without water removal, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams containing water or CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                 used for enhanced oil recovery, vent streams from storage vessels with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV, vent streams from gas plants that receive acid gas from sweetening units, and vent streams from nitrogen removal units (NRU)), are not required to conduct sampling demonstrations specified in this paragraph. For flare or enclosed combustion device, if you demonstrate according to the methods described in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section that the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare consistently exceeds the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B) or (C), continuous monitoring of the NHV is not required, but you must conduct the ongoing sampling in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(G) of this section. For an unassisted or pressure-assisted flare or enclosed combustion device, in lieu of conducting the demonstration outlined in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (D) of this section, you may conduct the demonstration outlined in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(H) of this section, but you must still comply with paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(E) through (G) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (A) Continuously monitor the inlet stream which is routed to the flare or enclosed combustor for 14 operating days or collect a sample of the inlet gas which is routed to the enclosed combustion device or flare twice daily to determine the average NHV of the gas stream for 14 operating days with no sampling day to be spaced more than 3 operating days apart from the previous sampling day. If you do not continuously monitor the NHV, the minimum time of collection for each individual sample be at least one hour when technically feasible. When it is not technically feasible to collect individual samples for at least one hour (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 low or intermittent flow), the collection time must be as long as possible up to one hour. For samples taken during low or intermittent flow events, the collection time and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample must be documented and reported with the NHV sampling results. Samples must be separated by at least 6 hours. If inlet gas flow is intermittent such that there are not at least 28 samples over the 14 operating day period, you must continue to collect samples of the inlet gas beyond the 14 operating day period until you collect a minimum of 28 samples.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If you collect samples twice per day, count the number of samples where the NHV value is less than 1.2 times the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B) or (C) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 240, 360, or 960 Btu/scf, as applicable) during the sample collection period in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) If you continuously sample the inlet stream for 14 days, count the number of hourly block average (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 noon to 1 p.m., 1 p.m. to 2 p.m., etc.) NHV values that are less than the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B) or (C), (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 200, 300, or 800 Btu/scf, as applicable), during the sample collection period in paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) If there are no samples counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(B) of this section or there are no hourly values counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(C) of this section, the gas stream is considered to consistently exceed the applicable NHV operating limit and on-going continuous monitoring is not required.</P>
                            <P>(E) If process operations are revised that could reduce the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare, such as the removal or addition of process equipment, and at any time the Administrator requires, re-evaluation of the gas stream must be performed according to paragraphs (d)(8)(iii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days of the revisions to process operations to ensure the gas stream still consistently exceeds the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B) or (C), or this paragraph (d)(8)(iii). If any of the samples counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(B) of this section or any hourly values counted under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(C) of this section are less than the limits in the respective paragraph you must conduct the continuous monitoring required by one of the options specified in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days of the re-evaluation of the gas stream.</P>
                            <P>
                                (F) When collecting samples under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section, the owner or operator must account for any sources of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 vent streams from AGR system amine regenerator still columns, vent streams from glycol dehydrator unit reboilers, vent streams from compressors in acid gas service, vent streams from enhanced oil recovery facilities, or vent streams from storage vessel with high water content where the owner or operator has determined that the vent stream could cause the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare to not meet the minimum NHV) that can be sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare. The owner or operator must document in the report in § 60.5420c(b)(10)(v)(I) and the records in § 60.5420c(c)(10)(vi) must note the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18118"/>
                                introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and whether the sampling included periods where the highest percentage of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream were sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare. If the introduction of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream is intermittent and does not occur during the initial demonstration, the introduction of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream will be considered a revision to process operations that triggers a re-evaluation under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(E) of this section. If conditions at the site did not allow sampling during periods where the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream was at the highest percentage possible, increasing the percentage of inerts will be considered a revision to process operations that triggers a re-evaluation under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(E).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (G) You must collect three samples of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare at least once every 5 years. The minimum time of collection for each individual sample must be at least one hour when technically feasible. When it is not technically feasible to collect individual samples for at least one hour (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 low or intermittent flow), the collection time must be as long as possible up to one hour. For samples taken during low or intermittent flow events, the collection time and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample must be documented and reported with the NHV sampling results. The samples must be taken during the period with the lowest expected NHV (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 the period with the highest percentage of inerts or other vent gas streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream). The first set of periodic samples must be taken, or continuous monitoring commenced, no later than 60 calendar months following the last sample taken under paragraph (d)(8)(iii)(A) of this section. Subsequent periodic samples must be taken, or continuous monitoring commenced, no later than 60 calendar months following the previous sample. If any sample has an NHV value less than 1.2 times the applicable operating limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B) or (C) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 values that are less than 240, 360, or 960 Btu/scf, as applicable), you must conduct the continuous monitoring required by one of the options in paragraphs (d)(8)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section within 60 days or receipt of the last sample.
                            </P>
                            <P>(H) You may request an alternative test method under § 60.5412c(d) to demonstrate that the flare or enclosed combustion device reduces methane and VOC in the gases vented to the device by 95.0 percent by weight or greater. You must measure data values at the frequency specified in the alternative test method and conduct the quality assurance and quality control requirements outlined in the alternative test method at the frequency outlined in the alternative test method. You must monitor the combustion efficiency of the flare continuously for 14 days. If there are no values of the combustion efficiency measured by the alternative test method that are less than 95.0 percent, the gas stream is considered to consistently exceed the applicable NHV operating limit, and you are not required to continuously monitor the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion device.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Except as noted in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(A) through (C) of this section, a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the flow of gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare. You may use direct flow meters or other parameter monitoring systems combined with engineering calculations, such as inlet line pressure, line size, and burner nozzle dimensions, to satisfy this requirement. The monitoring instrument must have an accuracy of ±10 percent or better at the maximum expected flow rate.</P>
                            <P>(A) Pressure-assisted flares and pressure-assisted enclosed combustion devices are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Flares are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the flare and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the flare cannot cause the flare tip velocity to exceed the maximum tip velocity as specified in the applicable provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter. You must use the minimum expected value of the NHV of the inlet gas to the flare or enclosed combustion based on previous sampling results or process knowledge of the streams sent to the enclosed flare of combustion device in your demonstration. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to increase the maximum flow rate to the flare, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the flare is compliant with the applicable maximum flare tip velocity provisions in § 60.18(c) and (f) of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) Enclosed combustion devices are not required to have a continuous parameter monitoring system for measuring the inlet flow of gas to the device if you meet the conditions in paragraphs (d)(8)(iv)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) You must demonstrate, based on the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to the enclosed combustion device and applicable engineering calculations for the manifolded closed vent system, that the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustion device cannot cause the maximum inlet flow rate established in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section to be exceeded. If there are changes to the process or control device that can be reasonably expected to impact the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustion device, you must conduct a new demonstration to determine whether the maximum flow rate to the enclosed combustor is less than the maximum inlet flow rate 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18119"/>
                                established in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) You must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a backpressure regulator valve calibrated to open at the minimum pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate. The set point must be consistent with manufacturer specifications for minimum flow or pressure and must be supported by an engineering evaluation. At least annually, you must confirm that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications and that the valve fully closes when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <P>(v) Conduct inspections monthly and at other times as requested by the Administrator to monitor for visible emissions from the combustion device using section 11 of Method 22 of appendix A to this part or conduct visible emissions monitoring according to paragraph (h) of this section. The observation period shall be 15 minutes or once the amount of time visible emissions is present has exceeded 1 minute. Devices must be operated with no visible emissions, except for periods not to exceed a total of 1 minute during any 15-minute period.</P>
                            <P>(e) Calculate the value of the applicable monitored parameter in accordance with paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(1) You must calculate the daily average value for condenser outlet temperature for each operating day, using the data recorded by the monitoring system. If the emissions unit operation is continuous, the operating day is a 24-hour period. If the emissions unit operation is not continuous, the operating day is the total number of hours of control device operation per 24-hour period. Valid data points must be available for 75 percent of the operating hours in an operating day to compute the daily average.</P>
                            <P>(2) You must use the 5-minute readings from the heat sensing devices to assess the presence of a pilot or combustion flame.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) You must use the regeneration cycle time (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 duration of the carbon bed steaming cycle) for each regenerative-type carbon adsorption system to calculate the average parameter to compare with the maximum steam mass flow or volumetric flow during each carbon bed regeneration cycle and the maximum carbon bed temperature during the steaming cycle. The carbon bed temperature after the regeneration cycle should not be averaged; you must use the carbon bed temperature measured within 15 minutes of completing the cooling cycle to compare with the minimum carbon bed temperature after the regeneration cycle.
                            </P>
                            <P>(4) For all operating parameters others than those described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section, you must calculate the 3-hour rolling average of each monitored parameter. For each operating hour, calculate the hourly value of the operating parameter from your continuous monitoring system. Average the three most recent hours of data to determine the 3-hour average. Determine the 3-hour rolling average by recalculating the 3-hour average each hour.</P>
                            <P>(f) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(iv) If you operate an enclosed combustion device where the combustion zone temperature is not an indicator of destruction efficiency or a control device where the performance test requirement was met under § 60.5413c(d), you must maintain the NHV of the gas sent to the enclosed combustion device above the applicable limits specified in § 60.5412c(a)(1)(iv)(A) through (C).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(g) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) A deviation occurs when the average value of a monitored operating parameter determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section is less than the minimum operating parameter limit (and, if applicable, greater than the maximum operating parameter limit) established in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; for flares, when the average value of a monitored operating parameter determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section is below the applicable limits specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) or above the limit specified in § 60.5415c(e)(1)(vii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ); or for each flare or enclosed combustion device except for boilers and process heaters meeting the requirements in § 60.5412c(a)(1)(iii) and catalytic vapor incinerators meeting the requirements in § 60.5412c(a)(1)(v), when the heat sensing device indicates that there is no pilot or combustion flame present for any time period. If you use a backpressure regulator valve to maintain the inlet gas flow to an enclosed combustion device or flare above the minimum value, a deviation occurs if the annual inspection finds that the backpressure regulator valve set point is not set correctly or indicates that the backpressure regulator valve does not fully close when not in the open position.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(6) For a combustion control device whose model is tested under § 60.5413c(d), a deviation occurs when the conditions of paragraph (g)(4), (5), or (6)(i) through (v) of this section are met.</P>
                            <P>(i) The hourly inlet gas flow rate is less than the minimum inlet gas flow rate or greater than the maximum inlet gas flow rate determined by the manufacturer. If you use a backpressure regulator valve to maintain the inlet gas flow above the minimum value, a deviation occurs if the annual inspection finds that the backpressure regulator valve set point is not set correctly or indicates that the backpressure regulator valve does not fully close when not in the open position.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Results of the monthly visible emissions test conducted under § 60.5413c(e)(3) or monitoring under paragraph (h) of this section indicate visible emissions exceed 1 minute in any 15-minute period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) There is no indication of the presence of a pilot or combustion flame for any 5-minute time period.</P>
                            <P>(iv) The control device is not maintained in a leak free condition.</P>
                            <P>(v) The control device is not operated in accordance with the manufacturer's written operating instructions, procedures and maintenance schedule.</P>
                            <P>(7) For an enclosed combustion device or flare subject to paragraph (d)(8) of this section, a deviation occurs when any of the conditions described by paragraph (g)(1), (4), or (5) of this section are met or when the results of the visible emissions monitoring conducted under paragraph (d)(8)(v) or (h) of this section exceed 1 minute in any 15-minute period.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(i) * * *</P>
                            <P>(6) * * *</P>
                            <P>(i) A deviation occurs if the combustion efficiency is less than 95.0 percent.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="60">
                        <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 60.5420c by revising paragraphs (a)(3),(b), (c), and (d) introductory text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 60.5420c </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> What are my notification, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Notification to Administrator.</E>
                                 An owner or operator who commences well closure activities must submit the following notices to the Administrator according to the schedule in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section. The 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18120"/>
                                notification shall include contact information for the owner or operator; the United States Well Number; the latitude and longitude coordinates for each well at the well site in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983. You must submit notifications in portable document format (PDF) following the procedures specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) You must submit a well closure plan to the Administrator within 30 days of the cessation of production from all wells located at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(ii) You must submit a notification of the intent to close a well site 60 days before you begin well closure activities.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Reporting requirements.</E>
                                 You must submit annual reports containing the information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (13) of this section following the procedure specified in paragraph (b)(14) of this section. You must submit performance test reports as specified in paragraph (b)(11) or (12) of this section, if applicable. The initial annual report is due no later than 90 days after the end of the initial compliance period as determined according to § 60.5410c. Subsequent annual reports are due no later than the same date each year as the initial annual report. If you own or operate more than one designated facility, you may submit one report for multiple designated facilities provided the report contains all of the information required as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (13) of this section. Annual reports may coincide with title V reports as long as all the required elements of the annual report are included. You may arrange with the Administrator a common schedule on which reports required by this part may be submitted as long as the schedule does not extend the reporting period. You must submit the information in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section, as applicable, for your well designated facility which undergoes a change of ownership during the reporting period, regardless of whether reporting under paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section is required for the well designated facility.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The general information specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section is required for all reports.</P>
                            <P>(i) The company name, facility site name associated with the designated facility, U.S. Well ID or U.S. Well ID associated with the designated facility, if applicable, and address of the designated facility. If an address is not available for the site, include a description of the site location and provide the latitude and longitude coordinates of the site in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(ii) An identification of each designated facility being included in the annual report.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Beginning and ending dates of the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iv) A certification by a certifying official of truth, accuracy, and completeness. This certification shall state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete. If your report is submitted via CEDRI, the certifier's electronic signature during the submission process replaces the requirement in this paragraph (b)(1)(iv).</P>
                            <P>(v) Identification of each well designated facility for which ownership changed due to sale or transfer of ownership including the United States Well Number; the latitude and longitude coordinates of the well designated facility in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983; and the information in paragraph (b)(1)(v)(A) or (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) The name and contact information, including the phone number, email address, and mailing address, of the owner or operator to which you sold or transferred ownership of the well designated facility identified in this paragraph (b)(1)(v) .</P>
                            <P>(B) The name and contact information, including the phone number, email address, and mailing address, of the owner or operator from whom you acquired the well designated facility identified in this paragraph (b)(1)(v).</P>
                            <P>(2) For each well designated facility that is subject to § 60.5390c(a)(1) or (2), your annual report is required to include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each well designated facility where all gas well liquids unloading operations comply with § 60.5390c(a)(1), your annual report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each well designated facility (U.S. Well ID or U.S. Well ID associated with the well designated facility) that conducts a gas well liquid unloading operation during the reporting period using a method that does not vent to the atmosphere and the technology or technique used. If more than one non-venting technology or technique is used, you must identify all of the differing non-venting liquids unloading methods used during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) Number of gas well liquids unloading operations conducted during the year where the well designated facility identified in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section had unplanned venting to the atmosphere and best management practices were conducted according to your best management practice plan, as required by § 60.5390c(c). If no venting events occurred, the number would be zero. Other reported information required to be submitted where unplanned venting occurs is specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Log of best management practice plan steps used during the unplanned venting to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The number of liquids unloading events during the year where deviations from your best management practice plan occurred, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, documentation of why best management practice plan steps were not followed, and what steps, in lieu of your best management practice plan steps, were followed to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) The number of liquids unloading events where unplanned emissions are vented to the atmosphere during a gas well liquids unloading operation where you complied with best management practices to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each well designated facility where all gas well liquids unloading operations comply with § 60.5390c(b) and (c) best management practices, your annual report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each well designated facility that conducts a gas well liquids unloading during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(B) Number of liquids unloading events conducted during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(C) Log of best management practice plan steps used during the reporting period to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(D) The number of liquids unloading events during the year that best management practices were conducted according to your best management practice plan.</P>
                            <P>
                                (E) The number of liquids unloading events during the year where deviations from your best management practice 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18121"/>
                                plan occurred, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, documentation of why best management practice plan steps were not followed, and what steps, in lieu of your best management practice plan steps, were followed to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.
                            </P>
                            <P>(3) For each associated gas well at your well designated facility that is subject to § 60.5391c, your annual report is required to include the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (v) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each associated gas well at your well designated facility that complies with § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) your annual report is required to include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each existing associated gas well that complies with § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4).</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) of this section for each incident when the associated gas was temporarily routed to a flare or control device in accordance with § 60.5391c(c).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The reason in § 60.5391c(c)(1), (2), (3), or (4) for each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(2)</E>
                                 The start date and time of each incident of routing associated gas to the flare or control device, along with the total duration in hours of each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(3)</E>
                                 Documentation that all CVS requirements specified in § 60.5411c(a) and (c) and all applicable flare or control device requirements specified in § 60.5412c were met during each period when the associated gas is routed to the flare or control device.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) For each instance where you route associated gas to a flare or control device beyond 72 hours due to “exigent circumstances” according to § 60.5391c(c)(1) or (2), you must include the record information specified in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section in your annual report.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For all instances where you temporarily vent the associated gas in accordance with § 60.5391c(d), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section. This information is required to be reported if you are routinely complying with § 60.5391c(a) or (b) or temporarily complying with § 60.5391c(c). In addition to this information for each incident, you must report the cumulative duration in hours of venting incidents and the cumulative VOC and methane emissions in pounds for all incidents in the calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(A) The reason in § 60.5391c(d)(1), (2), or (3) for each incident.</P>
                            <P>(B) The start date and time of each incident of venting the associated gas, along with the total duration in hours of each incident.</P>
                            <P>(C) The methane emissions in pounds that were emitted during each incident.</P>
                            <P>(D) The total duration of venting for all incidents in the year, along with the cumulative methane emissions in pounds that were emitted.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each associated gas well at your well designated facility that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) by routing your associated gas to a control device that reduces methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent, your annual report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii)(A) through (C), and paragraph (D) or (E) of this section. The information in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section is only required in the initial annual report.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of the associated gas well using the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(10)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(C) Identification of each instance when associated gas was vented and not routed to a control device that reduces methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(D) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) because it has demonstrated that annual methane emissions are 40 tons per year or less, provide records of the calculation of annual methane emissions determined in accordance with § 60.5391c(e)(1).</P>
                            <P>(E) For each associated gas well facility that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) because it has demonstrated that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) due to technical reasons, provide each annual demonstration and certification of the technical reason that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5391c(a)(1) through (4) in accordance with § 60.5391c(b)(2)(i) through (iii).</P>
                            <P>(iv) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each deviation recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(4) For each centrifugal compressor that is a designated facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (ix) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) An identification of each centrifugal compressor.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If complying with § 60.5392c(a)(1) and (2) wet and dry seal centrifugal compressor requirements, the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since 36 months after the state plan submittal deadline (as specified in § 60.5362c(c)), or since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, as applicable, which have elapsed prior to conducting your volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening.</P>
                            <P>(iv) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric emissions measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(v) If required to comply with § 60.5392c(a)(5), the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If complying with § 60.5392c(a)(4) with a control device, identification of the centrifugal compressor with the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(10)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vii) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Number and type of seals on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(ix) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any seals that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(5) For each reciprocating compressor designated facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (vii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) The cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since 36 months after the state plan submittal deadline (as specified in § 60.5362c(c)), since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, or since the previous 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18122"/>
                                reciprocating compressor rod packing replacement, as applicable, which have elapsed prior to conducting your volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening. Alternatively, a statement that emissions from the rod packing are being routed to a process or control device through a closed vent system.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) If applicable, for each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, duration of the deviation in hours and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(iii) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If complying with § 60.5393c(d)(1) or (2), the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) Number and type of rod packing replacements/repairs on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any rod packing replacements/repairs that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(vii) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(6) For each process controller designated facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) through (iii) of this section in your initial annual report and in subsequent annual reports for each process controller designated facility that is constructed, modified, or reconstructed during the reporting period. Each annual report must contain the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(iv) through (x) of this section for each process controller designated facility.</P>
                            <P>(i) An identification of each existing process controller that is driven by natural gas, as required by § 60.5394c(d), that allows traceability to the records required in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each process controller in the designated facility complying with § 60.5394c(a), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5394c(a)(1) by routing the emissions to a process.</P>
                            <P>(B) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5394c(a)(2) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each process controller designated facility located at a site in Alaska that does not have access to electrical power and that complies with § 60.5394c(b), you must report the information specified in paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) For each process controller complying with § 60.5394c(b)(1) process controller bleed rate requirements, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(iii)(A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The identification of process controllers designed and operated to achieve a bleed rate less than or equal to 6 scfh.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Where necessary to meet a functional need, the identification and demonstration of why it is necessary to use a process controller with a natural gas bleed rate greater than 6 scfh.
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) An identification of each intermittent vent process controller complying with the requirements in paragraph § 60.5394c(b)(2).</P>
                            <P>(C) An identification of each process controller complying with the requirements in § 60.5394c(b) by routing emissions to a control device in accordance with § 60.5394c(b)(3).</P>
                            <P>(iv) Identification of each process controller which changes its method of compliance during the reporting period and the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(v) through (ix) of this section for the new method of compliance.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each process controller in the designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5394c(a) by routing the emissions to a process, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each process controller in the designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5394c(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(vi)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416c(b); and</P>
                            <P>(B) Each defect or leak identified during each natural gas-driven-self-contained process controller system inspection, and the date of repair or date of anticipated repair if repair is delayed.</P>
                            <P>(vii) For each process controller in the designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5394c(b)(2), you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(vii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Dates and results of the intermittent vent process controller monitoring required by § 60.5394c(b)(2)(ii).</P>
                            <P>(B) For each instance in which monitoring identifies emissions to the atmosphere from an intermittent vent controller during idle periods, the date of repair or replacement or the date of anticipated repair or replacement if the repair or replacement is delayed, and the date and results of the re-survey after repair or replacement.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For each process controller designated facility complying with § 60.5394c(b)(3) by routing emissions to a control device, you must report the information specified in paragraph (b)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ix) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(x) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(B) and (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(7) For each storage vessel designated facility, the information in paragraphs (b)(7)(i) through (x) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) An identification, including the location, of each existing storage vessel designated facility. The location of the storage vessel designated facility shall be in latitude and longitude coordinates in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Documentation of the methane emission rate determination according to § 60.5386c(e)(1) for each tank battery that became a designated facility during the reporting period or is returned to service during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period and recorded as specified in paragraph (c)(6)(iii) of this section, the date and time the deviation began, duration of the deviation in hours and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18123"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) For each storage vessel designated facility complying with § 60.5396c(a)(2) with a control device, report the identification of the storage vessel designated facility with the control device and the information in paragraph (b)(10)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If required to comply with § 60.5396c(b)(1), the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vii) You must identify each storage vessel designated facility that is removed from service during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5396c(c)(1)(ii), including the date the storage vessel designated facility was removed from service. You must identify each storage vessel that that is removed from service from a storage vessel designated facility during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5396c(c)(2)(iii), including identifying the impacted storage vessel designated facility and the date each storage vessel was removed from service.</P>
                            <P>(viii) You must identify each storage vessel designated facility or portion of a storage vessel designated facility returned to service during the reporting period as specified in § 60.5396c(c)(4), including the date the storage vessel designated facility or portion of a storage vessel designated facility was returned to service.</P>
                            <P>(ix) You must identify each storage vessel designated facility that no longer complies with § 60.5396c(a)(3) and instead complies with § 60.5396c(a)(2). You must identify whether the change in the method of compliance was due to fracturing or refracturing or whether the change was due to an increase in the monthly emissions determination. If the change was due to an increase in the monthly emissions determination, you must provide documentation of the emissions rate. You must identify the date that you complied with § 60.5396c(a)(2) and must submit the information in (b)(7)(iii) through (vii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(x) You must submit a statement that you are complying with § 60.112b(a)(1) or (2), if applicable, in your initial annual report.</P>
                            <P>(8) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility, report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i)(A) Designation of the type of site (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 well site, centralized production facility, or compressor station) at which the fugitive emissions components designated facility is located.
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site or centralized production facility that became a designated facility during the reporting period, you must include the date of the startup of production or the date of the first day of production after modification. For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a compressor station that became a designated facility during the reporting period, you must include the date of startup or the date of modification.</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site, you must specify what type of well site it is (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 single wellhead only well site, small wellsite, multi-wellhead only well site, or a well site with major production and processing equipment).
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site where during the reporting period you complete the removal of all major production and processing equipment such that the well site contains only one or more wellheads, you must include the date of the change to status as a wellhead only well site.</P>
                            <P>(E) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site where you previously reported under paragraph (b)(8)(i)(D) of this section the removal of all major production and processing equipment and during the reporting period major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site, the date that the first piece of major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site.</P>
                            <P>(F) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site where during the reporting period you undertake well closure requirements, the date of the cessation of production from all wells at the well site, the date you began well closure activities at the well site, and the dates of the notifications submitted in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each fugitive emissions monitoring survey performed during the annual reporting period, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(8)(ii)(A) through (G) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Date of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(B) Monitoring instrument or, if the survey was conducted by visual, audible, or olfactory methods, notation that AVO was used.</P>
                            <P>(C) Any deviations from the monitoring plan elements under § 60.5397c(c)(1), (2), (7), and (8) or (d) or a statement that there were no deviations from these elements of the monitoring plan.</P>
                            <P>(D) Number and type of components for which fugitive emissions were detected.</P>
                            <P>(E) Number and type of fugitive emissions components that were not repaired as required in § 60.5397c(h).</P>
                            <P>(F) Number and type of fugitive emission components (including designation as difficult-to-monitor or unsafe-to-monitor, if applicable) on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(G) Date of planned shutdown(s) that occurred during the reporting period if there are any components that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For well closure activities which occurred during the reporting period, the information in paragraphs (b)(8)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) A status report with dates for the well closure activities schedule developed in the well closure plan. If all steps in the well closure plan are completed in the reporting period, the date that all activities are completed.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If an OGI survey is conducted during the reporting period, the information in paragraphs (b)(8)(iii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Date of the OGI survey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Monitoring instrument used.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) A statement that no fugitive emissions were found, or if fugitive emissions were found, a description of the steps taken to eliminate those emissions, the date of the resurvey, the results of the resurvey, and the date of the final resurvey which detected no emissions.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(9) For each pump designated facility, the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(i) through (iv) of this section in your initial annual report. Each annual report must contain the information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(v) through (ix) of this section for each pump designated facility.</P>
                            <P>(i) The identification of each of your pumps that are driven by natural gas, as required by § 60.5395c(a) that allows traceability to the records required by paragraph (c)(14)(i) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) For each pump designated facility for which there is a control device on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18124"/>
                                percent emissions reduction, the certification that there is a control device available on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 percent emissions reduction required under § 60.5395c(b)(5). You must also report the emissions reduction percentage the control device is designed to achieve.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iii) For each pump designated facility for which there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site, the certification required under § 60.5395c(b)(6) that there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each pump designated facility for which it is technically infeasible to route the emissions to a process or control device, the certification of technically infeasibility required under § 60.5395c(b)(7).</P>
                            <P>(v) For any pump designated facility which has previously reported as required under paragraphs (b)(9)(i) through (iv) of this section and for which a change in the reported condition has occurred during the reporting period, provide the identification of the pump designated facility and the date that the pump designated facility meets one of the change conditions described in paragraphs (b)(9)(v)(A) through (C) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) If you install a control device or vapor recovery unit, you must report that a control device or vapor recovery unit has been added to the site and that the pump designated facility now is required to comply with § 60.5395c(b)(1) or (3), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If your pump designated facility previously complied with § 60.5395c(b)(1) or (3), as applicable, by routing emissions to a process or a control device and the process or control device is subsequently removed from the site or is no longer available such that there is no ability to route the emissions to a process or control device at the location, or that it is not technically feasible to capture and route the emissions to another control device or process located on site, report that you are no longer complying with the applicable requirements of § 60.5395c(b)(1) or (3) and submit the information provided in paragraph (b)(9)(v)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) or (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Certification that there is no control device or vapor recovery unit on site.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Certification of the engineering assessment that it is technically infeasible to capture and route the emissions to another control device or process located on site.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) If any pump affected facility or individual natural gas-driven pump changes its method of compliance during the reporting period other than for the reasons specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(v)(A) and (B) of this section, identify the new compliance method for each natural gas-driven pump within the affected facility which changes its method of compliance during the reporting period and provide the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(9)(ii) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section for the new method of compliance.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each pump designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5395c(a) or (b)(2) by routing the emissions to a process, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vii) For each pump designated facility complying with the requirements of § 60.5395c(b)(3) by routing the emissions to a control device, you must report the information required under paragraph (b)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For each deviation that occurred during the reporting period, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and a description of the deviation. If no deviations occurred during the reporting period, you must include a statement that no deviations occurred during the reporting period.</P>
                            <P>(ix) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(10) For each well, centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, storage vessel, process controller, pump, or process unit equipment designated facility which uses a closed vent system routed to a control device to meet the emissions reduction standard, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (v) of this section. For each centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, process controller, pump, storage vessel, or process unit equipment which uses a closed vent system to route to a process, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) through (iv) of this section. For each centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, and storage vessel equipped with a cover, you must submit the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii).</P>
                            <P>(i) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416c(a) and (b).</P>
                            <P>(ii) Each defect or emissions identified during each inspection and the date of repair or the date of anticipated repair if the repair is delayed.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Date and time of each bypass alarm or each instance the key is checked out if you are subject to the bypass requirements of § 60.5416c(a)(4).</P>
                            <P>(iv) You must submit the certification signed by the qualified professional engineer or in-house engineer according to § 60.5411c(c) for each closed vent system routing to a control device or process in the reporting year in which the certification is signed.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you comply with the emissions standard for your well, centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, storage vessel, process controller, pump, or process unit equipment designated facility with a control device, the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(v)(A) through (L) of this section, unless you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412c(d). If you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412c(d), the information in paragraphs (b)(10)(v)(A) through (C) and (L) through (P) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of the control device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Make, model, and date of installation of the control device.</P>
                            <P>(C) Identification of the designated facility controlled by the device.</P>
                            <P>(D) For each continuous parameter monitoring system used to demonstrate compliance for the control device, a unique continuous parameter monitoring system identifier and the make, model number, and date of last calibration check of the continuous parameter monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>
                                (E) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417c(g)(1) through (3) or (5) through (7) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, the type of the deviation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 NHV operating limit, lack of pilot or combustion flame, condenser efficiency, bypass line flow, visible emissions), and cause of the deviation.
                            </P>
                            <P>(F) For each instance where there is a deviation of the continuous parameter monitoring system in accordance with § 60.5417c(g)(4) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>
                                (G) For each visible emissions test following return to operation from a maintenance or repair activity, the date of the visible emissions test or observation of the video surveillance output, the length of the observation in minutes, and the number of minutes for which visible emissions were present.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18125"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(H) If a performance test was conducted on the control device during the reporting period, provide the date the performance test was conducted. Submit the performance test report following the procedures specified in paragraph (b)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(I) An indication of whether the enclosed combustion device or flare receives inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams. If a demonstration of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare was conducted during the reporting period in accordance with § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii), an indication of whether this is a re-evaluation of vent gas NHV and the reason for the re-evaluation; the applicable required minimum vent gas NHV; if twice daily samples of the vent stream were taken, the number of samples with NHV values that are less than 1.2 times the applicable required minimum NHV, an indication of whether full one hour samples were collected or if shorter sampling times and, if shorter sampling times were used, the collection time(s) used and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample; if continuous NHV sampling of the vent stream was conducted, the number of hourly block average NHV values that are less than the required minimum vent gas NHV; if continuous combustion efficiency monitoring was conducted using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412c(d), the number of values of the combustion efficiency that were less than 95.0 percent; the resulting determination of whether continuous NHV monitoring is required or not in accordance with § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(D), (E), or (H); and if the enclosed combustion device or flare received inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, whether the sampling included periods where the highest percentage of inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream were sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare.</P>
                            <P>(J) If a demonstration was conducted in accordance with § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iv) that the maximum potential pressure of units manifolded to an enclosed combustion device or flare cannot cause the maximum inlet flow rate established in accordance with § 60.5417c(f)(1) or a flare tip velocity limit of 18.3 meter/second (60 feet/second) to be exceeded, an indication of whether this is a re-evaluation of the gas flow and the reason for the re-evaluation; the demonstration conducted; and applicable engineering calculations.</P>
                            <P>(K) For each periodic sampling event conducted under § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(G), provide the date of the sampling, the required minimum vent gas NHV, and the NHV value for each vent gas sample.</P>
                            <P>(L) For each flare and enclosed combustion device, provide the date each device is observed with OGI in accordance with § 60.5415c(e)(1)(x) and whether uncombusted emissions were present. Provide the date each device was visibly observed during an AVO inspection in accordance with § 60.5415c(e)(1)(x), whether the pilot or combustion flame was lit at the time of observation, and whether the device was found to be operating properly.</P>
                            <P>(M) An identification of the alternative test method used.</P>
                            <P>
                                (N) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417c(i)(6)(i) or (iii) through (v) include the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, the type of the deviation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 destruction efficiency below 95 percent, lack of pilot or combustion flame, visible emissions), and cause of the deviation.
                            </P>
                            <P>(O) For each instance where there is a deviation of the data availability in accordance with § 60.5417c(i)(6)(ii) include the date of each operating day when monitoring data are not available for at least 75 percent of the operating hours.</P>
                            <P>(P) If no deviations occurred under paragraph (b)(10)(v)(N) or (O) of this section, a statement that there were no deviations for the control device during the annual report period.</P>
                            <P>(Q) Any additional information required to be reported as specified by the Administrator as part of the alternative test method approval under § 60.5412c(d).</P>
                            <P>
                                (11) Within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test (see § 60.8) required by this subpart, except testing conducted by the manufacturer as specified in § 60.5413c(d), you must submit the results of the performance test following the procedures specified in paragraph (d) of this section. Data collected using test methods that are supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT website (
                                <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/electronic-reporting-air-emissions/electronic-reporting-tool-ert</E>
                                ) at the time of the test must be submitted in a file format generated using the EPA's ERT. Alternatively, you may submit an electronic file consistent with the extensible markup language (XML) schema listed on the EPA's ERT website. Data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT website at the time of the test must be included as an attachment in the ERT or alternate electronic file.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (12) For combustion control devices tested by the manufacturer in accordance with § 60.5413c(d), an electronic copy of the performance test results required by § 60.5413c(d) shall be submitted via email to 
                                <E T="03">Oil_and_Gas_PT@EPA.GOV</E>
                                 unless the test results for that model of combustion control device are posted at the following website: 
                                <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/controlling-air-pollution-oil-and-natural-gas-industry.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(13) If you had a super-emitter event during the reporting period, the start date of the super-emitter event, the duration of the super-emitter event in hours, and the designated facility associated with the super-emitter event, if applicable.</P>
                            <P>(14) You must submit your annual report using the appropriate electronic report template on the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) website for this subpart and following the procedure specified in paragraph (d) of this section. If the reporting form specific to this subpart is not available on the CEDRI website at the time that the report is due, you must submit the report to the Administrator at the appropriate address listed in § 60.4. Once the form has been available on the CEDRI website for at least 90 calendar days, you must begin submitting all subsequent reports via CEDRI. The date reporting forms become available will be listed on the CEDRI website. Unless the Administrator or delegated state agency or other authority has approved a different schedule for submission of reports, the report must be submitted by the deadline specified in this subpart, regardless of the method in which the report is submitted.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Recordkeeping requirements.</E>
                                 You must maintain the records identified as specified in § 60.7(f) and in paragraphs (c)(1) through (14) of this section. All records required by this subpart must be maintained either onsite or at the nearest local field office for at least 5 years. Any records required to be maintained by this subpart that are submitted electronically via the EPA's CEDRI may be maintained in electronic format. This ability to maintain electronic copies does not affect the requirement for facilities to make records, data, and reports available upon request to a delegated air agency 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18126"/>
                                or the EPA as part of an on-site compliance evaluation.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) For each gas well liquids unloading operation at your well designated facility that is subject to § 60.5390c(a)(1) or (2), the records of each gas well liquids unloading operation conducted during the reporting period, including the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each gas well liquids unloading operation that complies with § 60.5390c(a)(1) by performing all liquids unloading events without venting of methane emissions to the atmosphere, comply with the recordkeeping requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) Identification of each well (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 U.S. Well ID or U.S. Well ID associated with the well designated facility) that conducts a gas well liquids unloading operation during the reporting period without venting of methane emissions and the non-venting gas well liquids unloading method used. If more than one non-venting method is used, you must maintain records of all the differing non-venting liquids unloading methods used at the well designated facility complying with § 60.5390c(a)(1).
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) Number of events where unplanned emissions are vented to the atmosphere during a gas well liquids unloading operation where you complied with best management practices to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each gas well liquids unloading operation that complies with § 60.5390c(b) and (c) best management practices, maintain records documenting information specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each well designated facility that conducts liquids unloading during the reporting period that employs best management practices to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(B) Documentation of your best management practice plan developed under paragraph § 60.5390c(c). You may update your best management practice plan to include additional steps which meet the criteria in § 60.5390c(c).</P>
                            <P>(C) A log of each best management practice plan step taken to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible for each gas well liquids unloading event.</P>
                            <P>(D) Documentation of each gas well liquids unloading event where deviations from your best management practice plan steps occurred, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, documentation of best management practice plans steps were not followed, and the steps taken in lieu of your best management practice plan steps during those events to minimize emissions to the maximum extent possible.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each well designated facility that reduces methane emissions from well designated facility gas wells that unload liquids by 95.0 percent by routing emissions to a control device through closed vent system under § 60.5390c(g), you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) If you comply with the emission reduction standard with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified paragraph in (c)(7) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of the cover inspections as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(2) For each associated gas well, you must maintain the applicable records specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) and (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Documentation of the specific method(s) in § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) that was used.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) For instances where you temporarily route the associated gas to a flare or control device in accordance with § 60.5391c(c), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The reason in § 60.5391c(c)(1), (2), (3), or (4) for each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(2)</E>
                                 The date of each incident, along with the times when routing the associated gas to the flare or control device started and ended, along with the total duration of each incident.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">(3)</E>
                                 Documentation that all CVS requirements specified in § 60.5411c(a) and (c) and all applicable flare or control device requirements specified in § 60.5412c are met during each period when the associated gas is routed to the flare or control device.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For instances where you temporarily vent the associated gas in accordance with § 60.5391c(d), you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section. These records are required if you are routinely complying with § 60.5391c(a) or § 60.5391c(b) or temporarily complying with § 60.5391c(c).</P>
                            <P>(A) The reason in § 60.5391c(d)(1), (2), or (3) for each incident.</P>
                            <P>(B) The date of each incident, along with the times when venting the associated gas started and ended, along with the total duration of each incident.</P>
                            <P>(C) The methane emissions that were emitted during each incident.</P>
                            <P>(D) The cumulative duration of venting incidents and methane emissions for all incidents in each calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) because it has demonstrated that annual methane emissions are 40 tons per year or less at the initial compliance date, maintain records of the calculation of annual methane emissions determined in accordance with § 60.5391c(e)(1).</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each associated gas well at your well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) because it has demonstrated that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5391c(a)(1), (2), (3), or (4) due to technical reasons, records of each annual demonstration and certification of the technical reason that it is not feasible to comply with § 60.5391c(a)(1) through (4) in accordance with § 60.5391c(b)(2)(i) through (iii), as well as the records required by paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each associated gas well that complies with the requirements of § 60.5391c(b) by routing your associated gas to a flare or control device that achieves a 95.0 reduction in methane emissions, the records in paragraphs (c)(2)(v)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Identification of each instance when associated gas was vented and not routed to a control device that reduces methane emissions by at least 95.0 percent in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) If you comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5391c with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(7) of this section, you must maintain records of the information specified in § 60.5424c.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18127"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(vi) For each instance where you route associated gas to a flare or control device for beyond 72 hours due to an “exigent circumstance” according to § 60.5391c(c)(1) or (2), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(vi)(A) through (D) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) A written description of the “exigent circumstance” requiring the need to flare or route to a control device beyond 72 hours.</P>
                            <P>(B) A description of steps taken to resolve the need for temporary flaring/routing to a control device;</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) The dates and times an identified “exigent circumstance” started and ended (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 when owners or operators are able to access site, when personnel and/or equipment are available) and the total duration of each “exigent circumstance”; and
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) The dates and times temporary flaring/routing to a control device started and ended and the total duration of temporary flaring/routing to a control device due to the identified “exigent circumstance.”</P>
                            <P>(vii) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(3) For each centrifugal compressor designated facility, you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each centrifugal compressor designated facility, you must maintain records of deviations in cases where the centrifugal compressor was not operated in compliance with the requirements specified in § 60.5392c, including a description of each deviation, the date and time each deviation began and the duration of each deviation.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each wet seal compressor complying with the emissions reduction standard in § 60.5392c(a)(3) and (4), you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section. For each wet seal compressor complying with the alternative standard in § 60.5392c(a)(3) and (5) by routing the closed vent system to a process, you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii)(B) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) If you comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5392c(a)(3) and (4) with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(7) of this section, you must maintain records of the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of the cover inspections as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must maintain the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each centrifugal compressor designated facility using dry seals or wet seals and each self-contained wet seal centrifugal compressor and complying with the standard in § 60.5392c(a)(1) and (2), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(A) through (H) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Records of the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since 36 months after the state plan submittal deadline (as specified in § 60.5362c(c)), or since the previous volumetric flow rate measurement, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(B) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (C) Records for all flow meters, composition analyzers and pressure gauges used to measure volumetric flow rates as specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(C)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Description of standard method published by a consensus-based standards organization or industry standard practice.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Records of volumetric flow rate emissions calculations conducted according to § 60.5392c(a)(2), as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) Records of manufacturer operating procedures and measurement methods.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) Records of manufacturer's recommended procedures or an appropriate industry consensus standard method for calibration and results of calibration, recalibration and accuracy checks.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) Records which demonstrate that measurements at the remote location(s) can, when appropriate correction factors are applied, reliably and accurately represent the actual temperature or total pressure at the flow meter under all expected ambient conditions. You must include the date of the demonstration, the data from the demonstration, the mathematical correlation(s) between the remote readings and actual flow meter conditions derived from the data, and any supporting engineering calculations. If adjustments were made to the mathematical relationships, a record and description of such adjustments.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) Record of each initial calibration or a recalibration which failed to meet the required accuracy specification and the date of the successful recalibration.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) Date when performance-based volumetric flow rate is exceeded.</P>
                            <P>(E) The date of successful repair of the compressor seal, including follow-up performance-based volumetric flow rate measurement to confirm successful repair.</P>
                            <P>(F) Identification of each compressor seal placed on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(G) For each compressor seal or part needed for repair placed on delay of repair because of replacement seal or part unavailability, the operator must document: the date the seal or part was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement seal or part was ordered, the anticipated seal or part delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the seal or part.</P>
                            <P>(H) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any seals or parts that have been placed on delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(4) For each reciprocating compressor designated facility, you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (x) and (c)(7) through (12) of this section, as applicable. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(i) For each reciprocating compressor designated facility, you must maintain records of deviations in cases where the reciprocating compressor was not operated in compliance with the requirements specified in § 60.5393c, including a description of each deviation, the date and time each deviation began and the duration of each deviation in hours.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Records of the date of installation of a rod packing emissions collection system and closed vent system as specified in § 60.5393c(d), where applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) Records of the cumulative number of hours of operation since initial startup, since 36 months after the state plan submittal deadline (as specified in § 60.5362c(c)), or since the 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18128"/>
                                previous volumetric flow rate measurement, as applicable. Alternatively, a record that emissions from the rod packing are being routed to a process through a closed vent system.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) A description of the method used and the results of the volumetric flow rate measurement or emissions screening, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(v) Records for all flow meters, composition analyzers and pressure gauges used to measure volumetric flow rates as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(v)(A) through (F) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Description of standard method published by a consensus-based standards organization or industry standard practice.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of volumetric flow rate calculations conducted according to § 60.5393c(b) or (c), as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of manufacturer's operating procedures and measurement methods.</P>
                            <P>(D) Records of manufacturer's recommended procedures or an appropriate industry consensus standard method for calibration and results of calibration, recalibration and accuracy checks.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records which demonstrate that measurements at the remote location(s) can, when appropriate correction factors are applied, reliably and accurately represent the actual temperature or total pressure at the flow meter under all expected ambient conditions. You must include the date of the demonstration, the data from the demonstration, the mathematical correlation(s) between the remote readings and actual flow meter conditions derived from the data, and any supporting engineering calculations. If adjustments were made to the mathematical relationships, a record and description of such adjustments.</P>
                            <P>(F) Record of each initial calibration or a recalibration which failed to meet the required accuracy specification and the date of the successful recalibration.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Date when performance-based volumetric flow rate is exceeded.</P>
                            <P>(vii) The date of successful replacement or repair of reciprocating compressor rod packing, including follow-up performance-based volumetric flow rate measurement to confirm successful repair.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Identification of each reciprocating compressor placed on delay of repair because of rod packing or part unavailability and explanation for each delay of repair.</P>
                            <P>(ix) For each reciprocating compressor that is placed on delay of repair because of replacement rod packing or part unavailability, the operator must document: the date the rod packing or part was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement rod packing or part was ordered, the anticipated rod packing or part delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the rod packing or part.</P>
                            <P>(x) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any reciprocating compressors that have been placed on delay of repair due to the unavailability of rod packing or parts to conduct repairs.</P>
                            <P>(5) For each process controller designated facility, you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (vii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) Records identifying each process controller that is driven by natural gas and that does not function as an emergency shutdown device.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For each process controller designated facility complying with § 60.5394c(a), you must maintain records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (A) If you are complying with § 60.5394c(a) by routing process controller vapors to a process through a closed vent system, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii)(A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) and (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) An identification of all the natural gas-driven process controllers in the process controller designated facility for which you collect and route vapors to a process through a closed vent system.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The records specified in paragraphs (c)(7), (9), and (11) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (B) If you are complying with § 60.5394c(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller, you must report the information specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii)(B)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) An identification of each process controller complying with § 60.5394c(a) by using a self-contained natural gas-driven process controller;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Dates of each inspection required under § 60.5416c(b); and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) Each defect or leak identified during each natural gas-driven-self-contained process controller system inspection, and date of repair or date of anticipated repair if repair is delayed.
                            </P>
                            <P>(iii) For each process controller designated facility complying with § 60.5394c(b)(1) process controller bleed rate requirements, you must maintain records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The identification of process controllers designed and operated to achieve a bleed rate less than or equal to 6 scfh and records of the manufacturer's specifications indicating that the process controller is designed with a natural gas bleed rate of less than or equal to 6 scfh.</P>
                            <P>(B) Where necessary to meet a functional need, the identification of the process controller and demonstration of why it is necessary to use a process controller with a natural gas bleed rate greater than 6 scfh.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For each intermittent vent process controller in the designated facility complying with the requirements in § 60.5394c(b)(2), you must keep records of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(iv)(A) through (C) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The identification of each intermittent vent process controller.</P>
                            <P>(B) Dates and results of the intermittent vent process controller monitoring required by § 60.5394c(b)(2)(ii).</P>
                            <P>(C) For each instance in which monitoring identifies emissions to the atmosphere from an intermittent vent controller during idle periods, the date of repair or replacement, or the date of anticipated repair or replacement if the repair or replacement is delayed and the date and results of the re-survey after repair or replacement.</P>
                            <P>(v) For each process controller designated facility complying with § 60.5394c(b)(3), you must maintain the records specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(v)(A) and (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of each process controller for which emissions are routed to a control device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records specified in paragraphs (c)(7) and (9) through (12) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(7) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Records of each change in compliance method, including identification of each natural gas-driven process controller which changes its method of compliance, the new method of compliance, and the date of the change in compliance method.</P>
                            <P>(vii) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>
                                (6) For each storage vessel designated facility, you must maintain the records identified in paragraphs (c)(6)(i) through (vii) of this section.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18129"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) You must maintain records of the identification and location in latitude and longitude coordinates in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983 of each storage vessel designated facility.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Records of each methane emissions determination for each storage vessel designated facility made under § 60.5386c(e) including identification of the model or calculation methodology used to calculate the methane emission rate.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each instance where the storage vessel was not operated in compliance with the requirements specified in § 60.5396c, a description of the deviation, the date and time each deviation began, and the duration of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If complying with the emissions reduction standard in § 60.5396c(a)(1), you must maintain the records in paragraphs (c)(6)(iv)(A) through (E) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) If you comply with the emission reduction standard with a control device, the information for each control device in paragraph (c)(10) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of the closed vent system inspection as specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(C) Records of the cover inspections as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(D) If applicable, the records of bypass monitoring as specified in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the closed vent system assessment as specified in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(v) For storage vessels that are skid-mounted or permanently attached to something that is mobile (such as trucks, railcars, barges, or ships), records indicating the number of consecutive days that the vessel is located at a site in the crude oil and natural gas source category. If a storage vessel is removed from a site and, within 30 days, is either returned to the site or replaced by another storage vessel at the site to serve the same or similar function, then the entire period since the original storage vessel was first located at the site, including the days when the storage vessel was removed, will be added to the count towards the number of consecutive days.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Records of the date that each storage vessel designated facility or portion of a storage vessel designated facility is removed from service and returned to service, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(vii) Records of the date that liquids from the well following fracturing or refracturing are routed to the storage vessel designated facility; or the date that you comply with paragraph § 60.5396c(a)(2), following a monthly emissions determination which indicates that methane emissions increase to 14 tpy or greater and the increase is not associated with fracturing or refracturing of a well feeding the storage vessel designated facility, and records of the methane emissions rate and the model or calculation methodology used to calculate the methane emission rate.</P>
                            <P>(7) Records of each closed vent system inspection required under § 60.5416c(a)(1) and (2) and (b) for your well, centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, process controller, pump, storage vessel, and process unit equipment designated facility as required in paragraphs (c)(7)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) A record of each closed vent system inspection or no identifiable emissions monitoring survey. You must include an identification number for each closed vent system (or other unique identification description selected by you), the date of the inspection, and the method used to conduct the inspection (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 visual, AVO, OGI, Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part).
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For each defect or emissions detected during inspections required by § 60.5416c(a)(1) and (2), or (b) you must record the location of the defect or emissions; a description of the defect; the maximum concentration reading obtained if using Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part; the indication of emissions detected by AVO if using AVO; the date of detection; the date of each attempt to repair the emissions or defect; the corrective action taken during each attempt to repair the defect; and the date the repair to correct the defect or emissions is completed.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If repair of the defect is delayed as described in § 60.5416c(b)(6), you must record the reason for the delay and the date you expect to complete the repair.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Parts of the closed vent system designated as unsafe to inspect as described in § 60.5416c(b)(7) or difficult to inspect as described in § 60.5416c(b)(8), the reason for the designation, and written plan for inspection of that part of the closed vent system.</P>
                            <P>(8) A record of each cover inspection required under § 60.5416c(a)(3) for your centrifugal compressor, reciprocating compressor, or storage vessel as required in paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) A record of each cover inspection. You must include an identification number for each cover (or other unique identification description selected by you), the date of the inspection, and the method used to conduct the inspection (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 AVO, OGI, Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part).
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) For each defect detected during the inspection you must record the location of the defect; a description of the defect; the date of detection; the maximum concentration reading obtained if using Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part; the indication of emissions detected by AVO if using AVO; the date of each attempt to repair the defect; the corrective action taken during each attempt to repair the defect; and the date the repair to correct the defect is completed.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If repair of the defect is delayed as described in § 60.5416c(b)(5), you must record the reason for the delay and the date you expect to complete the repair.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Parts of the cover designated as unsafe to inspect as described in § 60.5416c(b)(7) or difficult to inspect as described in § 60.5416c(b)(8), the reason for the designation, and written plan for inspection of that part of the cover.</P>
                            <P>(9) For each bypass subject to the bypass requirements of § 60.5416c(a)(4), you must maintain a record of the following, as applicable: readings from the flow indicator; each inspection of the seal or closure mechanism; the date and time of each instance the key is checked out; date and time of each instance the alarm is sounded.</P>
                            <P>
                                (10) Records for each control device used to comply with the emission reduction standard in § 60.5391c(b) for associated gas wells, § 60.5392c(a)(4) for centrifugal compressor designated facilities, § 60.5393c(d)(2) for reciprocating compressor designated facilities, § 60.5394c(b)(3) for your process controller designated facility in Alaska, § 60.5395c(b)(3) for your pump designated facility, § 60.5396c(a)(2) for your storage vessel designated facility, § 60.5390c(g) for well designated facility gas well liquids unloading, or § 60.5400c(f) or 60.5401c(e) for your process equipment designated facility, as required in paragraphs (c)(10)(i) through (viii) of this section. If you use 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18130"/>
                                an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412c(d), keep records of the information in paragraph (c)(10)(ix) of this section, in lieu of the records required by paragraphs (c)(10)(i) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) For a control device tested under § 60.5413c(d) which meets the criteria in § 60.5413c(d)(11) and (e), keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(10)(i)(A) through (E) of this section, in addition to the records in paragraphs (c)(10)(ii) through (ix) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Serial number of purchased device and copy of purchase order.</P>
                            <P>(B) Location of the designated facility associated with the control device in latitude and longitude coordinates in decimal degrees to an accuracy and precision of five (5) decimals of a degree using the North American Datum of 1983.</P>
                            <P>(C) Minimum and maximum inlet gas flow rate specified by the manufacturer.</P>
                            <P>(D) Records of the maintenance and repair log as specified in § 60.5413c(e)(4), for all inspection, repair, and maintenance activities for each control device failing the visible emissions test.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of the manufacturer's written operating instructions, procedures, and maintenance schedule to ensure good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions.</P>
                            <P>(ii) For all control devices, keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(10)(ii)(A) through (G) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(A) Make, model, and date of installation of the control device, and identification of the designated facility controlled by the device.</P>
                            <P>(B) Records of deviations in accordance with § 60.5417c(g)(1) through (7), including a description of the deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and the cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(C) The monitoring plan required by § 60.5417c(c)(2).</P>
                            <P>(D) Make and model number of each continuous parameter monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>(E) Records of minimum and maximum operating parameter values, continuous parameter monitoring system data (including records that the pilot or combustion flame is present at all times), calculated averages of continuous parameter monitoring system data, and results of all compliance calculations.</P>
                            <P>(F) Records of continuous parameter monitoring system equipment performance checks, system accuracy audits, performance evaluations, or other audit procedures and results of all inspections specified in the monitoring plan in accordance with § 60.5417c(c)(2). Records of calibration gas cylinders, if applicable.</P>
                            <P>(G) Periods of monitoring system malfunctions, repairs associated with monitoring system malfunctions and required monitoring system quality assurance or quality control activities. Records of repairs on the monitoring system.</P>
                            <P>(iii) For each carbon adsorption system, records of the schedule for carbon replacement as determined by the design analysis requirements of § 60.5413c(c)(2) and (3) and records of each carbon replacement as specified in §§ 60.5412c(c)(1) and 60.5415c(e)(1)(viii).</P>
                            <P>(iv) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, records of visible emissions observations as specified in paragraph (c)(10)(iv)(A) or (B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Records of observations with Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part, including observations required following return to operation from a maintenance or repair activity, which include: company, location, company representative (name of the person performing the observation), sky conditions, process unit (type of control device), clock start time, observation period duration (in minutes and seconds), accumulated emission time (in minutes and seconds), and clock end time. You may create your own form including the above information or use Figure 22-1 in Method 22 of appendix A-7 to this part.</P>
                            <P>(B) If you monitor visible emissions with a video surveillance camera, location of the camera and distance to emission source, records of the video surveillance output, and documentation that an operator looked at the feed daily, including the date and start time of observation, the length of observation, and length of time visible emissions were present.</P>
                            <P>(v) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, video of the OGI inspection conducted in accordance with § 60.5415c(e)(1)(x). Records documenting each enclosed combustion device and flare was visibly observed during each inspection conducted under § 60.5397c using AVO in accordance with § 60.5415c(e)(1)(x).</P>
                            <P>(vi) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, an indication of whether the enclosed combustion device or flare receives inert gases or other vent streams which may lower the NHV of the combined stream, and if so, a description of the operating scenario(s) which may lower the NHV of the combined stream through the introduction of inert gases or other vent gas streams. Records of each demonstration of the NHV of the inlet gas to the enclosed combustion device or flare conducted in accordance with § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii), including the sampling approach used (continuous NHV, twice daily sampling, alternative method), the date, time and results of each analysis, and, if shorter sampling times were used with twice daily sampling, the collection time(s) used and the reason for not obtaining a full one hour sample. For each re-evaluation of the NHV of the inlet gas, records of process changes and explanation of the conditions that led to the need to re-evaluation the NHV of the inlet gas. For each demonstration where the enclosed combustion device or flare received inert gases, record the highest percentage of inert gases that can be sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare and the highest percent of inert gases sent to the enclosed combustion device or flare during the NHV demonstration. Records of periodic sampling conducted under § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iii)(G).</P>
                            <P>(vii) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, if you use a backpressure regulator valve, the make and model of the valve, date of installation, and record of inlet flow rating. Maintain records of the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications that identify the pressure set point corresponding to the minimum inlet gas flow rate, the annual confirmation that the backpressure regulator valve set point is correct and consistent with the engineering evaluation and manufacturer specifications, and the annual confirmation that the backpressure regulator valve fully closes when not in open position.</P>
                            <P>(viii) For enclosed combustion devices and flares, records of each demonstration required under § 60.5417c(d)(8)(iv).</P>
                            <P>(ix) If you use an enclosed combustion device or flare using an alternative test method approved under § 60.5412c(d), keep records of the information in paragraphs (c)(10)(ix)(A) through (H) of this section, in lieu of the records required by paragraphs (c)(10)(i) through (iv) and (vi) through (viii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) An identification of the alternative test method used.</P>
                            <P>(B) Data recorded at the intervals required by the alternative test method.</P>
                            <P>(C) Monitoring plan required by § 60.5417c(i)(2).</P>
                            <P>
                                (D) Quality assurance and quality control activities conducted in 
                                <PRTPAGE P="18131"/>
                                accordance with the alternative test method.
                            </P>
                            <P>(E) If required by § 60.5412c(d)(4) to conduct visible emissions observations, records required by paragraph (c)(10)(iv) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(F) If required by § 60.5412c(d)(5) to conduct pilot or combustion flame monitoring, record indicating the presence of a pilot or combustion flame and periods when the pilot or combustion flame is absent.</P>
                            <P>(G) For each instance where there is a deviation of the control device in accordance with § 60.5417c(i)(6)(i) through (v), the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation in hours, and cause of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>(H) Any additional information required to be recorded as specified by the Administrator as part of the alternative test method approval under § 60.5412c(d).</P>
                            <P>(11) For each closed vent system routing to a control device or process, the records of the assessment conducted according to § 60.5411c(c):</P>
                            <P>(i) A copy of the assessment conducted according to § 60.5411c(c)(1); and</P>
                            <P>(ii) A copy of the certification according to § 60.5411c(c)(1)(i) and (ii).</P>
                            <P>(12) A copy of each performance test submitted under paragraph (b)(11) or (12) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(13) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility, maintain the records identified in paragraphs (c)(13)(i) through (vii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The date of the startup of production or the date of the first day of production after modification for the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site and the date of startup or the date of modification for the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a compressor station.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site, you must maintain records specifying what type of well site it is (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 single wellhead only well site, small wellsite, multi-wellhead only well site, or a well site with major production and processing equipment).
                            </P>
                            <P>(iii) For the fugitive emissions components designated facility at a well site where you complete the removal of all major production and processing equipment such that the well site contains only one or more wellheads, record the date the well site completes the removal of all major production and processing equipment from the well site, and, if the well site is still producing, record the well ID or separate tank battery ID receiving the production from the well site. If major production and processing equipment is subsequently added back to the well site, record the date that the first piece of major production and processing equipment is added back to the well site.</P>
                            <P>(iv) The fugitive emissions monitoring plan as required in § 60.5397c(b) through (d).</P>
                            <P>(v) The records of each monitoring survey as specified in paragraphs (c)(13)(v)(A) through (I) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) Date of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(B) Beginning and end time of the survey.</P>
                            <P>(C) Name of operator(s), training, and experience of the operator(s) performing the survey.</P>
                            <P>(D) Monitoring instrument or method used.</P>
                            <P>(E) Fugitive emissions component identification when Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part is used to perform the monitoring survey.</P>
                            <P>
                                (F) Ambient temperature, sky conditions, and maximum wind speed at the time of the survey. For compressor stations, operating mode of each compressor (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 operating, standby pressurized, and not operating-depressurized modes) at the station at the time of the survey.
                            </P>
                            <P>(G) Any deviations from the monitoring plan or a statement that there were no deviations from the monitoring plan.</P>
                            <P>(H) Records of calibrations for the instrument used during the monitoring survey.</P>
                            <P>
                                (I) Documentation of each fugitive emission detected during the monitoring survey, including the information specified in paragraphs (c)(13)(v)(I)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) through (
                                <E T="03">9</E>
                                ) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Location of each fugitive emission identified.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) Type of fugitive emissions component, including designation as difficult-to-monitor or unsafe-to-monitor, if applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) If Method 21 of appendix A-7 to this part is used for detection, record the component ID and instrument reading.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">4</E>
                                ) For each repair that cannot be made during the monitoring survey when the fugitive emissions are initially found, a digital photograph or video must be taken of that component or the component must be tagged for identification purposes. The digital photograph must include the date that the photograph was taken and must clearly identify the component by location within the site (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 the latitude and longitude of the component or by other descriptive landmarks visible in the picture). The digital photograph or identification (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 tag) may be removed after the repair is completed, including verification of repair with the resurvey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">5</E>
                                ) The date of first attempt at repair of the fugitive emissions component(s).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">6</E>
                                ) The date of successful repair of the fugitive emissions component, including the resurvey to verify repair and instrument used for the resurvey.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">7</E>
                                ) Identification of each fugitive emission component placed on delay of repair and explanation for each delay of repair.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">8</E>
                                ) For each fugitive emission component placed on delay of repair for reason of replacement component unavailability, the operator must document: the date the component was added to the delay of repair list, the date the replacement fugitive component or part thereof was ordered, the anticipated component delivery date (including any estimated shipment or delivery date provided by the vendor), and the actual arrival date of the component.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">9</E>
                                ) Date of planned shutdowns that occur while there are any components that have been placed on delay of repair.
                            </P>
                            <P>(vi) For well closure activities, you must maintain the information specified in paragraphs (c)(13)(vi)(A) through (G) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(A) The well closure plan developed in accordance with § 60.5397c(l) and the date the plan was submitted.</P>
                            <P>(B) The notification of the intent to close the well site and the date the notification was submitted.</P>
                            <P>(C) The date of the cessation of production from all wells at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(D) The date you began well closure activities at the well site.</P>
                            <P>(E) Each status report for the well closure activities reported in paragraph (b)(8)(iv)(A) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(F) Each OGI survey reported in paragraph (b)(8)(iv)(B) of this section including the date, the monitoring instrument used, and the results of the survey or resurvey.</P>
                            <P>(G) The final OGI survey video demonstrating the closure of all wells at the site. The video must include the date that the video was taken and must identify the well site location by latitude and longitude.</P>
                            <P>(vii) If you comply with an alternative GHG standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraphs (c)(13)(iv) and (v) of this section, you must maintain the records specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>
                                (14) For each pump designated facility, you must maintain the records identified in paragraphs (c)(14)(i) through (ix) of this section, as applicable.
                                <PRTPAGE P="18132"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) Identification of each pump that is driven by natural gas and that is in operation 90 days or more per calendar year.</P>
                            <P>(ii) If you are complying with § 60.5395c(a) or (b)(1) by routing pump vapors to a process through a closed vent system, identification of all the natural gas-driven pumps in the pump designated facility for which you collect and route vapors to a process through a closed vent system and the records specified in paragraphs (c)(7), (9), and (11) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(iii) If you are complying with § 60.5395c(b)(1) by routing pump vapors to control device achieving a 95.0 percent reduction in methane emissions, you must keep the records specified in paragraphs (c)(7) and (9) through (12) of this section. If you comply with an alternative GHG and VOC standard under § 60.5398c, in lieu of the information specified in paragraph (c)(7), you must provide the information specified in § 60.5424c.</P>
                            <P>(iv) If you are complying with § 60.5395c(b)(3) by routing pump vapors to a control device achieving less than a 95.0 percent reduction in methane emissions, you must maintain records of the certification that there is a control device on site but it does not achieve a 95.0 percent emissions reduction and a record of the design evaluation or manufacturer's specifications which indicate the percentage reduction the control device is designed to achieve.</P>
                            <P>(v) If you have less than three natural gas-driven diaphragm pumps in the pump designated facility, and you do not have a vapor recovery unit or control device installed on site by the compliance date, you must retain a record of your certification required under § 60.5395c(b)(4), certifying that there is no vapor recovery unit or control device on site. If you subsequently install a control device or vapor recovery unit, you must maintain the records required under paragraphs (c)(14)(ii) and (iii) or (iv) of this section, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(vi) If you determine, through an engineering assessment, that it is technically infeasible to route the pump designated facility emissions to a process or control device, you must retain records of your demonstration and certification that it is technically infeasible as required under § 60.5395c(b)(7).</P>
                            <P>(vii) If the pump is routed to a process or control device that is subsequently removed from the location or is no longer available such that there is no option to route to a process or control device, you are required to retain records of this change and the records required under paragraph (c)(14)(vi) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Records of each change in compliance method, including identification of each natural gas-driven pump which changes its method of compliance, the new method of compliance, and the date of the change in compliance method.</P>
                            <P>(ix) Records of each deviation, the date and time the deviation began, the duration of the deviation, and a description of the deviation.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Electronic reporting.</E>
                                 If you are required to submit notifications or reports following the procedure specified in this paragraph (d), you must submit notifications or reports to the EPA via CEDRI, which can be accessed through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) (
                                <E T="03">https://cdx.epa.gov/</E>
                                ). The EPA will make all the information submitted through CEDRI available to the public without further notice to you. Do not use CEDRI to submit information you claim as CBI. Although we do not expect persons to assert a claim of CBI, if you wish to assert a CBI claim for some of the information in the report or notification, you must submit a complete file in the format specified in this subpart, including information claimed to be CBI, to the EPA following the procedures in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section. Clearly mark the part or all of the information that you claim to be CBI. Information not marked as CBI may be authorized for public release without prior notice. Information marked as CBI will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR part 2. All CBI claims must be asserted at the time of submission. Anything submitted using CEDRI cannot later be claimed CBI. Furthermore, under CAA section 114(c), emissions data is not entitled to confidential treatment, and the EPA is required to make emissions data available to the public. Thus, emissions data will not be protected as CBI and will be made publicly available. You must submit the same file submitted to the CBI office with the CBI omitted to the EPA via the EPA's CDX as described in this paragraph (d).
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06808 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="18133"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Federal Communications Commission</AGENCY>
            <CFR>2 CFR Part 6001</CFR>
            <CFR>47 CFR Parts 54 and 64</CFR>
            <HRULE/>
            <TITLE>Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18134"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>2 CFR Part 6001</CFR>
                    <CFR>47 CFR Parts 54 and 64</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[GN Docket No. 19-309; FCC 26-18; FR ID 339008]</DEPDOC>
                    <SUBJECT>Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>
                            In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) adopts the Office of Management and Budget's Guidance for Nonprocurement Debarment and Suspension, along with agency-specific regulations to allow the agency to further combat waste, fraud, and abuse, and remove bad actors from participation in its support programs. The Commission finds further notice and comment “unnecessary” under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) for the Commission to adopt the Guidelines (including updates made after the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in this proceeding), but elect to provide an opportunity for input on that assessment as to three of the Guidelines. A Proposed Rule relating to the Commission's adoption of updated suspension and debarment rules is published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Effective dates:</E>
                             Amendatory instruction 3 is effective May 11, 2026. Amendatory instructions 1, 4 through 9, and 11 through 13 are delayed indefinitely. The Commission will publish a document in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             announcing the effective date for the delayed actions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Comment due date:</E>
                             As explained in the preamble below, comments in response to the adoption of §§ 180.630, 180.705, and 180.730 of the OMB Guidelines will be accepted until May 11, 2026. If significant adverse comment is received, the Federal Communications Commission will publish a timely notification in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             informing the public of additional procedures that must be followed.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Pursuant to §§  1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments on or before the dates provided in the 
                            <E T="02">DATES</E>
                             section of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS). See Electronic Filing of Documents in Rulemaking Proceedings, 63 FR 24121 (1998). You may submit comments, identified by GN Docket No. 19-309, by any of the following methods:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Electronic Filers:</E>
                             Comments may be filed electronically using the internet by accessing the ECFS: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/ecfs</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Paper Filers:</E>
                             Parties who choose to file by paper must file an original and one copy of each filing.
                        </P>
                        <P>• Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial courier, or by the U.S. Postal Service. All filings must be addressed to the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                        <P>• Hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary are accepted between 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. by the FCC's mailing contractor at 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.</P>
                        <P>• Commercial courier deliveries (any deliveries not by the U.S. Postal Service) must be sent to 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701. Filings sent by U.S. Postal Service First-Class Mail, Priority Mail, and Priority Mail Express must be sent to 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554.</P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">People With Disabilities:</E>
                             To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to 
                            <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                             or call the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Paula Silberthau, Attorney Advisor, Office of General Counsel, 202-418-1874, 
                            <E T="03">paula.silberthau@fcc.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This is a summary of the Commission's 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                         in GN Docket No. 19-309, FCC 26-18, adopted on March 26, 2026, and released on March 27, 2026. The complete text of this document is available for download at 
                        <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-18A1.pdf.</E>
                         Alternative formats are available for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format) by sending an email to 
                        <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                         or calling the Commission's Consumer and Government Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0503.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Regulatory Flexibility Act.</E>
                         The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA) requires that an agency prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for notice and comment rulemakings, unless the agency certifies that “the rule will not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.” Accordingly, the Commission has prepared a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) concerning the possible impact of the rule changes contained in the 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                         on small entities. The FRFA is set forth below and in Appendix B appended to the Commission's Report and Order, 
                        <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-18A1.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Paperwork Reduction Act.</E>
                         This document contains new information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, will invite the general public to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                         as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, the Commission notes that pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), we previously sought specific comment on how the Commission might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Congressional Review Act.</E>
                         The Commission has determined, and the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, concurs, that this rule is “non-major” under the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 804(2). The Commission will send a copy of the 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                         to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) administers several congressionally-mandated programs, such as the Universal Service Fund (USF) and the Telecommunications Relay Services (TRS) program, that provide significant funding to close the digital divide and ensure that all Americans have access to communications services. In administering these important programs, it is incumbent upon the Commission to be a good steward of these funds, which are ultimately paid for by the American people. We must ensure that these limited dollars serve their intended purposes. Waste, fraud, and abuse frustrate the Commission's goals and undermines public trust in these programs. Bad actors who would seek to enrich themselves by siphoning 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18135"/>
                        these critical resources away from connecting rural households and businesses, schools and libraries, rural healthcare providers, low-income households, and people with disabilities have no place in these programs. As such, in this Report and Order we adopt additional, critical tools which will allow us to promptly and efficiently take action to exclude or otherwise limit bad actors' participation in these programs. These changes, which received widespread support in the record, will align our processes with other agencies, incorporate current fraud prevention best practices, and, ultimately, distribute funds more responsibly.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">OMB Guidelines.</E>
                         The Commission's 2019 Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) (85 FR 2078) proposed to adopt the OMB Guidelines on Governmentwide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement) (Guidelines) (71 FR 66431, amended 89 FR 30046). The Guidelines establish a common framework for a governmentwide debarment and suspension system for nonprocurement programs. The Guidelines define “non-procurement transaction” as “any transaction, regardless of type (except procurement contracts),” including but not limited to grants, cooperative agreements, scholarships, fellowships, contracts of assistance, loans, loan guarantees, subsidies, insurances, payments for specified uses, and donation agreements. Suspension and debarment rules for federal procurement contracts are contained in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), 48 CFR pt. 9. The Guidelines generally provide for suspension or debarment based on a range of misconduct. This range includes not only convictions of or civil judgments for fraud or certain criminal offenses, but also violations of the requirements of public transactions “so serious as to affect the integrity of a Federal agency program” (including willful or repeated violations). In addition, the Guidelines provide that suspension or debarment could be warranted for “[f]ailure to pay a single substantial debt, or a number of outstanding debts . . . owed to any Federal agency . . . .” Finally, the Guidelines provide the discretion to suspend or debar for “[a]ny other cause that is so serious or compelling in nature that it affects [the party's] present responsibility.” However, in the case of suspensions, but not debarments, the suspending official must find that “[i]mmediate action is necessary to protect the public interest.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Suspensions under the Guidelines have prospective but immediate effect, and debarments are effective following a 30-day opportunity for a party to respond to a debarment notice and the issuance of a final debarment order. Once effective, an action to suspend or debar serves to automatically exclude the suspended or debarred party from new covered transactions governmentwide, whether in procurement or nonprocurement programs or activities. For ongoing activities, “a participant may . . . continue to use the services of an excluded person as a principal” if the participant was “using that person's services in the transaction before the person was excluded.” The participant also has the option of discontinuing the excluded person's services and finding an alternative provider. Likewise, under the Guidelines, a participant “may continue covered transactions with an excluded person if the transactions were in existence when the Federal agency excluded the person,” but the participant is not required to do so.</P>
                    <P>Under the Guidelines, suspension and debarment (referred jointly herein as exclusions) are not punitive actions, and are separate from civil enforcement actions (including those undertaken under the Communications Act) and criminal prosecutions. They are also separate from any administrative procedures that may be used to recover debt. Thus, this Report and Order does not limit or otherwise impact any preexisting statutory, regulatory or common law tools available to the Commission or to the Government generally, other than any suspension and debarment rules that may be expressly replaced or superseded by this Report and Order. Instead, exclusion is an administrative action taken to protect the Government's business interests on a prospective basis. Federal agencies, through their Suspending and Debarring Officials (SDO), must use balance and judgment in determining whether suspension or debarment is appropriate in a particular matter, including when an exclusion proceeding occurs as a result of, or at the same time as, other criminal, civil, or administrative proceedings. In this respect, the approach in the Guidelines can enhance the remedies or tools that a federal agency such as the Commission might use to address misconduct, while providing the federal agency with flexibility to adopt supplemental rules tailored to its specific programs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) proposed to adopt the Guidelines for several critical support programs: the USF programs, the TRS program, and the NDBEDP. The NPRM also proposed supplemental rules that would implement the Guidelines and clarify their application to the Commission's programs. The NPRM explained that the proposed supplemental rules were consistent with the Guidelines—which broadly afford each agency flexibility to implement the Guidelines in a manner that addresses its specific needs—and were based on the Commission's experience in administering these programs over many years.</P>
                    <P>The comments received by the Commission demonstrate that there is widespread support for us to adopt new rules that are substantially similar to those proposed in the NPRM. Indeed, there was near consensus support for adopting updated, more flexible suspension and debarment rules based on the Guidelines to facilitate the exclusion of bad actors who pose a threat to the integrity of our programs. Additionally, many commenters proposed concrete, thoughtful modifications or alternatives to our proposed supplemental rules to improve their clarity, transparency, and process protections without compromising their efficacy. And in many cases, we find that adopting commenters' proposed changes or clarifications will advance the public interest.</P>
                    <P>Since the release of the NPRM, high-profile investigations involving fraud in Commission programs, including USF and other programs, have served to emphasize the importance of having more robust suspension and debarment rules in order to safeguard public funds.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Report and Order</HD>
                    <P>
                        We hereby adopt the Guidelines and supplemental rules, as tailored below to the Commission's programs, to best address and prevent waste, fraud, and abuse with respect to those programs. Specifically, we adopt a broader and expanded range of misconduct (beyond merely criminal convictions and civil judgments) that can trigger Commission exclusion proceedings, and apply these remedies to the Covered Programs. We adopt the Guidelines' approach, again tailored to the Commission's programs and needs, in applying the exclusions to any participant or principal, which can include individuals, units of government, or legal entities, engaging in a covered transaction, and we adopt supplemental rules that explain how these regulations will apply for different tiers of transactions between an agency and a participant, as well as between a participant in one of the covered 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18136"/>
                        transactions and other parties. We establish the position of SDO at the Commission and will subsequently appoint an SDO whose proceedings, unless otherwise designated, will be exempt proceedings governed by section 1.1204(b) of the Commission's ex parte rules, which provides that ex parte presentations to or from Commission decisionmaking personnel are permissible and need not be disclosed. We anticipate that this approach will encourage the free flow of information in communications involving the SDO, permit the SDO to consider relevant evidence, and facilitate expedient yet comprehensive resolution of these proceedings. Accordingly, we find it is in the public interest to designate such proceedings as exempt proceedings under our 
                        <E T="03">ex parte</E>
                         rules. The SDO will review the misconduct, adduce additional evidence if necessary, and determine whether an exclusion remedy is warranted.
                    </P>
                    <P>We follow the Guidelines' approach, which excludes a suspended or debarred entity or individual from all new governmentwide nonprocurement and procurement programs, but we adopt supplemental rules and a presumption that the SDO will exclude a suspended or debarred party from existing transactions subject to a reasonable period for customers or end-users to transition to a new provider. For certain situations, such as where alternate service providers are not available, the supplemental rules will permit the SDO to consider whether it is in the public interest to grant limited exceptions. To the extent that another government agency has excluded an entity or individual from participating in its programs, the revised rules will generally provide for reciprocity and exclude such entities or individuals from Commission programs. We adopt the Guidelines' approach of imposing a suspension period of up to twelve months and a three year debarment period with a supplemental rule offering the SDO the option, in appropriate cases, to require the excluded entity or individual to file a petition for readmission rather than being automatically permitted to resume participation after the conclusion of the exclusionary period. Although we do not expect the SDO to regularly rely on this option, we permit the SDO to have discretion to require this filing if warranted.</P>
                    <P>We also adopt an alternative remedy to suspension and debarment, a Limited Denial of Participation, to address misconduct that may not warrant an exclusion. The SDO may limit the entity or individual from participating in some or all of the programs that the revised rules cover or may limit participation in other ways that we discuss in greater detail below.</P>
                    <P>Such entities or individuals generally may not participate in the relevant programs, must disclose to others involved in transactions receiving Federal funds that they are excluded from participation, and may not serve, or continue to serve, on Commission advisory committees and comparable Commission groups or task forces.</P>
                    <P>As a procedural matter, we acknowledge that in the NPRM we proposed to codify most proposed supplemental suspension and debarment rules at Title 47, chapter 1, subchapter A, part 16. As detailed below, we instead codify most of the supplemental rules at Title 2, subtitle B, chapter LX, part 6001, subject to coordination with other agencies regarding the placement in the Code of Federal Regulations. This change comports with the placement practice of many other agencies that have adopted the governmentwide suspension and debarment rules with any relevant supplemental rules or modifications.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Suspension and Debarment</HD>
                    <P>The default procedural requirements applicable to suspension and debarment actions are set forth in subparts F, G, and H of the Guidelines. In the NPRM, the Commission requested comment on Commission-specific modifications to those procedures as well as proposed supplemental rules specific to our programs. The NPRM also more broadly invited comment on any other changes that parties proposed to the Guidelines' default rules and procedures.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Definition of, and Relationship Between, Suspension and Debarment</HD>
                    <P>We adopt the Guidelines' definitions of suspension and debarment given their broader range of covered misconduct and the governmentwide reach of their remedies as compared with the scope of our existing rules. The Guidelines define a “suspension” as “an action taken by a suspending official . . . that immediately prohibits a person from participating in covered transactions and transactions covered under the Federal Acquisition Regulations . . . for a temporary period, pending completion of a Federal agency investigation and any judicial or administrative proceedings that may ensue,” and note that a “person so excluded is suspended.” The Guidelines define a “debarment” as “an action taken by a debarring official . . . to exclude a person from participating in covered transactions and transactions covered under the Federal Acquisition Regulations,” noting that “[a] person so excluded is debarred.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Suspension differs from debarment in several ways. First, a suspension is “a temporary status of ineligibility for procurement and nonprocurement transactions, pending completion of an investigation or legal or debarment proceeding” whereas debarment is a remedy that is “impose[d] . . . for a specified period as a final determination that a person is not presently responsible.” Second, an SDO only needs to find that there is “adequate evidence” to support a suspension but must base a debarment on a “preponderance of the evidence.” Third, because a suspension usually precedes notice and a chance to be heard, an SDO may only impose a suspension when it finds that “immediate action is necessary to protect the public interest.” In contrast, a debarment is imposed after a notice is issued and the respondent has had a chance to contest the proposed debarment. Finally, the period for suspension is typically capped at twelve months, though the SDO may also extend the suspension for an additional six months. If legal or debarment proceedings are initiated, the suspension may continue until the conclusion of those proceedings, but if such proceedings are not initiated a suspension may not exceed 18 months. Additionally, the period of debarment is based on the seriousness of the cause(s) prompting debarment and typically should not exceed three years. If circumstances warrant, the SDO may extend the debarment period or issue additional requirements under the supplemental rules adopted by this 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
                    <P>We apply the new suspension and debarment rules to nonprocurement transactions only under the Covered Programs. The rules shall not extend at this time to transactions carried out under the Commission's other currently existing programs, nor shall they extend to transactions to or from licensees and those with spectrum usage rights (with the exception of transactions under the Covered Programs where such an entity is a participant). These decisions find ample support in the record.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under the Guidelines that we adopt, together with supplemental rules, the suspension and debarment provisions apply to those persons or entities that the rules designate as “participants.” We describe the participants for each of the programs to which the new rules apply in more detail below. But as a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18137"/>
                        general matter, participants subject to these rules are: (1) the beneficiaries and service providers that participate in the Commission's programs (typically designated as “Primary Tier” participants); and (2) other entities or persons—including contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, marketing organizations, or agents or representatives of such entities or persons—involved with the implementation of these programs (“Lower Tier” participants). Persons at the lower tiers will not be considered participants unless they also satisfy additional criteria. Specifically, they must either: (i) have a material role relating to or significantly affecting claims for disbursements related to the program; (ii) be considered a “principal” in the transaction; or (iii) be involved in a transaction in the program anticipated to be at least $25,000. Given our experience administering the Covered Programs, we are inclined to construe broadly the term “involved in” to include the submission of an application for support. For example, E-Rate consultants are ”involved in” a transaction when assisting schools and libraries in preparing their application. Likewise, marketing representatives are “involved in” transactions every time they assist in signing up a low-income consumer in the Lifeline program.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, consistent with section 180.200 of the Guidelines, our rules also treat the E-Rate and Rural Health Care program beneficiaries, including schools, libraries, and rural health care facilities, that deal directly with the Commission or its agent, Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC), as “participants” subject to the rules. On the other hand, we do not treat Lifeline (or former ACP) subscribers or end-users of TRS and NDBEDP services as “participants” subject to the disclosure and other requirements of our new rules.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Causes and Factors</HD>
                    <P>We generally adopt the NPRM's proposals regarding what causes and factors may lead to suspension and debarments, but for the reasons explained below, we adjust and clarify our approach in light of the record. The Guidelines expressly identify several “causes” for suspension or debarment, which include: (1) convictions of, or civil judgments for, fraud or certain offenses—including any offense “indicating a lack of business integrity or business honesty that seriously and directly affects your present responsibility;” or (2) violations of the terms of “a public agreement or transaction so serious as to affect the integrity of a Federal agency program,” which may include willful or repeated violations. The Guidelines indicate that, beyond the specific, enumerated causes, an agency may exclude a person for “[a]ny other cause that is so serious or compelling in nature that it affects your present responsibility.” Further, the Guidelines provide each agency flexibility to identify additional causes for suspensions and debarments. The NPRM proposed to adopt the causes in the Guidelines, proposed several additional causes, and requested comment generally on whether to adopt an FCC-specific supplemental rule with the additional causes. Further, as explained in the NPRM, in the case of the TRS program and NDBEDP, causes for suspension and revocation under existing procedures overlap with, but are not the same as, the new suspension and debarment rules. Therefore, the procedures adopted herein are intended to supplement, not replace, the existing program procedures authorizing suspension or revocation of certifications to provide TRS or to participate in the NDBEDP.</P>
                    <P>We find that adoption of the causes for exclusion articulated in the Guidelines will provide the Commission with flexibility while affording program participants notice of the types of misconduct that may trigger suspension or debarment. Most commenters did not object to our adoption of the Guidelines' causes for suspension and debarment or aggravating and mitigating factors that an SDO may consider. We address other commenters' views below.</P>
                    <P>Consistent with the Guidelines, we also adopt the examples of “causes” and factors proposed in the NPRM. Our Supplemental Rule 6001.450(a) is consistent with the “causes,” and subsections (b) and (c) of Supplemental Rule 6001.450 are consistent with the “factors” that may be considered. In this regard, we build on the longstanding history of the Guidelines and their widespread adoption. We also find that expressly identifying the types of FCC-specific activity that may result in exclusion serves the dual purposes of providing further guidance to the SDO and notice to program participants. We find that our supplemental rule is consistent with the Guidelines.</P>
                    <P>Our “causes” rule includes potential causes for suspension or debarment that fall into two categories: (i) violations of program-specific rules that affect program integrity; and (ii) violations of other applicable Commission rules that affect present responsibility. The first group includes “violation[s] of the terms of a public agreement or transaction,” specific to FCC programs, that could “be so serious as to affect the integrity of” those programs. The causes that fall into this category include, but are not limited to: the willful or grossly negligent submission of false or misleading FCC forms or statements or other documentation to the Commission or to the administrators of the Covered Programs that result in or could result in overpayments of federal funds to the recipients; the willful or grossly negligent violation of a statutory or regulatory provision applicable to the Covered Programs; and the willful, grossly negligent, or habitual failure to respond to requests made by the Commission or the administrators of the Covered Programs for additional information to justify payment or continued operation under their certifications. We anticipate that in evaluating a person's failure to respond, the SDO will also consider the person's compliance with any applicable document retention regulations, as well as the quality and credibility of evidence presented. We also note that not all such violations will be serious enough to affect program integrity; rather, this supplemental rule simply provides notice of the type of violations that, in light of the relevant facts and circumstances, may be sufficiently serious.</P>
                    <P>The second group of “causes” include: (1) a single serious violation of Commission rules or repeated violations of Commission rules; or (2) a single substantial or habitual non-payment or under-payment of Commission regulatory fees. A single serious violation would be a violation that materially and negatively affects the participant's present responsibility. Similar to the causes listed in section 180.800(c) of the Guidelines, these additional causes bear upon the present responsibility of a program participant in doing business with the federal government—specifically, the Commission.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many of the commenters opposing our proposed supplemental causes rule misapprehended or mischaracterized the proposal. The NPRM did not propose automatic triggers that would always require exclusion or that would be dispositive in suspension and debarment proceedings; instead, the NPRM proposed to identify FCC-specific activity to supplement the causes that can trigger suspension and debarment processes. Under the Guidelines and our supplemental rule, before initiating a proceeding, an SDO should look to not only the causes identified in section 180.800, but also, consistent with the Guidelines, the FCC-specific activities identified in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18138"/>
                        Supplemental Rule 6001.450, and then evaluate that conduct based on the aggravating and mitigating factors set forth in section 180.860. Consistent with the Guidelines, an SDO would then consider the unique circumstances of the particular case including whether a cause for debarment is “so serious or compelling in nature that it affects [a participant's] present responsibility,” since the purpose of the suspension and debarment system is to “ensure[] the integrity of Federal programs by conducting business only with responsible persons.” In this regard, we also observe that the extent of noncompliance often bears on Commission determinations relating to what actions it will take to address misconduct; the case-by-case determination we adopt here mirrors that approach in other contexts such as licensing. We thus reject suggestions to the contrary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We also disagree with the Joint Association Commenters who claim that a supplemental rule is unnecessary because the Commission has “existing . . . mechanisms to protect affected funding programs,” or that the proposed rule somehow “duplicate[s]” or “conflate[s] the FCC's enforcement function to prosecute past violations with the forward-looking purpose of the suspension and debarment rules.” To the contrary, the rules we adopt are necessary precisely because they are not duplicative, but instead provide the Commission with needed additional tools to protect the integrity of its programs, including ensuring that federal funds are not disbursed to irresponsible actors. Rule violations generally will continue to be handled through enforcement proceedings in the first instance, though investigation of such violations could result in referral for an exclusion proceeding in appropriate cases. For example, in situations in which a single substantial rule violation or repeated rule violations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         month after month violation of the same rule, notwithstanding FCC clarifications, guidance, or enforcement actions) demonstrate an entity's lack of responsibility, an exclusion proceeding would be appropriate and our revised supplemental rule accounts for this. Further, in light of the robust process protections in our supplemental rules and the clarifications we offer in this 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                         we also reject the suggestion of CTIA and USTelecom that “[p]ermitting suspension or debarment for minor or single rule violations could reduce participation in the Commission's support programs.”
                    </P>
                    <P>In turn, administration of funding holds and recovery of improper payments will continue to be handled through existing administrative and debt collection tools. Additionally, the rules adopted in this Report and Order will not preclude the agency or the program administrators from undertaking other reviews and actions, such as USAC's ability to lock a registered Representative Accountability Database (RAD) user's account, to address Commission rule violations or recover improperly disbursed funds. (RAD is a registration system that USAC uses to validate the identities of service provider representatives and track a representative's transactions in the National Lifeline Accountability Database (NLAD) and the National Verifier. Service providers' representatives are required to register for a unique Representative ID (Rep ID) that is linked to the service provider's Application Programming Interface (API) account. This allows USAC to track and monitor the activity of individual service provider representatives. If USAC suspects that a representative is engaging in potentially fraudulent activity, it may lock the representative's account.) Likewise, nothing in this Report and Order or any order of the SDO shall interfere with the Commitment Adjustment Process (COMAD) through which USAC recovers funds that have been committed or disbursed in error, or otherwise wrongly, by rescinding those commitments and recovering improperly disbursed funding. An exclusion is a distinct remedy that will remove wrongdoers both from participation in agency procurement and nonprocurement programs governmentwide. We intend to enhance the tools available to ensure program integrity and not undermine them.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also disagree with INCOMPAS, NCTA—The Rural Broadband Association, and ACA Connects—America's Communications Association (collectively, the Joint Association Commenters) that the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         “does not provide parties with fair notice as to when they could face suspension or debarment for the proposed additional factors, such as compliance history.” We acknowledge that the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         used the term “factors” in connection with the OMB Guidelines' “causes” for suspension and debarment, but the Commission cited the OMB cause rule at the outset of that discussion, 2 CFR 180.800, and separately stated that OMB rules “also” list “mitigating and aggravating factors,” citing 2 CFR 180.860, which permits a consideration of compliance history. The Joint Association Commenters had ample notice that the Commission might examine compliance history as an additional cause and/or as an aggravating or mitigating factor. Our Supplemental Rule § 6001.450(a) is consistent with the “causes,” and subsections (b) and (c) of Supplemental Rule § 6001.450 supplement the “factors” that may be considered under the Guidelines (and consequently our rules).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM also proposed that our supplemental “cause” rule identify that suspension or debarment may be appropriate for certain “willful or grossly negligent” or “willful or habitual” conduct. Some commenters urge the Commission to exclude from the “cause” rule inadvertent violations, good faith mistakes, and violations resulting from negligence not rising to the level of gross negligence, noting that in the enforcement context a “willfulness” standard encompasses situations where a participant intended to engage in conduct but not necessarily to violate Commission rules. We recognize that in certain other contexts, there is Commission precedent holding that even inadvertent errors can be “willful.” Of course, the Guidelines do not define the term “willful,” but one federal court has, in the context of the Guidelines, suggested that the word generally applies to knowing or reckless violations, rather than conduct that is merely negligent. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Pillar of Fire,</E>
                         Memorandum Opinion and Order, 32 FCC Rcd 9633, 9635 n.17 (2017); 
                        <E T="03">Donald W. Bishop,</E>
                         Forfeiture Order, 8 FCC Rcd 2847, 2847 (1993) (noting that the Commission has interpreted 47 U.S.C. 312(f)(1)'s use of “willful . . . [to] mea[n] the conscious and deliberate commission or omission of such act, irrespective of any intent to violate the Act or Commission rules.” (citing authorities)). While this definition of “willfulness” may be narrower than the one in these Commission cases, that does not significantly change the SDO's ability to suspend or debar participants because the Guidelines also provide a general catchall basis for debarment for “[a]ny other cause that is so serious or compelling in nature that it affects [a participant's] present responsibility.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, a finding that a “cause” exists does not automatically result in a suspension or debarment. The Commission's implementation of the statutory enforcement requirements relating to the Do-Not-Call registry for telephone numbers used by Public Safety Answering Points (PSAPs) is instructive. As detailed in the 2012 PSAP Report and Order, the Commission was required to set forfeiture amounts within a statutory 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18139"/>
                        range based on “whether the conduct leading to the violation was negligent, grossly negligent, reckless, or willful, and depending on whether the violation was a first or subsequent offence.” The statute did not define the relevant terms. In the 2012 PSAP Report and Order, the Commission concluded that in setting forfeitures for PSAP Do-Not-Call registry violations it is reasonable, to the extent that terms such as “willfulness” and “gross negligence” have been defined in the enforcement context, to rely on those definitions and that the Communications Act and Commission requirements to take into account the “nature, circumstances, extent and gravity of the violation and, with respect to the violator, the degree of culpability, any history of prior offenses, ability to pay, and such other matters as justice may require,” “encompass the factors necessary to distinguish between negligent, grossly negligent, reckless or willful conduct, as used in the Tax Relief Act, without the need for further clarification on this point in our rules.” We similarly conclude that it is reasonable and consistent with the Guidelines to take the same “case-by-case” approach here.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, the Guidelines' list of causes that we adopt in this Report and Order speaks about certain “willful failures” and “willful violations” as sufficient to support debarment, while having long afforded agencies the flexibility to implement this rule using their discretion in evaluating both what constitutes a willful act and the seriousness of the conduct. While the Guidelines provide no express exception for inadvertent errors, the drafters of the Guidelines intended to provide “assurance that performance matters which are minor or highly parochial in nature would not be used as a basis for debarment actions.” (52 FR 20361). Consistent with this approach, we agree that in some cases, instances of inadvertent error, especially if set against a demonstrated history of compliance with program requirements, may be so minor and isolated that they do not provide an adequate basis for suspension or debarment.</P>
                    <P>For purposes of both section 180.800 and our supplemental cause rule, the term “willful” will not in the ordinary case include minor, isolated, and inadvertent noncompliance. On the other hand, the Guidelines clearly permit debarment for a “history of failure to perform or unsatisfactory performance” of a public transaction if “so serious as to affect the integrity of a Federal agency program.” A history of violations of program requirements over one or multiple projects may rise to a level that affects the integrity of an agency program and forms a basis for debarment, even if these violations individually may each have been considered minor. Similarly, a single violation may be so significant that it affects the integrity of an agency program—for example, a violation affecting substantial expenditures of public funds. The SDO thus has flexibility to evaluate the appropriateness of exclusion given the complexity of the rule(s) at issue as well as the facts of a particular case.</P>
                    <P>We therefore reject CTIA and USTelecom's argument that gross negligence should not be sufficient to support suspension or debarment and that our supplemental rule should require, at a minimum, a finding of recklessness. We note that consistent with our Rule 1.17 precedent, the exercise of reasonable due diligence—a standard that should not be difficult for program participants to meet—is generally sufficient to avoid a finding of simple negligence (and a fortiori of either gross negligence or recklessness). Thus, for example—as NCTA correctly surmised—a company that submits forms that “ `could result in overpayments' notwithstanding [its] good faith effort to comply with all applicable rules,” generally would not satisfy the “grossly negligent” requirement to trigger suspension or debarment proceedings.</P>
                    <P>We are also not persuaded by C Spire's arguments that every potential cause in our supplemental rule should “make reference to statutory or regulatory violations, not merely a type of conduct,” or that words like “repeat” and “habitual” are overly vague.” First, the Guidelines include among their causes a “history of failure to perform or of unsatisfactory performance,” without specifying the length of that “history.” The Guidelines also permit suspension or debarment based on a participant's lack of “business integrity or business honesty” that affects “present responsibility,” which are not linked to specific statutory or regulatory violations. Second, if an exclusion proceeding is commenced, a participant can present evidence to the SDO that its conduct falls short of “repeated” or “habitual”—or does not qualify as a regulatory or statutory violation—and raise other mitigation arguments. We also decline to identify the “number of . . . violations” that can give rise to suspension or debarment as requested by C Spire, as this would be inconsistent with the kind of flexibility the Guidelines contemplate and give agencies to consider the facts and circumstances of each case. For these reasons, we are also not persuaded by SHLB-SECA's arguments that suspension or debarment should be invoked only for “fraud or repeated willful violations” because some rules, in their view, “use a strict liability standard” while other rules may be considered vague. As we have stated repeatedly, suspension and debarment decisions will be determined on a case-by-case basis by which an SDO may consider mitigating circumstances even for such rules as SHLB-SECA may characterize as rules imposing strict liability.</P>
                    <P>The Joint Association Commenters also objected that our proposed supplemental rule—insofar as it permits suspension or debarment for “habitual non-payment or under-payment of Commission regulatory fees or of required contributions”—is “in tension” with the Guidelines, which permit suspension or debarment for “[f]ailure to pay a single substantial debt, or a number of outstanding debts” only if the “debt is uncontested” or the debtor's “legal and administrative remedies have been exhausted.” But habitual nonpayment or underpayment of fees generally could also qualify as “repeated violations of Commission rules,” permitting exclusion on that separate and independent basis. And in any event, the Guidelines permit an agency to identify what activity is “so serious or compelling” that it implicates a participant's “present responsibility.” Further, as already discussed extensively, suspension and debarment decisions will be determined on a case-by-case basis in which an SDO may consider both aggravating and mitigating circumstances. A substantial single or habitual non-payment or under-payment of fees or contributions could be so egregious, in the context of a particular case, as to merit suspension and debarment, notwithstanding the fact that the participant has not exhausted its legal or administrative remedies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Aggravating and Mitigating Factors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Guidelines, the SDO should consider aggravating and mitigating factors in debarment proceedings, including specific factors set forth in the Guidelines. We also conclude that the SDO may consider aggravating and mitigating factors in suspension proceedings. Although the Guidelines do not explicitly provide for such considerations, the Guidelines do require a suspending official to consider “[a]ny further information and argument presented in support of, or [in] opposition to, the suspension.” The Guidelines also give the suspending official “wide discretion,” stating that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18140"/>
                        the official may, for example, “infer the necessity for immediate action to protect the public interest either from the nature of the circumstances giving rise to a cause for suspension or from potential business relationships or involvement with a program of the Federal Government.” Accordingly, we determine that the SDO should consider aggravating or mitigating factors during suspension and debarment proceedings, pursuant to 2 CFR 180.860 as well as the additional factors we adopt here.
                    </P>
                    <P>We adopt the aggravating and mitigating factors provided in the Guidelines. In addition, we adopt a supplemental rule under which the SDO may consider additional mitigating factors. Among such mitigating factors would be remedies that took effect after the misconduct occurred that the SDO considers likely to prevent misconduct going forward, as well as whether proceedings to address alleged misconduct (such as non-payment of regulatory fees) may be pending before the Commission. We decline, however, the request by the Joint Association Commenters and CTIA and USTelecom to create any safe harbors for specific program violations because of the discretion already afforded to the SDO to evaluate each situation on its own merits. Further, we note that a party can often mitigate risk from inadvertent violations, and we recommend that parties do so wherever possible. We also decline to adopt the Joint Association Commenter's request for a specific procedure to protect a self-reporting service provider from suspension action for a period of time after the provider notifies the Commission of a potential issue or following adoption of codes of business ethics and conduct as suggested in the record. While taking such self-corrective actions is critical and could qualify as a mitigating factor, the Commission should retain flexibility to proceed to exclusion, where appropriate, notwithstanding a participant's efforts at self-governance.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM also specifically asked whether, during a debarment proceeding, the Commission should consider the impact that debarment would have on the provision of services to customers and end-users. We agree that impact on customers and end-users should be considered during suspension and debarment proceedings, and there is support for doing so in the record, but we conclude that we should not treat the potential impact on customers and end-users (including sole source considerations) as a rationale for allowing a person whose misconduct otherwise warrants an exclusion to avoid the imposition of a suspension or debarment. Rather, we conclude that the better approach is to address an exclusion's potential impact on customers and end-users in the context of whether or to what extent to permit an excluded party to continue to provide services for a limited duration, and under what terms and conditions. The SDO shall make determinations about transitions and continuation periods in the manner described in more detail below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Evidentiary Standards</HD>
                    <P>The Guidelines require “adequate evidence”—defined as “information sufficient to support the reasonable belief that a particular act or omission has occurred”—for suspension and a “preponderance of the evidence” for debarment. The NPRM requested comment on whether the Commission should adopt these evidentiary standards, as well as whether the Commission should adopt any supplemental evidentiary standard rules.</P>
                    <P>We received limited comment on the proposal, which we address below, and we now adopt the Guidelines' evidentiary standards. Other federal agencies across the government employ these standards, and we find that adopting a similar framework will facilitate governmentwide reciprocity and promote ease of application.</P>
                    <P>
                        Contrary to CTIA and USTelecom and NCTA's claims, we are not persuaded that any harm will result from allowing suspension based on “adequate evidence,” as opposed to a “preponderance of the evidence.” To initiate a suspension under the “adequate evidence” standard in the Guidelines, an SDO still must independently consider whether there is “information sufficient to support the reasonable belief” that a “cause” for suspension has occurred—which also requires the SDO to consider whether the participant's alleged conduct implicates whether that participant is “presently responsible.” While we do not adopt a rigid definition of “adequate evidence,” the SDO may find analogies in caselaw on how to apply the “adequate evidence” standard to be instructive. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Horne Bros.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Laird,</E>
                         463 F.2d 1268, 1271 (D.C. Cir. 1972). Unsubstantiated assertions made by a third party (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         an unsuccessful E-Rate competing bidder) would likely not satisfy this standard. Moreover, the Guidelines and our rules also provide procedural protections (including a notice of the reasons for suspension upon initiation and a timely opportunity to respond and present evidence), ensuring that, even if an initial suspension decision was erroneously based on materially incomplete or incorrect information, it could be quickly corrected. Specifically, we expect that the SDO will provide a suspension notice containing sufficient information for the suspended person to respond to the notice and identify any relevant facts or circumstances. In this regard, such notices should not be based on “mere suspicion, unfounded allegation, or error.” 
                        <E T="03">Transco Sec., Inc. of Ohio</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Freeman,</E>
                         639 F.2d 318, 322-23 (6th Cir. 1981). We find that it would be reasonable to apply an “adequate evidence” standard under these circumstances, particularly given that suspensions are temporary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In response to comments, we further clarify the types of findings on which the SDO may rely. As the Joint Association Commenters, CTIA and USTelecom, and NCTA noted, section 504(c) of the Communications Act would preclude an FCC SDO from issuing a suspension or proposing a debarment based solely on the issuance of a Notice of Apparent Liability (NAL). However, section 504(c) does not preclude the SDO's reliance on any facts underpinning an NAL. Section 504(c) provides that “[i]n any case where the Commission issues a notice of apparent liability . . . that fact shall not be used, in any other proceeding before the Commission . . . to the prejudice of the person to whom such notice was issued . . . .” To be clear, section 504(c)'s prohibition on using NALs is limited to the Commission's use of “that fact”—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the issuance of the NAL. The Commission has previously addressed this issue in the 1999 
                        <E T="03">Commission's Forfeiture Policy Statement</E>
                         and explained that “[t]he statute says that the issuance of an NAL shall not be used against a person unless the forfeiture has been paid or the person is subject to a final court order to pay. It does not say that the facts underlying prior NALs shall not be used against a person.” This is supported by the legislative history. Thus, section 504(c) does not prohibit the Commission, and by extension the SDO, from considering the facts underlying the NAL in another proceeding. An SDO may therefore make determinations in an exclusion proceeding—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impose a suspension or propose a debarment—based on the facts underlying an NAL if those satisfy the Guidelines' evidentiary standards. In proceedings before the SDO, however, parties may submit evidence disputing the facts underlying the NAL, should they choose to do so. We clarify this point in response to the Joint Association Commenters' concerns 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18141"/>
                        about the use of an NAL in proceedings before the SDO. Similarly, because an exclusion decision must satisfy these evidentiary standards based on the SDO's rigorous review of the record, we reject the recommendation of the Joint Association Commenters that the Commission “expressly exclude USAC decisions from serving as causes for suspension or debarment.” An SDO may consider findings by a program administrator in an audit report or commitment adjustment if those findings satisfy the Guidelines' evidentiary standards. That is so even if an appeal of the administrator's decision is pending. But if the participant contests the exclusion, including contesting certain facts in the record of the proceeding, the SDO must render a final decision based on his/her independent evaluation of the record. As a corollary to this principle, in the event a response to an NAL has been filed or a USAC decision is subject to a request for FCC review, or the record otherwise has developed in direct response to the document or decision being referenced, we direct the SDO to consider that additional evidence independent of a participant contesting an exclusion. We emphasize that the SDO must exercise independent judgment. The SDO may not, consistent with section 504(c), presume based on the issuance of the NAL that the Guidelines' standards have been satisfied. We agree with CTIA that the same logic would apply equally to the use of factual allegations set forth in complaints before the Commission in pending proceedings because, like NALs, allegations made in pending Commission proceedings are not final.
                    </P>
                    <P>In contrast, we note that in suspension proceedings, pursuant to section 180.735(a)(1) of the Guidelines, respondents may not challenge the facts if the “suspension is based upon an indictment, conviction, civil judgment, or other findings by a Federal, State, or local body for which an opportunity to contest the facts was provided.” Under this rule, which we adopt, facts contained in Commission orders for which an opportunity to contest the facts was provided, including those issued by bureaus and offices on delegated authority, may not be challenged if relied upon by the SDO in issuing the suspension. We recognize, however, that orders may be affected by judicial decisions or modified by the issuing body itself. Therefore, we adopt section 180.735(a)(1) with a modification to allow respondents to bring to the SDO's attention information showing that the findings in the original Federal, State or local orders are no longer accurate where (i) an order has been reconsidered or modified by the issuing body (or by its staff acting on delegated authority), or (ii) an order has been remanded, reversed, or vacated on judicial review. For debarment proceedings, we adopt a new rule providing that the SDO, in consultation with the Office of General Counsel (OGC), shall apply the principles of collateral estoppel to determine whether a respondent may challenge findings set forth in (i) Commission orders (including orders of bureaus or offices issued on delegated authority) for which the opportunity to contest the facts was provided or (ii) orders of any other Federal, state, or local body for which the opportunity to contest the facts was provided. We also recognize that Commission-level decisions can be subject to petitions for reconsideration and actions on delegated authority can be subject to applications seeking full Commission review. In those cases, it either typically (in the case of reconsideration) or necessarily (in the case of an application for review) is the full Commission that resolves those requests. Consequently, where the facts material to an exclusion decision issued by the SDO are contested in a pending petition for reconsideration of a Commission-level decision or an application for review of an action on delegated authority, the SDO's exclusion decision shall take effect but shall be referred to the full Commission for review. In this scenario, the required written decision by the SDO for purposes of 2 CFR 6001.135(a) would be the referral of the matter to the full Commission. Consistent with the policy reflected in 2 CFR 6001.135(b), the full Commission will attempt in good faith to issue a written decision within 180 days of receiving the referral.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Exceptions to Exclusion</HD>
                    <P>The Guidelines permit an agency head to “grant an exception permitting an excluded person to participate in a particular covered transaction.” The NPRM asked whether we should adopt this rule and whether we should identify factors for granting such an “exception” or whether that determination should be left solely to the discretion of the full Commission or the Chair. The NPRM tentatively proposed that if any factors are enumerated, one consideration should be the extent to which the exclusion would substantially impair delivery of services to customers and end-users. The NPRM asked whether there are additional factors that should be considered. In addition, the NPRM asked whether the Commission should delegate authority to the bureaus overseeing the programs to grant such exceptions. We adopt an approach by which the SDO in the first instance will determine whether good cause exists to grant an “exception” to the exclusion remedy in a particular case.</P>
                    <P>We agree that in appropriate cases, exceptions to both Commission exclusions and to those issued by another federal agency should be permitted. We thus adopt sections 180.135 of the Guidelines with the modifications set forth in Supplemental Rule 6001.125. This supplemental rule delegates authority to the SDO in the first instance to decide whether to “grant an exception permitting an excluded person to participate in a particular covered transaction.” An excluded party, however, may seek reconsideration, or file an application for review (AFR) with the Commission, as provided for in Supplemental Rule 6001.125(f). Commenters expressed support for this approach. We intend for this delegation to apply for purposes of other rule sections in the OMB Guidelines that refer to section 180.135 of the Guidelines. We thus decline to adopt other possible approaches under the Guidelines, which would allow the Chairperson or perhaps even the full Commission to act on exceptions in the first instance. The SDO's decisions will remain subject to the AFR procedures available for decisions of a Commission component, as we describe herein, thereby providing for appropriate oversight.</P>
                    <P>Under the supplemental rules that we adopt herein, the SDO is responsible for determining appropriate transition and continuation periods before issuing any suspension or debarment order, and in that process must consider whether, subject to the limitations described herein, an exception to permit extended continuation periods to ensure delivery of services to customers and end-users would be appropriate. Because the SDO will be responsible for conducting these proceedings in which these transitional issues (including sole source services) are closely evaluated, the SDO is in a suitable position to assess the facts of each case and determine whether to grant exceptions for covered transactions and to address the relevant scope of any applicable limitations that might apply. The proponent of an exception bears the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, any facts asserted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with our discussion of transitions and continuations below and to better protect program integrity, we find that any exceptions shall be subject 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18142"/>
                        to appropriate conditions such as mandatory audits, additional reporting requirements, compliance agreements (with approval of OGC), monitoring, or any other forms of effective oversight supplemental to those already provided under FCC programs. We also adopt the NPRM's proposal, strongly supported by commenters, that the availability of alternate service providers to serve customers and end-users in a given area is one relevant factor for the Commission to consider in deciding whether to grant an exception to Commission exclusions or to those issued by another agency. If a participant contends that it is the sole provider of services, the SDO shall afford the bureau that administers the program involved an opportunity to address this matter and rebut those assertions if necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>We note that for purposes of the Lifeline, E-Rate, or RHC programs, where exclusions involve resellers, there will almost always be alternate sources of service providers for customers and end-users. That is because resellers by definition purchase their services or equipment from underlying carriers or from a manufacturer or other manufacturer partner and then resell the services and equipment to their own customers and end-users. Our experience with debarments and other enforcement actions in the Lifeline, E-Rate, and RHC programs has demonstrated that Lifeline subscribers, schools, libraries, and health care providers are able to transition from the reseller to the underlying carrier or to another provider. We recognize, however, that some participants in the E-Rate or RHC programs may need to seek new bids for services and/or equipment, and the SDO should provide a sufficient transition period for this to occur.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Transitions and Continuations</HD>
                    <P>Under the Guidelines, a program participant may choose to continue with an excluded entity “if the transactions were in existence when the Federal agency excluded the person.” The NPRM requested comment on that approach as well as on whether continuation should be permitted under those programs in which beneficiaries are receiving services on a month-to-month (or similarly short term) basis. We explained in the NPRM that section 180.310 of the Guidelines, if adopted, would constitute a significant change from policies currently in effect for the E-Rate program that preclude the distribution of any USF funds to debarred entities or entities that have violated program rules. For the reasons explained below, we conclude that the continuation policies set forth in section 180.310 of the Guidelines, and the related provisions contained in sections 180.315(a) and 180.415, should not be applied to the programs subject to this Report and Order. We instead adopt a presumption that the SDO require beneficiaries receiving services from an excluded provider to transition to new providers, subject to limited exceptions described below. To ensure consistency in eliminating bad actors from program participation, whether as participants or principals, we conclude that the related continuation policies set forth in section 180.315 of the Guidelines should not be applied to the programs subject to this Report and Order and that participants should promptly secure the services of other principals (if needed) for their covered transactions in order to maintain the integrity of Commission programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        The rules we adopt on transitions and continuations reflect our experience with current rules in the E-Rate or RHC programs that require beneficiaries to change providers after an exclusion or findings of rule violations. Further, in most of our programs there are alternative providers to whom beneficiaries can transition, whether for telecommunications or other services from participants or ancillary services from principals. For example, for participants (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         beneficiaries, consultants, and service providers) who are resellers, we expect that there will be an underlying carrier that may be able to continue providing services to customers and end-users. We note that some principals, such as consultants or management companies, may be providers of services for whom, in our experience, substitute providers should be readily available. Other principals such as officers, directors, or program managers, may be internal to organizations. In such cases, an exclusion would require that the organization remove those excluded persons from any role and duties in covered transactions (including oversight responsibilities) and transfer their duties for such transactions to other individuals as may be needed.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, many of the Lifeline consumers receive service on a month-to-month basis. If we were to treat such relationships as long-term contracts under sections 180.310 and 180.315 of the Guidelines, in practice any exclusion would become meaningless because excluded providers could continue to provide service indefinitely. That is not an acceptable outcome. Further, in most service areas there are multiple providers of these services such that consumers can readily find alternative providers.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, for both suspensions and debarments, we will continue and extend to all programs subject to this Report and Order the practice of requiring alternative providers and other mitigation measures to help transition customers and end-users from an existing, excluded provider to alternative providers. We recognize, however, that for some programs, the availability of alternative providers may be limited or longer transition periods may be necessary. We therefore grant authority to the SDO to both fashion reasonable transition periods that protect beneficiaries from loss of services and also to grant exceptions pursuant to Supplemental Rule 6001.125 for that purpose subject to administrative agreements (such as compliance agreements) and agency oversight as appropriate. The SDO's determinations on transitions and continuations should reflect the overarching goal of the OMB Guidelines to protect program integrity by limiting or eliminating program participation by bad actors, while also ensuring continuation of services to beneficiaries. Funds for Learning has advanced the premise that, “[w]here at all possible, suspension and debarment should not interfere with the continued receipt of services to [the] . . . institutions and the communities they serve.” Although this is an important consideration—and perhaps even a critical one in certain circumstances—we must balance it with the need to protect the public, including individual consumers, from waste, fraud, and abuse that could result in deleterious effects for a specific Commission program or group of programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        In reaching these conclusions, we have carefully considered the comments of SHLB-SECA, which recommended that beneficiaries such as schools, libraries, and health care providers should have the option to receive uninterrupted support from a suspended or debarred entity for the duration of the contract, rather than being required to substitute a new service provider through a service provider or Service Provider Identification Number (SPIN) change, if allowable under state and local procurement rules, or rebidding the contract or service. Funds for Learning similarly encouraged us to “allow participants to receive service from a suspended or debarred entity for the duration of the USF-supported contract or to substitute a new provider, whether the services are on a fixed or on a month-to-month basis.” Our experience 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18143"/>
                        with service provider substitutions under our current rules, however, persuades us that we can protect against service disruptions to beneficiaries, including under the E-Rate and RHC programs, without allowing excluded service providers to indefinitely continue to provide services and receive support under these programs. The SDO shall be responsible for determining the terms and conditions of any transitional periods or, in rare cases, permit exceptions to allow for continuations of a limited duration where, for example, no alternative providers are presently available or transitioning to another service provider will require additional steps (perhaps under state agency requirements). We further direct the SDO to work closely with the bureaus and offices responsible for the programs, as well as OGC, to develop transition or continuation plans. Where appropriate, the SDO's transitional terms might include compliance agreements, enhanced agency oversight, and other safeguards designed to eliminate the potential for further misconduct. The review of how exclusions will apply as to agency procurement transactions in this regard shall be made by the SDO, in consultation with the affected bureaus or offices, and with OGC, on a case-by-case basis. Any compliance agreements will require the approval of OGC.
                    </P>
                    <P>To achieve these goals, the SDO first will need to closely evaluate the particular services provided by the party and the availability of alternate providers in the geographic areas served, the typical terms of any contracts that may exist between the provider and its beneficiaries, and any federal or state certification requirements applicable in programs such as the NDBEDP or TRS program. If the SDO determines that a continuation is necessary, the SDO shall fashion an order (or provide for an administrative agreement) that ensures an expedited transition to alternative providers; we emphasize that transitions from excluded entities should be accomplished with all deliberate speed in order to protect program integrity and remove bad actors from our programs. The SDO shall require that during any transitional period, the excluded providers continue providing services to their beneficiaries consistent with our rules and with their contractual obligations. In those cases where obtaining an alternative provider may require new competitive bidding or provider certifications, the SDO shall ensure that the transition period is sufficient to allow for that process.</P>
                    <P>The equities as applied to marketing organizations, enrollment representatives, or consultants who have been suspended or debarred counsel that we adopt a different rule in that context. The SDO shall require that those entities or persons immediately cease their operations related to covered transactions. No exceptions or transitional periods shall be permitted. Program participants shall not have the option to continue doing business with such entities or persons during the period of their suspension or debarment. In our experience, there are many persons and organizations seeking to perform such marketing and consulting services, such that service providers should have ample options for securing replacement vendors. Further, immediate discontinuation of such marketing and consulting services will not have adverse effects on current customers or end-users of the service providers and will help to avoid an excluded actor continuing to benefit under our programs.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, we acknowledge that the NDBEDP and TRS programs present unique circumstances for the SDO to consider in our transition and continuation framework. We note that the Commission certifies a state TRS program for each state, and each state program manages TTY-to-voice TRS, Speech-to-Speech Relay Service, and analog Captioned Telephone Service within the state. Generally, each state program contracts with one provider to offer service within the state, although states have the option to contract with different providers for the different forms of TRS, and states also have the option to contract with multiple providers of the same service or services. Because state programs are subject to the Commission's mandatory minimum standards, and the Interstate TRS Fund, which is overseen by the Commission, is responsible for payment of the interstate minutes originating in any given state, suspension or debarment of a provider that is contracted by a state program would effectively debar that provider from serving the state. If the contract provider in a state is debarred from providing service, the state program would need to contract with a new provider to maintain the state program's eligibility under the Commission's mandatory minimum standards. Thus, for example, because only a single NDBEDP provider is certified to serve each geographic area, suspended or debarred NDBEDP service providers may need to continue to provide services to program participants, with appropriate safeguards as directed by the SDO, until another entity is certified to operate within the respective jurisdiction. To facilitate the transition to another provider, the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau (CGB) should request an NDBEDP certified entity that has been suspended or debarred to voluntarily relinquish its certification within a deadline and explain that if the entity does not voluntarily relinquish its certification, then a revocation proceeding pursuant to 47 CFR 64.6207(h) will be initiated. Similarly, if a TRS provider is suspended or debarred and is the only entity offering a particular form of TRS in a jurisdiction, an alternative provider will need to be certified by the Commission or contracted by a state TRS program to provide those services.</P>
                    <P>Under those circumstances, we anticipate that the SDO will allow a suspended or debarred TRS provider to continue to provide services to program participants until another entity is certified by the Commission or contracted by the relevant state TRS program to provide the form of TRS involved. The Commission will expedite its certification review to the maximum extent possible to facilitate a rapid transition to an alternative provider and will encourage the state authorities to act similarly. Further, the Commission will follow its current notice and hearing process for suspending or revoking a TRS provider certification or a state TRS program certification. These procedures will ensure that any exclusion action is implemented consistent with applicable Commission rules to safeguard Commission programs and program beneficiaries' needs.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate that transitional periods to alternative providers will vary from program to program, and the SDO will need to take individual circumstances into account. In extraordinary situations where alternative providers cannot be identified as quickly as initially anticipated, the SDO may permit a continuation beyond the initial transition period, but any extended transition should be limited and as short as feasible. After the SDO determines the length of the initial and any subsequently extended transition period, the SDO shall require excluded providers to send timely notices to affected customers and end-users of the need to transition to alternative providers.</P>
                    <P>
                        Notices to affected customers or end-users should include: (1) a statement that the participating provider has been suspended or debarred; (2) a statement that the provider will continue to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18144"/>
                        provide services until the date certain as specified in the suspension or debarment order; (3) a statement that users should obtain service from another provider; and (4) a listing of the names and contact information for other providers authorized to supply that service in the jurisdiction. In evaluating transition periods and notice requirements, especially for the Lifeline program, the SDO should also consider any transition and notice provisions that the Commission has previously adopted.
                    </P>
                    <P>The SDO, in consultation with the bureaus, should also take appropriate steps to ensure that a suspension or debarment is implemented in a manner consistent with existing Commission requirements and the needs of program beneficiaries.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interagency Reciprocity</HD>
                    <P>Under the Guidelines, an agency's determination to exclude an entity from its program is afforded governmentwide reciprocity; that is, an entity that is suspended or disbarred by another federal agency is automatically suspended or disbarred from the Commission's nonprocurement and procurement programs. However, the Guidelines also permit an excluded entity to petition the agency for an exception to the governmentwide exclusion. The NPRM explained that adoption of the Guidelines could trigger the suspension or debarment of persons or entities that currently participate in the Commission's programs through governmentwide reciprocity. The NPRM requested comment on whether there were any program participants currently excluded by another agency, and, if so, whether they proposed any modifications or supplemental rules to allow them to continue to participate in Commission programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM also requested comment on how a person excluded by another agency should advise the Commission of the exclusion and request an exception to reciprocity. The NPRM further asked if the Commission should be required to act within a certain period after receiving such a request and whether the agency should issue exceptions, if appropriate, through a negotiated agreement that would include mandatory independent audits, additional reporting requirements, or similar forms of oversight. The NPRM requested comment on how the Commission will provide information regarding entities suspended or debarred by the Commission to the governmentwide Systems of Awards Management Exclusions (
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions). We received no comment on these requests.
                    </P>
                    <P>We generally adopt the Guidelines' reciprocity rule; entities excluded by the Commission SDO will be excluded from nonprocurement programs governmentwide, and entities excluded by other federal agencies' SDOs will be excluded from the Commission's nonprocurement programs subject to this Report and Order. Additionally, we adopt with modifications our proposed supplemental rules on exceptions to reciprocity and explain the procedures necessary to ensure that the SDO can appropriately evaluate whether and to what extent to grant exceptions to exclusions issued by other agencies. Under Supplemental Rules 6001.120(d) and 6001.125, we delegate authority to the SDO to entertain petitions for exceptions from interagency reciprocity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The procedure we adopt is a two-step process, consisting of a preliminary review by the SDO and the SDO's subsequent exception determination, if warranted. First, we require in Supplemental Rule 6001.120, as proposed in the NPRM, that FCC program participants or principals excluded by another agency promptly notify the Commission within ten business days after the participant has received notice of the exclusion so that the Commission may consider this information in connection with participation in the programs that the Commission administers. We also require that any participant or principal who is currently included in the 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusion, based on conduct occurring before the effective date of this rule, provide notice of such exclusion to the Commission within 30 days after these rules become effective. Such notifications shall be made by email and by letter to the head of the bureau or office responsible for the program(s) in which the excluded entity participates, the administrators of any affected program, the Commission's General Counsel, and the Commission's Managing Director. We delegate authority to OGC, in consultation with these bureaus and offices, to revise these methods where appropriate. Participants or principals excluded by other agencies may temporarily continue with existing covered transactions under FCC programs but may not enter into new transactions unless an exception is granted. Such participants and principals must also comply with any orders for transitions or limited continuations that the SDO may issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>When advised of an exclusion issued by another agency, the SDO shall conduct a preliminary evaluation, upon the request of a participant or an excluded person or an FCC bureau or office responsible for administering the affected programs, to determine whether to grant an exception based on factors such as when the underlying misconduct occurred, when the other agency issued the exclusion, whether the excluded person is a sole source provider of services under an FCC program, and how much longer the exclusion will remain in effect. The SDO shall consult with OGC and the bureaus and offices responsible for administration of any affected programs or covered transactions in making this determination. If no exception is granted after the preliminary evaluation, the entity remains excluded from Commission programs. The SDO will promptly notify the excluded party and initiate informal proceedings on transitions to alternate providers or limited continuations, if necessary. The notice shall further state that the excluded party is immediately barred from enrolling new customers or end-users in any Commission programs subject to our suspension and debarment rules, may not enter into any new covered transactions or provide services for a covered transaction, and has 30 days to file a response in which the excluded person may seek an exception from Commission reciprocity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Requests for an exception from an exclusion issued by another agency following a preliminary determination that no exception is warranted must state the reasons for the requested exception and provide any supporting evidence. After the informal proceedings are concluded, the SDO will issue a decision that rules on any exception request filed by the excluded person and may grant the exclusion only if doing so is supported by a preponderance of the evidence. In any event, exceptions should be granted only infrequently, particularly in the context of the criteria that the SDO shall consider in evaluating whether to permit an exception. If the exception request is not granted, the decision will also set forth the appropriate transition or continuation requirements applicable to the exclusion (including customer notice requirements) consistent with Supplemental Rule 6001.310. The SDO will consult with OGC and the bureaus or offices responsible for administration of any affected programs before issuing these rulings. Any exceptions granted by the SDO may be subject to appropriate conditions such as mandatory audits, additional reporting requirements, compliance agreements (with approval of OGC), monitoring, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18145"/>
                        any other forms of effective oversight supplemental to that already provided under FCC programs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We believe that the procedure we have created for the SDO to consider how to implement reciprocity creates sufficient opportunity for the party excluded by another agency to participate in this process, and we modify our proposed supplemental rule. We also require a participant that is not already registered with 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         to do so within 10 days of the date that its suspension or debarment becomes effective. We note that the timing of this registration requirement will differ in cases of suspension, which generally becomes effective when first imposed, and debarment, which becomes effective only when the SDO issues a final decision at the close of the proceedings.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternative Remedies or Settlements</HD>
                    <P>We also adopt potential alternative remedies within the suspension and debarment framework to resolve these proceedings without resorting to an exclusion, if appropriate. The Guidelines allow agencies to settle exclusion actions when it is in the best interest of the government and specifically authorize the use of administrative agreements as the settlement framework. The NPRM invited comment on whether the SDO should have authority to tailor exclusions for particular circumstances or propose remedies in lieu of exclusion. The NPRM asked commenters to address whether the SDO should impose alternative remedies after consulting with appropriate bureau and office staff with knowledge of how entities are certified (in the case of TRS or NDBEDP) or how alternative remedies might impact delivery of services to beneficiaries. The NPRM also asked what types of alternative remedies should be considered, how such remedies should be fashioned, and when alternative resolutions might be appropriate.</P>
                    <P>There was consensus in the record that the SDO should have authority to fashion settlements (often referred to as administrative agreements in the suspension and debarment context) short of imposing exclusions. Moreover, the Interagency Suspension and Debarment Committee (ISDC) encourages agencies to use administrative agreements, which are increasingly being imposed as alternatives to exclusion.</P>
                    <P>We agree and adopt a modified supplemental rule on alternative remedies to suspension and debarment that will include administrative agreements, as contemplated by sections 180.635 and 180.650 of the Guidelines. The modified rule we adopt, however, recognizes that OGC possesses substantial expertise in designing administrative agreements (including compliance agreements under our programs). We require that the SDO consult and coordinate with OGC in structuring any administrative agreements and require the approval of OGC before they may be adopted. In addition, under the rules we adopt, administrative agreements may not: (i) impede or impair the Commission's authority to seek full recovery under its debt collection authority of any improper payments made to the settling party; or (ii) purport to resolve any claims the Government may have against the settling party, such as pending NALs issued by the Enforcement Bureau or causes of action under the False Claims Act or other similar laws or common law claims. Similarly, should a party propose a “global” settlement with the Government on matters before the SDO and pending in other forums, then such a settlement would require the participation and approval of all relevant decisionmakers at the Commission, the Department of Justice, and any other agencies or entities involved, as appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also agree with WISPA and SHLB-SECA that the SDO should determine whether an administrative agreement is the appropriate remedy on a case-by-case basis. We note, as described by the Joint Association Commenters, that one factor that could weigh in favor of resolution through administrative agreement is a participant's “self-report[ing] an issue to the FCC,” depending on the circumstances (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the severity of the violation or misconduct, and whether it was reported promptly and remediated when discovered). Based on the record, we also find that administrative agreements are most effective if, in addition to training and compliance obligations, they require reporting, auditing, and/or independent monitoring.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Period of Debarment</HD>
                    <P>The typical debarment period under the Guidelines is not more than three years, but may be adjusted based on the “seriousness of the causes” for debarment and evaluation of the factors listed in the Guidelines. Further, a debarred person may ask the SDO to reconsider the debarment decision or to reduce the time period of the debarment. The NPRM asked whether we should adopt the standard debarment period and whether there are additional mitigating factors beyond those set forth in the Guidelines that may warrant a reduction in the debarment period, including the absence of an alternative service provider or the participant's post-debarment adoption of compliance agreements. Based on the record, we adopt the standard three-year debarment period under section 180.865 of the Guidelines, which provides the SDO with flexibility to consider adjustments. We also find that a debarred participant may submit a petition under sections 180.875 and 180.880 of the Guidelines for a reduction of the debarment period based on, among other things, the absence of other service providers or the participant's post-debarment adoption and satisfactory implementation of appropriate compliance agreements.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM additionally asked whether schools, libraries, and health care providers should be treated differently from other USF participants with respect to the period of debarment. SHLB-SECA stated that it is “absolutely necessary” to do so because such institutions are not “commercial enterprise[s]; these are the non-profit organizations that the FCC's programs were designed to benefit.” As we have already made clear, the SDO will consider the totality of the circumstances, such as the effect of debarment on the broader public interest, including on the beneficiaries of FCC programs. All of the FCC programs that will be subject to these suspension and debarment rules are intended, ultimately, to benefit unserved or underserved populations—regardless of the type of entity or individual obtaining program services, but all participants must also conduct their business in a manner designed to prevent waste, fraud, or abuse.</P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM also requested comment on a proposed rule that would permit the SDO to determine that a participant's conduct was so egregious as to require it to petition for readmission to Commission programs. We received no comments on this proposal and now adopt the proposed readmission rule. Although we expect that the SDO will not regularly rely on this option, we find that, in the appropriate situation, it will protect the public interest by adding an additional opportunity for review before permitting the worst actors from returning to FCC programs. Where a petition for readmission is required, the debarred party as petitioner must demonstrate that it has implemented sufficient remedial actions to avoid future program violations. These requirements 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18146"/>
                        shall apply regardless of any change of ownership of an excluded entity. If the entity fails to file a required petition or if the request is denied, the SDO may extend the debarment for an additional period under section 180.885 of the Guidelines in order to protect the public interest.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Process Considerations</HD>
                    <P>We resolve several additional procedural questions that the Commission raised in the NPRM to ensure that implementation of any new rules would be efficient and fair. In their comments, parties also offered proposals for other improvements or modifications which we address in this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Appointment and Designation of the SDO.</E>
                         Under our legacy rules, the Enforcement Bureau has authority to resolve universal service suspension and debarment proceedings. The NPRM requested comment on whether we should revisit that delegation given our proposal to significantly expand the scope of the Commission's suspension and debarment rules. Specifically, the NPRM asked whether the Chief, Enforcement Bureau (or designee) should serve as SDO, and, if so, whether it would be appropriate for that person to conduct proceedings in which the individual was involved in any capacity. The NPRM also asked whether persons other than Enforcement Bureau personnel should be considered for appointment as SDOs, and, if so, to specify their qualifications, identifying the Managing Director as one possible alternative. Additionally, the NPRM asked if the SDOs should be subject to appointment for a specific term, or whether they should be subject to removal by the Commission at will—and whether the Supreme Court's decision in 
                        <E T="03">Lucia</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">SEC,</E>
                         138 S. Ct. 2044 (2018), limited the appointment of SDOs. Ultimately, the NPRM explained that our primary goal is for the official to be neutral, but explained that suspension and debarment proceedings are not adjudications subject to the Administrative Procedure Act's (APA) formal hearing provisions that prohibit agency staff from performing both prosecutorial and decisional activities. We adopt an approach under which a Commission-appointed official, the SDO, will preside over suspension and debarment proceedings under delegated authority.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters generally supported our proposal that the official should be neutral. The Joint Association Commenters and SHLB-SECA argued that, to ensure such neutrality, the Commission should house the SDO within the Office of the Managing Director (OMD) or OGC and/or should establish clear demarcations between the suspension and debarment function, on the one hand, and the enforcement and program administration functions, on the other. Mr. Meunier agreed that such separation is “desirable,” although not required as a matter of due process. Mr. Meunier and SHLB-SECA also urged that the SDO must have sufficient background, knowledge, and expertise with the highly complex rules underlying USF, TRS, and other federal programs to avoid lengthy delays and erroneous findings and conclusions. And finally, one commenter, E-Rate Central, opined that appointment of the appropriate SDO might “depend upon the remedial action contemplated.”</P>
                    <P>As the foregoing makes clear, while commenters generally agreed on the principle that the SDO should be “neutral” and have relevant expertise, they did not coalesce around any specific proposal. We agree that the SDO's decisions should be informed by the relevant subject matter experts within the Commission, and we permit the SDO to draw upon and apply expertise from the pertinent bureaus and offices.</P>
                    <P>The Commission will designate an individual to serve as the SDO. It is not yet clear what demands the Commission will face in terms of staffing, resources, and time on an annual basis in connection with suspension and debarment proceedings. Therefore, we decline to adopt any of the other specific proposals regarding an SDO's appointment at this time. Rather, to enhance administrative economy and preserve flexibility to better serve the public interest in light of future staffing resources and enforcement demands, we anticipate that the Commission will address the agency's organizational needs and practices when making the SDO appointment.</P>
                    <P>To the extent that commenters question a bureau or office's objectivity to handle exclusion or LDP proceedings, we disagree. It is our experience that bureaus and offices routinely work together to administer the Commission's existing suspension and debarment rules in an objective manner, and we anticipate and expect that such efforts would continue. We delegate authority to the Office of General Counsel, in consultation with the Office of the Managing Director, the Enforcement Bureau, the Wireline Competition Bureau, and the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau to revise existing delegated authority rules to accommodate this planned shift in responsibilities.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pre-Notice Letters.</E>
                         We permit the use of pre-notice letters, as numerous commenters urged. According to the ISDC, these letters “include show cause letters, requests for information, and similar types of letters” and “are used to inform an individual or entity that the agency suspension and debarment program is reviewing matters for potential SDO action, to identify the assertion of misconduct or the history of poor performance, and to give the recipient an opportunity to respond prior to formal SDO action.” CTIA and USTelecom suggested that such letters should be required. The Joint Association Commenters, in contrast, noted that pre-notice letters are generally beneficial and should be used “whenever possible,” while NCTA acknowledged they may not be appropriate in response to “egregious conduct.” We agree that pre-notice letters may be a useful tool in appropriate circumstances, for example, if it is clear that the misconduct at issue should be resolved through an administrative agreement. We decline, however, to require their issuance in all cases. CTIA and USTelecom did not identify any agency that has made pre-notice letters mandatory, and we find that doing so could harm the public interest by preventing the Commission from moving quickly when necessary to protect our programs and their beneficiaries.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Imputation of Conduct.</E>
                         The Guidelines' imputation rule allows the agency to impute conduct from an individual to an organization, from an organization to an individual, among individuals, or among organizations in appropriate circumstances. The NPRM noted that the rule allows us to “plug a gap in the Commission's current suspension and debarment mechanism.” We now adopt the Guidelines' imputation rule as proposed, which will afford us greater flexibility in responding to misconduct.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters expressed concern about the imputation of conduct under the Guidelines and recommended possible limitations or modifications. One commenter, E-mpa, also objected to any imputation, arguing that suspension or debarment of an entire company as a result of bad conduct by only a few individuals could cause undue hardship to all those at the company whose conduct was not improper. Such an argument, however, misses the critical point that where bad conduct exists, our obligation is to protect our programs and program beneficiaries, and in many cases any potential harm to the company or its “good actors” will be greatly outweighed by the harm that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18147"/>
                        such firms can cause to our programs and beneficiaries. Further, E-mpa fails to recognize that the Guidelines' imputation rule is permissive, not mandatory—it sets forth when an agency “may” impute conduct—and permits the SDO to take individual facts into account on a case-by-case basis. We also find commenters' other concerns with the Guidelines' imputation rule unpersuasive. Specifically, SHLB-SECA urged that imputation from an individual to an organization should require the organization's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. While we generally agree that imputation from an individual to an organization will be most appropriate based on the latter's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence, there may be other scenarios where imputation is appropriate due to an organization's inadequate supervision or oversight. We also reject the recommendation of CTIA and USTelecom to limit imputation to an organization only where an individual acts within the scope of his/her employment; such a limitation would emphasize form over substance and fail to capture scenarios where an organization has knowledge of, and benefits from, an individual's misconduct that is outside of his/her scope of employment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We also note that neither of the EPA decisions cited by CTIA and USTelecom suggests that imputation is appropriate only when an individual acts within the scope of his/her employment. In the 
                        <E T="03">All Out Sewer and Drain Service</E>
                         decision, the debarring official made passing reference to the fact that the individual “was acting within the scope of his agency” and “duties” for the company, but the debarring official did not state or suggest that this fact was necessary to his analysis. So too in 
                        <E T="03">Michael J. Conrad,</E>
                         the debarring official quoted a representation from a plea agreement that the individual was “acting within the scope of employment for the benefit of the corporation.” But this fact is not referenced or cited as relevant to the debarring official's imputation from the organization to the individual.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, NCTA's concern—that the imputation rule could trigger strict liability for a provider based on actions by a third party not within the provider's control and that the provider made good-faith efforts to identify—is misplaced. Section 180.630 permits (without requiring) imputation in such scenarios, and the provider may demonstrate why the SDO should not impute liability.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Presentation of Evidence.</E>
                         The NPRM requested comment on several evidentiary procedures, including who should provide information supporting suspension or debarment to the SDO in an exclusion proceeding. The NPRM proposed that where the Office of Inspector General (OIG) has conducted the underlying investigation supporting the suspension and debarment, it should have primary responsibility for providing the information, because it would be the entity most familiar with the underlying facts. In other situations, the NPRM proposed, it might be appropriate for the presentation to be made by the other units within the Commission that may have conducted the investigation, such as the Enforcement Bureau, with input from the bureau most responsible for the implementation of the relevant program, who may inform how to implement suspension or debarment without adversely impacting the persons or entities the programs are designed to assist. We received minimal comment on this issue. SHLB-SECA agreed that an exclusion proceeding generally should involve the participation of the bureau responsible for the relevant FCC program to leverage its institutional memory and expertise. Consistent with the Guidelines' direction that suspension and debarment proceedings should be “informal,” and with the analysis of Mr. Meunier that the SDO exercises “managerial decision functions,” we authorize in Supplemental Rule 6001.445 that the SDO in each proceeding designate a Commission unit primarily responsible for sharing relevant materials with the SDO to inform the SDO's decisionmaking and, where necessary, establish coordination procedures for other bureaus or offices to participate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Reconsideration, Review, and Appeal.</E>
                         The Guidelines are generally silent on procedures for review of the SDO's decisions. The NPRM proposed that a determination by the SDO should be subject to reconsideration under section 405 of the Communications Act or an AFR filed under section 155(c)(4) of the Act, and requested comment on whether it would be appropriate or necessary to adopt any supplemental rules regarding appeals and review. The NPRM also requested comment on whether there should be specific timeframes for appeals and requests for review, and which standard and timeframe should apply to related stay requests.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters generally agreed that we should provide certainty with respect to the mechanisms, standards, and timeframes for reconsideration, review, and appeal of suspension and debarment decisions. For instance, CTIA and USTelecom requested that we specify both the process and timelines for review and that we authorize direct judicial review of SDO decisions, subject to a shot-clock. The Joint Association Commenters recommended that we establish clear timeframes and due process protections for suspension and debarment proceedings, also urging that once the SDO issues a decision, a provider should be allowed to seek direct judicial review. NCTA agreed that the Commission should establish a set of clear timeframes for action by the SDO, as well as review of those decisions by the full Commission. Mr. Meunier stated that with respect to appeals, the Guidelines have no requirements “but agencies that wish to do so may include an avenue of internal agency appeal,” noting that EPA provides a “restricted option” for an appeal officer to reverse a suspension or debarment only where the SDO “based the decision on an error of fact or law, or abused his or her discretion.”</P>
                    <P>To provide for additional opportunities for review consistent with the Communications Act and our rules, we adopt procedures for review of SDO decisions and permit reconsideration, review, and appeal as follows. First, we reject proposals to allow direct judicial review of SDO decisions. Indeed, the Communications Act itself precludes such review. Moreover, we separately find that an aggrieved party will have an adequate opportunity to seek judicial review of a suspension or debarment decision after exhausting our procedures, which afford significant due process protections.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, we clarify that a suspended party may seek reconsideration and/or Commission review only after the SDO has issued a final suspension decision under section 180.755 of the Guidelines. (Such filings remain subject to the Commission's other, more general legal requirements.) Although a suspension is effective on the date the SDO first signs a suspension order (the initial suspension decision), under our supplemental rules, that initial decision shall only prevent the suspended party from enrolling new customers or otherwise entering into new covered transactions. After receiving notice of the initial suspension decision, a provider has an opportunity to respond and participate in an informal proceeding, after which, the SDO issues a suspension decision with written findings of fact (the final suspension decision). We find that, consistent with our rules and precedent, a party may not file a petition for reconsideration (PFR) or an AFR of the initial suspension decision. These decisions are not amenable to PFR because they are interlocutory. They do not mark the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18148"/>
                        consummation of the suspension decisionmaking process. The Joint Association Commenters seek to justify a PFR of the initial decision by asserting that “the decision of the SDO regarding a proposed suspension or debarment should contain specific findings of fact and law as well as the SDO's reasoning for such findings to provide a clear record in the event of an appeal.” But unlike the requirements for final decisions, the Guidelines and supplemental rules that we adopt in this Report and Order do not require the SDO to include such findings in an initial suspension decision or proposed debarment. As a result, reconsideration of the initial suspension would not be appropriate at this early stage of the process. Initial suspension decisions are likewise not conducive to AFR, because any issues presented to the Commission in an AFR must be first raised with the entity acting on delegated authority—which cannot have occurred at this point in the suspension process.
                    </P>
                    <P>In contrast, a party may seek reconsideration (if necessary) or Commission review (when otherwise permitted) of a final suspension decision only where the party has responded to the initial suspension decision. If a party does not oppose the initial suspension, however, the party waives the right to challenge the final suspension decision. As we proposed in the NPRM, and consistent with section 405 of the Act, a final suspension decision is not interlocutory, because it marks the consummation of the suspension process. Because the Guidelines do not expressly provide for reconsideration of suspension decisions, and to eliminate any ambiguity, we hereby adopt a supplemental rule expressly permitting reconsideration of final suspension decisions in accordance with section 1.106 of our rules. We note further that like other decisions on delegated authority, a participant may seek Commission review of a final suspension decision when otherwise permissible under the Act and our existing rules.</P>
                    <P>Third, we agree with commenters that reconsideration and Commission review of suspension decisions should be subject to reasonable timelines. Indeed, the Guidelines already establish timelines for an SDO to complete the exclusion process and issue a final, written decision. To those ends, we also reject the request of INCOMPAS to implement a 90-day constructive denial rule as inconsistent with the Guidelines. And we agree with commenters that absent a clear timeline for reconsideration, review, and appeal, there is a possibility that suspension and debarment proceedings, including appeals, will be lengthy. We thus adopt rules directing the SDO to resolve any PFR of a final suspension decision within 45 days, which the SDO may extend for good cause, and the Commission to endeavor to resolve any AFR of a final suspension decision within 180 days. We note several commenters raised concerns regarding practices by USAC related to the timing of administrative processing. We conclude that these comments address issues that are outside of the scope of this rulemaking and reject them. We note, of course, that commenters may raise these concerns in an appropriate open proceeding or may propose changes to our rules through a petition for rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        Fourth, we conclude that a final suspension decision is a non-hearing order that resolves an informal proceeding. As such, the decision is subject to a permissive stay contemplated by § 1.102(b) of our rules. We remind participants that a permissive stay is an extraordinary remedy. Consistent with Commission policy for evaluating stay requests, the decisionmaker (whether the SDO or the Commission) will consider the four criteria set forth in 
                        <E T="03">Virginia Petroleum Jobbers Association:</E>
                         (1) whether the requesting party is likely to succeed on the merits; (2) whether the requesting party will be irreparably injured without a stay; (3) the degree of injury to other parties if relief is granted; and (4) whether a stay is in the public interest. We decline to adopt an automatic stay when the decisionmaker fails to issue a decision on the stay request within a prescribed timeframe. We likewise do not agree that the filing of an AFR should trigger an automatic stay. We find that such procedural steps are unnecessary given the timelines we adopt for reconsideration and review.
                    </P>
                    <P>Fifth, we generally adopt the same rules and standards for reconsideration, review, and appeal of debarment decisions. Unlike suspensions, debarments become effective after the SDO issues a final debarment order. Accordingly, we adopt the Guidelines' reconsideration rule for debarments and also clarify that any debarment decision may be subject to an AFR under § 1.115 of our rules. And, as with suspension decisions, we clarify that a debarment is a non-hearing order subject to a permissive stay under § 1.102(b) of our rules.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Limited Denial of Participation</HD>
                    <P>We adopt an additional remedy to supplement the suspension and debarment framework adopted herein. In the NPRM, the Commission asked whether we should adopt a mechanism similar to a process utilized by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), which provides for a “limited denial of participation” as an alternative to suspension and debarment. (72 FR 73484, 73487 (Dec. 27, 2007)). Many of the procedures governing this mechanism resemble those under the Guidelines for suspensions or debarments, but HUD's LDP does not trigger inter-agency reciprocity because the LDP is not part of the governmentwide suspension and debarment system. Therefore, under HUD's regulations, imposing an LDP prevents a bad actor from continuing to participate in the particular program(s) and/or geographic region(s) that prompted the limited exclusion, but does not result in the party's placement on the SAM.gov Exclusions triggering governmentwide reciprocal exclusions. HUD's rules also offer flexibility by permitting the agency to initiate a suspension or debarment while an LDP is ongoing if the SDO thereafter determines an exclusion is more appropriate. The NPRM requested comment on whether the Commission should adopt the LDP mechanism and, if so, what standards might be appropriate for its use.</P>
                    <P>We find that an LDP will increase the agency's flexibility to protect its programs from actors whose conduct is concerning, but which does not warrant suspension and debarment. Additionally, the LDP mechanism we adopt will provide additional due process protections beyond those proposed in the NPRM by requiring that before an LDP may be issued, the alleged wrongdoer must first be provided with notice and an opportunity to be heard. Similar to HUD's LDP, a Commission-issued LDP will not have governmentwide effect, but will apply only to FCC activities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
                    <P>
                        LDPs shall be available as a remedy for misconduct arising from any agency programs subject to our suspension or debarment rules. Commenters did not recommend a more expansive scope, and we have concluded that there is no need to broaden the scope of LDPs. Further, as proposed in the NPRM, we conclude that a denial of participation need not be limited to the program where the misconduct occurred, but may be extended by the SDO to any other Commission programs subject to LDPs, depending on the facts and circumstances of the case. For example, if the misconduct involves a violation of competitive bidding requirements in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18149"/>
                        E-Rate program, the action may warrant a denial of participation from another program involving competitive bidding, such as the Rural Health Care program. The SDO should make these determinations based on the unique circumstances of each case, and in coordination with all relevant bureaus and offices.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters generally supported our adoption of an LDP. For example, SHLB-SECA “firmly support[ed]” our use of an LDP “as a parallel, more flexible alternative to suspension and debarment.” According to SHLB-SECA, an LDP “could be put to good use to counteract the one-off bad conduct of participants with no history of the same, similar, or other misconduct . . . .” SHLB-SECA further explained that an LDP would not be the appropriate remedy “where there is evidence of substantial wrongdoing” but could be an effective tool to incentivize participants “to respond to information requests and other directives,” provided that appropriate procedural protections are maintained. E-Rate Central agreed that an LDP could provide the Commission “with a useful investigative tool while at the same time providing greater transparency and due process for targets of an investigation.” We largely agree with these views regarding the benefits of an LDP, but we emphasize that the Commission remains free to rely on other investigative tools to ensure compliance with the Commission's information requests and other directives.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters also requested that we adopt additional limitations on the imposition of this remedy. The Joint Association Commenters noted that the Commission can avoid “continuity of service concerns” by restricting the imposition of LDPs to new awards in affected programs, and by not covering existing contracts or customers. SHLB-SECA agreed and also urged that the LDP rules should incorporate due process protections. The Joint Association Commenters and SHLB-SECA also both recommended that an LDP should be imposed for a shorter period than a suspension and should not affect existing customers or awards. Finally, CTIA and USTelecom generally did not oppose adoption of an LDP, but suggested that it should not be imposed based solely on an assessment that a program applicant's participation in the program poses an “unsatisfactory” risk, as proposed in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>The LDP mechanism we adopt in this Report and Order affords the SDO the flexibility to fashion the appropriate remedy based on the facts and circumstances of each case. We therefore decline to limit LDPs to cover only new awards in the program(s) in which the misconduct occurred as some commenters suggested. This remedy is similar to one adopted by HUD, which does not limit LDPs in this fashion, and there may be instances where it is in the public interest for an LDP to impact a provider's existing contracts or customers or participation in other FCC programs. We note, however, that the SDO should consider service disruptions and other customer-facing effects when determining the scope of an LDP, as it bears on the best interests of the federal government. Likewise, to the extent that an LDP could impact existing contracts or customers, the SDO should provide for transitions or continuations of services in a manner similar to what we have adopted in this Report and Order for suspensions or debarments to ensure that any service disruptions are mitigated. Given the limited scope and duration of the LDP, as well as the possibility that the SDO will adopt remedies designed to bring the subject of the LDP into compliance with the Commission's rules, we anticipate that it will be less likely that existing customers will need a different service provider.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Causes and Factors</HD>
                    <P>We adopt, with several modifications, the proposed rule on LDP causes set forth in the NPRM. In evaluating whether to issue an LDP, we conclude that the SDO should consider the totality of the circumstances, the factors set forth in section 180.860 of the Guidelines, and such additional factors as whether the misconduct was an isolated occurrence, how egregious the misconduct was, and whether the violator promptly and fully self-reported or otherwise took concrete steps to come into compliance. This analysis is somewhat similar to what the Commission undertakes in the context of forfeitures.</P>
                    <P>We conclude, and commenters agree, that it is in the public interest to provide the agency with discretion to implement a remedy most appropriate for the misconduct at hand. We clarify in Supplemental Rule 6001.1103(a), however, that if the alleged misconduct involves any of the causes set forth in section 180.800(a) of the Guidelines, or the filing of a criminal indictment or information or a conviction or evidence of fraud, the presumption shall be that a suspension will be the more appropriate remedy. In addition, we adopt Supplemental Rule 6001.1105(a), but clarify therein that only misconduct in those FCC programs subject to the LDP remedy may trigger the LDP remedy. Limiting those causes to conduct in programs subject to the LDP remedy is a conforming change reflecting our decision that LDPs shall be available as a remedy only for those agency programs for which a suspension or debarment could be sought.</P>
                    <P>Finally, we do not agree with CTIA and USTelecom that one of the enumerated LDP causes—permitting LDPs on the basis of a provider's “unsatisfactory risk”—is impermissibly vague or overbroad. To the contrary, our approach is consistent with the Guidelines, which permit suspension and debarment based on, among other things, an entity's “unsatisfactory performance of one or more public agreements or transactions.” Furthermore, the Commission is required by governmentwide guidance to manage risks in its programs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Evidentiary Standard</HD>
                    <P>We adopt an “adequate evidence” standard for an LDP consistent with the evidentiary standard for a suspension under the Guidelines. We also adopt two proposed rules that explicitly define circumstances that constitute “adequate evidence.” First, an existing LDP related to any Commission program shall constitute adequate evidence to enter a concurrent LDP for any other Commission program(s). Second, filing of a criminal indictment or information, regardless of whether it is based on offenses against, or related to, the Commission, shall constitute adequate evidence for the purpose of limited denial of participation actions. While we adopt two per se rules, these are not the only circumstances that may constitute adequate evidence.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initiating a Proceeding</HD>
                    <P>
                        To preserve the flexibility of this remedy, an LDP proceeding may be initiated in several ways. As with exclusions, the head of any bureau or office that determines that an LDP would be appropriate based on the causes and factors in Supplemental Rule 6001.1105 may refer the matter to the SDO along with documentation supporting this remedy. Following the referral, the SDO, after consultation with the relevant bureau or office, shall determine whether an exclusion, an LDP, other action, or no action is most appropriate. If the SDO determines an LDP is appropriate, the SDO shall promptly provide any person subject to the proceeding with notice that the LDP has been proposed. Such notice shall specify the causes for the proposed limited denial of participation, the potential effect of the remedy, including its possible length and the FCC 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18150"/>
                        program(s) and geographic areas (if relevant) impacted. The notice shall explain the recipient's right to contest the proposed limited denial of participation as provided under Supplemental Rule 6001.1113 by seeking a conference or providing documents in opposition, or both, and state that the person has 15 days to respond.
                    </P>
                    <P>An LDP may also be initiated if an SDO determines during a suspension or debarment proceeding, after consultation with the relevant bureau or office, that an LDP would be a more appropriate remedy. The SDO shall provide notice to the respondent that the suspension or debarment proceeding shall be suspended, and the record for the suspension and debarment proceeding transferred to and incorporated into the LDP proceeding. The imposition of an LDP, however, does not alter the right of the Commission to suspend or debar any person under this part if the SDO later determines that an exclusion is warranted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Agreements</HD>
                    <P>We conclude that administrative agreements, including compliance agreements, may be issued either to supplement an LDP or as an alternative to an LDP to ensure that the SDO has maximum flexibility to fashion the appropriate remedy. As in suspension or debarment proceedings, administrative remedies may be implemented only after consultation with the bureaus and offices responsible for the programs in which the misconduct occurred, and compliance agreements shall require consultation with and approval by OGC.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Period of Limited Denial of Participation</HD>
                    <P>We also adopt our proposal that the SDO may impose an LDP for any term up to twelve months, but we also permit the SDO to grant an extension of an additional six months (not to exceed eighteen months in total). Such an extension should be imposed if review of conduct during the initial suspension period: (i) fails to demonstrate full compliance with the terms of the LDP or any supplemental administrative agreements; or (ii) shows other misconduct in any Commission program subject to this remedy or additional new causes sufficient to support extension of the LDP period. In addition, the SDO imposing the LDP may also initiate a suspension or debarment proceeding (after consultation with applicable bureaus) if review of conduct during the initial or extended LDP period demonstrates conduct that may warrant a suspension or debarment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional LDP Process Considerations</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the Commission requested comment on several additional process proposals and questions related to the proposed LDP mechanism. In their comments, parties also offered proposals for other improvements or modifications which we address in this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SDO Authority to Conduct LDP Proceedings.</E>
                         The NPRM proposed that the authority to conduct LDP proceedings would reside with the bureaus administering the relevant programs. However, after review of the record, we agree with the Joint Association Commenters and conclude that consolidating this authority under the SDO will provide a more streamlined administrative mechanism and will promote consistency in the application of this remedy. Consolidated authority will also allow the SDO to more easily convert an LDP to an exclusion proceeding, or vice versa, based on the alleged bad actor's conduct and the evidence that the SDO reviews during the proceeding.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Converting an LDP Proceeding to a Suspension and Debarment Proceeding.</E>
                         Just as an SDO may determine that a suspension and debarment proceeding may be paused pending consideration of an LDP on the same facts, if after an LDP has been initiated the SDO either learns of new facts evidencing more serious misconduct than initially suggested or learns of new misconduct, the SDO shall have authority to initiate an exclusion proceeding if appropriate after consulting with the relevant bureau or office.
                    </P>
                    <P>We also adopt Supplemental Rule 6001.1121, as proposed in the NPRM, to establish procedures to handle parallel proceedings in cases where a subsequent suspension and debarment is proposed based on the same transactions or conduct underlying the LDP. Under this rule, LDP proceedings are stayed for 30 days so that respondents may contest the proposed suspension or debarment. If the respondent contests the proposed exclusion, the proceedings will be consolidated and the LDP record incorporated into the exclusion proceeding.</P>
                    <P>We further emphasize that if the person or entity subject to an LDP fails to comply with its terms (including those in any administrative agreements), the SDO, after consultation with the bureaus or offices, may initiate an exclusion proceeding. If the suspension and debarment proceeding is initiated when an LDP is already in effect, the LDP shall remain operative while the exclusion is contested. Where both suspension or debarment and LDP proceedings are pending, the procedures described in section 6001.1121 of the Supplemental Rules, as proposed in the NPRM, shall be applicable.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Imputation of Conduct.</E>
                         We also adopt our proposed rule by which the Commission may impute conduct in LDP proceedings in the same manner as provided under section 180.630 of the Guidelines for exclusion proceedings, which we have adopted in this Report and Order.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Covered Programs, Participant Tiers, and Disclosures</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of Covered Transactions</HD>
                    <P>The Guidelines generally define “non-procurement transactions” as “any transaction, regardless of type (except procurement contracts),” including but not limited to grants, cooperative agreements, scholarships, fellowships, contracts of assistance, loans, loan guarantees, subsidies, insurances, payments for specified uses, and donation agreements. Thus, procurement contracts awarded directly by a federal agency would not be considered “covered transactions” under the nonprocurement governmentwide guidance for suspension and debarment. However, where non-federal participants in nonprocurement transactions award contracts for goods or services, such contracts would be deemed to be covered transactions if the amount of the contract equals or exceeds $25,000. Notwithstanding this definition, the Guidelines provide agencies with flexibility to determine which nonprocurement transactions should be covered by their suspension and debarment rules.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission's primary nonprocurement programs have been the Covered Programs. For example, in 2024, disbursements totaled $8.59 billion for USF programs, and $1.48 billion (projected) for the 2025-26 TRS Fund Year. Based in part on audits and reports by the Commission's Inspector General, the NPRM proposed that all transactions under the USF programs, TRS programs, and the NDBEDP be considered covered transactions under any new rules, and that all other Commission transactions be exempt from such rules. The NPRM, tentatively concluding that application of the suspension and debarment rules to these programs would improve the sustainability of their funding for the benefit of those whom the programs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18151"/>
                        serve, requested comment on the benefits of applying the suspension and debarment rules to the USF programs, TRS programs, and the NDBEDP. We now adopt the tentative conclusions in the NPRM, for which there is substantial support in the record.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM also requested comment on whether all transactions covered by the Guidelines' definition should be included within the Commission's suspension and debarment regime or whether some Commission nonprocurement programs should be exempted because alternative remedies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         license revocation) may be more appropriate. The NPRM noted that the Guidelines primarily, but not exclusively, focus on transactions that involve a transfer of Federal funds to a non-Federal entity. The Guidelines exclude from the definition of “covered transaction” any “permit, license, certificate or similar instrument issued as a means to regulate public health, safety or the environment,” unless a federal agency specifically designates it as a covered transaction. Consistent with that framework, the NPRM proposed to exclude all other transactions, such as applications for section 214 authorizations, equipment authorizations, and broadcast and spectrum licenses issued by the Commission. Similarly, the NPRM proposed to exclude all transactions to or from licensees and those with spectrum usage rights (except for those USF, TRS, and NDBEDP transactions where such an entity is a participant), such as incentive auction payments or repacking payments.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters overwhelmingly supported the NPRM's proposal to apply the Guidelines to the USF programs. Funds For Learning, the Joint Association Commenters, and SHLB-SECA noted that the current suspension and debarment rules for USF programs are too narrow or inflexible and can impede the Commission's ability to safeguard its programs against bad actors. E-Rate Central also generally favored “the adoption of more formal suspension and debarment rules” for E-Rate transactions. Commenters also expressed support for coverage of the TRS program and the NDBEDP. We adopt our proposal to apply the modified Guidelines and our supplemental rules to nonprocurement transactions under these programs.</P>
                    <P>Commenters also generally supported excluding programs other than the USF and TRS programs and the NDBEDP from coverage under any new rules. For example, CTIA and USTelecom “agree[d] with the Commission's finding that the Communications Act and the Commission's rules regarding [other] applications and transactions provide more appropriate remedies.” WISPA also agreed with the Commission's approach, “particularly because” excluded transactions are “governed by separate Commission rules,” and warned against expanding the set of covered programs. And Mr. Meunier noted that while most agencies do not adopt supplemental rules identifying an “elaborate list of inclusions,” that fact “does not preclude an agency from issuing such a list if it chooses to do so.” The rules, therefore, shall not extend at this time to transactions carried out under the Commission's other currently existing programs, nor shall they extend to transactions to or from licensees and those with spectrum usage rights (with the exception of transactions under the Covered Programs where such an entity is a participant). These decisions find ample support in the record.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Participant Categories</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tiers.</E>
                         All participants (primary tier and lower tier) are potentially subject to suspension and debarment. The Guidelines use “tiers” to categorize program participants, and a participant's placement in a particular tier can affect the scope of that participant's required disclosures. Primary tier participants are those who deal directly with the agency or program administrators by submitting proposals for, or entering into, covered transactions. Lower tier participants are typically those who enter into covered transactions with a person at the next higher tier. Agencies, however, have some discretion to designate participants as belonging to the primary tier, the lower tier, or neither. The NPRM proposed to define USF, TRS, and NDBEDP program participants as primary tier participants and other individuals who contract with program participants as lower tier participants. The NPRM also proposed, consistent with the Guidelines, to designate certain parties who do not directly contract with the primary tier participant (for example, subcontractors) as lower tier participants if they meet certain criteria. While the tier designations varied by program, the NPRM generally proposed two prongs for the lower tier participant definition. First, the participant must belong to one of several specified categories, including contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for supported transactions. Second, the participant must also satisfy at least one of the following three criteria: (1) the participant must have a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program; (2) the participant must be a “principal,” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000.
                    </P>
                    <P>We now adopt the framework of primary tier and lower tier participants proposed in the NPRM and summarized in the chart below. The program-specific rationales for our designations are discussed in detail below, but, overall, we find that expanding the definition of lower tier participant for each program will provide the Commission with the flexibility necessary for more comprehensive program oversight, without imposing onerous requirements on participants. Subcontractors and suppliers play essential roles in carrying out covered transactions, and they are entrusted with large sums of Federal funds. By classifying them as lower tier participants, rather than excluding them from designation as participants, our rules will establish more extensive oversight and control of program spending. Further, these parties who may play a significant role in covered transactions will be subject to exclusion from our programs, when justified by the facts. Therefore, the expanded list of lower tier participants as described in the summary chart and codified in our Supplemental Rules affords the Commission authority to take an exclusion action, if justified by the record, with respect to these parties who are often key players in transactions under our programs. We thus find that this broad definition of lower tier participants, including subcontractors and suppliers, is in the public interest.</P>
                    <P>Our adopted designations for the Covered Programs by tier are summarized in the chart below.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r150">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Primary tier participants</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Lower tier participants</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">High-Cost</ENT>
                            <ENT>Service Providers</ENT>
                            <ENT>Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants or their agents or representatives for High-Cost-supported transactions, if:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="18152"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Lifeline</ENT>
                            <ENT>Service Providers</ENT>
                            <ENT>Any participant in the Lifeline program (except for the primary tier carrier), regardless of tier or dollar value, including but not limited to those that are reimbursed based on the number of Lifeline subscribers enrolled</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives and Lifeline marketing organizations for Lifeline-supported transactions, or their agents or representatives, if</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">E-Rate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Schools and Libraries
                                <LI>FCC Form 471 Service Providers</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for E-Rate-supported transactions, if
                                <LI>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RHC</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Health Care Providers
                                <LI>FCC Form 462/466 Service Providers</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for RHC-supported transactions, if
                                <LI>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) if such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                TRS
                                <LI>NDBEDP</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Service Providers
                                <LI>Certified Programs</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers with whom the certified programs have a contractual relationship, consultants, or their agents or representatives for TRS- or NDBEDP-supported transactions, if:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ACP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Service Providers</ENT>
                            <ENT>Any participant in the ACP (except for the primary tier service provider), regardless of tier or dollar value, including but not limited to those reimbursed based on the number of ACP subscribers enrolled.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(Contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives and any ACP Marketing Organizations for ACP-supported transactions, or their agents or representatives, if</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ACP Outreach Grant Program</ENT>
                            <ENT>Recipients of ACP Outreach grants</ENT>
                            <ENT>Subrecipients, contractors or subcontractors of the grant recipients, or their agents or representatives, if</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(2) such person is considered a “principal;” or</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>(3) the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General Lower Tier Considerations.</E>
                         Several commenters, including CTIA, USTelecom, and NCTA, suggested that the Commission either exclude lower tier participants from the rules' coverage altogether or adopt a purported safe harbor described in the Guidelines that provides participants with three options for verifying other participants' status. Specifically, CTIA and USTelecom suggested that the NPRM did not adequately explain why extending the rules to subcontractors and suppliers was necessary to promote the public interest, and they further stated that such an extension would “impose unduly burdensome investigation obligations on primary tier participants.” The breadth and scope of the Guidelines offers a governmentwide default for including subcontractors and suppliers. CTIA and USTelecom do not offer any indication of why this scope is unnecessary for failing to guard against waste, fraud, and abuse, and indeed, the Commission's experience suggests otherwise. That is, subcontractors and suppliers may originate or amplify the extent of fraud, further supporting the need for this scope.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CTIA and USTelecom also raised the possibility that subcontractor exclusions could significantly limit “competitive options” for primary tier contractors, particularly in rural areas. Similarly, NCTA urged the Commission not to “impos[e] a strict liability standard on providers that would hold them accountable for actions by a third party that are not within their control and that they made a good faith effort to identify.” Because subcontractors and suppliers play essential roles in carrying out covered transactions and are entrusted with large sums of Federal funds, they are also in a position to plan, initiate, or carry out wrongdoing, both with or without the awareness of the primary tier participant. Applying the rules to all participants, including subcontractors and suppliers, establishes the most comprehensive level of program oversight to ensure the actions of all bad actors can be addressed so program funds go to applicants who need it and comply with program rules. Applicants and participants in programs that the Commission administers should carefully consider the scope of the Commission's requirements directed at safeguarding waste, fraud, and abuse, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18153"/>
                        when receiving and spending these funds and deciding with whom to engage in business.
                    </P>
                    <P>We find NCTA's concerns misguided. First, nothing in the Guidelines imposes a strict liability standard, as NCTA has suggested. To the contrary, the Guidelines explicitly list a number of mitigating factors that the SDO may consider in evaluating exclusions, including “[w]hether and to what extent [the participant] planned, initiated, or carried out the wrongdoing,” “[w]hether there is a pattern or prior history of wrongdoing,” and “[o]ther factors that are appropriate to the circumstances of a particular case.” These mitigating factors give the Commission flexibility to address each case on its own merits and ensure that providers will not be held to a “strict liability standard.” Second, as discussed above, the Guidelines give the Commission flexibility to determine whether the actions of a lower tier participant should result in any action against a primary tier participant. Finally, as discussed above, the Guidelines also furnish several methods for primary tier participants to collect information about their lower tier business partners. Primary tier participants who follow these methods, which we largely adopt with minor modifications consistent with our augmented disclosure requirements, can further mitigate any liability.</P>
                    <P>We are similarly unpersuaded by CTIA and USTelecom's argument that suspension or debarment of subcontractors and other lower tier participants could limit the ability of primary tier participants to bid on work. If a service provider concludes there is a bona fide shortage of competent contractors, subcontractors, or suppliers to enable it to bid on a covered transaction, it can support an excluded party's request for an “exception” under the Guidelines, allowing the excluded person to participate in future transactions. As discussed above, one basis for granting such an exception is the unavailability of any other qualified entities to perform the necessary services.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the commenters ask that if disclosure requirements are nevertheless extended to lower tier participants, then primary tier participants should be permitted to use any one of three options to satisfy disclosure obligations provided in section 180.300 of the Guidelines. As nothing in the NPRM proposed to limit the disclosure options for lower tier participants, we agree that the disclosure obligation options described in section 180.300 should be applicable to all participants.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Lower Tier Transaction Thresholds.</E>
                         As described above, one of the three criteria in the NPRM's proposed definition of lower tier participant is “the amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.” Some commenters expressed concern that this threshold was too low. CTIA and USTelecom argued that a $25,000 threshold would sweep in nearly all contractors for some projects and would not adequately account for inflation. They suggested that the threshold be increased to $100,000. E-Rate Central in turn sought clarification on whether the $25,000 threshold applies to “an individual FRN, application, invoice, or some combination thereof.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We find that the $25,000 threshold is reasonable and decline to raise the transaction value threshold to an amount greater than $25,000. That threshold is consistent with and is derived from the Guidelines' definition of “covered transactions.” Moreover, under the Guidelines, the Commission can consider the “actual or potential harm or impact” arising from any wrongdoing as a mitigating factor in an exclusion proceeding, allowing it to take the size of a transaction into account without creating an unnecessarily rigid higher dollar threshold. We are also concerned that adopting a higher threshold for our programs could interfere with governmentwide reciprocity. While CTIA and USTelecom noted that agencies tasked with regulating other capital-intensive industries have increased their thresholds and urge that inflation should be considered, the breadth and diversity of outlays made through our covered programs, as well as the myriad threats to the integrity of our programs, weigh against adjusting the threshold. Even a small lower tier participant (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a marketing organization) can drive significant amounts of waste, fraud, and abuse.
                    </P>
                    <P>We also find a “transaction” can be cumulative and encompass more than a one-off funding request number (FRN), application, or monthly disbursement. Bad actors should not be able to avoid the obligations that attach to lower tier participants by dividing larger projects into smaller reimbursement requests that fall below a transaction threshold. Instead, the SDO must have the discretion to aggregate smaller related FRNs, applications, or disbursements to meet the threshold. For example, an “act or pattern of behavior” could fall within a single contract that multiple E-Rate or Rural Health Care applications rely on, or within a particular enrollment or claims process or policy that a Lifeline service provider applied to multiple Lifeline subscribers.</P>
                    <P>An “act or pattern of behavior” can also include, for example, a billing practice that does not account for changes in the service start or end dates, or a subscriber's non-usage of a USF-supported service that results in the Rural Health Care (RHC) program or the Lifeline program being over-invoiced for services that were not actually provided. Although missing one change in a service date or the non-usage of a single Lifeline subscriber may be a small amount that is over-charged, these acts or patterns of behavior have resulted in significant amounts of over-billing in the USF programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary and Lower Tier Classifications for High-Cost Programs.</E>
                         For the High-Cost programs, we adopt the NPRM's proposal that the primary tier participant will be the carrier receiving support. We likewise adopt the NPRM's proposal that lower tier participants are contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for High-Cost-supported transactions if: (1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the High-Cost program; (2) such person is a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000. We received no comment on these proposals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary and Lower Tier Classifications for the Lifeline Program, Affordable Connectivity Program, and ACP Outreach Grant Program.</E>
                         In the Lifeline program and former ACP, we adopt the proposals that the primary tier participant will be the service provider receiving support, while for the former ACP Outreach Grant Program, the primary tier participants were those parties obtaining grants (consistent with sections 180.970 and 180.200 of the Guidelines). Although the appropriation for the ACP has been exhausted, we include misconduct in the ACP as a basis for suspension and debarment because many service providers that participated in ACP also participate in the Lifeline program and it can also take time to investigate and assess the misconduct. Additionally, we adopt the proposals that beneficiaries under these programs generally are not considered primary or lower tier participants. For the ACP Outreach Grant Program, however, beneficiaries are primary tier participants. Under both the Lifeline program and the former ACP, the service providers can submit consumer Lifeline and/or ACP applications to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18154"/>
                        National Verifier and enroll subscribers through the National Lifeline Accountability Database, and therefore service providers are in the best position to have up-to-date information on customer eligibility, activation, and use of their Lifeline and/or ACP services. In addition, the service provider submits requests for payment to the USF Administrator and is best situated to carry out the obligations of primary tier participants under the Guidelines. In contrast, interactions between low-income consumers and the Commission or the USF Administrator are incidental. We received no comment on these proposals.
                    </P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed three categories of lower tier participants in the Lifeline program. We received no comment on these categories and therefore adopt the proposal without modification. We also adopt the same categories for the former ACP because of the similarities between the two programs. First, lower tier participants include parties (except for the primary tier Lifeline carrier or ACP service provider) to any contract or award in which a person is reimbursed, including but not limited to contracts or awards based on the number of Lifeline or ACP subscribers enrolled or providing commissions, or any combination thereof, regardless of dollar value. Second, lower tier participants include contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives, and third-party marketing organizations for Lifeline or ACP-supported transactions, or their agents or representatives, including enrollment representatives, if: (1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the Lifeline program or the ACP; (2) such person is considered a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                    <P>We adopt similar categories for lower tier participants in the former ACP Outreach Grant Program, recognizing that some grantees may do business with third parties in conducting their covered transaction. In the ACP Outreach Grant Program, lower tier participants include subrecipients, contractors or subcontractors of the grant recipients, or their agents or representatives, if: (1) such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the ACP Outreach Grant Program; (2) such person is considered a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary and Lower Tier Classifications for the E-Rate Program.</E>
                         In the E-Rate program, we adopt the proposal that both the program applicant (the school, library, or consortium) and the service provider(s) selected by the applicant (as indicated on FCC Form 471) be designated as primary tier participants. We received no comment on this proposal. We find that extending the primary tier designation to all applicants will allow us to obtain more extensive primary tier disclosures from the applicants themselves before approving transactions, while also ensuring that applicants will obtain disclosures from service providers during their bid selection process under the modified disclosure rules we adopt.
                    </P>
                    <P>The NPRM also proposed that the service providers selected by the applicant schools, libraries, and consortia also be considered primary tier participants, regardless of whether they submit invoices directly to USAC for reimbursement. Here too, we received no comment and adopt the proposal without modification. In our experience, service providers, like applicants, may be responsible for waste, fraud, and abuse, and therefore imposing the more substantial primary tier obligations and disclosure requirements on these entities also promotes the Commission's goal of protecting federal funds.</P>
                    <P>Under the E-Rate program, schools and libraries may create “consortia” that can seek competitive bids and/or apply for E-Rate funding on behalf of all their members. When schools and libraries participate as a consortia, the NPRM proposed that the consortium itself, acting through its lead member, would be a primary tier participant, along with the member schools or libraries. In considering any suspension or debarment action, however, we proposed that the SDO should evaluate which particular school or library consortium member was responsible for the misconduct and direct the suspension and debarment orders to those responsible for the bad acts, rather than to all consortium members. We adopt that proposal.</P>
                    <P>E-Rate Central supported this tailored approach to consortia, but further proposed that “multiple schools and libraries being serviced by a single E-Rate consultant or service provider be treated in an equivalent manner.” If E-Rate Central is proposing that when a lower tier participant is excluded each school or library serviced by that lower tier participant should be evaluated on its own merits in exclusion proceedings, the Guidelines already provide for such case-by-case review. Among other things, an SDO must consider the facts and circumstances of each particular case, including any arguments that a respondent raises, and must make a final determination about that respondent's present responsibility. Alternatively, if E-Rate Central is requesting that a lower tier participant's misconduct in connection with one school or library not affect transactions involving another school or library with whom that lower tier participant works, that may be unavoidable. As explained above, where a participant in an E-Rate transaction is excluded, we require that other parties to the transaction promptly complete a service provider or SPIN change and, for the integrity of the program, terminate their dealings with the excluded party (unless an exception is granted under section 180.135 of the Guidelines or under section 6001.125 of our supplemental rules). Finally, if E-Rate Central is requesting some broader form of relief that would undermine the exclusions, we find that it would frustrate the purposes of the Guidelines, one of which is to facilitate a broad exclusion when it is in the public interest.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the NPRM proposed three categories of lower tier participants for the E-Rate program. Lower tier participants include contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for E-Rate transactions if: (1) they have a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the E-Rate program; (2) they are considered a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000. All these individuals or entities play important roles in our E-Rate transactions, and we find it is important to our oversight and to the integrity of the E-Rate program that they be included as lower tier participants.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also note that given the similarities between the program rules (such as forms and processes) and overlap in participants, for the purposes of this 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                         E-Rate specific rules and requirements adopted in this 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         will also be applicable to the Cybersecurity Pilot Program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary and Lower Tier Classifications for the Rural Health Care Program.</E>
                         In the Rural Health Care program, we adopt the NPRM proposal that both the program applicant and the service provider(s) selected by the applicant (as indicated on FCC Form 462 or 466) be designated as primary tier participants. We received no comment on these proposals, and for the same reasoning discussed in connection 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18155"/>
                        with the E-Rate program, now adopt them.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, the NPRM proposed that a consortium applicant in the RHC Health Care Connect Fund program, acting through its lead entity, would be the primary tier participant, along with its member health care providers, but that in exclusion proceedings, the SDO should evaluate which particular consortium member is responsible for the underlying misconduct and direct the suspension and debarment orders to those entities, rather than to all consortium members. For the same reasoning articulated in the E-Rate program, we now adopt this proposal.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the NPRM proposed three categories of lower tier participants for the RHC program. We received no comment on these proposals, and for the same reasoning discussed in connection with the E-Rate program, now adopt them. Lower tier participants include contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives for RHC program transactions, if: (1) they have a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the RHC program; (2) they are considered a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary and Lower Tier Classifications for the TRS Program and NDBEDP.</E>
                         In the TRS program and the NDBEDP, we adopt the proposal that the service providers and certified programs receiving payments should be deemed the primary tier participants. We received no comment on this proposal, and for the reasons set forth in the NPRM now adopt it. In these programs, the service providers for TRS and certified programs for NDBEDP evaluate the qualifications of customers to participate in the programs. In addition, the service providers and certified programs submit requests for payment to the program administrators and are in the best position to carry out the obligations of primary tier participants under the Guidelines. Specifically, for the TRS program (other than TRS that is provided through state programs) and the NDBEDP, the primary tier participants will be the certified entities that are reimbursed by the Commission and the TRS Fund administrator for providing services under the covered transactions. Additionally, for TRS that is provided through a state TRS program, the primary tier participants will be the TRS providers that are authorized by each state to provide intrastate TRS under the state program and that, accordingly, are compensated by the TRS Fund for the provision of interstate TRS. We received no comment on the question of whether the rules should treat certain types of TRS and NDBEDP participants differently, noting that, for the NDBEDP, some participants are state or local governments, and others are non-profits. In the absence of a clear record, we decline to distinguish in our rules between participants based on their governmental or non-governmental status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM observed that, in contrast to the service providers, direct interaction between TRS and NDBEDP beneficiaries (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         individuals with hearing or speech disabilities) and the Commission or the program administrators is incidental. Because beneficiaries in the TRS program and NDBEDP do not directly submit applications to the program administrators, the NPRM proposed that, similar to Lifeline, these beneficiaries should not be considered either primary or lower tier participants, and not be subject to the exclusion rules. We received no comment on this proposal and now adopt it.
                    </P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed three categories of lower tier participants for the TRS program and the NDBEDP. We received no comment on these proposals and now adopt them. Lower tier participants include contractors, subcontractors, suppliers with whom the certified programs have a contractual relationship, consultants, or their agents or representatives for TRS- or NDBEDP-supported transactions if: (1) they have a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the TRS or NDBEDP programs; (2) they are considered a “principal;” or (3) the amount of the transaction involving the participant is expected to be at least $25,000. In the case of suppliers, however, to ensure more effective enforcement, we have clarified that only those suppliers with whom the certified programs have a contractual relationship shall be automatically deemed lower tier participants.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Transactions with the USF, TRS Fund, and NDBEDP Administrators.</E>
                         The Commission also proposed a clarification to section 180.200 of the Guidelines explaining that covered transactions include not only transactions between a person and the Commission, but also any transactions between a person and the administrators of relevant programs, when those administrators are acting on behalf, or as agents, of the Commission. As noted above, the Wireline Competition Bureau (WCB) subsequently sought comment on application of this proposal to the former ACP. We received no specific comment on this proposal, and we now adopt it. This clarification will ensure that all transactions overseen by the Commission under these programs are covered, whether the Commission is acting directly or through its agents.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Principals</HD>
                    <P>The definition of “principal” plays an important role under the Guidelines not only in establishing the scope of disclosure requirements, but also in ensuring that parties who may play a significant role in covered transactions are subject to our suspension and debarment rules when justified by the facts. The modified definition of “principal” ensures that the Commission may take an exclusion action, if justified for cause, with respect to all parties that fall into this modified definition.</P>
                    <P>The Guidelines define “principal” as: (a) an “officer, director, owner, partner, principal investigator, or another person . . . with management or supervisory responsibilities;” or (b) a “consultant or other person, whether or not employed by the participant or paid with Federal funds, who (1) [i]s in a position to handle Federal funds; (2) [i]s in a position to influence or control the use of those funds; or (3) [o]ccupies a technical or professional position capable of substantially influencing the development or outcome of an activity [in a transaction].” The Guidelines further state that an agency may “[i]dentify specific examples of types of individuals who would be `principals' under [its] nonprocurement programs and transactions, in addition to the types of individuals” specifically identified above.</P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed that in addition to those persons defined as principals under the Guidelines, the term “principal” should also mean “any person who has a critical influence on, or substantive control over, a covered transaction, whether or not employed by the participant.” The NPRM then identified classes of persons who may fit this supplemental definition of “principal,” including management and marketing agents, accountants, consultants, investment bankers, engineers, attorneys, and other professionals who are in a business relationship with participants in connection with a covered transaction under a Commission program. (This expanded definition of the term “principal” draws upon a supplement to the governmentwide definition adopted by HUD.) Most commenters did not address the NPRM's proposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18156"/>
                        definition of “principal.” WISPA, however, recommended that the Commission adopt OMB's definition of “principal” without modification, while raising some concerns about the clarity and scope of our proposed supplemental rule. And SHLB-SECA, while not expressly objecting to our supplemental definition of “principal,” suggested that the breadth of the definition extends to those that merely provide advice and do not necessarily have substantial influence or control over a covered transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>We now adopt a modified version of the NPRM's proposed supplemental definition of “principal” that expands the Guideline's definition, but is narrower than originally proposed. As noted, the existing definition in the OMB Guidelines includes an “officer, director, owner, partner, principal investigator, or another person . . . with management or supervisory responsibilities” and we adopt that definition as part of our overall adoption of the OMB Guidelines' definitions. This decision therefore adequately captures a person, such as a corporate executive or board member with management or supervisory responsibilities, that the Commission may wish to exclude, particularly given our decision regarding the scope of imputation. The supplemental definition of “principal” we adopt has two components: first, in addition to the persons deemed principals under section 180.995(a) of the Guidelines, a principal will also include any consultants that have a business relationship with participants in connection with a covered transaction, as well as Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations; and second, in addition to any person deemed a principal under section 180.995(b) of the Guidelines, a principal will also include any person having a critical influence on, or substantive control over, a covered transaction even if not in one of the enumerated categories. In this regard, we find that an individual's status as a principal does not depend on whether that individual is employed by the participant, the specific title the individual holds, or whether the person is paid with federal funds. Rather, we focus on the function that the person performs and how adequately the person performs it with respect to “principal” level responsibilities. The modified definition of “principal” ensures that the Commission may take an exclusion action, if justified for cause, with respect to all parties that fall into this modified definition.</P>
                    <P>We also decline to designate management agents, accountants, or attorneys as persons who will automatically be deemed principals as we had proposed in the NPRM. We conclude that the term “management agent” which was drawn from a HUD definition is inapposite in our context. As to accountants or attorneys, we note that these professionals could be principals under the “influence or control” prongs of the supplemental definition, but decline to categorically deem them as principals. We received no specific comment on the categories of persons that the NPRM proposed as “principals,” but we remove “investment bankers” and “engineers” from the definition (as proposed) because, on further review, we find that these professionals have not been drivers of waste, fraud, and abuse in our programs.</P>
                    <P>To implement our supplemental definition of principal, we also define “Lifeline marketing organization” or “ACP marketing organization” as an entity that: (i) has a contractual relationship with the entity providing the Lifeline or ACP services to consumers for the purpose of securing Lifeline or ACP enrollments; or (ii) has any contract to provide for such Lifeline or ACP enrollment services.</P>
                    <P>The first component of our supplemental definition is a per se rule that consultants who have or had a business relationship with the participant in connection with a covered transaction and Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations shall be considered a principal. Our decision to treat certain enumerated professionals as principals without requiring an explicit fact-finding process for each person in these categories reflects both a special concern for the roles played by those professionals in Commission transactions and the need for clarity and administrability in our rules. Were we to adopt a supplemental definition requiring a finding of fact to clarify the disclosure requirements applicable to each participant in a transaction, as WISPA has suggested, participants would face increased uncertainty with respect to their disclosure responsibilities, while the Commission would need to continually provide guidance in numerous transactions as to what constitutes “critical influence” or “substantive control.”</P>
                    <P>Moreover, based on our experience with our programs, we find that in most cases consultants and Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations would likely be designated as principals under the “influence” or “control” component of our definition, even if they were not categorically included in the definition. Marketing organizations, for instance, have had an outsized impact on activity in the Lifeline program and the former ACP, frequently submitting apparently fraudulent Lifeline or ACP enrollments to increase reimbursements for service providers and, prior to its prohibition by the Lifeline and ACP rules, potential commissions for the agents themselves. Likewise, consultants play a significant role in the E-Rate and Rural Health Care programs when retained by program participants to manage projects that receive USF support. In several cases, such consultants have committed serious program violations. The expanded definition of “principal” will enable us to bar those who participate in the schemes as well as those who orchestrate them.</P>
                    <P>We further clarify, however, that enrollment representatives of marketing organizations will be classified as lower tier participants because of their “material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the programs in which they participate” as described in the Tier Chart of this Report and Order, but such persons will not be deemed “principals” except in extraordinary circumstances as determined on a case-by-case basis. The term “enrollment representatives” shall have the same meaning as set forth in the Commission programs that may be implicated in any transaction (to the extent such definitions exist). Moreover, the disclosure obligations of marketing representatives, who are lower tier participants, will be limited to those under section 180.355 of the Guidelines.</P>
                    <P>
                        There was muted objection to designating various persons providing advice to program participants as “principals.” SHLB-SECA did not object directly, but “encourage[d] the Commission to clarify that [providing] incorrect or allegedly incorrect advice . . . may not be grounds for suspension or debarment,” explaining that “[a]dvice alone does not constitute substantial influence or control over a covered transaction.” Similarly, SHLB-SECA and E-mpa argued that consultants and other third parties can never cause violations or misconduct by providing “incorrect or allegedly incorrect advice” because “participants are free to accept or reject advice, whether it be good, bad or somewhere in between.” We reject these assertions. As a result of our experience administering our programs and addressing cases involving waste, fraud, and abuse, we find that consultants and other third parties can easily contribute to rule violations by negligently or intentionally providing erroneous or misleading advice, notwithstanding the fact that “USF 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18157"/>
                        participants are free to accept or reject advice.”
                    </P>
                    <P>We note in any given case, a consultant may make the factual argument that it did not cause the misconduct by the primary tier participant, which, if true, would preclude the consultant's suspension or debarment. But if the evidence demonstrates that a consultant's “act of giving advice” was the cause of rule violations or misconduct by a program participant, then an exclusion might be appropriate, depending on the aggravating and mitigating factors. Thus, for example, a consultant also could argue in any given case that, to the extent that its advice was incorrect, it was merely negligently so, which, if true, would weigh against exclusion as we have made clear in this analysis.</P>
                    <P>As to the second prong of our supplemental rule, we adopt the “critical influence on or substantive control over” component to ensure that certain forms of misconduct in our programs may be addressed even if the bad actor may not otherwise be captured by the Guidelines' definition of principal. For example, a person that violates our competitive bidding rules might not be “influencing the development or outcome of an activity required to perform the covered transaction,” yet that person's misconduct could merit a debarment. For example, in the course of an investigation into the TRS entity, it might be determined that a particular hearing health professional or entity had a significant adverse effect on the transaction that could warrant a debarment of that person. Individual hearing health professionals are not directly subject to Commission rules, but such conduct could critically influence ineligible individuals to register for and use TRS, despite the determination of eligibility ultimately lying with TRS providers and users. Our expanded definition of “principal” affords the Commission the flexibility to consider such conduct in protecting program integrity.</P>
                    <P>We reject WISPA's recommendation that the Commission adopt the OMB definition of a “principal” without any modification as the definition of “principal” adopted here advances the purpose of the Guidelines. Certain individuals that facilitate program abuse (including rule violations) may not fall within the Guidelines' more narrow definition of “principal.” Standing alone, the Guidelines could unduly restrict the Commission's ability to address the actions of individuals it has identified as posing a risk to the integrity of its programs.</P>
                    <P>Likewise, we find that adopting these program-specific supplemental definitions will provide greater certainty and notice to program participants and improve administrative efficiency and program integrity. Under the Guidelines, both primary and lower tier participants must promptly make disclosures about all “principals” to the transactions before a transaction is consummated. We therefore disagree with WISPA's concern that the SDO first must make individualized findings about whether a person in the supplemental categories is a “principal” before disclosures are required. Such a cumbersome process would delay consummation of transactions and the timely delivery of services. In contrast, by affording participants further clarity at this stage, our supplemental rule will ensure more timely disclosures that will facilitate program integrity and efficiency. We would also urge participants to err on the side of disclosure in close cases. Finally, we conclude the benefit of our enhanced ability to combat forms of waste, fraud, and abuse, greatly outweigh any incidental burdens created by the modified disclosure requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Participant Disclosures by Tier</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Guidelines require both primary and lower tier participants to disclose certain information before they enter into a covered transaction. We adopt the Guidelines' disclosure requirements, with program-specific modifications, as detailed below. In addition to the discussion in this section, we refer parties to the Guidelines in 2 CFR part 180, subpart C (Responsibilities of Participants Regarding Transactions Doing Business with Other Persons), and note that entities who participate in federal grant programs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         schools, libraries, or rural health care providers) or seek federal contracts (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         service providers) should already be familiar with similar requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary Tier Participants.</E>
                         Under the Guidelines, primary tier participants must advise the agency if they are presently excluded or disqualified, and also must state (a) whether the participant or any principals for the transaction “[h]ave been convicted within the preceding three years of any of the offenses listed in § 180.800(a) or had a civil judgment rendered against [them] for one of those offenses within that time period;” (b) “[a]re presently indicted for or otherwise criminally or civilly charged by a governmental entity (Federal, State or local) with the commission of any of the offenses listed in § 180.800(a);” or (c) “[h]ave had one or more public transactions . . . terminated within the preceding three years for cause or default.”
                    </P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed that these disclosure requirements could be communicated and implemented by amending existing program forms, form instructions and certification rules and sought comment on how to administer such requirements in a manner that minimizes burdens on primary tier participants. The NPRM and subsequent Public Notice also proposed to clarify that such disclosures by primary tier participants be made not only to the Commission and the applicable bureaus, but also to the relevant program administrators.</P>
                    <P>We adopt the full disclosure requirements set forth in the Guidelines for primary tier participants. Commenters generally focused their opposition on the breadth and clarity of the disclosure requirement—especially as it relates to the disclosure of having “one or more public transactions . . . terminated within the preceding three years for cause or default.” For example, immixGroup, NCTA, E-Rate Central, and E-mpa sought clarification on what kinds of “termination” would merit disclosure. (immixGroup, however, supported the requirement that parties report convictions for offenses listed under section 180.800(a) and stated that it might be reasonable for parties to have to report charges or indictments for those same offenses.) Several commenters also specifically requested that we clarify that a mere denial of a USAC funding request would not qualify as a reportable “termination.” Commenter immixGroup also suggested that we adopt “exceptions to both the reporting of funding denials requirement during the pendency of an administrative appeal and, specifically, until a final non-appealable decision is issued by the appropriate body of last resort.” CTIA and USTelecom suggested that the disclosure requirement for terminations be limited to transactions with the Federal government, not state and local governments.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, we adopt a supplemental rule clarifying that a mere denial of a funding request does not, without more, constitute a “termination . . . for cause or default” of a public transaction as that phrase is used by the Guidelines. Program administrators deny funding requests for a wide variety of reasons, some of which may arise from minor technical and procedural errors. On the other hand, participants are required to report termination of a previously approved funding request based on serious errors or misconduct (such as violations of competitive bidding requirements) by a participant in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18158"/>
                        covered transaction that was terminated. Although this requirement does mean that, for example, a service provider must disclose a denial caused by a violation by an applicant, we note again both that a party making a disclosure may provide additional information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         that it was not responsible for the violation), and that unfavorable disclosures do not automatically trigger denial of a transaction or the initiation of exclusion proceedings.
                    </P>
                    <P>Second, we decline to establish an exception for otherwise reportable terminations that are pending appeal. The mere disclosure of a termination—pending appeal or otherwise—does not automatically trigger the denial of a new transaction or initiate an exclusion proceeding. Rather, the Commission has flexibility under the Guidelines to consider both the disclosed information and “any additional information or explanation [a transaction participant] elect[s] to submit with the disclosed information” in deciding whether to approve the transaction. Additionally, the Commission or program administrators might allow a transaction to proceed, despite an unfavorable disclosure, but employ additional safeguards, including heightened scrutiny or audits, to ensure compliance. Establishing an exception covering all terminations pending appeal would unnecessarily deprive the Commission and program administrators of potentially relevant information about transaction partners. We will not, however, require the reporting of terminations that have been reversed or vacated.</P>
                    <P>Third, we decline to limit the termination reporting requirement to Federal transactions. Subject to the clarifications herein, primary tier participants must report terminations of transactions with state and local governments. Like Commission programs, programs run by state and local governments often require participants to handle and direct public funds in an appropriate manner. A participant's propriety in these dealings can offer valuable insight as to its fitness to participate in Commission programs, particularly when a participant's prior contact with the Federal government is limited or nonexistent. We are unconvinced by CTIA and USTelecom's argument that “identifying every state and local `transaction' terminated for cause or default . . . would be highly burdensome.” The reporting requirement stretches back only three years and would likely require significant review of only a small subset of transactions.</P>
                    <P>We also adopt a supplemental rule requiring that such disclosures be made not only to the Commission, but to the relevant program administrators as well. We find that the requirements are essential to ensuring that the program administrators and the Commission have access to the information needed to make informed decisions around approval and denial of transactions.</P>
                    <P>In addition, recognizing that primary tier participants in the E-Rate and RHC programs typically enter into contractual arrangements with each other, we create a supplemental rule requiring service providers in the E-Rate and RHC programs to make the necessary disclosures not only to the Commission and USAC, but also to the schools, libraries, or health care providers during the competitive bidding process. Because service providers will now be primary tier participants, section 180.300 of the Guidelines, which requires pre-transaction verification by a primary tier participant that a lower tier participant is not excluded, would not apply on its face to transactions between E-Rate schools and libraries and their service providers or rural health care beneficiaries and their service providers because all these entities will now be considered primary tier participants. Therefore, we adopt a supplemental rule modifying section 180.300 to require that the verifications required by that rule will be applicable not only to transactions with “another person at the next lower tier” but to transactions among participants at the same tier as well.</P>
                    <P>We note that disclosures among primary tier participants other than the agency involved is not envisioned under the Guidelines because for typical transactions covered by the Guidelines, non-federal primary tier participants may not be entering into transactions with each other. However, the E-Rate and RHC programs follow a different model, and service providers in the first instance are chosen by the program beneficiaries, not by the Commission. Therefore, to facilitate program integrity and ensure the efficacy of disclosures, primary tier disclosures as required by Supplemental Rule 6001.300(a) should be made to the beneficiaries prior to consummation of any covered transactions, preferably at an early stage in the bid selection process and before the service provider is selected and the FCC Form 471, 462 or 466 is submitted in cases where there are no bids or a competitive bidding exemption may apply.</P>
                    <P>We encourage schools, libraries, and health care providers to require such disclosures as early as possible in the bid selection process so that they may consider such disclosures before entering into any covered transactions.</P>
                    <P>We further direct WCB and CGB to modify, as appropriate, any applicable program forms (such as FCC Forms 470, 461, or 465) to require the relevant primary tier disclosures. In those cases in which no bids are submitted, or in which a competitive bidding exemption is applicable (such as 47 CFR 54.622(i)), the program beneficiaries shall obtain such disclosures from service providers before they may enter into any new covered transactions for program services.</P>
                    <P>
                        These requirements will ensure that all primary tier participants receive valuable background information about the parties with whom they are considering doing business. Importantly, most disclosures (other than that the disclosing party has been excluded or disqualified) are not dispositive or outcome determinative. Rather, disclosures enable program beneficiaries, program administrators, and the Commission to evaluate the level of risk associated with any given transaction and consider appropriate remedial measures short of disqualification (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         compliance conditions, audits, heightened scrutiny).
                    </P>
                    <P>We recognize that the Guidelines' disclosure requirements necessarily involve some administrative costs for the Commission and program administrators, as well as program participants. But we reject CTIA and USTelecom's argument that these requirements will have the net effect of diverting “resources better invested in providing service and equipment to unserved communities and consumers” into “satisfying onerous compliance obligations.” To the contrary, we anticipate that these disclosure requirements will ensure that scarce federal support dollars fulfill their intended purposes by allowing the Commission and primary tier participants to avoid entering into business with bad actors who may commit waste, fraud, or abuse. The disclosures will also allow the Commission and program administrators to address perceived risks ex ante through monitoring and audits rather than through ex post remedies, which also will enhance the efficiency of the Commission's operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Lower Tier Participants.</E>
                         The Guidelines' disclosure requirements for lower tier participants are less extensive: lower tier participants need disclose only whether they are excluded or disqualified from participating in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18159"/>
                        covered transactions. The NPRM asked whether the Commission should adopt a supplemental rule requiring that lower tier participants also disclose the information required of primary tier participants to both the Commission and program administrators, and to the higher tier participant with which they seek to conduct business. The NPRM noted that, under the Guidelines, an unfavorable disclosure by a primary tier participant would not necessarily cause the federal agency to deny participation (except for instances of exclusion or disqualification), and the NPRM proposed to extend this protection to disclosures by lower tier participants. The NPRM explained that extending primary tier disclosure requirements to lower tier participants would allow the Commission and its administrators, as well as higher tier participants, the opportunity to consider additional information to better determine whether the participation of lower tier participants is appropriate. The NPRM proposed requiring that primary and lower tier participants include a term or condition in their transactions with the next lower tier participants mandating compliance with the disclosure rules.
                    </P>
                    <P>We adopt with the modifications and exceptions described below our proposed rule extending the Guidelines' primary tier disclosure requirements to lower tier participants in all Commission programs subject to this Report and Order. We find that this extension will advance the public interest and is appropriate given our experience combatting waste, fraud, and abuse in our programs. Specifically, lower tier participants, such as consultants and marketing organizations, have been significant drivers of malfeasance in the universal service programs. We do not believe that requiring lower tier participants to disclose only whether they are excluded or disqualified from participating in covered transactions will fully accomplish the Guidelines' objective of enabling government agencies or the parties with whom these participants may be conducting transactions to make better-informed decisions about prospective business partners.</P>
                    <P>We further modify the Guidelines to require disclosures among and between lower tier participants that enter into covered transactions with each other. In those transactions, the lower tier participant who is performing work for another participant shall provide the disclosures to any participant who is paying for the work or otherwise hiring the person under the covered transaction. Thus, for example, an E-Rate subcontractor who wants to enter into a covered transaction with a contractor—both of whom are lower tier participants—must provide any applicable disclosures to that contractor before consummating the covered transaction. Similarly, a marketing organization that wants to perform a portion of Lifeline marketing work for another marketing entity must provide that entity with the applicable disclosures. This requirement will again ensure that all parties, regardless of tier, who enter into covered transactions can make an informed decision about their potential partners.</P>
                    <P>However, we tailor the disclosure obligations for enrollment representatives of marketing organizations, which we classify as lower tier participants. Enrollment representatives need only disclose whether that individual representative is excluded or not and need only make the disclosures to the marketing organization with whom the representative is employed or seeks employment. We limit the disclosure obligations for enrollment representatives because we conclude that a marketing organization will not require the full panoply of disclosures in order to make reasonable hiring decisions of enrollment representatives. Additionally, we recognize the substantial administrative burden that would be imposed on lower tier employees of marketing representatives to make the more expansive disclosures. To ensure Commission oversight of this disclosure obligation, enrollment representative disclosures shall be retained by the marketing organization for review by the Commission for the period during which the enrollment representative is employed in support of the program or the period otherwise required by document retention rules, whichever is longer.</P>
                    <P>Few commenters squarely addressed the proposal to expand disclosures for lower tier participants. CTIA and USTelecom stated that the Commission “has not explained why departure from its current rules, which do not extend to suppliers or subcontractors, is necessary to protect the public interest.” They therefore urged the Commission to apply disclosure rules to primary tier applicants only. As already demonstrated, lower tier participants have been significant drivers of malfeasance in the universal service programs, and we require and welcome more expansive tools to effectively address the waste, fraud, and abuse that they originate. SHLB-SECA similarly “question[ed] whether the disclosures proposed in the NPRM will help the Commission.” As already explained above, the disclosures will protect our programs by allowing parties, including the Commission and program administrators, to review unfavorable information before determining whether or not to proceed with a transaction—possibly deciding to avoid the transaction altogether.</P>
                    <P>
                        CTIA and USTelecom, NCTA, and the Joint Association Commenters also requested clarification regarding how primary tier participants are expected to collect required disclosures from lower tier participants. As they noted, section 180.300 of the Guidelines allows a primary tier participant to verify whether a lower tier participant has been excluded or disqualified by checking the 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions, collecting certifications, or including clauses or conditions in the terms governing covered transactions. We agree that these methods are appropriate for confirming whether a lower tier participant has been excluded or disqualified. But we note that checking 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions does not allow a primary tier participant to verify the additional information that we require from lower tier participants in our supplemental rule. These additional disclosures should be obtained through collecting certifications or including clauses or conditions in covered transactions, and, consistent with the record, we so provide in Supplemental Rule 6001.330.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Lifeline Disclosures.</E>
                         Under the Lifeline program, eligible telecommunications carriers (ETCs) as well as their lower tier participants will be subject to disclosure obligations. The NPRM sought comment on how to implement these disclosure obligations. For example, the NPRM asked whether the disclosure rules should require all primary and lower tier participants in the Lifeline program to file disclosure statements, upon penalty of perjury, reporting all required disclosures or certifying that they have no reportable disclosures to make. It also asked whether the disclosure should be added to existing forms or submissions for ETCs, how often such disclosure statements should be filed, and what remedies should be available if participants fail to disclose the required information. The NPRM also sought comment on several program-specific questions, including whether individuals who have registered with USAC for access to the Lifeline National Verifier or National Lifeline Accountability Database systems should be required to file disclosure statements upon registration and every subsequent recertification, and whether ETCs should be required to maintain such 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18160"/>
                        disclosure statements as part of their record retention requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>We did not receive comment regarding the implementation of disclosure requirements for the Lifeline program. Relying on the Commission's expertise providing oversight of the Lifeline program, we find it is most appropriate for primary and lower tier participants in the Lifeline program to file annual disclosure statements, upon penalty of perjury, reporting all required disclosures or certifying that they have no reportable disclosures to make. Primary tier participants may also file on behalf of lower tier participants with which they have a direct relationship. However, as already discussed, the disclosure requirements for enrollment representatives are more limited. As the disclosure requirements may apply beyond ETCs, we do not believe a current information collection can easily be modified to request this information. Therefore, we direct WCB to develop an information collection to receive the appropriate certifications annually. At this time, we do not believe it is necessary to receive similar disclosures from individuals as they register to access USAC's systems. Consistent with the Commission's Lifeline rules, we also determine that it is appropriate for primary tier participants to maintain documentation that substantiates their required certification, at a minimum, for the three full preceding calendar years and provide such documentation to the Commission or USAC upon request. Finally, in addition to any other enforcement mechanisms that may be available, a participant's non-filing of required disclosures may be considered by the relevant bureaus and offices of the Commission as “credible information” for the purposes of directing USAC to apply a funding hold to universal service funds. We believe that all of these efforts will ensure better stewardship of universal service funds and prevent potential waste, fraud, and abuse in the Lifeline program. Given the similarity across programs, we delegate authority to WCB and CGB to develop appropriate information collections to apply the Lifeline program's disclosure requirements to former ACP and ACP Outreach Grant Program and to streamline any required disclosures under these programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">USF Competitive Bidding Short Forms.</E>
                         In some instances, the Commission conducts competitive bidding to award universal service support, as in the Connect America Fund Phase II and Rural Digital Opportunity Fund auctions. In such competitive bidding processes, an applicant for support first files a short-form application to participate in bidding. This approach streamlines the competitive bidding process and encourages participation. At the short-form stage, pursuant to the competitive bidding rules, an applicant is required to certify either that it “is in compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements for receiving the universal service support . . . , or, if expressly allowed by the rules specific to a high-cost support mechanism, . . . that the applicant acknowledges that it must be in compliance with such requirements before being authorized to receive support,” without being required to demonstrate fully such compliance. Only after becoming a winning bidder must an applicant file a long-form application demonstrating in detail the applicant's qualification to receive the support.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Guidelines require primary tier participants not only to disclose whether they are presently excluded or disqualified, but also to make several additional disclosures that could assist the agency in evaluating whether to enter into the transaction. The NPRM acknowledged that requiring all of the disclosures and evaluations at the short-form stage could slow down auction processes, and therefore sought comment on the appropriate balance between requiring helpful disclosures at the short-form stage and preserving the speed of the competitive bidding process. The NPRM proposed three options for addressing this balance. First, the NPRM proposed that at the short-form application stage the Commission would only require the applicant to disclose whether they are presently excluded or disqualified and wait until the long-form application to require the applicant to submit additional disclosures for review. Second, the Commission could require applicants to disclose at the short-form stage whether the applicant or any of its principals are presently excluded or disqualified, and subsequently require the full disclosures at the long-form stage. Or third, the Commission could require applicants to make all of the required disclosures on both the short-form and the long-form application.</P>
                    <P>WISPA agreed that requiring applicants to provide all disclosures mandated by the Guidelines at the short-form application stage could slow the auction process. It further suggested that since “[l]imiting the scope of the initial disclosures will expedite staff review of short-forms and simplify preparation for USF auctions,” the Commission should, for the High-Cost programs, require that an applicant disclose only whether it or any of its principals are presently excluded or disqualified.</P>
                    <P>
                        We now adopt the NPRM's first (and narrowest) option, under which the Commission's review at the short-form stage is limited to the status of the applicant—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         whether the applicant is presently excluded or disqualified—while a winning bidder will be required to make any additional required disclosures when it submits a long-form application. Thus, for the reasons stated elsewhere in this Report and Order, we choose not to adopt WISPA's recommendation that we implement the second option, which encompasses principals as well as applicants, but clarify that the rule adopted involves fewer disclosures than the second option.
                    </P>
                    <P>In a USF competitive bidding short-form application, an applicant must certify that it is “in compliance with all . . . regulatory requirements for receiving the universal service support.” Therefore, a presently excluded applicant could not make the required certification and could not successfully submit an accurate and complete short-form application. This approach will permit the Commission to process competitive bidding applications more quickly and minimizes the disclosures and administrative burdens required of potential participants. The applicant bears the risks that its short-form application is inaccurate and that required disclosures in its long-form application could result in its disqualification from support and a default on its bid. We note that long-form disclosures revealing that the initial certification was incorrect could result in enforcement actions, if warranted.</P>
                    <P>We adopt these USF competitive bidding-specific rules based on our present experience administering competitive bidding auctions. To the extent future USF competitive bidding mechanisms are structured differently and require additional or augmented suspension and debarment rules, we reserve the ability to make such changes in those future rulemakings.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">TRS and NDBEDP Disclosures.</E>
                         For the TRS program and NDBEDP, TRS providers and NDBEDP providers as well as their lower tier participants will be subject to disclosure obligations. An entity seeking certification as a TRS provider or NDBEDP provider shall file the required disclosures as part of its application for certification and renewal thereof. Additionally, internet-based TRS providers must update their disclosures within 60 days of any change by filing notices of substantive 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18161"/>
                        change with the TRS Fund Administrator and the Commission. We amend part 64 of our rules to implement these disclosure requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Each certified NDBEDP provider shall file updates to their disclosures every six months, including disclosures within required program reports. Each NDBEDP provider shall also file a change in its disclosure as a notification of substantive change if the disclosure bears directly on the provider's ability to meet the qualification necessary for certification as an NDBEDP provider. We amend part 64 of our rules to implement these disclosure requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Implications of Unfavorable Disclosures</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Primary Tier Participants.</E>
                         The NPRM also contemplated what Commission action is warranted if a primary tier participant discloses unfavorable information (other than an exclusion or disqualification) before entering into a transaction. While the NPRM noted suspension and/or debarment proceedings as one possible method for the Commission to respond, the NPRM sought comment on whether the Commission's rules should also permit less severe remedies. For example, the NPRM asked whether the Commission should, in consultation with the relevant program administrator, merely preclude a participant from entering into the transaction at issue, prior to or in lieu of suspending or debarring the participant. The NPRM also asked whether the agency could elect to not enter into covered transactions with the party for some specified period, similar to the “limited denial of participation” process described above. The NPRM also requested comment on whether the Commission's rules should be modified to permit the Commission to consider unfavorable information in TRS or NDBEDP certification proceedings and, if so, what modification to our certification rules would be necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters generally supported preserving flexibility for agency action in response to unfavorable disclosures. SHLB-SECA and Funds for Learning preferred the use of tailored measures to avoid outright preclusion of a transaction, including “[a]llowing the participant to enter into the transaction, but monitoring the participant's activities more closely.” SHLB-SECA also requested that the Commission “specify which information may be deemed so unfavorable that rejection of a transaction is warranted.” SHLB-SECA further suggested that the Commission “adopt a modified, formally authorized version of the [suspension] procedure that USAC currently employs,” and that any discretionary process adopted by the Commission “come complete with reasonable due process, transparency, and known time limits.”</P>
                    <P>The Guidelines afford agencies the flexibility to respond to unfavorable disclosures. Consistent with this approach, we now adopt the proposal, strongly supported by comments in the record, that the Commission retain flexibility to pursue tailored measures based on unfavorable disclosures. In addition to suspension and debarment proceedings, the agency may also consider other remedies, including prohibiting a participant from continued participation in a transaction, or permitting transactions presenting potential risks of misconduct to proceed with additional monitoring and oversight.</P>
                    <P>To implement this approach, we authorize the relevant bureau or office to determine, in the first instance, what remedies are appropriate in light of an applicant's unfavorable disclosures and any other relevant circumstances. (For the TRS program and the NDBEDP, we delegate authority to CGB. For the USF Programs, we delegate authority to WCB. For the former ACP and ACP Outreach Grant Program, we delegate authority jointly to the bureaus in consultation with OMD.) Such remedies may include, by way of example, approving the transaction only after entering into an administrative agreement (such as a compliance plan), denying the application, terminating an ongoing transaction or a specific party's participation in such a transaction, or referring the matter to the SDO to consider a limited denial of participation under the supplemental rules adopted above or to initiate an exclusion proceeding, if necessary. We adopt a supplemental rule to implement this approach. We also direct the administrators of the programs covered by the Guidelines to develop—and submit for approval to the relevant bureaus and offices—policies and procedures governing how they will review unfavorable disclosures as part of their broader review of applications, as applicable. In the case of the TRS program, and the NDBEDP, however, these disclosures will be reviewed directly by CGB. In the case of the former ACP and ACP Outreach Program, these disclosures will be reviewed jointly by WCB and CGB in consultation with OMD. We expect that in most cases, the remedies and procedures developed by the relevant bureau or office, and those of the administrators, will permit administrators to continue approving (or denying) applications consistent with current practice.</P>
                    <P>We decline SHLB-SECA's request that the Commission delineate “what information [should] be deemed so unfavorable that rejection of a transaction is warranted.” Supplemental Rule 6001.345, consistent with section 180.340 of the Guidelines, is designed to allow the Commission to address risks to program integrity without resorting to suspension and debarment action, if warranted. To limit the availability of alternative responses would risk making suspension and debarment the only option available in circumstances where another less severe action might be more appropriate.</P>
                    <P>Finally, we remind participants that any challenge to the imposition of the alternative agency actions may be done through any normal procedures currently available for seeking reconsideration or review of that type of decision.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Lower Tier Participants.</E>
                         Based on our decision to require lower tier participants to disclose the same information as primary tier participants, we also must adopt mechanisms for the Commission to address unfavorable disclosures by lower tier participants. The NPRM noted that, for example, if a school is utilizing an E-Rate consultant who has been convicted of fraud related to another government program but has not yet been debarred, the Guidelines themselves do not provide a mechanism for the rejection of the school's E-Rate application. The NPRM explained that the additional disclosures might give the Commission and the relevant program administrator reason to deny or closely monitor the lower tier participant and, if appropriate, should enable the agency to initiate an exclusion proceeding against the lower tier participant (if the disclosures are so significant that suspension or debarment is warranted).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Here again, we conclude that the relevant bureau or office will be best suited to determine what steps should be taken with respect to a lower tier participant based on its unfavorable disclosures. (Therefore, for the TRS program and the NDBEDP, we delegate authority to CGB. For the USF Programs, we delegate authority to WCB. For the former ACP and ACP Outreach Grant Program, we delegate authority jointly to the bureaus in consultation with OMD.) And for applicable programs, we similarly direct the administrators to develop, and obtain prior bureau approval of, policies and procedures governing the review of unfavorable disclosures by lower tier participants—and, when necessary, to obtain prior 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18162"/>
                        bureau approval in novel situations or when departing from those policies and procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, we clarify that the NPRM did not propose to “reject[ ] automatically every application that a participant with a questionable past has touched” as SHLB-SECA suggests. As we have explained, most unfavorable disclosures by even a primary tier participant will not automatically trigger exclusion proceedings and may not result in the denial of the transaction in which the disclosures were made. Instead, the disclosures are additional data points that inform the agency's decisionmaking when it comes to moving forward with a transaction. The same logic holds for unfavorable disclosures by lower tier participants, except that such disclosures generally should be outcome determinative even less frequently than unfavorable disclosures by primary tier participants, and only where the factual circumstances require that outcome to protect the integrity of Commission programs. Moreover, consistent with the approach we take to “exceptions” and “continuations” as discussed above, primary tier participants and other decisionmakers may consider “the number of suppliers” available for specific transactions, which “may be limited in high-cost rural areas,” when determining how much weight to afford an unfavorable disclosure, as recommended by CTIA and USTelecom. For example, a participant with unfavorable disclosures might be permitted to enter into or continue with a covered transaction, but under heightened scrutiny or a compliance plan, depending on the circumstances. The supplemental rule we adopt for unfavorable disclosures therefore applies by its terms to disclosures for both tiers of participants.</P>
                    <P>Moreover, we agree with commenters that in most if not all cases, the public interest will be served by affording the primary tier participant an opportunity to address any concerns with a lower tier participant, for example, by terminating that relationship. We also agree that denial of a transaction based on lower tier participant disclosures will not usually be justified absent some “nexus” between the conduct covered by the unfavorable disclosure and the primary tier transaction. In many cases, we anticipate that the program administrator or bureau will be able to move forward with a transaction, notwithstanding the lower tier participant's disclosures, subject to targeted remedies, such as heightened scrutiny, compliance audits, or a compliance plan to ensure that the lower tier participant does not present a significant risk to program integrity. However, in situations where the lower tier participant's involvement is integral to the primary tier participant's performance in the transaction, we cannot rule out the possibility that denial of the primary tier transaction may be the appropriate remedy, along with any action taken with respect to the lower tier participant. For example, the primary tier participant could be a reseller of the lower tier participant's service and dependent on the lower tier participant for many or most back-office functions necessary to provide program services. An aggrieved participant may seek reconsideration or review of any such decision through the normal mechanisms available.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Matters</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Application of Revised Rules To Conduct Occurring Prior to the Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>We modify the NPRM's proposal regarding which rules govern misconduct that preceded the effective date of the revised rules, but for which no debarment proceeding under the legacy rules has been initiated. Instead, we conclude that we should not categorically prescribe whether our current rules or the rules adopted herein apply to the limited number of cases where the misconduct occurred before the effective date of these rules.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed, “in appropriate cases,” to authorize the SDO to apply the Guidelines and any supplemental rules to conduct in Commission programs that occurred before the effective date of such rules, where expeditious suspension or debarment is “in the public interest to prevent or deter further harm” to those programs. The NPRM also proposed that where such conduct “has already resulted in settlements with the Commission by a party responsible for the alleged misconduct, no suspension or debarment of that party based on such antecedent conduct would be authorized if such party has and continues to comply with the settlement terms.”</P>
                    <P>Several commenters expressed concerns that application of revised rules to past action could be impermissibly retroactive. For example, the Joint Association Commenters questioned whether retroactive application would have any public interest benefit, given that past misconduct cannot be deterred and can be addressed through existing remedies. CTIA and USTelecom argued that retroactive application of the rules “risks running afoul of” the APA, which prohibits rules that alter the past legal consequences of past actions. WISPA also generally opposed application of any new rules to past misconduct, recommending instead that the Commission should “consider such retroactive application of revised rules only in the event of well-documented, egregious misconduct that poses a clear threat of immediate and lasting harm.” NCTA also noted that retroactive application of the rules could result in arbitrary enforcement. In contrast, Mr. Meunier explained that such retroactivity concerns are less compelling in the context of administrative rulemakings: “[I]f an act was already illegal, the government may have greater latitude in the exercise of its discretionary, non-punitive management functions to recognize that act in administering its own duties on behalf of the tax[-]paying public.” He further described that “it is still common practice for agencies to determine whether and how far to retroactively apply a new or altered regulation.” And he urged that any application of revised rules to past misconduct should be guided by the public interest: “[T]he protection to be afforded the government by retroactive application should outweigh the perceived unfairness in the application itself.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the record and in light of the range of fact patterns that may arise in any case, we require that the SDO evaluate on a case-by-case basis whether our new rules should be applied to past conduct. This will “leave room” for the exercise of judgment in “hard cases.” 
                        <E T="03">Landgraf</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">USI Film Prods.,</E>
                         511 U.S. 244, 270 (1994). In conducting the evaluation, we anticipate that the SDO will consider among other factors whether there is past egregious, well-documented misconduct in these programs in assessing any pattern or prior history of wrongdoing. Thus, we will take a flexible approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>We observe that there are other options, such as consideration of the misconduct as part of the factors that inform whether to exclude or enter an administrative agreement, that also permit consideration of what approach will best facilitate compliance with the Commission's rules. We further observe that parties demonstrating cause for suspension and debarment are already subject to other agencies imposing this measure, which is intended to be remedial and not punitive.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also adopt our proposal that the Commission maintain its current separate listing of suspensions and debarments imposed pursuant to our 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18163"/>
                        legacy rules. As proposed in the NPRM, we adopt a rule construing the term “excluded or exclusion” in sections 180.830 and 180.940 of the Guidelines to include those individuals and entities currently suspended or debarred by the Commission, in addition to those included on the 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions. A program participant thus must ensure that, before entering into a covered transaction, it checks both the Commission's listing of suspensions and debarments and the 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions. Further, the SDO may review existing exclusions entered pursuant to our legacy rules to determine, in consultation with OGC, whether a debarment proceeding under the rules adopted herein should be initiated that may result in a referral to the 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Preclusion of Excluded Persons From Serving on Commission Advisory Committees</HD>
                    <P>The appointment of members to federal advisory committees is at the discretion of the Commission. The NPRM proposed that any persons or entities that are suspended or debarred be prohibited (during their period of exclusion) from serving on the Commission's advisory committees or comparable groups or task forces established by the Commission. Similarly, if an existing member of such an advisory group is suspended or debarred, the NPRM proposed that such person or entity be removed from that position. We received no comment on these proposals and now adopt them.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Implementation and Update of Revised Rules</HD>
                    <P>We delegate authority to the SDO, OGC, OMD, WCB, and CGB, to develop and implement any necessary procedures to effectuate the requirements that we adopt in this Report and Order. Such implementation may include, for example, adoption of public notices or other public-facing documents as well as internal documents such as guidelines or templates to help support the SDO and conduct exclusion and LDP proceedings, and updates to systems of records given additional data collections. We further delegate authority to OGC, in consultation with OMD, to coordinate with other federal agencies to cause these rules to be codified in the Code of Federal Regulations in light of these supplementing a governmentwide program and to update these rules to remain current, including through notice-and-comment rulemaking where appropriate. We further delegate authority to OGC and OMD to update the rules we adopt today, including through notice and comment under the APA, where appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Recent Revisions to OMB Guidelines</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Good Cause to Forgo Notice and Comment.</E>
                         Under the APA, when an agency for good cause finds that notice and public comment “are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest,” it need not follow notice and comment procedures before modifying or repealing rules. Prior notice and comment are “unnecessary” under the APA when “ `the administrative rule is a routine determination, insignificant in nature and impact, and inconsequential to the industry and to the public.' ”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        OMB revised its Guidelines in 2024, during the pendency of the Commission's rulemaking, to adopt “clarifying changes,” primarily at the recommendation of the ISDC. (89 FR 30055). In pertinent part, OMB amended § 180.705 to include “other indicators of adequate evidence that may include, but are not limited to, warrants and their accompanying affidavits” that officials may consider before initiating a suspension. Other revisions included edits to § 180.630 to note that a “corporation” or “company” are examples of organizations for purposes of determining whether conduct was imputed from one organization to another, and edits to § 180.730 to clarify that a person contesting a suspension must “identify any of the paragraphs in 180.730(a)” that do not apply to the person contesting the suspension. Our NPRM, issued in 2019, proposed to adopt rules consistent with the Guidelines by reference to the then-codified Guidelines. For convenience, the current language of these provisions as compared to the language that existed at the time the NPRM was adopted are reproduced in Appendix D of the 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order,</E>
                         available at 
                        <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-26-18A1.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Applying the “good cause” standard discussed above, however, we conclude that prior notice and comment are unnecessary for us to adopt the 2024 OMB clarifying changes today because the changes were minor and were adopted after careful consideration of the record in OMB's rulemaking proceeding. Out of an abundance of caution, however, we choose to provide an opportunity to object to these changes consistent with the direct final rule process.</P>
                    <P>
                        We follow the processes previously outlined by the Commission, which we briefly summarize here. At times when the Commission has found prior notice and comment unnecessary before modifying or repealing rules, it simply adopted the relevant rule change without any additional process. Although we reserve the right to proceed in that manner, we elect in this rulemaking to proceed using what is known as a “direct final rule” process. (We note that the Commission's Direct Final Rule Process (described herein), including this Direct Final Rule, is distinguishable from the Direct Final Rule process described in the Office of the Federal Register's Document Drafting Handbook (see Chapter 3.19: Direct Final Rule; DDH, August 2018 Edition (Rev.2.2), dated June 2025; 
                        <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/write/ddh</E>
                        ).)
                    </P>
                    <P>By proceeding through a direct final rule, the Commission chooses to provide expanded opportunities for public comment when it is not legally required to do so under the “good cause” standard. Under a direct final rule process, rule changes are adopted without prior notice and comment, but accompanied by an opportunity for the public to file comments—and if we conclude that significant adverse comments have been filed, the relevant rule changes would not take effect until after a full notice and comment process.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment Process.</E>
                         In particular, this item incorporating as rules the current OMB Guidelines allows for comment from interested parties within 30 days of publication regarding the 2024 OMB changes described in above. Until 60 days after publication, this shall be a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding for purposes of our ex parte rules. Because this comment process is directed toward a discrete objective, and to avoid unwarranted delay in that process, we prohibit filings addressing the rule changes contemplated more than 60 days after publication, absent further direction from the Commission published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . This process both accords with the purpose of the comment process, and is similar (though not identical) to actions the Commission has taken in other contexts to provide a defined end-point for public filings to enable the Commission to focus its attention on the submissions already before it.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The three amendments described above will become effective unless the Commission receives significant adverse comments within 30 days after publication. To the extent that the Commission receives comments on these rules, we delegate authority to OGC to evaluate whether they are significant adverse comments that warrant further procedures before modifying the rules. We intend for this 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18164"/>
                        assessment to be guided by ACUS's recommendation that “[a]n agency should consider any comment received during direct final rulemaking to be a significant adverse comment if the comment explains why: a. The [direct final] rule would be inappropriate, including challenges to the rule's underlying premise or approach; or b. The [direct final] rule would be ineffective or unacceptable without a change.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the event that OGC concludes that significant adverse comments have been filed, OGC will publish a timely notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         announcing any appropriate additional procedures that must be followed. If significant adverse comments are filed only with respect to a subset of amendments, OGC will publish a timely notice as to the amendments that were subject to significant adverse comments. In that case, we direct OGC to adopt the versions of any such rules as they were in effect at the time of the NPRM. Where comments are filed, but none of the comments are significant adverse comments, where warranted by the record OGC will issue a public notice that will briefly explain why any comments filed were not determined to be significant adverse comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                    <P>As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) incorporated an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) in the Modernizing Suspension and Debarment Rules Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM), released in November 2019. The Commission sought written public comment on the proposals in the NPRM, including comment on the IFRA. The comments received are addressed below. This Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) conforms to the RFA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Need for, and Objectives of, the Rules</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in the regulatory preamble, the Commission oversees a number of government-funded critical support programs that provide assistance to low-income individuals, individuals with disabilities, schools and libraries, and individuals in rural, underserved, and unserved areas, and that help bridge the digital divide for these groups and other Americans, such as the Universal Service Fund (USF) programs, the Telecommunications Relay Service (TRS) program, and the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program (NDBEDP). The Commission has also previously administered the Affordable Connectivity Program (ACP) and ACP Outreach Programs, which ended on June 1, 2024, due to exhaustion of appropriated funds. As part of its oversight role, the Commission seeks to protect these programs from waste, fraud, and abuse to ensure that government funds are efficiently used for their intended purposes. The Commission's rules only allow it to suspend and debar those against whom there had been a conviction or civil judgment arising from or related to USF programs.</P>
                    <P>The rules the Commission adopts in the Report and Order expand the Commission's arsenal of tools to root out bad actors by implementing the Office of Management and Budget Guidelines on Government Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement) (Guidelines), with modifications through FCC-specific supplemental rules to allow the Commission to carry out its statutory obligations to ensure that the support provided by the applicable FCC programs reach the intended beneficiaries. The Order applies the new suspension and debarment framework and supplemental rules to transactions for the four USF programs, the TRS program, and the NDBEDP, the Commission's primary permanent nonprocurement programs, as well as to other programs (collectively Covered Programs). Other Commission nonprocurement programs are exempt from these rules. Under the new suspension and debarment framework and FCC-supplemental rules, the Commission will evaluate the wrongful or fraudulent conduct of companies or individuals in other dealings with the government and take remedial action before the issuance of a judgment or conviction.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Significant Issues Raised by Public Comments in Response to the IRFA</HD>
                    <P>Comments regarding the impact of the rule on small entities were filed by The Joint Association Commenters, SHLB-SECA, E-mpa, Funds For Learning, E-Rate Central, NCTA, and CTIA and US Telecom. We summarize the comments here and respond to them below.</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the Commission proposed that when schools and libraries act through consortia, suspension and debarment proceedings will be directed towards the specific entities or persons responsible for bad conduct, rather than all consortium members. Comments from E-Rate Central supports giving schools and libraries serviced by a single E-Rate provider similar treatment. Funds for Learning opposes the proposal to reject the application of a primary tier participant that does business with a lower tier participant, such as an E-Rate consultant, who is convicted of fraud in another program.</P>
                    <P>NCTA, CTIA, and USTelecom contend that the Commission's proposal to extend the enhanced disclosure obligations to lower tier participants is not necessary to protect the public interest and would impose burdensome investigation obligations on primary tier participants. These commenters urge the Commission, in the event that it adopts these disclosures, to allow a safe harbor for companies acting in good faith.</P>
                    <P>CTIA and USTelecom raise concern about the applicable contract valuation threshold that would trigger a lower tier participant's obligations and urge the Commission to raise the applicable contract valuation threshold from $25,000 to at least $100,000 to account for the capital-intensive nature of communications networks and inflation.</P>
                    <P>Joint Association, SHLB-SECA, E-mpa, Funds for Learning, and E-Rate Central contend that the USF administrator, Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC), has imposed de facto suspensions by slowed and/or delayed administrative processing, failure to act, and withholding USF funding. These commenters also express concern specifically with the impact of these de facto suspensions on small to medium sized service providers and ask the Commission to address this issue in the context of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Response to Comments by the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration Office of Advocacy</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for the Small Business Administration (SBA) Office of Advocacy, and also provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rules as a result of those comments. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rules in this proceeding.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Rules Will Apply</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the adopted rules. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18165"/>
                        the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA. The SBA establishes small business size standards that agencies are required to use when promulgating regulations relating to small businesses; agencies may establish alternative size standards for use in such programs, but must consult and obtain approval from SBA before doing so.
                    </P>
                    <P>Our actions, over time, may affect small entities that are not easily categorized at present. We therefore describe three broad groups of small entities that could be directly affected by our actions. In general, a small business is an independent business having fewer than 500 employees. These types of small businesses represent 99.9% of all businesses in the United States, which translates to 34.75 million businesses. Next, “small organizations” are not-for-profit enterprises that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their field. While we do not have data regarding the number of non-profits that meet that criteria, over 99 percent of nonprofits have fewer than 500 employees. Finally, “small governmental jurisdictions” are defined as cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts with populations of less than fifty thousand. Based on the 2022 U.S. Census of Governments data, we estimate that at least 48,724 out of 90,835 local government jurisdictions have a population of less than 50,000.</P>
                    <P>The rules adopted in the Report and Order will apply to small entities in the industries identified in the chart below by their six-digit North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes and corresponding SBA size standard. Based on currently available U.S. Census data regarding the estimated number of small firms in each identified industry, we conclude that the adopted rules will impact a substantial number of small entities. Where available, we also provide additional information regarding the number of potentially affected entities in the identified industries below.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,11,xs68,11,11,11">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—2022 U.S. Census Bureau Data by NAICS Code</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Regulated industry
                                <LI>(footnotes specify potentially affected entities within a</LI>
                                <LI>regulated industry where applicable)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS code</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">SBA size standard</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total firms</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total small firms</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">% Small firms</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Telephone Apparatus Manufacturing</ENT>
                            <ENT>334210</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,250 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>155</ENT>
                            <ENT>136</ENT>
                            <ENT>87.74</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Radio and Television Broadcasting and Wireless Communications Equip Manufacturing</ENT>
                            <ENT>334220</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,250 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>155</ENT>
                            <ENT>136</ENT>
                            <ENT>87.74</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Communications Equipment Manufacturing</ENT>
                            <ENT>334290</ENT>
                            <ENT>800 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>310</ENT>
                            <ENT>294</ENT>
                            <ENT>94.84</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Software Publishers</ENT>
                            <ENT>513210</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>16,824</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,148</ENT>
                            <ENT>72.21</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                            <ENT>517111</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,403</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,027</ENT>
                            <ENT>88.95</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite)</ENT>
                            <ENT>517112</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,184</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,081</ENT>
                            <ENT>91.30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Telecommunications Resellers</ENT>
                            <ENT>517121</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,500 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>955</ENT>
                            <ENT>847</ENT>
                            <ENT>88.69</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Satellite Telecommunications</ENT>
                            <ENT>517410</ENT>
                            <ENT>$44 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>332</ENT>
                            <ENT>195</ENT>
                            <ENT>58.73</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">All Other Telecommunications</ENT>
                            <ENT>517810</ENT>
                            <ENT>$40 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,673</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,007</ENT>
                            <ENT>60.19</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Libraries and Archives</ENT>
                            <ENT>519210</ENT>
                            <ENT>$21 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,030</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,891</ENT>
                            <ENT>93.15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Custom Computer Programming Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>541511</ENT>
                            <ENT>$34 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,144</ENT>
                            <ENT>46,196</ENT>
                            <ENT>73.16</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Information Technology Value Added Resellers (Exception)</ENT>
                            <ENT>541519</ENT>
                            <ENT>150 employees</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,570</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,182</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.72</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Computer Related Services (Except Information Technology Value Added Resellers)</ENT>
                            <ENT>541519</ENT>
                            <ENT>$34 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,570</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,152</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.46</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Administrative Management and General Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>541611</ENT>
                            <ENT>$24.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,1761</ENT>
                            <ENT>69,836</ENT>
                            <ENT>68.63</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marketing Consulting Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>541613</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>50,507</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,127</ENT>
                            <ENT>67.57</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>541618</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,446</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,383</ENT>
                            <ENT>61.10 </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Schools</ENT>
                            <ENT>611110</ENT>
                            <ENT>$20 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,088</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,087</ENT>
                            <ENT>99.99</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Physicians Except Mental Health Specialists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621111</ENT>
                            <ENT>$16 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>138,120</ENT>
                            <ENT>104,486</ENT>
                            <ENT>75.65</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Physicians—Mental Health Specialists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621112</ENT>
                            <ENT>$13.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,973</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,376</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.96</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Dentists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621210</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,011</ENT>
                            <ENT>105,588</ENT>
                            <ENT>87.25</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Chiropractors</ENT>
                            <ENT>621310</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>38,673</ENT>
                            <ENT>30,425</ENT>
                            <ENT>78.67</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Optometrists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621320</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,582</ENT>
                            <ENT>16,425</ENT>
                            <ENT>88.39</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Mental Health Practitioners Except Physicians</ENT>
                            <ENT>621330</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>39,395</ENT>
                            <ENT>30,210</ENT>
                            <ENT>76.68</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Physical Occupational &amp; Speech Therapists &amp; Audiologists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621340</ENT>
                            <ENT>$12.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>31,682</ENT>
                            <ENT>25,139</ENT>
                            <ENT>79.35</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of Podiatrists</ENT>
                            <ENT>621391</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,546</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,737</ENT>
                            <ENT>87.64</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offices of All Other Miscellaneous Health Practitioners</ENT>
                            <ENT>621399</ENT>
                            <ENT>$10 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>29,775</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,206</ENT>
                            <ENT>61.15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Family Planning Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621410</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,671</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,238</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.09</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Outpatient Mental Health and Substance Abuse Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621420</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,647</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,837</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.87</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HMO Medical Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621491</ENT>
                            <ENT>$44.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>56</ENT>
                            <ENT>25</ENT>
                            <ENT>44.64</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kidney Dialysis Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621492</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>516</ENT>
                            <ENT>367</ENT>
                            <ENT>71.12</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Freestanding Ambulatory Surgical and Emergency Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621493</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,092</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,544</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.59</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">All Other Outpatient Care Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621498</ENT>
                            <ENT>$25.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,942</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,160</ENT>
                            <ENT>80.07</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Medical Laboratories</ENT>
                            <ENT>621511</ENT>
                            <ENT>$41.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,527</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,525</ENT>
                            <ENT>77.87</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Diagnostic Imaging Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621512</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,717</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,537</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.98</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Home Health Care Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>621610</ENT>
                            <ENT>$19 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>27,774</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,724</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.62</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Ambulance Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>621910</ENT>
                            <ENT>$22.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,002</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,436</ENT>
                            <ENT>81.15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Blood and Organ Banks</ENT>
                            <ENT>621991</ENT>
                            <ENT>$40 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>371</ENT>
                            <ENT>258</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.54</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">All Other Miscellaneous Ambulatory Health Care Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>621999</ENT>
                            <ENT>$20.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,270</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,794</ENT>
                            <ENT>79.70</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">General Medical and Surgical Hospitals</ENT>
                            <ENT>622110</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,280</ENT>
                            <ENT>501</ENT>
                            <ENT>21.97</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Hospitals</ENT>
                            <ENT>622210</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>403</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>33.25</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Specialty Hospitals—Except Psychiatric and Substance Abuse</ENT>
                            <ENT>622310</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>280</ENT>
                            <ENT>92</ENT>
                            <ENT>32.86</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Emergency and Other Relief Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>624230</ENT>
                            <ENT>$41.5 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>714</ENT>
                            <ENT>514</ENT>
                            <ENT>71.99</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="18166"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Telecommunications Service Provider Data</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                2024 Universal service monitoring report telecommunications service provider data
                                <LI>(data as of December 2023)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Affected entity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                SBA size standard
                                <LI>(1,500 employees)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Total number 
                                <LI>FCC form </LI>
                                <LI>499A filers</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Small firms</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                % Small 
                                <LI>entities</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Incumbent Local Exchange Carriers (Incumbent LECs)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,175</ENT>
                            <ENT>917</ENT>
                            <ENT>78.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Interexchange Carriers (IXCs)</ENT>
                            <ENT>113</ENT>
                            <ENT>95</ENT>
                            <ENT>84.07</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Local Resellers</ENT>
                            <ENT>222</ENT>
                            <ENT>217</ENT>
                            <ENT>97.75</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Operator Service Providers (OSPs)</ENT>
                            <ENT>22</ENT>
                            <ENT>22</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Paging &amp; Messaging</ENT>
                            <ENT>59</ENT>
                            <ENT>59</ENT>
                            <ENT>100.00</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Toll Resellers</ENT>
                            <ENT>411</ENT>
                            <ENT>398</ENT>
                            <ENT>96.84</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Telecommunications Resellers</ENT>
                            <ENT>633</ENT>
                            <ENT>615</ENT>
                            <ENT>97.16</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,682</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,276</ENT>
                            <ENT>91.33</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite)</ENT>
                            <ENT>585</ENT>
                            <ENT>498</ENT>
                            <ENT>85.13</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wireless Telephony</ENT>
                            <ENT>326</ENT>
                            <ENT>247</ENT>
                            <ENT>75.77</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,17">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—E-Rate Funding Data</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Affected entity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number receiving 
                                <LI>E-Rate funding </LI>
                                <LI>commitments</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Schools</ENT>
                            <ENT>101,522</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Libraries</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,671</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Economic Impact and Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping and Other Compliance Requirements for Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>The RFA directs agencies to describe the economic impact of adopted rules on small entities, as well as projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record.</P>
                    <P>The Report and Order adopts new rules consistent with the OMB Guidelines in 2 CFR part 180 and supplemental FCC-specific rules to provide the Commission with additional tools to prevent and respond to fraud, waste, and abuse of certain nonprocurement programs that it administers. Specifically, the Commission adopts the new suspension and debarment rules for transactions involving the Covered Programs. Pursuant to the new rules, small and other entities participating in these programs will have new reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance obligations. While, on the basis of the record developed in response to the NPRM and given the amount of variation in terms of the level of participation in FCC programs, the Commission cannot quantify the cost of compliance or determine whether small entities will have to hire professionals to comply with the Report and Order, we have adopted the OMB Guidelines (with some modification). These establish the framework for a governmentwide suspension and debarment system for federal assistance, loans, benefits, and other nonprocurement activities, and therefore small entities should largely be able to employ the compliance mechanisms they already have in place to the extent they participate in other government programs. Similar to the OMB Guidelines, the rules the Commission adopts in the Report and Order are designed to protect the integrity of federal programs and the public interest at large by ensuring that the Commission only does business with responsible persons.</P>
                    <P>
                        The applicability of the rules adopted in the Report and Order to small entities depends on whether the entity is classified as a primary tier or a lower tier participant in a transaction under the covered Commission program. The Report and Order imposes certain new obligations on primary tier participants, including: (1) requirements that program participants confirm that those with whom they do business are not already excluded or disqualified from government activities (which can be accomplished by checking the governmentwide System for Award Management Exclusions (
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                         Exclusions) and the Commission's list of previously suspended or debarred entities), by a certification, or by addition of terms to the applicable transaction and (2) communicating requirements to lower tier participants by collecting certifications or including a transaction term or condition requiring compliance with subpart C of the Guidelines.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, in accordance with the OMB Guidelines, small and other entities are required to make advance disclosures prior to entering into covered transactions with Federal agencies and participants in Federal programs. Mandatory disclosures for all participants include: (1) notification to the Commission and its program agents of whether any of the participants' principals have been either convicted, indicted, or civilly charged by any government entity for certain offenses during the past three years, (2) notification of whether the participants are excluded or disqualified from participating in covered transactions, and (3) notification to the Commission if an entity is excluded by another agency.</P>
                    <P>Additional mandatory disclosures for lower tier participants include: (1) notifying the higher tier participant with whom it is doing business the information described in 2 CFR 180.335; (2) notifying the higher tier participant of the same if participating in competitive bidding to provide services to a higher tier participant at the time of the bid; (3) notifying the USF, TRS, NDBEDP, and ACP Administrators of the same if participating in transactions related to those programs; (4) notifying the FCC of the same; and (5) notifying the USF, TRS, NDBEDP, and ACP Administrators, the FCC, and the higher tier participant if the lower tier participant learns of new information required under 2 CFR 180.335. The Commission also adopts other program specific disclosure requirements that we discuss below that are applicable to small entities and other participants in covered Commission programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Lifeline and ACP.</E>
                         Eligible telecommunications carriers (ETCs) who are primary tier participants and their lower tier participants participating in the Lifeline program are required to file annual disclosure statements, under penalty of perjury, reporting all required disclosures or certifying that they have no reportable disclosures to make. Primary participants can file on behalf of lower tier participants with which they have a direct relationship and are required to maintain documents 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18167"/>
                        substantiating their required certification for the three full years preceding. They must provide the Commission or USAC this documentation upon request. In light of the similarities between, and the overlap of participants in the Lifeline program and the ACP, primary and lower tier participants in the ACP have the same disclosure requirements as primary and lower tier participants in the Lifeline program except that, for consistency with the Commission's ACP rules, ACP primary tier participants must maintain documentation that substantiates their required certification for the six full preceding calendar years and provide such documentation to the Commission or USAC upon request.
                    </P>
                    <P>The new certification requirements for small and other Lifeline or former ACP providers require service providers to certify that they have implemented processes applicable to (1) their own employees, and (2) any employees (or independent contractors) working for their Lifeline or former ACP marketing organizations, or their other contractors or subcontractors, that require any such organization, as part of the onboarding process, obtain from their own employees (or from individuals they may hire as independent contractors) disclosures of whether these employees (or individuals hired as independent contractors) are suspended or debarred from participation in a federal program or have been required to resign from such employment due to malfeasance within the past three years. The certification should also confirm that (1) impacted companies will not hire individuals disclosing that they are suspended or debarred or who have disclosed such resignations or terminations, and (2) consistent with the rules adopted in the Report and Order, neither the service providers nor their contractors or subcontractors shall enter into business relationships with companies or individuals that are suspended or debarred, individuals that have disclosed such an exclusion, or disclosed any resignation or employment termination within the past three years caused by malfeasance.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">USF Competitive Bidding Short Forms.</E>
                         At the short-form application stage of the USF auction process, applicants are only required to disclose whether the applicant or any of its principals are presently excluded or disqualified from any Federal government programs. Only applicants that become winning bidders and proceed to the long-form stage of the auction process will be required to provide all disclosures mandated by the OMB Guidelines adopted in the Report and Order.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">TRS and NDBEDP.</E>
                         An entity seeking certification as a TRS provider or NDBEDP provider must file the required disclosures as part of its application for certification and renewal thereof. Additionally, internet-based TRS providers must update their disclosures within 60 days of any change by filing a Notice of Substantive Change with the TRS Fund Administrator and the Commission. Disclosure obligations for NDBEDP providers require each certified NDBEDP provider to file updates to their disclosures with their required six-month program reports and to file a change in its disclosure as a notification of substantive change, if the disclosure bears directly on the provider's ability to meet the qualification necessary for certification as a NDBEDP provider.
                    </P>
                    <P>For all of the covered programs discussed in the Report and Order, any person suspended or debarred by a Commission order is excluded from participation in any Commission program (not just the program in which the bad actions occurred) and will be placed on the governmentwide System for Award Management Exclusions list, triggering reciprocity barring that person from participating in other government programs (including procurement transactions) unless the person was granted an exemption by another agency.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Steps Taken To Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities, and Significant Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>The RFA requires an agency to provide, “a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities . . . including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.”</P>
                    <P>The record comments indicate overwhelming support of the FCC's efforts to adopt updated, more flexible suspension and debarment procedures based on the OMB Guidelines, and we address here requests that the Commission modify or tailor its proposals to small entities as follows.</P>
                    <P>As noted above, in the NPRM, the Commission proposed that when schools and libraries act through consortia, suspension and debarment proceedings will be directed towards the specific entities or persons responsible for bad conduct, rather than all consortium members. Comments from E-Rate Central support giving schools and libraries serviced by a single E-Rate provider similar treatment. Funds for Learning opposes the proposal to reject the application of a primary tier participant that does business with a lower tier participant, such as an E-Rate consultant, who is convicted of fraud in another program.</P>
                    <P>The Report and Order does not apply the approach the Commission adopted for consortia to schools and libraries serviced by a single E-Rate consultant because the OMB Guidelines provide an appropriate level of flexibility to prevent penalizing schools and libraries for the conduct of an E-Rate consultant. The OMB Guidelines already allow for a case-by-case review in the event that an entity serviced by a lower tier participant is excluded. Suspension and Debarment Officials (SDOs) are required to determine an individual respondent's responsibility and consider the facts and circumstances of each case as well as the respondent's arguments. The exception to an exclusion mechanism allowed by the OMB Guidelines also provides sufficient flexibility to limit the impact a lower tier participant's misconduct with one school or library may have on existing transactions with a separate school or library. The FCC supplemental rules for continuations and transitions also provide appropriate mechanisms for limiting the impact on covered transactions while protecting the Commission against ongoing fraud, waste, and abuse by bad actors. Any broader form of relief would undermine the purpose of the OMB Guidelines and the Commission's supplemental rules. Finally, unfavorable disclosures by lower tier participants are unlikely to be outcome determinative, except in instances where the factual circumstances require exclusion to protect the Commission's programs.</P>
                    <P>
                        Funds for Learning's comments support allowing USF participants, particularly schools and libraries, to continue receiving services from excluded entities for either the remainder of the USF-supported contract, or until a different provider could be substituted. Under the FCC supplemental rules, a program participant is permitted to continue with an excluded entity in transactions that were in existence at the time the agency excluded the entity until a substitute provider is found. In the event a substitute provider cannot be promptly identified, an exception to this rule may be required to allow for limited continuation with the excluded provider for a reasonable transition 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18168"/>
                        period. The Report and Order delegates authority to the SDO to review the need for exceptions on a case-by-case basis by evaluating factors such as the availability of an alternate provider and the Commission's goals of preventing waste, fraud, and abuse.
                    </P>
                    <P>As also noted above, NCTA and CTIA and USTelecom contend that the Commission's proposal to extend the enhanced disclosure obligations to lower tier participants is not necessary to protect the public interest and would impose burdensome investigation obligations on primary tier participants. These commenters urge the Commission, in the event that it adopts these disclosures, to allow a safe harbor for companies acting in good faith.</P>
                    <P>The Commission disagrees and adopts the original proposal, extending the primary tier disclosure requirements to lower tier participants. Requiring these participants to adhere to more expansive disclosure requirements is essential to preventing the waste, fraud, and abuse of the Commission's programs. These disclosures will allow the Commission to better scrutinize transactions and apply heightened safeguards where necessary while also avoiding transactions that undermine the integrity of the Commission's programs entirely. Additionally, under the OMB Guidelines and supplemental FCC rules we adopt, the Commission has flexibility to evaluate the actions of a lower tier participant along with mitigating factors. This flexibility allows the SDO to tailor (and potentially limit) the degree of impact a lower tier participant's behavior may have on a primary tier participant. This same flexibility is why the Report and Order declines to adopt a safe harbor for good faith compliance. A safe harbor would be inconsistent with the flexible approach and invite litigation concerning whether a certain safe harbor should, or should not have, been triggered.</P>
                    <P>In addition, in response to CTIA and USTelecom's concern about the applicable contract valuation threshold that would trigger a lower tier participant's obligation, the Commission declines to adopt the request that it raise the applicable contract valuation threshold from $25,000 to at least $100,000 to account for the capital-intensive nature of communications networks and inflation. The Report and Order maintains the $25,000 threshold which the OMB Guidelines include in its definition of a “covered transaction.” A higher threshold could interfere with governmentwide reciprocity for excluded entities, and threats against the integrity of Commission programs weigh against increasing the threshold. Although, as CTIA and USTelecom note, other agencies tasked with regulating capital-intensive industries increased their thresholds, the Commission finds that the breadth and diversity of outlays made through FCC covered programs, as well as the myriad threats to the integrity of these programs, weigh against the Commission adjusting the threshold. The Commission notes that, in its experience, lower tier participants such as marketing organizations can commit significant amounts of waste, fraud, and abuse. Further, under the OMB Guidelines and FCC supplemental rules, the SDO may consider the actual or potential harm or impact arising from the bad behavior, which can include the dollar-value of the affected transaction, into account as a mitigating factor.</P>
                    <P>As noted above, the Joint Association Commenters as well as others parties contend that in the absence of rules the USF administrator, Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC), has imposed de facto suspensions by slowed and/or delayed administrative processing, failure to act, and withholding USF funding. Commenters express concern specifically with the impact of these de facto suspensions on small to medium sized service providers. In the Report and Order, the Commission determines that these issues are outside of the scope of this rulemaking because the NPRM did not propose or seek comments on USAC's administration of USF programs. The Commission also determines that this proceeding cannot serve as a vehicle to address these concerns and comments. The Commission notes, however, that parties can raise these concerns in an appropriate open proceeding or may propose changes to our rules through a petition for rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Report to Congress</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission will send a copy of the Report and Order, including this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, in a report to Congress pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. In addition, the Commission will send a copy of the Report and Order, including this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, to the Chief Counsel for the SBA Office of Advocacy and will publish a copy of the Report and Order, and this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (or summaries thereof) in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>2 CFR Part 6001</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Grant programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>47 CFR Part 54</CFR>
                        <P>Communications common carriers, Health facilities, Internet, Libraries, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Schools, Telecommunications, Telephone.</P>
                        <CFR>47 CFR Part 64</CFR>
                        <P>Communications, Communications common carriers, Communications equipment, Individuals with disabilities, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Telecommunications.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                        <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Rules</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 2 CFR chapter LX and 47 CFR parts 54 and 64 as follows:</P>
                    <TITLE>Title 2—Federal Financial Assistance</TITLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subtitle B—Federal Agency Regulations for Grants and Agreements</HD>
                    <CHAPTER>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">CHAPTER LX—FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</HD>
                    </CHAPTER>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="2" PART="6001">
                        <AMDPAR>1. Delayed indefinitely, add part 6001 to chapter LX of title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <PART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 6001—NONPROCUREMENT DEBARMENT AND SUSPENSION</HD>
                            <CONTENTS>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                    <SECHD>Sec. </SECHD>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.100</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Supplemental definitions. </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.105</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What does this part do?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.110</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Does this part apply to me? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.115</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What policies and procedures must I follow? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.120</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What steps must I take if I am suspended or debarred by the Commission or another agency?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.123</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do initial and final suspension decisions differ in their effects? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.125</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do I receive an exception from a suspension or debarment? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.130</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do I seek review of a suspension or debarment? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.135</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the timeframe for review of a suspension or debarment decision? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.140</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What are exempted Commission transactions? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.145</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>If I am excluded, may I serve on a Commission advisory committee?</SUBJECT>
                                </SUBPART>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Covered Transactions</HD>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.200</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What additional transactions are covered transactions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.210</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>
                                        Clarification of tier participants in Commission programs. 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18169"/>
                                    </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.220</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What transactions are lower tier covered transactions?</SUBJECT>
                                </SUBPART>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Responsibilities of Participants Regarding Transactions Doing Business With Other Persons</HD>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.300</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What must I do before I enter into a covered transaction with another person?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.310</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What policies govern continuations and transitions when a Federal agency excludes a person with whom I am already doing business in a covered transaction? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.330</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What methods must I use to pass requirements down to participants at lower tiers with whom I intend to do business? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.335</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Additional information disclosures for primary and lower tier participants. </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.345</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Review of unfavorable disclosures by Bureaus and Administrators.</SUBJECT>
                                </SUBPART>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Responsibilities of Federal Agency Officials Regarding Transactions</HD>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.430</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How are Suspending and Debarring Officials Appointed and Designated to Proceedings? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.435</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What method should the Commission or participants use to implement the requirements of primary tier participants? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.440</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who conducts fact finding for FCC suspensions? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.443</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who conducts fact finding for FCC debarments?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.445</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who shall present evidence supporting suspensions or debarments?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.447</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>On what findings and evidence from other Commission proceedings or activities or other Federal, State, or local bodies may the Suspending and Debarring Officials rely? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.450</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What causes and factors should the Commission consider for suspension or debarment determinations? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.455</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What Commission alternatives to suspension or debarment may be appropriate? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.460</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What must I do to be reinstated after my period of debarment is over?</SUBJECT>
                                </SUBPART>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subparts E Through I [Reserved]</HD>
                                </SUBPART>
                                <SUBPART>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Limited Denial of Participation</HD>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1101</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is a limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1102</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How does a limited denial of participation start?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1103</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Scope of a limited denial of participation. </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1105</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>When may a Commission official issue a limited denial of participation? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1107</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>When does a limited denial of participation take effect?</SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1109</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How long may a limited denial of participation last? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1113</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How may I contest my limited denial of participation? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1115</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Do Federal agencies coordinate limited denial of participation actions? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1117</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How will a limited denial of participation affect services to current customers of an excluded service provider? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1119</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>May the FCC impute the conduct of one person to another in a limited denial of participation? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1121</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the effect of a suspension or debarment on a limited denial of participation? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1123</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the effect of a limited denial of participation on a suspension or a debarment? </SUBJECT>
                                    <SECTNO>6001.1127</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How is a limited denial of participation reported?</SUBJECT>
                                </SUBPART>
                            </CONTENTS>
                            <AUTH>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                                <P>47 U.S.C. 154, 225, 254, 620; Sec. 2455, Pub. L. 103-355, 108 Stat. 3327 (31 U.S.C. 6101 note); E.O. 11738, 38 FR 25161, 3 CFR, 1973 Comp., p. 799; E.O. 12549, 51 FR 6370, 3 CFR, 1986 Comp., p. 189; E.O. 12689, 54 FR 34131, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 235.</P>
                            </AUTH>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.100</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Supplemental definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>In addition to the definitions set forth in part 180, subpart I of this title, which have been adopted pursuant to § 6001.105, we adopt the following definitions for purposes of this part:</P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Administrator</E>
                                         shall mean the USF Administrator, the TRS Fund Administrator, the NDBEDP Administrator, and the ACP Administrator, and the ACP Outreach Grant program Administrator.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">ACP</E>
                                         means the former Affordable Connectivity Program which provided support as set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subpart R, and which ended on June 1, 2024, due to an exhaustion of appropriated funds.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">ACP Outreach Grant Program</E>
                                         means that former program established by the Commission for which the rules are set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subpart S, and which ended on June 1, 2024, due to an exhaustion of appropriated funds.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Commission</E>
                                         or 
                                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                                         means the Federal Communications Commission.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Covered Programs</E>
                                         means the Universal Service Fund programs, the Telecommunications Relay Services program, the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program, the ACP, and the ACP Outreach Grant Program.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Cybersecurity Pilot Program</E>
                                         means the program providing universal service support to provide cybersecurity services and equipment for eligible schools and libraries as set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subpart T.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">E-Rate program</E>
                                         means the program providing universal service support for schools and libraries, as set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subparts A and F.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Eligible Telecommunications Carrier</E>
                                         means an Eligible Telecommunications Carrier as defined in 47 CFR 54.5.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Enrollment representative</E>
                                         shall have the same meaning as set forth in the Commission programs that may be implicated in any transaction (to the extent such definitions exist). Thus, for the Lifeline program, the definition found at 47 CFR 54.400(p) shall apply; and for ACP, the definition found at 47 CFR 54.1800(k) shall apply.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Exclusion</E>
                                         in §§ 180.830 and 180.940 of this title includes suspension or debarment by the Commission under the Communications Act and the rules in effect prior to the effective date of the Commission's adoption of the Guidelines in addition to those that are listed under 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Guidelines</E>
                                         or 
                                        <E T="03">OMB Guidelines</E>
                                         means the OMB Guidelines to Agencies on Governmentwide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), as set forth in part 180 of this title.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">High-Cost program</E>
                                         or 
                                        <E T="03">High-Cost programs</E>
                                         means the USF program or USF programs providing universal service support for rural, insular, and high cost areas, as set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subparts A, B, C, D, J, K, L, M, and O, including Frozen High Cost Support, High Cost Loop Support (HCLS), the Rural Digital Opportunity Fund, the Connect America Fund (CAF) Phase II Model and the CAF Phase II Auction support, the 5-G Fund, the Alaska Plan Support, the Alternative-Connect America Cost Model Support, the Alternative Cost America Model II Support, Revised Alternative Cost America Model Support, the Rural Broadband Experiments, the Bringing Puerto Rico Together Fund, Connect USVI Fund, the CAF Intercarrier Compensation (ICC) Recovery, the CAF Broadband Loop Support (CAF BLS), the Safety Valve Support, the CAF Fixed Support, Enhanced A-CAM Support, and the Alaska Connect Fund.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Lifeline marketing organization</E>
                                         or 
                                        <E T="03">ACP marketing organization</E>
                                         means a person that:
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(1) Has a contractual relationship with the person providing the Lifeline or ACP services to consumers for the purpose of securing Lifeline or ACP enrollments; or</P>
                                    <P>(2) Has any contract to provide for such Lifeline or ACP enrollment services.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Lifeline program</E>
                                         means the program providing universal service support for low-income consumers set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subparts A, B, C and E.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">NDBEDP</E>
                                         means the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program, under which payments from the TRS Fund are made to support programs distributing communications equipment to low-income individuals who are deafblind, as set forth in 47 CFR part 64, subpart GG.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">NDBEDP Administrator</E>
                                         means the Commission official designated by the 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18170"/>
                                        Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau as the administrator of the NDBEDP pursuant to 47 CFR 64.6205.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Principal</E>
                                         means, in addition to those individuals described in § 180.995 of this title:
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(1) Consultants that have a business relationship with any participant in connection with a covered transaction and Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations; or</P>
                                    <P>(2) Any other person (as defined in § 180.985 of this title) having a critical influence on, or substantive control over, a covered transaction.</P>
                                    <P>(3) An individual's status as a principal does not depend on whether he or she is employed by the participant or paid with federal funds.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Rural Health Care program</E>
                                         or 
                                        <E T="03">RHC program</E>
                                         means the program providing universal service support for health care providers set forth in 47 CFR part 54, subparts A and G.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov Exclusions</E>
                                         means the System for Award Management Exclusions, which is a widely available source of the most current information about persons who are excluded or disqualified from covered transactions, as further described in part 180, subpart E of this title.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Suspension and Debarment Official or SDO</E>
                                         means an official authorized by the Commission to conduct suspension and debarment proceedings.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">Termination . . . for cause or default</E>
                                         shall not include a denial of a funding request by the NDBEDP Administrator, TRS Fund Administrator, USF Administrator, or ACP Outreach Grant program Administrator. See also § 6001.335(e)(1).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">TRS program</E>
                                         means all forms of TRS set forth in 47 CFR part 64, subpart F.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">TRS Fund Administrator</E>
                                         means the person selected as the administrator of the Telecommunications Relay Services Fund pursuant to 47 CFR 64.604(c)(5)(iii).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">USF Administrator</E>
                                         means the administrator of the universal service mechanisms appointed pursuant to 47 CFR 54.701.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        <E T="03">USF Programs</E>
                                         means the programs implementing the Universal Service Fund pursuant to section 254 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 254.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.105</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What does this part do?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) In this part, the Federal Communications Commission adopts the Guidelines in part 180, subparts A through I of this title, as supplemented by this part, as Commission policies, procedures, and requirements for nonprocurement debarment and suspension. All persons affected by this part should consult the Guidelines in part 180, subparts A through I of this title in order to be informed of all the provisions of the suspension and debarment rules (as supplemented by this part).</P>
                                    <P>(b) Nothing in this part forecloses the Commission from utilizing such other administrative remedies that may be available to the Commission relating to the conduct underlying any exclusion proceeding, including forfeiture actions, debt collection procedures, or other remedies permitted by statute or by Commission rules in this part.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.110</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Does this part apply to me?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>This part and, through this part, pertinent portions of part 180, subparts A through I of this title (see table at § 180.100(b) of this title), apply to you if you are a—</P>
                                    <P>(a) “Participant” or “principal” in a “covered transaction” under part 180, subpart B of this title as supplemented by this part;</P>
                                    <P>(b) Respondent in a Commission suspension or debarment action;</P>
                                    <P>(c) Commission SDO; or</P>
                                    <P>(d) Commission official, or agent, authorized to enter into any type of nonprocurement transaction that is a covered transaction.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.115</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What policies and procedures must I follow?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The Commission policies and procedures that you must follow are the policies and procedures specified in each applicable section of the Guidelines in part 180, subparts A through I of this title, as that section is supplemented by this part. The transactions that are covered transactions, for example, are specified by § 180.220 of this title, as supplemented by § 6001.220. For any section of the Guidelines in part 180, subparts A through I of this title that has no corresponding section in this part, Commission policies and procedures are those in the Guidelines.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.120</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What steps must I take if I am suspended or debarred by the Commission or another agency?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) If a person excluded by action of the Commission or another agency is not already registered with the System for Award Management, that person must register within 10 days after the person's suspension or debarment becomes effective.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (b)(1) Any person already listed in the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions when this part takes effect shall provide notice of such exclusion to the Commission within 30 days of the effective date of this part.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(2) Any person excluded by another agency on or after the effective date of this part shall provide notice to the Commission within 10 days after such person has received notice of the exclusion.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Notifications under this paragraph (b) shall be made by email and letter to both the Chief of the Bureau(s) responsible for any program in which such person participates, as well as to the Administrators of any such program, to the General Counsel of the Commission, and to the Office of the Managing Director.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (4) These requirements shall apply only to those persons described in § 180.120(a) of this title (
                                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                         persons who have been, are, or may reasonably be expected to be a participant or principal in a covered transaction).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(c) Persons that are subject to exclusions issued by other agencies may temporarily continue with existing covered transactions (including services for those transactions) under FCC programs but may not enter into any new covered transactions or provide services for such transactions unless an exception is granted. Such excluded persons will comply with such orders for transitions or limited continuations as may be required by the SDO.</P>
                                    <P>(d) When notified of an exclusion issued by another agency, and upon the request of a participant or an excluded person or an FCC bureau or office responsible for administration of any affected programs, the SDO shall preliminarily evaluate whether or not to grant an exception under § 180.135 of this title, after consulting with the Office of General Counsel and the bureaus or offices responsible for administration of any affected programs. The SDO may consider such factors including, but not limited to:</P>
                                    <P>(1) When the misconduct resulting in the exclusion occurred;</P>
                                    <P>(2) When the other agency issued the exclusion;</P>
                                    <P>(3) How much longer the exclusion will remain in effect; and</P>
                                    <P>(4) The availability of alternate providers of the services provided by the excluded person.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (e) For those exclusions issued by another agency for which the SDO preliminarily determines that no exception is warranted, the SDO will promptly initiate informal proceedings on transitions to alternate providers or limited continuations with notice to the excluded person. The notice shall advise that the excluded person is immediately barred from enrolling new customers or otherwise entering into new covered transactions (or providing services for such transactions). Excluded persons shall have 30 days to file responses to the notice, in which the 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18171"/>
                                        excluded person may seek an exception from the Commission granting reciprocity by stating in writing the reasons for such an exception. After the proceedings are concluded, the SDO will issue a decision that rules on any exception request filed by the excluded person. If the exception request is not granted, the decision will also set forth the appropriate transition or continuation requirements applicable to the exclusion (including customer notice requirements) consistent with § 6001.310. The SDO will consult with the Office of General Counsel and the bureaus or offices responsible for administration of any affected programs before issuing these rulings. Any exceptions granted by the SDO under this paragraph (e) may be subject to appropriate conditions such as mandatory audits, additional reporting requirements, compliance agreements (with approval of the Office of General Counsel), monitoring, or any other forms of effective oversight supplemental to that already provided under FCC programs.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.123</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do initial and final suspension decisions differ in their effects?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) An initial suspension decision shall prevent the suspended party from enrolling new customers or otherwise entering into new covered transactions. However, an initial suspension decision made before a party has had the opportunity to oppose the suspension decision shall not trigger either</P>
                                    <P>(1) Any discontinuations of service; or</P>
                                    <P>(2) Any requirements that beneficiaries or program administrators (in the case of the NDBEDP or TRS programs) find alternative service providers.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Any discontinuations or substitution of provider requirements shall not be effective until after the suspension process has run its course resulting in a final suspension decision under § 180.755 of this title or until after the time for a party to contest the initial suspension notice under § 180.725 of this title has passed.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.125</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do I receive an exception from a suspension or debarment?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The Commission delegates exclusive authority to its SDO in the first instance, as the Commission's sole designee, to grant exceptions to exclusions. Neither the Commission, nor the Chairperson of the Commission, will rule on exceptions in the first instance, but the Commission may consider applications for review of an SDO decision on exceptions. An exception, if granted, permits an excluded person to participate in one or more particular covered transactions as specified by the SDO. If the SDO grants an exception, the exception must be in writing and state the reasons for deviating from the governmentwide policy in Executive Order 12549.</P>
                                    <P>(b) A person may petition for an exception during the proceedings before the SDO in which the SDO is considering the periods for continuations and transitions, as described in § 6001.310, or in the case of exclusions by other agencies, may petition for an exception as provided in § 6001.120(c).</P>
                                    <P>(c) An exception granted for an excluded person does not extend to the covered transactions of another agency.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Any exceptions granted by the SDO under this section shall be subject to such conditions as mandatory audits, additional reporting requirements, compliance agreements (with approval of the Office of General Counsel), monitoring, or any other forms of effective oversight supplemental to that already provided under FCC programs as the SDO considers appropriate to ensure that an excluded person for whom an exception is granted complies with the requirements of Commission programs.</P>
                                    <P>(e) In evaluating requests for exceptions, the SDO shall evaluate the particular services provided by the excluded person and the availability of alternate providers in the areas served, the typical terms of any contracts that may exist between the provider and its beneficiaries, any federal or state certification requirements that may be applicable (especially for NDBEDP or TRS), when the misconduct resulting in the exclusion occurred, and in the case of exclusions by other agencies, when the exclusion was issued and how much longer the exclusion will remain in effect. Because exceptions are evaluated on a case-by-case basis, the SDO has discretion to consider any other factors that may be relevant to the exception determination and shall also balance the goal of providing continued services to beneficiaries of Commission programs and the protection of program integrity by eliminating participation of bad actors. In evaluating exception requests, the SDO shall consult with the bureaus or offices responsible for the program in which the excluded person has participated, as well as the Office of General Counsel. The SDO shall issue a written ruling acting on the exception request. The proponent of an exception bears the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, any facts asserted.</P>
                                    <P>(f) An excluded person may contest an exception determination of the SDO through motions for reconsideration or an application for review pursuant to 47 CFR 1.106 or 1.115.</P>
                                    <P>(g) No exceptions shall be permitted for Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations or for enrollment representatives.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.130</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How do I seek review of a suspension or debarment?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Consistent with 47 CFR 1.106, any person may request reconsideration of a final suspension decision issued pursuant to § 180.870 of this title, a debarment decision issued pursuant to § 180.875 of this title, or an exception decision issued pursuant to § 6001.125.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Consistent with 47 CFR 1.115, any person may seek Commission review of a final suspension decision issued pursuant to § 180.870 of this title, a debarment decision issued pursuant to § 180.875 of this title, or an exception decision issued pursuant to § 6001.125.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Consistent with 47 CFR 1.102(b), any person may seek a stay of a final suspension decision issued pursuant to § 180.870 of this title or a final debarment decision issued pursuant to § 180.875 of this title.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.135</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the timeframe for review of a suspension or debarment decision?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The SDO must make a written decision addressing any petition for reconsideration within 45 days of receiving the petition. The SDO may extend that period for good cause.</P>
                                    <P>(b) The Commission will attempt in good faith to issue a written decision addressing any application for review of a final suspension or debarment decision within 180 days of receiving the application.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.140</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What are exempted Commission transactions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Any transactions involving the Commission that are not related to or do not arise in connection with the Covered Programs shall be exempted transactions under this part.</P>
                                    <P>(b)(1) An application to the Commission to participate in any competitive process, including an auction, that will determine parties that subsequently may apply to be authorized to receive universal service support (also known as a short-form application) shall also be an exempted transaction under this part. In such an application, no party suspended or debarred under this part may certify that it is able to satisfy the regulatory requirements for receiving universal service support.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (2) Any subsequent application to the Commission to be authorized to receive universal service support (also known 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18172"/>
                                        as a long-form application) based on the results of any competitive process described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not an exempted transaction under this part.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.145</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>If I am excluded, may I serve on a Commission advisory committee?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        No. Any person that is suspended or debarred may not, during their period of exclusion, serve on a Commission advisory committee or comparable Commission group or task force established by the Commission. If a person that is already a member of such an advisory group is suspended or debarred after an initial appointment to a Commission advisory group, such person shall be removed from that position. For purposes of this section, persons that are suspended or debarred shall mean both persons suspended or debarred by the Commission as well as persons included on the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Covered Transactions</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.200</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What additional transactions are covered transactions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>For purposes of determining what is a covered transaction under § 180.200 of this title, this section applies to any transaction at the primary tier between a person and the Commission or any agents of the Commission, including the USF Administrator, the TRS Fund Administrator, and the NDBEDP Administrator. For purposes of § 180.200 of this title, any transactions between two primary tier participants (as clarified by § 6001.210), other than the Commission, shall be considered to be a transaction at a lower tier within the meaning of § 180.200(b) of this title. The hiring of enrollment representatives by marketing organization participants also shall be considered covered transactions within the meaning of § 180.200(b) of this title.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.210</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Clarification of tier participants in Commission programs.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) For the E-Rate program, the Cybersecurity Pilot Program, and the Rural Health Care program, the primary tier participants shall be both the schools or libraries (or consortia) that submit applications to the USF Administrator (for the E-Rate program) or the health care providers (including consortia) that submit applications to the USF Administrator (for the Rural Health Care program), as well as the service providers selected by these applicants.</P>
                                    <P>(b) For the High-Cost programs, the Lifeline program, the TRS program, and the ACP, the primary tier participants shall be the service providers that request and receive support from the USF Administrator, the TRS Fund Administrator, or the ACP Administrator, respectively. For the ACP Outreach Grant Program, the primary tier participants shall be grant recipients.</P>
                                    <P>(c) For the NDBEDP, the primary tier participants shall be the certified programs that request and receive reimbursements from the TRS Fund Administrator.</P>
                                    <P>(d) The lower tier participants are those persons engaged in covered transactions as described in § 6001.220, including enrollment representatives employed by or seeking employment with marketing organizations engaged in covered transactions involving the Lifeline program or the ACP.</P>
                                    <P>(e) Beneficiaries under the Lifeline program, the ACP, the TRS program, and the NDBEDP shall not be considered primary or lower tier participants.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.220</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What transactions are lower tier covered transactions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        In addition to the transactions covered under § 180.220 of this title, this part applies to additional lower tiers of transactions supported by the Commission's programs involving the persons described below. This section extends the coverage of the Commission nonprocurement suspension and debarment requirements at the lower tiers to all transactions involving contracts or subcontracts, express or implied, and regardless of tier, awarded under or in furtherance of covered nonprocurement transactions, as permitted under the Guidelines at § 180.220(c) of this title. The SDO has the discretion to aggregate smaller related transactions (
                                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                         FCC Registration Numbers, applications, or disbursements) to meet the threshold. The additional transactions described in this section will be considered covered transactions under § 180.220 of this title and the parties described herein will be deemed “participants” under § 180.980 of this title, at the lower tiers, consistent with § 6001.210(d).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(a) For the High-Cost program, High-Cost supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives, if:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(3) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>(b) For the Lifeline program:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Lifeline-supported transactions involving any participant in the Lifeline program (except for the primary tier carrier), regardless of tier or dollar value, including but not limited to those that are reimbursed based on the number of Lifeline subscribers enrolled; and</P>
                                    <P>(2) Lifeline-supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives, and Lifeline-supported transactions involving Lifeline marketing organizations, or their agents or representatives, including enrollment representatives, if:</P>
                                    <P>(i) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(iii) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>(c) For the E-Rate program and Cybersecurity Pilot Program, E-Rate-supported transactions or Cybersecurity Pilot program-supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives if:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(3) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>(d) For the RHC program, RHC-supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives if:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(3) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>(e) For the TRS program and the NDBEDP, TRS- or NDBEDP-supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers with whom the certified programs have a contractual relationship, consultants, or their agents or representatives, if:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(3) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (4) For the TRS program (other than TRS that is provided through state 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18173"/>
                                        programs), the service providers are the certified entities that are reimbursed by the Commission and the TRS Fund Administrator for providing services under the covered transactions. For TRS that is provided through state TRS programs, the service providers are the TRS providers that are authorized by each state to provide intrastate TRS under the state program and that, accordingly, are compensated by the TRS Fund for the provision of interstate TRS. For the NDBEDP, the certified programs are the certified entities that are reimbursed by the Commission and the TRS Fund Administrator for providing services and equipment under the covered transactions.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(f) For the ACP program:</P>
                                    <P>(1) ACP-supported transactions involving any participant in the ACP program (except for the primary tier service provider), regardless of tier or dollar value, including but not limited to those that are reimbursed based on the number of ACP subscribers enrolled; and</P>
                                    <P>(2) ACP supported transactions involving contractors, subcontractors, suppliers, consultants, or their agents or representatives, and any ACP-supported transactions involving ACP marketing organizations, or their agents or representatives, including enrollment representatives, if:</P>
                                    <P>(i) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(iii) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                    <P>(g) For the ACP Outreach Grant Program, transactions involving subrecipients, contractors, or subcontractors of the grant recipient if:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Such person has a material role relating to, or significantly affecting, claims for disbursements related to the program;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Such person is considered a “principal;” or</P>
                                    <P>(3) The amount of the transaction is expected to be at least $25,000.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Responsibilities of Participants Regarding Transactions Doing Business With Other Persons</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.300</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What must I do before I enter into a covered transaction with another person?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        (a) You, as a participant, are responsible for determining whether you are entering into a covered transaction with an appropriate person based on its disclosures. You must verify that the person with whom you intend to do business is not excluded or disqualified. You may do so by checking the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions, by collecting certifications from that person, or by adding a clause or condition to the contract with that person. These requirements are applicable whether entering into a covered transaction with another person at the next lower tier (as required by § 180.300 of this title) or with another person in the same tier.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        (b) For purposes of FCC programs, persons that are “excluded or disqualified” as used in §§ 180.300 and 180.940 of this title shall mean persons suspended or debarred by the Federal Communications Commission as well as persons included on the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions. If you elect to verify that a person is not excluded or disqualified by checking the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions, you must also check the Federal Communications Commission's list of previously suspended or debarred entities.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        (c) In the case of an employment contract, the FCC does not require employers to check the 
                                        <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                                         Exclusions before making salary payments pursuant to that contract.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.310</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What policies govern continuations and transitions when a Federal agency excludes a person with whom I am already doing business in a covered transaction?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a)(1) The continuation policies set forth in §§ 180.310, 180.315(a), and 180.415 of this title are not applicable to the programs subject to this part. Instead, if you are in covered transactions with an excluded person as to whom the SDO has issued a suspension or debarment, or for whom another agency has issued an exclusion, or have been using the services of an excluded person as a principal under a covered transaction, you as a participant must transition to an alternate provider, or must discontinue use of that excluded principal for covered transactions, within the period of time required by the SDO except in those rare cases in which the SDO has permitted continuation of services for a limited period. However, even if continuation is permitted, you are not required to continue the transactions, and you may consider termination, subject to compliance with all applicable Commission rules. You should make a decision about whether to terminate and the type of termination action, if any, only after a thorough review to ensure that the action is proper and appropriate.</P>
                                    <P>(2) You may not renew or extend covered transactions (other than no-cost time extensions) with any excluded person unless an exception is provided by the SDO under this part or under § 180.135 of this title.</P>
                                    <P>(b)(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (e) of this section, each exclusion order issued by an SDO (including those in proceedings initiated under § 6001.120) shall establish the transition period by which parties engaged in covered transactions with an excluded person or using the services of an excluded person as a principal must transition to an alternate provider or principal or, in rare cases, shall provide for a continuation period of limited duration. Before making these determinations, the SDO shall closely evaluate the particular services provided by the excluded person, the typical terms of any contracts that may exist between the excluded person and the program beneficiaries or other third parties, any federal or state certification requirements applicable in the Commission programs involved, and the availability of alternate persons to provide the services. In those cases where obtaining an alternate provider may require new competitive bidding or provider certifications, the SDO shall ensure that the transition period is sufficient to provide for that process. The SDO may also permit a limited continuation period where an excluded person demonstrates to the SDO's satisfaction that continued service subject to such compliance measures as the SDO may impose (including stringent administrative remedies and agency oversight) is in the public interest and will adequately protect consumers and eliminate the likelihood of further misconduct. In evaluating transition periods, especially for service providers for the Lifeline program, the SDO should also take into consideration any transition provisions that the Commission has adopted specific to those programs.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Exclusion orders issued by the SDO shall provide a smooth and expedited transition to alternative providers to the maximum extent possible, including administrative agreements where appropriate. The SDO's determinations on transitions and continuations shall balance the important goal of ensuring continuation of services to beneficiaries with the need to protect the public from waste, fraud, and abuse in Commission programs.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (3) The SDO shall require that during any transitional period, the excluded providers continue providing services to their beneficiaries consistent with Commission rules and with their contractual obligations.
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18174"/>
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(4) In those instances where alternate service providers cannot be identified as quickly as initially anticipated by the SDO, the SDO may allow continuation beyond the initial transition period, but for as limited a period as feasible. For any extended continuation periods, the SDO shall give strong consideration to providing for administrative remedies such as compliance agreements (with approval of the Office of General Counsel), mandatory audits, additional reporting requirements, monitoring, or any other forms of effective oversight supplemental to that already provided under FCC programs. Any compliance agreement will require consultation with the bureau or office administering the programs involved, and also the approval of the Office of General Counsel.</P>
                                    <P>(5) The review of how exclusions apply to agency procurement transactions shall be made by the SDO, in consultation with the affected bureaus and offices, and the Office of General Counsel, on a case by case basis.</P>
                                    <P>(c)(1) After the SDO determines the length of the transition period, the SDO shall require excluded providers to provide timely notices to affected customers of the need to transition to alternate providers. In any cases where the SDO determines that a mandatory transition to an alternate provider is not required due to an exception, and that sufficient remedies have been put in place to facilitate compliance by the excluded party, the beneficiaries shall be so advised and shall have the option to continue with that provider by notifying the SDO within 30 days after notice of the suspension or debarment.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Notices to affected beneficiaries shall include:</P>
                                    <P>(i) A statement that the participating provider has been suspended or debarred and the date that it will be ceasing operations (as specified by the SDO);</P>
                                    <P>(ii) A statement that users should obtain service from another provider;</P>
                                    <P>(iii) A listing of the names and contact information for other providers authorized to provide that service in the jurisdiction; and</P>
                                    <P>(iv) A statement that the excluded provider will continue to provide service to program participants until such time as it must cease operations.</P>
                                    <P>(v) In determining notice requirements, especially for the Lifeline program, the SDO should also consider the notice provisions that the Commission has adopted specific to those programs.</P>
                                    <P>(d) The bureaus and offices, working with the SDO, shall take appropriate steps to ensure that a suspension or debarment is implemented in a manner consistent with existing Commission requirements. For exclusions from the NDBEDP, the Consumer and Government Affairs Bureau should request an NDBEDP certified person that has been suspended or debarred to voluntarily relinquish its certification within a deadline and explain that if the person does not voluntarily relinquish its certification, then a revocation proceeding will be initiated. For TRS, if a TRS provider is suspended or debarred and is the only person offering a particular form of TRS in a jurisdiction, an alternative provider will need to be certified by the Commission or contracted by a state TRS program to provide those services. The Commission will expedite its certification review to the maximum extent possible to facilitate the transition to an alternate provider, and will encourage the state authorities to act similarly. These and similar procedures for our programs will ensure that any exclusion action is implemented consistent with applicable Commission rules with the least disruption to program beneficiaries.</P>
                                    <P>(e) The SDO shall require that marketing organizations, enrollment representatives, or consultants who have been suspended or debarred shall immediately cease their operations related to covered transactions. No exceptions or transitional periods shall be permitted. Program participants shall not have the option to continue doing business with such entities or persons during the period of their suspension or debarment.</P>
                                    <P>(f) The SDO has delegated authority to serve in the first instance as the “agency official” responsible for making continuation and transition decisions under § 180.415 of this title, and shall make those decisions consistent with the requirements and considerations set forth in this section.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.330</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What methods must I use to pass requirements of the Guidelines and this part to participants with whom I intend to do business?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>Before entering into a covered transaction with another participant at the same or lower tier, you must require that participant to:</P>
                                    <P>(a) Comply with part 180, subpart C of this title, as supplemented by this part, as a condition of participation, by collecting a certification or including a term or condition to this effect in your transaction; and</P>
                                    <P>(b) Pass that same requirement to each person with whom the participant enters into a covered transaction.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.335</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Additional information disclosures for primary and lower tier participants.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a)(1) Before entering into a covered transaction, all lower tier participants shall be obligated to notify and disclose to any other participants (regardless of tier) with whom they are doing or seek to do business the information described in § 180.335 of this title (pertaining to disclosures by primary tier participants). Disclosures shall be made under penalty of perjury, and if no disclosures are made, the participant must certify under penalty of perjury that none are required. If the lower tier participant is participating in competitive bidding to provide services to another participant, such information must be disclosed at the time the bid is submitted. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, any disclosures under this section must be simultaneously submitted to the USF Administrator (for transactions related to or arising in connection with USF Programs), to the ACP Administrator or the ACP Outreach Grants Program Administrator (for transactions related to or arising in connection with the ACP or ACP Outreach Grants Program), to the TRS Fund Administrator (for transactions relating to the TRS program), to the NDBEDP Administrator (for transactions relating to the NDBEDP), and to the FCC (at the addresses identified in paragraph (c) of this section). The provisions of § 180.345 of this title shall be applicable to any failures to disclose under this section and, in addition, any such failure to disclose shall permit the participant with whom the lower tier participant is doing business to terminate the transaction for failure to comply with this disclosure requirement, or to pursue any other available remedies. Participants subject to this section shall also comply with § 180.350 of this title, requiring notifications upon learning new information, and such notifications shall be provided not only to the USF Administrator, the TRS Fund Administrator, the NDBEDP Administrator, and the FCC, but also to the higher or lower tier participant with whom the lower tier participant is doing or seeks to do business.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (2) Primary and lower tier participants in the Lifeline program shall file annual disclosure statements, upon penalty of perjury, reporting all required disclosures or certifying that they have no reportable disclosures to make. Primary tier participants may also file on behalf of lower tier participants with whom they have a direct relationship.
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18175"/>
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(3) Enrollment representatives of Lifeline or ACP marketing organizations shall be required to disclose only to the marketing organizations with whom they are employed or seek employment the information described in § 180.355 of this title (pertaining to exclusions). Marketing organizations are required to obtain these disclosures for review by the Commission.</P>
                                    <P>(4) Primary and lower tier participants in the ACP Outreach Grant Program shall file annual disclosure statements, upon penalty of perjury, reporting all required disclosures or certifying that they have no reportable disclosures to make. To streamline the administration of this program, however, lower tier participants need only file their expanded disclosures with the primary tier participant for whom they are performing work or, in the case of contracts among lower tier participants, with the lower tier participants for whom they perform work. Primary tier participants shall then file on behalf of all lower tier participants with which they have a relationship (including the disclosures filed among lower tier participants). The documentation that substantiates the required certifications shall be provided to the Commission upon request.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (5) For USF competitive bidding, the Commission's review at the short-form stage shall be limited to the status of the applicant—
                                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                         whether the applicant is presently excluded or disqualified—while a winning bidder will be required to make the additional required disclosures upon submission of a long-form application.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(b) Before primary tier participants in the E-Rate program, the Cybersecurity Pilot Program, or the Rural Health Care program may enter into a covered transaction with other participants in that tier, those participants who are service providers shall make the disclosures required by § 180.335 of this title not only to the Commission and the USF Administrator, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, but also to those primary tier participants who are schools, libraries, or health care providers (or consortia of eligible schools, libraries, or health care providers) with whom such service providers intend to do business. The provisions of § 180.345 of this title shall be applicable to any failures to disclose under this section and, in addition, any such failure to disclose shall permit the school, library or rural health care provider with whom the service provider is doing business, or seeks to do business, to refuse to enter a transaction or to terminate the transaction for failure to comply with this requirement, or to pursue any other available remedies. Participants subject to this section shall also comply with § 180.350 of this title, requiring notifications upon learning new information, and such notifications shall be provided not only to the USF Administrator and the FCC, but also to the higher tier participant with whom the service provider is doing business.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (c) The disclosures required by §§ 180.335 through 180.350 of this title shall be made not only to the Commission, but also to the USF Administrator (for transactions related to or arising in connection with USF Programs), the TRS Fund Administrator (for transactions relating to the TRS program), to the NDBEDP Administrator (for transactions relating to the NDBEDP), and the ACP Administrator (for transactions relating to the ACP). Disclosures to the Commission regarding the USF Program, the ACP, or the ACP Outreach Grant Program shall be submitted via email to 
                                        <E T="03">USFDisclosures@fcc.gov</E>
                                         or via mail to the Federal Communications Commission, Telecommunications Access Policy Division, Wireline Competition Bureau (for USF or ACP disclosures), or to the Federal Communications Commission, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau (for ACP Outreach Grant Program disclosures) at the Commission's address specified in 47 CFR 0.401(a). Disclosures to the USF Administrator shall be submitted via email to 
                                        <E T="03">USFDisclosures@usac.org</E>
                                         or via mail to Universal Service Administrative Company, 700 12th Street NW, Suite 900, Washington, DC 20005. Disclosures to the Commission regarding the TRS program shall be submitted via email to 
                                        <E T="03">TRSreports@fcc.gov</E>
                                         or via mail to the Federal Communications Commission, Disability Rights Office, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, at the Commission's address specified in 47 CFR 0.401(a). Disclosures to the TRS Fund Administrator shall be submitted via email to the email address of the TRS Fund Administrator at such email address as is specified on the TRS website located on the website of the Disability Rights Office of the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau. Disclosures to the NDBEDP Administrator shall be submitted via email to NDBEDP 
                                        <E T="03">reports@fcc.gov</E>
                                         or via mail to NDBEDP Administrator, Federal Communications Commission, Disability Rights Office, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau at the Commission's address specified in 47 CFR 0.401(a).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(d) The disclosures required to be made under this section shall also include such disclosures as the Commission may require, in implementing these suspension and debarment rules, under any updated information collections or other disclosure obligations that may be required for Lifeline, TRS and NDBEDP programs.</P>
                                    <P>(e) For purposes of the disclosure requirements under § 180.335(d) of this title and this section as they pertain to terminations of public transactions:</P>
                                    <P>(1) A termination “for cause or default” shall not include the denial of funding requests for minor technical or procedural errors (as determined by the SDO); but a termination of a previously approved funding request because of serious errors or misconduct by a participant requires disclosure; and</P>
                                    <P>(2) Otherwise reportable terminations that may be pending appeal must be disclosed.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.345</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Review of unfavorable disclosures by Bureaus and Administrators.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Each bureau or office with principal delegated authority for making policy recommendations and administering a program to which the rules in this part apply should consider information disclosed under this part and under the Guidelines when determining whether to enter into a covered transaction with a participant, as well as any additional information or explanation that a participant elects to submit with the disclosed information.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Each Administrator responsible for administration of a program to which the rules in this part apply should develop—and submit for approval to the relevant bureau or office—policies and procedures governing its review of disclosures under this part and under the Guidelines, as well as any additional information or explanation that a participant elects to submit with the disclosed information. Such policies and procedures should be consistent with § 180.340 of this title. Before taking any action based on such information that is not contemplated by such policies and procedures or is a new and novel situation, the Administrator must obtain prior approval from the relevant bureau or office.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (c)(1) Unfavorable disclosures by primary or lower tier participants shall be evaluated under this section on a case by case basis and will not automatically trigger exclusion proceedings or the denial of the transaction in which the disclosures were made. Unfavorable disclosures should be outcome determinative only where it is determined that the factual 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18176"/>
                                        circumstances require denial of a transaction or possibly an exclusion (or an LDP) to protect the integrity of Commission programs. The bureaus or offices and Administrators may consider the number of providers or suppliers available to provide services under a program (especially in rural areas) when determining how much weight to afford an unfavorable disclosure, as well as any of the other factors described in § 6001.310 (pertaining to transition and continuation periods).
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(2) Where primary or lower tier participants have submitted unfavorable disclosures, the bureau or office that oversees the program to which the participant's application (or participation) is pending shall have delegated authority to determine, in the first instance, what remedies are appropriate in light of such disclosures and any other relevant circumstances, including those described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Such remedies may include, but are not limited to: approving a pending transaction (or continued participation in other transactions) only after the participant has entered into an administrative agreement, such as a compliance plan, ensuring additional monitoring, oversight, and other appropriate conditions to ensure program integrity; denying the application; terminating any ongoing transaction with the party or denying the party who made such disclosures the right to continued participation in one or more transactions; and/or referring the matter to an SDO to consider a limited denial of participation under this part. Where considered appropriate after consideration of the disclosures and other relevant circumstances, the bureau or office involved may also refer the matter to an SDO to initiate an exclusion proceeding. Any compliance agreement shall require the approval of the Office of General Counsel.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Responsibilities of Federal Agency Officials Regarding Transactions</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.430</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How are the Suspension and Debarment Official appointed and designated to proceedings?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The SDO shall be appointed by the Commission. The Commission shall have the discretion to designate the term of each such SDO.</P>
                                    <P>(b) The Chair, a Commissioner, or head of the relevant bureau or office including the SDO shall refer matters to the SDO to initiate suspension and debarment proceedings under the Guidelines.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.435</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What method should the Commission or participants use to implement the requirements of primary tier participants?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>To implement the requirements described in § 180.435 of this title, the Commission may require as a condition of participation in any of the Covered Programs that participants:</P>
                                    <P>(a) Comply with part 180, subpart C of this title, as supplemented by this part; and</P>
                                    <P>(b) Communicate the requirement to comply with part 180, subpart C of this title, as supplemented by this part, to persons at the next lower tier with whom the participant enters into covered transactions.</P>
                                    <P>(c) The Commission, or the Administrators, may also obtain an assurance or certification of compliance at the time of application for approval of the covered transaction or upon submission of an invoice for payment.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.440</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who conducts fact finding for FCC suspensions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>In all FCC suspensions, the SDO shall be responsible for conducting additional fact-finding proceedings where disputed material facts are challenged.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.443</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who conducts fact finding for FCC debarments?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>In all FCC debarments, the SDO shall be responsible for conducting additional fact-finding proceedings where disputed material facts are challenged.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.445</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Who shall present evidence supporting suspensions or debarments?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>When necessary, the SDO in each proceeding shall designate a Commission unit primarily responsible for presentation of the government's evidence and to establish coordination procedures for other bureaus or offices to participate. In cases where the Office of the Inspector General has engaged in the sole or parallel investigation of a matter, the Office of the Inspector General shall be given an opportunity to present the evidence supporting suspension or debarment.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.447</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>On what findings and evidence from other Commission proceedings or activities or other Federal, State, or local bodies may the Suspension and Debarment Official rely?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a)(1) An SDO may consider findings made by a program administrator in an audit report or commitment adjustment even if an appeal is pending. The SDO may also rely on factual findings underlying a Notice of Apparent Liability (NAL), but may not rely on the issuance of an NAL alone to support an exclusion decision. An SDO may also rely on other information obtained from Commission proceedings that may not be expressly identified in this section. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section, parties may submit evidence disputing the factual findings described in this paragraph (a).</P>
                                    <P>(2) If a participant contests an exclusion, and contests certain facts in the record of the proceeding, the SDO shall render a final decision based on the SDO's independent judgment except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                                    <P>(b)(1) For purposes of a suspension or debarment proceeding, findings and other information contained in Commission orders on which the Commission has relied for its conclusions shall be deemed conclusive and may be rebutted only by clear and convincing evidence that the information or findings are no longer accurate due to the passage of time or other compelling evidence (such as where an order has been reconsidered, modified, or vacated on judicial review).</P>
                                    <P>(2) In addition, the SDO, in consultation with the Office of General Counsel, shall apply the principles of collateral estoppel to determine whether a respondent may challenge findings set forth in Commission orders (including orders of bureaus or offices issued on delegated authority) for which the opportunity to contest the facts was provided.</P>
                                    <P>(c)(1) Notwithstanding § 180.735(a)(1) of this title, where an exclusion is based upon an indictment, conviction, civil judgment, or other finding by a Federal, State, or local body for which an opportunity to contest the facts was provided, respondents will have the opportunity to challenge the findings in the original Federal, State or local orders where:</P>
                                    <P>(i) An order has been reconsidered or modified by the issuing body (or by its staff acting on delegated authority); or</P>
                                    <P>(ii) An order has been remanded, reversed, or vacated on judicial review.</P>
                                    <P>(2) In addition, the SDO, in consultation with the Office of General Counsel, shall apply the principles of collateral estoppel to determine whether a respondent may challenge findings set forth in orders of any Federal, state, or local body for which the opportunity to contest the facts was provided.</P>
                                    <P>(d) The SDO shall consider on a case-by-case basis whether to include conduct preceding the effective date of this part in any determination regarding suspensions or debarments.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <PRTPAGE P="18177"/>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.450</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What causes and factors should the Commission consider for suspension or debarment determinations?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Consistent with the causes for debarment described in the Guidelines at § 180.800 of this title (which are also applicable to suspension determinations under § 180.700 of this title), the SDO may also may suspend or debar a person for conduct including:</P>
                                    <P>(1) The willful or grossly negligent violation of a single Commission rule or applicable statutory obligation that materially and negatively affects the participant's present responsibility;</P>
                                    <P>(2) The repeated violations of Commission rules, or applicable statutory obligations, that materially and negatively affects the participant's present responsibility regardless of whether such repeated violations are willful or grossly negligent;</P>
                                    <P>(3) The substantial or habitual non-payment or under-payment of Commission regulatory fees or of required contributions to FCC programs such as USF or TRS;</P>
                                    <P>(4) The willful or grossly negligent submission of FCC forms or statements or other documentation to the FCC or to the USF Administrator, TRS Fund Administrator, or NDBEDP Administrator that results in or could result in overpayments of federal funds to the recipients;</P>
                                    <P>(5) The willful or grossly negligent violation of a statutory or regulatory provision applicable to the Covered Programs that results in or could result in overpayments of federal funds to the recipients;</P>
                                    <P>(6) The willful, grossly negligent, or habitual failure to respond to requests made by the FCC or the Administrators for additional information to justify payment or continued operation under their certifications; and</P>
                                    <P>(7) Any noncompliance with requirements of an applicable statute or any Commission requirement that causes substantial harm, whether willful, grossly negligent, or inadvertent.</P>
                                    <P>(8) For purposes of this section and also § 180.800 of this title, the term “willful” in the ordinary case will not include inadvertent noncompliance unless attributable to an unreasonable lapse in oversight of the person's statutory or regulatory responsibilities.</P>
                                    <P>(b) In determining whether to issue a suspension, the SDO may take into account, in the SDO's discretion, the factors set forth in § 180.860 of this title, as well as the factors under § 180.705 of this title.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Consistent with the factors described in the Guidelines at § 180.860 of this title, which shall be applicable to both suspensions and debarments, the SDO may also consider any of the following examples as mitigating factors:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Whether a person implemented a robust compliance plan (and internal controls) designed to prevent misconduct under agency programs;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Whether the person has self-reported the violations;</P>
                                    <P>(3) Whether the violations resulted from inadvertent, computational, or clerical errors;</P>
                                    <P>(4) Whether the violations resulted from good-faith misinterpretation of statutory or regulatory requirements;</P>
                                    <P>(5) Whether the violations were discovered by a subsequent purchaser after a transfer of control has occurred and the transferee is undertaking efforts to come into compliance;</P>
                                    <P>(6) Any other remedial actions that took effect after the misconduct occurred that the party can demonstrate to the SDO will likely prevent misconduct under agency programs going forward; or</P>
                                    <P>(7) Whether any of the alleged misconduct, such as non-payment of regulatory fees, is currently being addressed in other proceedings.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Where an SDO is considering suspension or debarment involving a consortia under the E-Rate program, Cybersecurity Pilot Program, or Rural Health Care program, the SDO should evaluate which particular school, library, or rural health care consortium member was responsible for the alleged misconduct and direct the suspension or debarment orders only to those responsible for the bad acts, rather than to all consortium members. In making this evaluation, the SDO will necessarily consider who served as the lead consortium member for the transaction at issue.</P>
                                    <P>(e) As used in the Guidelines at § 180.800(b) of this title, the term “public agreement or transaction” shall encompass contracts between USF Program applicants and their selected service providers and/or consultants or other principals.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.455</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What Commission alternatives to suspension or debarment may be appropriate?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) If the SDO determines that circumstances justify an alternative to suspension or debarment, such as when a participant's suspension or debarment could have a substantial detrimental impact on the provision of services under a Commission program, then the SDO may elect to pursue an alternative remedy that the SDO finds appropriate. If the SDO determines that an administrative agreement is the more appropriate course, the SDO shall consult and coordinate with the Office of General Counsel in structuring any such administrative agreements, which will require the concurrence and approval of the Office of General Counsel before it may be adopted by the SDO and any settling party.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Administrative agreements may not:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Impede or impair the Commission's authority to seek full recovery under its debt collection authority of any improper payments made to the settling party; or</P>
                                    <P>(2) Purport to resolve any claims the Government may have against the settling party, such as pending NALs issued by the Enforcement Bureau or causes of action under the False Claims Act or other similar laws or common law.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Should a party want to reach a global settlement with the Government on matters before the SDO as well as claims pending in other forums, such a settlement would require the participation and approval of all relevant decisionmakers at the Commission, the Department of Justice, and any other agencies or entities involved, as appropriate.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.460</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What must I do to be reinstated after my period of debarment is over?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>An SDO may determine that a person's conduct is so egregious that the debarred party must petition for readmission into FCC programs, and such a requirement will be set forth in the debarment decision. In the absence of such a determination in the debarment decision, reinstatement will be automatic once the debarment period is over. If a petition for readmission is required, the debarred party as petitioner must demonstrate that it has taken sufficient remedial actions to avoid future program violations. If the petitioner fails to make such a showing, the SDO may extend the debarment for an additional period under § 180.885 of this title in order to protect the public interest.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subparts E Through I [Reserved]</HD>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Limited Denial of Participation</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1101</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is a limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        A limited denial of participation excludes a specific person from participating in a specific FCC program or programs for a specific period of time. LDPs are available for any agency programs for which a suspension or debarment may be sought for Covered 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18178"/>
                                        Programs. For purposes of this subpart, the term “person” shall have the same meaning as set forth in § 180.985 of this title.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1102</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How does a limited denial of participation start?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) A SDO has the delegated authority, subject to the parameters established by the Commission by rule or by order, to impose an LDP. The Chief of any bureau with delegated authority to administer rules for a program subject to the Commission's LDP remedy shall refer the matter to the SDO, along with documentation for the SDO's consideration, if the Chief finds that an LDP may be appropriate. The SDO shall promptly initiate a proceeding by providing any person subject to the proceeding with notice that an LDP is being proposed. The notice shall state that the person has 15 days to respond. The notice shall specify the causes for the proposed LDP, and the potential effect of the remedy, including its possible length and the FCC program(s) and geographic areas (if relevant) affected. The notice shall explain the recipient's right to contest the LDP as provided under § 6001.1113 by seeking a conference or providing documents in opposition, or both.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Alternatively, after consultation with the relevant bureau or office with responsibility for administering the rules of a program, an SDO may determine after reviewing the record in a suspension and debarment proceeding that a limited denial of participation would be the more appropriate remedy. In that situation, the official shall provide written notice to the respondent that the suspension or debarment proceeding is stayed and that a proceeding to consider imposition of a limited denial of participation shall be initiated. The written notice shall include the information described in paragraph (a) of this section. The record from the suspension and debarment proceeding shall be transferred to and incorporated into the proceeding for the limited denial of participation. The SDO shall conduct the LDP proceeding consistent with the process in this subpart.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1103</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Scope of a limited denial of participation.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) An LDP extends at a minimum to participation in the program(s) under which the cause arose. As provided in § 6001.1105(d), the LDP may, at the discretion of the SDO, be extended to other Commission programs. If the limited denial of participation is based on any of the causes set forth in § 180.800(a) of this title, the filing of a criminal indictment or information or a conviction, or evidence of fraud, then there shall be a presumption that denial shall apply to all Commission programs subject to LDPs unless the SDO issuing the denial determines that such a broader application of the denial is inappropriate. The SDO may impose an LDP on a nationwide or more limited geographic basis.</P>
                                    <P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, participation in a program includes receipt of any benefit or financial assistance through subsidies, grants, or contractual arrangements; benefits or assistance in the form of any loan guarantees or insurance; or any other arrangements that benefit a participant in a covered transaction. When an SDO issues an LDP, the SDO shall also advise the Commission's contracting officer so that such official is aware of the LDP when considering entering into procurement contracts.</P>
                                    <P>(c) The SDO may issue an administrative agreement either as a supplemental remedy or as an alternative to a limited denial of participation. In such administrative agreements, the SDO may require measures such as compliance agreements or other remedies that will enhance Commission oversight and facilitate the respondent's compliance with agency programs. Before approving any administrative agreements, the SDO shall consult with the bureau or office responsible for the affected programs and with the Office of General Counsel. Any compliance agreement shall require the approval of the Office of General Counsel.</P>
                                    <P>(d) While a limited denial of participation proceeding is pending, if additional facts come to light in the record of the proceeding that cause the SDO to consider a suspension or debarment remedy to be more appropriate, the SDO may initiate a suspension or debarment proceeding. If the SDO initiates a suspension or debarment proceeding, the procedures set forth in § 6001.1121 shall apply.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1105</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>When may a Commission official issue a limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) An SDO may issue a limited denial of participation against a person, based upon the SDO finding adequate evidence of any of the following causes:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Approval of an applicant for a program subject to an LDP remedy would constitute an unsatisfactory risk;</P>
                                    <P>(2) There are irregularities in a person's current and/or past performance in an FCC program subject to an LDP remedy;</P>
                                    <P>(3) The person has failed to honor contractual obligations or abide by FCC regulations associated with an FCC program subject to an LDP remedy;</P>
                                    <P>(4) The person has documented deficiencies in FCC programs subject to an LDP remedy;</P>
                                    <P>(5) The person has made a false certification in connection with any FCC program subject to an LDP remedy, whether or not the certification was made directly to the FCC;</P>
                                    <P>(6) The person has committed any act or omission that would be cause for debarment under § 180.800 of this title;</P>
                                    <P>(7) The person has violated any law, regulation, or procedure relating to an FCC program subject to an LDP remedy; or</P>
                                    <P>(8) The person has made or procured to be made any false statement for the purpose of influencing in any way an action of the Commission.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Filing of a criminal indictment or information shall constitute adequate evidence for the purpose of limited denial of participation actions. The indictment or information need not be based on offenses against the Commission.</P>
                                    <P>(c) In evaluating whether an LDP is a more appropriate remedy than a suspension or debarment, the SDO shall consider the totality of the circumstances, including whether the misconduct was an isolated occurrence, how egregious the misconduct was, and whether the violator self-reported or otherwise took steps to come into compliance.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Imposition of an LDP related to any FCC program shall constitute adequate evidence for a concurrent limited denial of participation for any other FCC program subject to the LDP remedy. Where the SDO imposes a concurrent limited denial of participation, the SDO may restrict participation on the same basis without the need for an additional conference or further hearing.</P>
                                    <P>(e) If a notice of proposed debarment or suspension is already pending that is based on the same transaction(s) or the same conduct for which a notice of an LDP has been issued under § 6001.1102, the procedures set forth in § 6001.1121 shall apply.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1107</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>When does a limited denial of participation take effect?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        If parties choose not to contest the imposition of an LDP after receiving notice under § 6001.1102, then the remedy will be effective as soon as the SDO issues an order imposing this remedy. Otherwise, an LDP will be effective only after conclusion of any proceedings to contest the imposition of 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="18179"/>
                                        the remedy under § 6001.1113 and issuance of the SDO's order.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1109</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How long may a limited denial of participation last?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>An LDP may remain in effect initially up to 12 months. This period may be extended for up to an additional six months if deemed appropriate to ensure program compliance if review of conduct during the initial suspension period:</P>
                                    <P>(a) Fails to demonstrate full compliance with the terms of the LDP or any supplemental administrative agreements; or</P>
                                    <P>(b) Shows other misconduct in any Commission program subject to this remedy or additional new causes sufficient to support extension of the LDP period.</P>
                                    <P>(c) In addition, the SDO imposing the LDP may also initiate a suspension or debarment proceeding (after consultation with applicable bureau or office) if review of conduct during the initial or extended denial period demonstrates conduct that may warrant a suspension or debarment.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1113</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How may I contest my limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Within 15 days after receiving a notice of an LDP, you may request a conference with both the SDO who issued such notice as well as a representative from the Commission unit that conducted the investigation resulting in the proposed denial. The conference shall be held within 15 days after the Commission's receipt of the request for a conference, unless you waive this time limit. You may also request to resolve the matter without a conference by responding within 15 days stating your opposition to the remedy and filing documents in opposition within 30 days after receiving the notice of the proposed limited denial of participation. The SDO who issued the notice shall preside over the proceedings and rule on the proposed remedy. If you request a conference, you may appear with a representative and may present all relevant information and materials to the official or designee. Within 30 days after the conference, or within 30 days after any agreed-upon extension of time for submission of additional materials, the SDO shall, in writing, advise you of the decision to affirm, modify, or reject the proposed LDP. At the conference, you may also seek alternative remedies such as an administrative agreement, including a compliance plan, which the SDO would have authority to approve subject to consultation with the bureau or office involved and concurrence of the Office of General Counsel. If an LDP is affirmed, the order affirming the exclusion shall advise you of the opportunity to contest the SDO's determination by filing a request for reconsideration or an application for review with the Commission</P>
                                    <P>(b) In ruling on the LDP, the SDO shall consider the factors listed in § 6001.1105 as well as those in § 180.860 of this title.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1115</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Do Federal agencies coordinate limited denial of participation actions?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>Federal agencies do not coordinate LDP actions. As stated in § 6001.1101, an LDP is an FCC-specific action and applies only to FCC activities.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1117</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How will an LDP affect services to current customers of an excluded service provider?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>Before issuing an order imposing an LDP, the SDO shall take into account the effect of the LDP on current customers of the excluded service provider and shall fashion any order in a manner designed to minimize service disruptions, including the requirement that the excluded party provide such notifications to its customers as the SDO may require to ensure a smooth transition of its customers to alternative providers. The SDO shall be guided by the same requirements and considerations on transitions and continuations set forth in § 6001.310 (relating to suspensions and debarments).</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1119</SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>May the FCC impute the conduct of one person to another in a limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>For purposes of determining an LDP, the Commission may impute conduct in the same manner as provided under § 180.630 of this title as adopted under § 6001.105.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1121 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the effect of a suspension or debarment on a limited denial of participation?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>If you have contested a notice of an LDP pursuant to § 6001.1113(a), and you subsequently receive, pursuant to subpart A of this part, a notice of proposed debarment or suspension that is based on the same transaction(s) or the same conduct as the limited denial of participation, as determined by the SDO, the following rules shall apply:</P>
                                    <P>(a) During the 30-day period after you receive a notice of proposed debarment or suspension, during which you may elect to contest the debarment under § 180.815 of this title, or the suspension pursuant to § 180.720 of this title, all proceedings in the LDP, including discovery, are automatically stayed.</P>
                                    <P>(b) If you do not contest the proposed debarment pursuant to § 180.815 of this title, or the suspension pursuant to § 180.720 of this title, the final imposition of the debarment or suspension shall also constitute a final decision with respect to the LDP, to the extent that the debarment or suspension is based on the same transaction(s) or conduct as the LDP.</P>
                                    <P>(c) If you contest the proposed debarment pursuant to § 180.815 of this title, or the suspension pursuant to § 180.720 of this title, then those parts of the LDP and the debarment or suspension based on the same transaction(s) or conduct, as determined by the SDO, shall be immediately consolidated and the record from the proceeding for the LDP shall be transferred to and incorporated into the suspension and debarment proceeding.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1123 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>What is the effect of a limited denial of participation on a suspension or a debarment?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The imposition of an LDP does not affect the right of the Commission to suspend or debar any person under this part or part 180 of this title.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 6001.1127 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>How is a limited denial of participation reported?</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>When an LDP has been made final, or the period for contesting this remedy pursuant to § 6001.1113(a) has expired without receipt of such a request, the SDO imposing the LDP shall notify the relevant bureaus and offices, the Office of General Counsel, the Office of the Managing Director, and the relevant program Administrators of the scope of the limited denial of participation. </P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </PART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <TITLE>Title 47—Telecommunication</TITLE>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 54—UNIVERSAL SERVICE</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>2. The authority citation for part 54 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 155, 201, 205, 214, 219, 220, 229, 254, 303(r), 403, 1004, 1302, 1601-1609, and 1752, unless otherwise noted. </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Add introductory text to § 54.8 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.8 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Prohibition on participation; suspension and debarment.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Subject to case-by-case exceptions, this section shall apply to conduct occurring before May 11, 2026, and where otherwise determined to be appropriate by the Commission.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 54.320 by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <PRTPAGE P="18180"/>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.320 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Compliance and recordkeeping for the high-cost program.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) Eligible telecommunications carriers authorized to receive high-cost support that fail to comply with public interest obligations or any other terms and conditions may be subject to further action, including the Commission's existing enforcement procedures and penalties, reductions in support amounts, potential revocation of ETC designation, and suspension or debarment pursuant to § 54.8 or 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>5. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 54.322 by revising the final sentence of paragraph (k)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.322 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Public interest obligations and performance requirements, reporting requirements, and non-compliance mechanisms for mobile legacy high-cost support recipients.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(k) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) * * * The carrier may also be subject to further action, including the Commission's existing enforcement procedures and penalties, potential revocation of ETC designation, and suspension or debarment pursuant to § 54.8 or 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 54.1015 by revising the final sentence of paragraph (g) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.1015 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Public interest obligations and performance requirements for 5G Fund support recipients.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(g) * * * A support recipient that fails to comply with the public interest obligations or any other terms and conditions associated with receiving 5G Fund support may be subject to action, including the Commission's existing enforcement procedures and penalties, reductions in support amounts, revocation of eligible telecommunications carrier designation, and suspension or debarment pursuant to § 54.8 or 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 54.1800 by revising paragraph (r)(4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.1800 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(r) * * *</P>
                            <P>(4) Has not been removed or voluntarily withdrawn from the Affordable Connectivity Program pursuant to § 54.1801(e) or 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 54.1801 by adding paragraph (e)(5) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.1801 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Participating providers.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (5) 
                                <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                                 The rules regarding suspension and removal in this paragraph (e) shall apply to conduct occurring before [EFFECTIVE DATE], and for which the SDO has granted an exception under 2 CFR 6001.120 or otherwise determined that application of 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001 would be impermissible. Conduct occurring after [EFFECTIVE DATE], will be subject to the 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001 rules on suspension, debarment, and limited denial of participation.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="54">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Delayed indefinitely, add § 54.1905 to subpart S to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 54.1905 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Suspension and debarment.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>The ACP Outreach Grant program is subject to the rules on suspension, debarment, and limited denial of participation at 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 64—MISCELLANEOUS RULES RELATING TO COMMON CARRIERS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="64">
                        <AMDPAR>10. The authority citation for part 64 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154, 201, 202, 217, 218, 220, 222, 225, 226, 227, 227b, 228, 251(a), 251(e), 254(k), 255, 262, 276, 403(b)(2)(B), (c), 616, 620, 716, 1401-1473, unless otherwise noted; Pub. L. 115-141, Div. P, sec. 503, 132 Stat. 348, 1091; Pub. L. 117-338, 136 Stat. 6156.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="64">
                        <AMDPAR>11. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 64.604 by revising paragraph (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 64.604 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Mandatory minimum standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Other standards.</E>
                                 The applicable requirements of §§ 64.611, 64.615, 64.621, 64.631, 64.632, 64.5105, 64.5107, 64.5108, 64.5109, and 64.5110, § 9.14 of this chapter, and 2 CFR parts 180 and 6001, are to be considered mandatory minimum standards.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="64">
                        <AMDPAR>12. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 64.6207 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (c)(7);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Redesignating paragraph (c)(8) as paragraph (c)(9); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Adding new paragraph (c)(8).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 64.6207 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Certification to receive funding.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(7) Familiarity with Covered Services;</P>
                            <P>(8) A statement providing the information listed in 2 CFR 180.335; and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="64">
                        <AMDPAR>13. Delayed indefinitely, amend § 64.6215 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Redesignating paragraphs (b) and (c) as paragraphs (c) and (d); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraph (b).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 64.6215 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Reporting requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) Every 12 months, for the period July 1 through June 30, a certified program shall provide a statement updating the information listed in 2 CFR 180.335 or certify that there are no changes to the information since the most recent filing or update.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06864 Filed 4-8-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="18181"/>
            <PARTNO>Part V</PARTNO>
            <PRES>The President</PRES>
            <PROC>Proclamation 11020—Adjusting Imports of Pharmaceuticals and Pharmaceutical Ingredients Into the United States</PROC>
            <PROC>Proclamation 11021—Strengthening Actions Taken To Adjust Imports of Aluminum, Steel, and Copper Into the United States</PROC>
            <EXECORDR>Executive Order 14400—Urgent National Action To Save College Sports</EXECORDR>
            <PNOTICE>Order of April 3, 2026—Sequestration Order for Fiscal Year 2027 Pursuant to Section 251A of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act, as Amended</PNOTICE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRESDOCS>
            <PRESDOCU>
                <PROCLA>
                    <TITLE3>Title 3— </TITLE3>
                    <PRES>
                        The President
                        <PRTPAGE P="18183"/>
                    </PRES>
                    <PROC>Proclamation 11020 of April 2, 2026</PROC>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Adjusting Imports of Pharmaceuticals and Pharmaceutical Ingredients Into the United States</HD>
                    <PRES>By the President of the United States of America</PRES>
                    <PROC>A Proclamation</PROC>
                    <FP>
                        1. The Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) recently transmitted to me a report on his investigation into the effects of imports of pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients on the national security of the United States under section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1862 (section 232). Based on the facts considered in that investigation, and taking into account the close relation of the economic welfare of the Nation to our national security and other relevant factors, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         19 U.S.C. 1862(d), the Secretary found and advised me of his opinion that pharmaceuticals and associated active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs), including key starting materials, are being imported into the United States in such quantities and under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security of the United States.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>2. The Secretary found that the present quantities and circumstances of imports of pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients threaten to impair the national security and economy. Despite being the world leader in research and development (R&amp;D) for most innovative pharmaceuticals (those that are typically patented and branded, as compared to generic pharmaceuticals or pharmaceuticals approved pursuant to section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 355(j)), the United States is heavily reliant on imports, threatening to limit United States access to life-saving medications in the event of global supply chain disruption due to geopolitical or economic disruption. According to the Food and Drug Administration, as of 2025, approximately 53 percent of patented pharmaceutical products distributed domestically are produced outside the country. The degree of import reliance is significant at the API level with only 15 percent of patented APIs by volume domestically produced for the United States market.</FP>
                    <FP>3. The Secretary found that patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients are essential to the United States' military and civilian healthcare. A self-sufficient domestic manufacturing and industrial base for pharmaceutical products is vital for the ability to support national defense requirements and maintain public health security during a national emergency or wartime. Patented pharmaceuticals are pivotal for treating cancer, rare diseases, autoimmune disorders, infectious diseases, and other critical health challenges. The Secretary further found that foreign government intervention has undermined the competitiveness of the United States patented pharmaceutical industry. This intervention has led to further dependence on foreign production of patented pharmaceuticals that have fragile supply chains.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        4. In light of these findings, the Secretary recommended actions to adjust imports of patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, including continuing to negotiate onshoring agreements related to Most-Favored-Nation (MFN) pharmaceutical pricing agreements; imposing significant tariffs on pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients, so that such imports will not threaten to impair the national security of the United 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18184"/>
                        States; and granting preferential treatment to those companies that commit to onshore production of pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>5. After considering the Secretary's report, the factors in section 232(d) (19 U.S.C. 1862(d)), and other relevant factors and information, among other things, I concur with the Secretary's finding that pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients are being imported into the United States in such quantities and under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security of the United States. In my judgment, and in light of the Secretary's report, the factors in section 232(d) (19 U.S.C. 1862(d)), and other relevant factors and information, I have also determined that it is necessary and appropriate to adopt a plan of action, as described below, to adjust such imports of pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients so that such imports will not threaten to impair the national security of the United States.</FP>
                    <FP>6. I have decided to direct the Secretary and the Secretary of Health and Human Services to pursue negotiations of agreements or continue any current negotiations of agreements, such as agreements contemplated in section 232(c)(3)(A)(i) (19 U.S.C. 1862(c)(3)(A)(i)), to address the threatened impairment of the national security with respect to imported patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, with any party the Secretary and the Secretary of Health and Human Services deem appropriate, and to update me on the progress of such negotiations within 90 days of the date of this proclamation. Under current circumstances and in light of future requirements of the United States, this action is necessary and appropriate to address the threatened impairment of the national security.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        7. I have determined that it is necessary and appropriate to impose a 100 percent 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         duty rate on the import of patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, as identified in Annex I to this proclamation, and except as otherwise provided in this proclamation. Pharmaceutical products and ingredients that are subject to the section 232 zero tariff at this time are listed in Annex IV to this proclamation.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>
                        8. I have determined that it is necessary and appropriate that the 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         duty rate be 20 percent on imports of patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients produced by companies that have plans, approved by the Secretary, to onshore production of such pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients. The aforementioned 20 percent rate shall increase to 100 percent 4 years after the date of this proclamation.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>9. I have further determined that it is necessary to implement pharmaceutical-related commitments in existing trade deals with the European Union, Japan, the Republic of Korea, and Switzerland and Liechtenstein jointly, as well as a future pharmaceutical-related deal with the United Kingdom (on which the United States and the United Kingdom have reached an agreement in principle as of December 1, 2025). These deals further United States economic and national security interests.</FP>
                    <FP>10. I further find that it is necessary and appropriate to impose no tariffs on imports of patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients produced by companies that have fully executed agreements or are negotiating agreements with the Secretary and the Secretary of Health and Human Services regarding MFN pricing and onshoring of production and R&amp;D of patented pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients. Such agreements further United States economic and national security interests by making pharmaceuticals more accessible and affordable in the United States and by strengthening the domestic manufacturing base.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        11. I have further determined not to adjust imports of generic pharmaceuticals and their associated ingredients, including biosimilar products, at this time. This determination includes purchases of generic pharmaceuticals and ingredients for the Strategic API Reserve. I find that such products should not be subject to section 232 tariffs at this time.
                        <PRTPAGE P="18185"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP>12. In my judgment, based on current circumstances as well as the future needs of the United States, the actions in this proclamation are necessary and appropriate to address the threatened impairment of the national security posed by imports of pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        13. Section 232 authorizes the President to take action to adjust the imports of an article and its derivatives that are being imported into the United States in such quantities or under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security. Section 232 includes the authority to adopt and carry out a plan of action, with adjustments over time, to address the national security threat. This plan of action may include negotiations of agreements along with other actions to adjust imports to address the national security threat, including tariffs. If action under section 232 includes the negotiation of an agreement, such as one contemplated in section 232(c)(3)(A)(i) (19 U.S.C. 1862(c)(3)(A)(i)), the President may also take other actions he deems necessary to adjust imports to eliminate the threat that the imported article poses to the national security, including if such an agreement is not entered into within 180 days of the date of this proclamation, is not being carried out, or is ineffective. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 U.S.C. 1862(c)(3)(A).
                    </FP>
                    <FP>14. Section 604 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2483) (section 604), authorizes the President to embody in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) the substance of statutes affecting import treatment, and actions thereunder, including the removal, modification, continuance, or imposition of any rate of duty or other import restriction.</FP>
                    <FP>NOW, THEREFORE, I, DONALD J. TRUMP, President of the United States of America, by the authority vested in me by the Constitution and the laws of the United States, including section 232, 19 U.S.C. 1862; section 604, 19 U.S.C. 2483; and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, do hereby proclaim as follows:</FP>
                    <P>(1) The Secretary and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, and any senior official they deem appropriate, shall pursue or continue pursuing negotiations of agreements, as contemplated in section 232(c)(3)(A)(i) (19 U.S.C. 1862(c)(3)(A)(i)), to address the threatened impairment of the national security with respect to imported pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients.</P>
                    <P>(2) I hereby ratify, and delegate to the Secretary the authority necessary to enter into, the company-specific tariff agreements listed in Annex II to this proclamation that the Secretary entered into prior to this proclamation. I also hereby delegate to the Secretary the authority to enter into and implement similar agreements in the future, as referenced in clause (1) of this proclamation. The Secretary is authorized to monitor and enforce these agreements as he deems appropriate, consistent with clause (6) of this proclamation and applicable law.</P>
                    <P>
                        (3)(a) Imports of patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, as listed in Annex I to this proclamation, will be subject to a 100 percent 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         duty rate.
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                        (b) The 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         duty rate for patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, as listed in Annex I to this proclamation, shall be 20 percent for products of companies that have, or that the Secretary assesses are likely soon to have (e.g., based on agreements in principle), onshoring plans approved by the Secretary. The aforementioned 20 percent rate shall increase to 100 percent on April 2, 2030.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                        (c) The 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         duty rate for patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients, as listed in Annex I to this proclamation, shall be 15 percent for products of Japan, the European Union, the Republic of Korea, and Switzerland and Liechtenstein jointly, unless a lower rate applies under clause (3) of this proclamation. The tariff rate on patented pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients for products of the United Kingdom shall be 10 percent and then reduce to zero to the extent required by any future agreement between the United States 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18186"/>
                        and the United Kingdom on pharmaceutical pricing. The Secretary shall publish a 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                         notice should the rate for the United Kingdom be reduced to zero.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                        (d) The 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         tariff rate shall be zero for drugs and associated ingredients, where all approved indications are designated as orphan pursuant to the Orphan Drug Act, 21 U.S.C. 360aa 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         and its implementing regulations; nuclear medicines; plasma derived therapies; fertility treatments; cell and gene therapies; antibody drug conjugates; medical countermeasures related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear threats; or other specialty pharmaceutical products to be identified by the Secretary, as well as pharmaceutical products for animal health, provided that the Secretary, in consultation with the United States Trade Representative (Trade Representative) and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, determines that: (1) they are products of a jurisdiction that has a current or forthcoming trade and security framework agreement as referenced in Executive Order 14346 of September 5, 2025 (Modifying the Scope of Reciprocal Tariffs and Establishing Procedures for Implementing Trade and Security Agreements), or (2) they meet an urgent United States health need. The Secretary shall publish a 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                         notice whenever he makes such a determination.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                        (e) For companies that are eligible for the tariff treatment outlined in clause (3)(b) of this proclamation, and that have entered into MFN pharmaceutical pricing agreements with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the applicable 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         tariff rate for pharmaceuticals and associated pharmaceutical ingredients shall be zero until January 20, 2029. The Secretary shall apply this zero tariff rate to companies that he determines are likely to be eligible soon (e.g., because they have agreements in principle with the Secretary and the Secretary of Health and Human Services). For avoidance of doubt, this zero tariff rate shall also apply per the terms of the agreements listed in Annex II to this proclamation.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                        (f) The Secretary may increase the tariff rates referenced in clause (2) of this proclamation, and in clauses (3)(b) and (3)(e) of this proclamation, to address companies' failure to fulfill commitments under the relevant plans and agreements. The Secretary, in consultation with the Trade Representative, may increase the tariff rates referenced in clause (3)(c) of this proclamation to address foreign jurisdictions' failure to fulfill commitments under agreements with the United States. The Secretary shall publish a 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                         notice when tariff rates are increased.
                    </FP>
                    <P>(4) The tariffs and tariff treatment imposed by this proclamation shall be effective with respect to goods entered for consumption, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on July 31, 2026, for the companies listed in Annex III to this proclamation and September 29, 2026, for other companies and shall continue in effect, unless such actions are expressly reduced, modified, or terminated.</P>
                    <P>(5) Generic pharmaceuticals and their associated ingredients shall not be subject to tariffs pursuant to section 232 at this time. Within 1 year of the date of this proclamation, the Secretary shall, in consultation with any senior executive branch officials the Secretary deems appropriate, inform the President of any circumstances that, in the Secretary's opinion, might indicate the need to take action to adjust the imports of generic pharmaceuticals and their associated ingredients.</P>
                    <P>
                        (6) The Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, shall establish criteria for onshoring plans referenced in clause (3)(b) of this proclamation, to be published in the 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                        . All onshoring plans shall be subject to approval, monitoring, and enforcement by the Secretary. The Secretary shall require companies with qualifying onshoring plans to submit periodic reports to the Secretary regarding progress towards fulfilling onshoring milestones. The Secretary may require that such reports be audited by an external auditing firm. In cases where the executive branch assesses that a company engaged in fraud or deliberately misled 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18187"/>
                        the United States Government with respect to onshoring commitments, the Secretary may reimpose tariffs discussed in this proclamation both prospectively and retroactively on imports from relevant companies, and he may impose other tariffs and penalties to the extent consistent with applicable law.
                    </P>
                    <P>(7) If a product is subject to tariffs under this proclamation and Column 1 of the HTSUS (Column 1 Duty Rate), then the sum of the additional section 232 tariff imposed pursuant to this proclamation and the applicable Column 1 Duty Rate shall be equal to the applicable rate listed in clause (3) of this proclamation, unless the Column 1 Duty Rate is greater than the applicable rate listed in clause (3) of this proclamation, in which case only the Column 1 Duty Rate shall apply. This clause does not apply to the tariff treatment for products of the United Kingdom described in clause (3)(c) of this proclamation.</P>
                    <P>(8) If a product is subject to more than one rate of duty under this proclamation, then the lowest applicable rate shall apply.</P>
                    <P>
                        (9) The Secretary, in consultation with the Chair of the United States International Trade Commission and the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), shall determine whether any modifications to the HTSUS or other administrative measures are necessary to effectuate or implement this proclamation or any actions taken pursuant to this proclamation. Any changes shall be published in a notice in the 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>(10) Drawback shall be available with respect to the duties imposed pursuant to this proclamation.</P>
                    <P>(11) Imports of United States-origin pharmaceutical products shall not be subject to the tariffs imposed by this proclamation at this time.</P>
                    <P>(12) To the extent permitted by applicable law, CBP may take any necessary or appropriate measure to administer the tariffs imposed or altered by this proclamation. Importers shall provide to CBP information necessary to carry out this proclamation.</P>
                    <P>
                        (13) Any product described in clause (4) of this proclamation, except those eligible for admission as “domestic status” as described in 19 CFR 146.43, that is subject to a duty imposed by this proclamation and that is admitted into a United States foreign trade zone on or after the effective date of this proclamation, must be admitted as “privileged foreign status” as described in 19 CFR 146.41 and will be subject upon entry for consumption to any 
                        <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                         rates of duty related to the classification under the applicable HTSUS subheading.
                    </P>
                    <P>(14) The Secretary shall continue to monitor imports of patented and generic pharmaceuticals and pharmaceutical ingredients. The Secretary also shall, from time to time, in consultation with any senior executive branch officials the Secretary deems appropriate, review the status of such imports with respect to the national security. The Secretary shall inform me of any circumstances that, in the Secretary's opinion, might indicate the need for further action by the President under section 232. The Secretary shall also inform me of any circumstance that, in the Secretary's opinion, might indicate that the tariff imposed in this proclamation is no longer necessary.</P>
                    <P>(15) To the extent consistent with applicable law and the purpose of this proclamation, the Secretary, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, and the Secretary of Homeland Security are directed and authorized to take all actions that are appropriate to implement and effectuate this proclamation and any actions contemplated by this proclamation, including, consistent with applicable law, the issuance of regulations, rules, guidance, and procedures and the temporary suspension or amendment of regulations, within their respective jurisdictions, and to employ all powers granted to me under section 232.</P>
                    <P>
                        (16) The Secretary, the Trade Representative, and the Secretary of Homeland Security may, consistent with applicable law, including section 301 
                        <PRTPAGE P="18188"/>
                        of title 3, United States Code, redelegate any of these functions within their respective executive departments or agencies.
                    </P>
                    <P>(17) Any provision of previous proclamations and Executive Orders that is inconsistent with this proclamation is superseded to the extent of such inconsistency. If any provision of this proclamation or the application of any provision of this proclamation to any individual or circumstance is held to be invalid, the remainder of this proclamation and the application of its provisions to any other individual or circumstance shall not be affected.</P>
                    <FP>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, I have hereunto set my hand this second day of April, in the year of our Lord two thousand twenty-six, and of the Independence of the United States of America the two hundred and fiftieth.</FP>
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    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <PRESDOC>
        <PRESDOCU>
            <PROCLA>
                <PRTPAGE P="18201"/>
                <PROC>Proclamation 11021 of April 2, 2026</PROC>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Strengthening Actions Taken To Adjust Imports of Aluminum, Steel, and Copper Into the United States</HD>
                <PRES>By the President of the United States of America</PRES>
                <PROC>A Proclamation</PROC>
                <FP>
                    1. In Proclamation 9704 of March 8, 2018 (Adjusting Imports of Aluminum Into the United States), as amended; Proclamation 9705 of March 8, 2018 (Adjusting Imports of Steel Into the United States), as amended; and Proclamation 10962 of July 30, 2025 (Adjusting Imports of Copper Into the United States), I found, under section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1862 (section 232), that aluminum, steel, and copper are being imported into the United States in such quantities or under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security of the United States and took action under section 232 to adjust imports of aluminum, steel, and copper articles and their derivative articles (collectively, metal products) so that such imports will not threaten to impair the national security. Specifically, to address the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962, I established tariff regimes, which included imposing additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duties on certain imports of metal products.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    2. In those actions, I also directed the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) to establish a process for including additional metal products within the scope of the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duties imposed in Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 and authorized the Secretary to include additional derivative articles within the scope of the duties when the Secretary determined that imports of such products are threatening to impair the national security or otherwise undermining the objectives of the actions taken to address the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962. I also instructed the Secretary to monitor the effects of imports of metal products on the national security, to update me on the status of those threats to the national security, and to provide me with recommendations if circumstances indicated the need for further Presidential action under section 232.
                </FP>
                <FP>3. Based on the Secretary's monitoring, I have received information, opinions, and recommendations from the Secretary regarding the tariff regimes imposed in Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 and the national security threats found in those proclamations.</FP>
                <FP>
                    4. Among other things, the Secretary has informed me that the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duties on imports of metal products are strengthening the American aluminum, steel, and copper industries and addressing the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962. The operation of the aluminum and steel tariff regimes has also improved because of the actions taken in Proclamation 10895 of February 10, 2025 (Adjusting Imports of Aluminum Into the United States), Proclamation 10896 of February 10, 2025 (Adjusting Imports of Steel Into the United States), and Proclamation 10947 of June 3, 2025 (Adjusting Imports of Aluminum and Steel Into the United States), which increased the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty and eliminated loopholes and exemptions in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18202"/>
                    aluminum and steel tariff regimes. For example, under the aluminum and steel tariff regimes, domestic capacity utilization has increased from approximately 39 percent in 2017 to approximately 50.4 percent at present for aluminum production and from approximately 72.3 percent in 2017 to approximately 77.2 percent at present for steel production, which is closer to the Secretary's recommended objective of achieving a sustained domestic capacity utilization of 80 percent for aluminum and steel production. In the Secretary's opinion, the domestic capacity utilization for aluminum and steel production would not be as high as it is if not for the aluminum and steel tariff regimes imposed under section 232.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    5. Based on his monitoring of imports of metal products, the Secretary informed me that there are opportunities to continue to improve the operation of the tariff regimes to address more effectively the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962. For example, the Secretary recommended that I clarify that 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     tariffs apply to the full customs value of metal articles, and he recommended that the tariffs apply to the full customs value of derivative products.
                </FP>
                <FP>6. The Secretary further recommended that I modify the scope of derivative articles that are subject to the tariffs imposed under Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9705. In the Secretary's view, certain derivative articles should remain subject to the tariffs imposed under Proclamation 9704, as amended, and Proclamation 9705, as amended, to prevent circumvention of the tariffs on aluminum or steel articles or because the derivative article sufficiently contributes to the applicable national security threat found in Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9705. By contrast, in the Secretary's view, other derivative articles should no longer be subject to the tariffs imposed under Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9705 because continuing the tariffs does not at this time make a significant contribution to effectively addressing the identified national security threats.</FP>
                <FP>7. After considering the current information, opinions, and recommendations newly provided by the Secretary; the factors in section 232 (19 U.S.C. 1862(d)); the need to address the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962; and other relevant factors and information, I determine that it is necessary and appropriate to modify, as further described below, the tariff regimes for metal products imposed in Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962.</FP>
                <FP>8. I determine that it is necessary and appropriate to modify the tariffs imposed pursuant to Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 so that they apply to the full customs value of aluminum, steel, and copper articles and their derivatives, regardless of metal content.</FP>
                <FP>
                    9. The full-value 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     tariffs on aluminum and steel articles, certain copper articles, and certain aluminum and steel derivative articles shall be set at an 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty of 50 percent, with reduced rates available for certain products from the United Kingdom given the ongoing discussions and for derivative articles made entirely with metals originating from the United States. Full-value tariffs on certain copper articles and certain aluminum and steel derivative articles shall generally be set at an 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty of 25 percent, with reduced rates available for certain derivative articles from the United Kingdom given the ongoing discussions between the United Kingdom and the United States and for derivative articles made entirely with metals originating from the United States.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    10. I further determine that it is necessary and appropriate to terminate the aluminum, steel, and copper derivatives inclusions processes established in Proclamation 10895, Proclamation 10896, and Proclamation 10962. I authorize the Secretary and the United States Trade Representative (Trade Representative) to include additional derivative articles within the scope of the tariffs, on a rolling basis, when they jointly determine that imports of those derivative articles threaten to undermine the actions taken to address 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18203"/>
                    the national security risks identified in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962. In determining whether to include additional derivative articles within the scope of the tariffs, the Secretary and the Trade Representative may solicit information, feedback, recommendations, or other relevant materials from domestic producers, industry associations, or other interested parties.
                </FP>
                <FP>11. I also determine that it is necessary and appropriate to modify the scope of derivative articles subject to tariffs pursuant to Proclamation 9704, as amended, and Proclamation 9705, as amended. These determinations are based on new information and recommendations provided by the Secretary on whether a derivative article sufficiently contributes to the applicable national security threats found in Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9705, whether imposing tariffs on the derivative article is necessary to prevent circumvention of the tariffs on steel or aluminum articles, and whether a tariff on the full customs value of the derivative article will enable the tariff regimes, at this time, to address as effectively the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9705.</FP>
                <FP>12. In my judgment, the modifications in this proclamation are necessary and appropriate to adjust imports of metal products to address more effectively the threats to the national security found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962, including by, among other things, more effectively and quickly strengthening domestic manufacturing of metal products; reducing reliance on foreign manufacturing and importation of metal products; encouraging companies to expand domestic production capacity of metal products; increasing domestic research and development of metal products so that United States producers can produce cutting-edge technologies that are essential to the United States defense industrial base; and training workers to produce these strategic products.</FP>
                <FP>13. Section 232 authorizes the President to adjust the imports of an article and its derivatives that are being imported into the United States in such quantities or under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security of the United States so that such imports will not threaten to impair the national security.</FP>
                <FP>14. Section 604 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2483) (section 604), authorizes the President to embody in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) the substance of statutes affecting import treatment, and actions thereunder, including the removal, modification, continuance, or imposition of any rate of duty or other import restriction.</FP>
                <FP>NOW, THEREFORE, I, DONALD J. TRUMP, President of the United States of America, by the authority vested in me by the Constitution and the laws of the United States, including section 232, section 604, and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, do hereby proclaim as follows:</FP>
                <P>
                    (1) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on April 6, 2026, the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duty imposed pursuant to section 232 on aluminum articles and aluminum derivative articles under Proclamation 9704, as amended; on steel articles and steel derivative articles under Proclamation 9705, as amended; and on copper articles and copper derivative articles under Proclamation 10962 shall apply to the full customs value of the imported product, regardless of metal content.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on April 6, 2026, the applicable additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty imposed pursuant to section 232 under Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 for all aluminum and steel articles, most copper articles, and certain derivative articles of aluminum and steel, as listed in Annex I-A to this proclamation, shall be:
                    <PRTPAGE P="18204"/>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(a) 50 percent, unless a lower rate of duty applies pursuant to clause (2)(b) or (2)(c) of this proclamation;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(b) 25 percent for United Kingdom products, the aluminum content of which is composed entirely of aluminum that was smelted or most recently cast in the United Kingdom or the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in the United Kingdom; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(c) 10 percent for derivative articles, the aluminum content of which is composed entirely of aluminum that was smelted and cast in the United States, the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in the United States, or the copper content of which is composed entirely of copper that was smelted and cast in the United States.</FP>
                <P>
                    (3) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on April 6, 2026, for the copper articles and for the aluminum and steel derivative articles listed in Annex I-B to this proclamation, the applicable additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty imposed pursuant to section 232 under Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 shall be:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(a) 25 percent, unless a lower rate of duty applies pursuant to clause (3)(b)-(3)(c) of this proclamation;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(b) 15 percent for aluminum or steel products of the United Kingdom, the aluminum content of which is composed entirely of aluminum that was smelted or most recently cast in the United Kingdom or the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in the United Kingdom; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(c) 10 percent for articles the aluminum content of which is composed entirely of aluminum that was smelted and cast in the United States, the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in the United States, or the copper content of which is composed entirely of copper that was smelted and cast in the United States.</FP>
                <P>
                    (4) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on April 6, 2026, products listed in Annex II to this proclamation shall no longer be subject to the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duty imposed under Proclamation 9704, as amended, or Proclamation 9705, as amended.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on April 6, 2026, until 11:59 p.m. eastern standard time on December 31, 2027, the applicable additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty imposed under Proclamation 9704, as amended, and Proclamation 9705, as amended, for imports of products listed in Annex III to this proclamation shall be:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                    (a) Determined by the product's current 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     (or 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     equivalent) rate of duty under Column 1 of the HTSUS (Column 1 Duty Rate) as outlined in clause (5) of this proclamation, unless a lower rate of duty applies pursuant to clause (5)(b) of this proclamation or a higher rate of duty applies pursuant to clause (5)(c) of this proclamation. For products with a Column 1 Duty Rate that is less than 15 percent, the sum of the Column 1 Duty Rate and the additional section 232 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty pursuant to Proclamation 9704, as amended, or Proclamation 9705, as amended, shall be 15 percent. For a product with a Column 1 Duty Rate that is at least 15 percent, the additional section 232 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty imposed shall be zero percent;
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                    (b) 10 percent, determined based on the product's current 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     (or 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     equivalent) Column 1 Duty Rate in the same manner outlined in clause (5)(a) of this proclamation, for derivative articles the aluminum content of which is composed entirely of aluminum that was 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18205"/>
                    smelted and cast in the United States, or the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in the United States; and
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(c) 25 percent for products imported from trading partners with whom the United States does not maintain normal trading relations.</FP>
                <P>
                    (6) At the direction of, or with the concurrence of, the President, the Secretary and the Trade Representative may revoke the benefits provided to any trading partner's products under clause (5) of this proclamation if the President or the Secretary and the Trade Representative find that imports of derivative articles listed in Annex III to this proclamation originating from that trading partner have increased in a manner that undermines the objectives of the actions taken to address the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704 or Proclamation 9705. The revocation shall apply to goods entered for consumption, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern time on the date that the President or the Secretary and the Trade Representative make the requisite finding or the first practicable effective date after that time, as set forth in a notice in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                     issued by the Secretary and the Trade Representative. Products listed in Annex III to this proclamation imported from that trading partner shall become subject to the applicable rate that would apply under clause (3) of this proclamation if the product was listed in Annex I-B to this proclamation. Any revocation pursuant to this clause shall be effectuated through notice in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                     issued by the Secretary and the Trade Representative.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) Effective with respect to goods entered for consumption or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern standard time on January 1, 2028, the applicable additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty imposed under Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; and Proclamation 10962 for imports of products listed in Annex III to this proclamation shall be the rates proscribed in clause (3) of this proclamation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) All imports of aluminum articles and aluminum derivative articles specified in Annex I-A, Annex I-B, or Annex III to this proclamation that are the product of Russia or where any amount of primary aluminum used in the manufacture of these articles is smelted in Russia, or these aluminum articles are cast in Russia, shall continue to be subject to the 200 percent 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty established in Proclamation 10522 of February 24, 2023 (Adjusting Imports of Aluminum Into the United States), with respect to goods entered for consumption, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or after the effective dates of clauses (2), (3), and (5) of this proclamation.
                </P>
                <P>(9) Goods specified in Annex I-A, Annex I-B, and Annex III to this proclamation that are listed as articles or derivatives of more than one metal shall only be subject once to the respective duty rates established in clause (2), clause (3), or clause (5) of this proclamation even if the good contains aluminum and steel, aluminum and copper, steel and copper, or all three metals. Goods specified in Annex I-B or Annex III to this proclamation that do not contain any aluminum, steel, or copper content, as set forth in Annex IV to this proclamation, shall not be subject to the duties imposed in clause (3) and clause (5) of this proclamation. In addition, goods specified in Annex I-B or Annex III to this proclamation that are not classifiable in Chapters 72, 73, 74, and 76 of the HTSUS and that do not contain sufficient aluminum, steel, or copper content, as set forth in Annex IV to this proclamation, shall not be subject to the duties imposed in clause (3) and clause (5) of this proclamation.</P>
                <P>
                    (10) This proclamation does not alter or supersede actions implementing any prior agreements with the United Kingdom, the European Union, Japan, the Republic of Korea, or any other trading partner to reduce the tariffs imposed under section 232 on certain aluminum, steel, or copper articles and certain aluminum, steel, or copper derivative articles that fall under 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18206"/>
                    the World Trade Organization Agreement on Trade in Civil Aircraft and either are civil aircraft or are used as parts for civil aircraft.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (11) The inclusion processes established pursuant to clause (7) of Proclamation 10895, clause (6) of Proclamation 10896, and clause (3) of Proclamation 10962 are hereby terminated. The Secretary and the Trade Representative are authorized to include additional derivative articles within the scope of the tariffs imposed pursuant to Proclamation 9704, as amended; Proclamation 9705, as amended; or Proclamation 10962 whenever they jointly determine that imports of a derivative aluminum, steel, or copper article have increased in a manner that threatens to impair the national security; contribute to the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, or Proclamation 10962; or otherwise undermine the objectives of the actions taken to address the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, or Proclamation 10962. This authority shall allow metal containers to be included in the scope of the metal tariffs, even if they are filled with items that will not be subject to steel, aluminum, or copper tariffs. The additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty applicable under clause (3) of this proclamation shall apply to any new derivative articles included by the Secretary and the Trade Representative, unless identical or substantially comparable articles are listed in Annex I-A to this proclamation, in which case the additional 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rate of duty applicable under clause (2) of this proclamation shall apply. Duties on products included by the Secretary and the Trade Representative shall be subject to the conditions outlined in clause (9) of this proclamation. Any inclusion shall apply to goods entered for consumption, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or after 12:01 a.m. eastern time on the date that the Secretary and the Trade Representative make the requisite finding or the first practicable effective date after that time, as set forth in a notice in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                     issued by the Secretary and the Trade Representative. The Secretary and the Trade Representative are also authorized to reconsider their own inclusion decisions, including by modifying or reversing their decisions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (12) Products described in clauses (2), (3), and (5) of this proclamation, except those eligible for admission under “domestic status” as described in 19 CFR 146.43, that are subject to a duty imposed by this proclamation and that are admitted into a United States foreign trade zone on or after the effective date of this proclamation may be admitted only under “privileged foreign status” as described in 19 CFR 146.41, and any products admitted in “privileged foreign status” prior to the effective date of this proclamation will be subject upon entry for consumption to any 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     rates of duty related to the classification under the applicable HTSUS subheading.
                </P>
                <P>(13) Manufacturing drawback claims made in accordance with subsections (a) and (b) of section 313 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1313(a)-(b), shall be available with respect to the duties imposed pursuant to this proclamation on articles that meet the following conditions:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(a) The article is classifiable in an HTSUS provision that is listed in Annex I-B or Annex III to this proclamation or that is included in the scope of the tariffs pursuant to clause (11) of this proclamation;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(b) The article is not of a type of merchandise subject to an antidumping or countervailing duty order, without regard to whether the article is from the country or countries listed in the order(s);</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(c) The article is a product of Trade Agreement Partners, composed of the United Kingdom, the European Union, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Canada, and any trading partner with which the United States concludes a final Agreement on Reciprocal Trade; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                    (d) The aluminum content of the article is composed entirely of aluminum that was smelted and cast in a Trade Agreement Partner country, the steel content of which is composed entirely of steel that was melted and poured in a Trade Agreement Partner country, or the copper content 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18207"/>
                    of which is composed entirely of copper that was smelted and cast in a Trade Agreement Partner country.
                </FP>
                <P>(14) Except as provided in clause (13) of this proclamation, no other drawback claims shall be available with respect to the duties imposed pursuant to this proclamation.</P>
                <P>
                    (15) The Secretary and the Trade Representative, in consultation with the Chair of the United States International Trade Commission, the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), and any other senior official the Secretary and the Trade Representative deem appropriate, shall determine whether any modifications to the HTSUS are necessary to effectuate or implement this proclamation or any actions taken pursuant to this proclamation, and shall make such modifications through notice in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Secretary and the Trade Representative may also make any technical corrections to any Annex to this proclamation.
                </P>
                <P>(16) The Secretary shall continue to monitor imports of metal products. The Secretary and the Trade Representative shall review the status of imports of metal products with respect to the national security. The Secretary and the Trade Representative shall inform the President of any circumstances that, in their opinion, might indicate the need for further Presidential action under section 232. The Secretary and the Trade Representative shall also inform the President of any circumstance that, in their opinion, might indicate that any of the actions taken under section 232 are no longer necessary.</P>
                <P>(17) The Secretary and the Trade Representative shall jointly provide an update within 90 days of the date of this proclamation. That update shall include any relevant information on the status of imports of metal products with respect to the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962; United States production of aluminum, steel, and copper; any actions taken by foreign trading partners to mitigate those national security threats; and any other relevant circumstances or recommendations with respect to the national security threats found in Proclamation 9704, Proclamation 9705, and Proclamation 10962.</P>
                <P>
                    (18) To the extent consistent with applicable law, the Secretary, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the Trade Representative are directed and authorized to take all actions that are appropriate to implement and effectuate this proclamation and any actions contemplated by this proclamation—including through temporary suspension or amendment of regulations or through notices in the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                     and by adopting rules, regulations, or guidance—and to employ all powers granted to the President, including by section 232. The head of each executive department and agency (agency) is authorized to and shall take all appropriate measures within the agency's authority to implement this proclamation. The head of each agency may, consistent with applicable law, including section 301 of title 3, United States Code, redelegate the authority to take such appropriate measures within the agency.
                </P>
                <P>(19) The Secretary, in consultation with the Trade Representative and any other senior official the Secretary deems appropriate, may issue regulations and guidance consistent with this proclamation, including to address operational necessity.</P>
                <P>
                    (20) CBP may take any appropriate measures to administer and enforce the tariffs imposed by this proclamation. To implement this proclamation, CBP is authorized to take any action, including rules, regulations, or guidance for CBP to determine whether a product contains metal(s) subject to this proclamation, and to address illegal transshipment, undervaluation, and other tariff evasion methods. Importers shall provide to CBP the information necessary to identify the countries where the copper used in the manufacture of copper article imports covered by this proclamation are smelted and information necessary to identify the countries where such copper article imports are cast. CBP shall implement the smelt and cast information requirements as soon as practicable.
                    <PRTPAGE P="18208"/>
                </P>
                <P>(21) Any provision of previous proclamations and Executive Orders that is inconsistent with this proclamation is superseded to the extent of such inconsistency.</P>
                <P>(22) If any provision of this proclamation or the application of any provision of this proclamation to any individual or circumstance is held to be invalid, the remainder of this proclamation and the application of its provisions to any other individual or circumstance shall not be affected.</P>
                <FP>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, I have hereunto set my hand this second day of April, in the year of our Lord two thousand twenty-six, and of the Independence of the United States of America the two hundred and fiftieth.</FP>
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                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06960 </FRDOC>
                <FILED>Filed 4-8-26; 11:15 am]</FILED>
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            </PROCLA>
        </PRESDOCU>
    </PRESDOC>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <PRESDOC>
        <PRESDOCU>
            <EXECORD>
                <PRTPAGE P="18267"/>
                <EXECORDR>Executive Order 14400 of April 3, 2026</EXECORDR>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Urgent National Action To Save College Sports</HD>
                <FP>By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, it is hereby ordered:</FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Section 1</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Purpose and Policy.</E>
                     America's system of college sports has long provided scholarships and life-changing educational, athletic, and leadership opportunities to millions of America's future leaders and formed an important part of our national fabric. In July, I signed an Executive Order to protect college sports from endless lawsuits and destabilizing financial obligations that could jeopardize women's and Olympic sports, but it has become clear that more comprehensive executive action is required before college sports are lost forever.
                </FP>
                <FP>College football is the primary revenue generator for university athletic departments, including revenue to support women's and Olympic sports, and is used by many universities to attract students, donations, and goodwill as millions of Americans gather with families and friends to watch each Saturday. These factors place enormous pressure on many universities to be competitive in football. The same dynamic exists for basketball to a lesser degree. Amid this pressure, the rules governing pay-for-play, eligibility, and other aspects of college athletics have been substantially loosened through a number of judicial rulings. Additional rules that could institute order and consistency in these systems have been nullified by some State legislatures that are incentivized to advantage their own State's universities in the competitive market for student-athletes by minimizing barriers to recruitment. This chaotic state of affairs has undermined competition, reduced opportunities for student-athletes, and jeopardized support for the current range of college athletics, particularly women's and Olympic sports. Fair competition cannot occur without a consistent set of rules concerning pay-for-play or player eligibility that cannot be endlessly relitigated in court.</FP>
                <FP>The convergence of enormous pressure to win in football and basketball and the loosening, both by litigation and by State legislation, of consistent rules or limits concerning eligibility, transfers, and pay-for-play schemes has created an out-of-control financial arms race in these sports that is driving universities into debt, threatening to siphon resources from other sports, and damaging student-athletes' educational and graduation opportunities. The athletics-related financial threats these crucial universities face are substantial: Already, one major athletic program closed fiscal year 2025 with $535 million in athletics-related debt, and another has $437 million in such debt, while others face enormous annual athletics-related deficits. These financial perils will inevitably siphon funds from universities' educational and research purposes, which could impact their capabilities and responsibilities as Federal contractors and grantees.</FP>
                <FP>
                    Absent a comprehensive national solution, therefore, the escalating financial demands to succeed in football and basketball combined with the significantly loosened rules governing eligibility, transfers, and pay-for-play schemes may force curtailment of women's and Olympics sports, and may even jeopardize the overall financial well-being of universities with which the Federal Government has important financial relationships. Universities are important defense research contractors for the Department of War, important medical research contractors for the Department of Health and Human Services, and important scientific research contractors for the National 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18268"/>
                    Science Foundation. The health of the university system is integral to the Federal Government's basic functioning.
                </FP>
                <FP>Further, without a national solution to protect the future of competition and opportunity in all college sports, it is possible that the largest college football programs will be forced to seek stability through a negotiated solution that may result in the withdrawal of financial and other resources from women's and Olympic sports.</FP>
                <FP>The Congress is strongly encouraged to expeditiously pass legislation that satisfactorily addresses these issues. But further delay is not an option given what is at stake—the 500,000 annual educational, athletic, and leadership-development opportunities that provide almost $4 billion in scholarships. This executive action will preserve college sports for future generations.</FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 2</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Effective Date.</E>
                     Sections 3 through 6 of this order shall be effective on August 1, 2026. Agencies shall immediately begin work to ensure that appropriate regulatory or policymaking measures will be in place by the effective date so that the requirements of the operative sections can be implemented as soon after the effective date as possible.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 3</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                     For the purposes of this order:
                </FP>
                <P>(a) “Improper financial activities” means the following actions taken by a federally-funded higher education institution, including its officers, agents, affiliates, or representatives:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) intentionally devising or participating in a fraudulent name, image, and likeness (NIL) scheme;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) knowingly accepting contributions, financial or otherwise, from persons who intentionally devise or participate in a fraudulent NIL scheme;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iii) using Federal funds for NIL or revenue-sharing payments or for any type of payment or benefit to a coach, assistant coach, general manager, recruiter, or other person engaged in coaching or managing an athletic team; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iv) tortiously interfering with a contract between a student-athlete and another federally-funded higher education institution, including a scholarship agreement;</FP>
                <P>(b) “Fraudulent NIL scheme” means a scheme to pay for goods or services, including NIL services, above the actual fair market value of those goods or services in connection with a student-athlete's participation in intercollegiate athletics, including through the use of collectives or similar entities. The term does not include:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) revenue sharing between a higher education institution and a student-athlete that is consistent with interstate intercollegiate athletic governing body rules; or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) fair market value compensation provided for the NIL rights of a student-athlete by a third-party not affiliated with the athletic department of a higher education institution for a valid business purpose that is related to the promotion or endorsement of goods or services provided to the general public for profit and that is not tied to participation in the athletics program of a particular higher education institution, at rates and terms commensurate with compensation paid to individuals with NIL rights of comparable value who are not student-athletes at the applicable higher education institution;</FP>
                <P>
                    (c) “Higher education institution” has the meaning given the term “institution of higher education” in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001), provided that this term only includes an institution that reports (as required under section 485(g) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1092(g))) having generated not less than $20,000,000 in total revenue (as adjusted on July 1 each year by the percentage increase, if any, during the preceding 12-month period, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18269"/>
                    derived by the institution from the institution's intercollegiate athletics activities during the preceding academic year, as determined in accordance with paragraph (1)(I) of section 485(g) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1092(g)); and
                </P>
                <P>(d) “Interstate intercollegiate athletic governing body” means the entity that sets common rules, standards, procedures, or guidelines for the administration and regulation of varsity sports teams and intercollegiate athletic competitions, but that is not an intercollegiate athletic conference, provided that the governing body may include persons affiliated with an intercollegiate athletic conference.</P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 4</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Protecting Women's and Olympic Sports and Preserving Higher Education Financial Responsibility.</E>
                     (a)(i) Agency heads that contract with or provide grants to higher education institutions, shall, as appropriate, evaluate violations of the applicable, lawful, and operative interstate intercollegiate athletic governing body rules in effect as of August 1, 2026, concerning the following, to determine whether they are a cause so serious or compelling in nature to affect the present responsibility of the recipient:
                </FP>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(A) eligibility limits;</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(B) transfers between institutions;</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(C) revenue-sharing permitted between higher education institutions and student-athletes; and</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(D) permissible and improper financial activities.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) The Director of the Office of Management and Budget, in consultation with the Administrator of General Services, shall issue guidance to contracting and grantmaking agencies to ensure compliance with this order and to reinforce the suspension and debarment policy regarding violations of the rules described in subsection 4(a)(i) of this section.</FP>
                <P>(b) The interstate intercollegiate athletic governing body for higher education institutions should, in consultation with student-athletes and in its discretion, update or clarify its rules before August 1, 2026, as appropriate, to adequately protect opportunities for scholarships and collegiate athletic competition in women's and Olympic sports and ensure the financial stability of higher education institutions, including by establishing the following, to the extent permitted by law and applicable court orders:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) age-based eligibility limits to promote fairness, consistency, safety, and opportunities for student-athletes under which:</FP>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(A) participation in college athletics is permitted for no more than a five-year period, with limited exceptions for military service, missionary service, and other periods of absence from participation that are in the public interest; and</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(B) professional athletes cannot return to college athletics;</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) transfer-related rules that:</FP>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(A) provide for the ability to transfer one time during the five-year period with immediate playing eligibility, and one additional such time if the student-athlete obtains a four-year degree;</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(B) prioritize the academic development, success, graduation, and long-term well-being of student-athletes; and</P>
                <P SOURCE="P1">(C) ensure that the transfer window does not incentivize interference with athletic seasons or the academic year, or otherwise undermine the integrity of participation and competition in college athletics;</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iii) medical care for student-athletes for intercollegiate-athletics-related injuries during their period of enrollment and for a reasonable period of time thereafter;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">
                    (iv) the implementation of revenue-sharing between higher education institutions and student-athletes in a manner that preserves or expands scholarships and collegiate athletic opportunities in women's and Olympic sports, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18270"/>
                    including through provisions to prevent revenue-sharing from being allocated in a manner that results in a reduction in scholarships and opportunities in women's and Olympic sports;
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(v) a prohibition on the use of Federal funds by higher education institutions for NIL or revenue-sharing payments or coaching or athletic compensation, in accordance with any applicable Federal law and Federal contract terms;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(vi) a prohibition on improper financial activities regarding student-athletes, including collectives or other entities or methods used to facilitate third-party, pay-for-play payments; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(vii) a national student-athlete agent registry and reasonable protections for student-athletes from excessive agent commissions.</FP>
                <P> (c) To aid contracting and grantmaking agencies' compliance with subsection 4(a) of this section, the Administrator of General Services shall propose, consistent with law, an appropriate, regular collection of information to evaluate compliance with the rules covered by subsection (a)(i)(A)-(D) of this section for completion by appropriate higher education institution officials.</P>
                <P>(d) The Secretary of Education shall consider taking appropriate action, including through rulemaking where necessary, to require regular reporting by higher education institutions that includes:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) the total number of roster spots by varsity team, as of the day of the first scheduled contest for the team; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) the total amount of money spent on athletically related student aid or other payments, separately for men's and women's teams overall.</FP>
                <P>(e) The Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission shall take appropriate action to enforce 15 U.S.C. 45 and 15 U.S.C. 7801-7807 with respect to violations by student-athlete agents and related individuals or entities.</P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 5</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Legal Actions to Invalidate Certain State Laws.</E>
                     (a) The Attorney General shall take appropriate measures to further meritorious actions to invalidate State laws that conflict with interstate intercollegiate athletic governing body rules and:
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) discriminate against out-of-state commerce or unduly burden or impede interstate commerce in violation of Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the Constitution of the United States;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) impair a contractual relationship in violation of Article I, Section 10, Clause 1 of the Constitution of the United States; or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iii) are otherwise invalid under Federal law.</FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 6</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Consultation.</E>
                     Relevant White House components and executive departments and agencies are encouraged to, as appropriate and consistent with applicable law, consider input from appropriate leaders in collegiate athletics and administration and other experts regarding effective implementation of this order.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 7</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">Severability.</E>
                     If any provision of this order, or the application of any provision to any person or circumstance, is held to be invalid, the remainder of this order and the application of its provisions to any other persons or circumstances shall not be affected thereby.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="04">Sec. 8</E>
                    . 
                    <E T="03">General Provisions.</E>
                     (a) Nothing in this order shall be construed to impair or otherwise affect:
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) the authority granted by law to an executive department or agency, or the head thereof; or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) the functions of the Director of the Office of Management and Budget relating to budgetary, administrative, or legislative proposals.</FP>
                <P>(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party 
                    <PRTPAGE P="18271"/>
                    against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
                </P>
                <P>(d) The costs for publication of this order shall be borne by the Department of Education.</P>
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                </GPH>
                <PSIG> </PSIG>
                <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
                <DATE>April 3, 2026.</DATE>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06961 </FRDOC>
                <FILED>Filed 4-8-26; 11:15 am]</FILED>
                <BILCOD>Billing code 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
            </EXECORD>
        </PRESDOCU>
    </PRESDOC>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>68</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, April 9, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <PRESDOC>
        <PRESDOCU>
            <PRORDER>
                  
                <PRTPAGE P="18273"/>
                <ORDER>Order of April 3, 2026</ORDER>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Sequestration Order for Fiscal Year 2027 Pursuant to Section 251A of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act, as Amended</HD>
                <FP>By the authority vested in me as President by the laws of the United States of America, and in accordance with section 251A of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act (the “Act”), as amended, 2 U.S.C. 901a, I hereby order that, on October 1, 2026, direct spending budgetary resources for fiscal year 2027 in each non-exempt budget account be reduced by the amount calculated by the Office of Management and Budget in its report to the Congress of April 3, 2026.</FP>
                <FP>All sequestrations shall be made in strict accordance with the requirements of section 251A of the Act and the specifications of the Office of Management and Budget's report of April 3, 2026, prepared pursuant to section 251A(9) of the Act.</FP>
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                </GPH>
                <PSIG> </PSIG>
                <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
                <DATE>April 3, 2026.</DATE>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-06962 </FRDOC>
                <FILED>Filed 4-8-26; 11:15 am]</FILED>
                <BILCOD>Billing code 3395-F4-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORDER>
        </PRESDOCU>
    </PRESDOC>
</FEDREG>
