Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Reclamation Bureau
National Endowment for the Arts
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Honda Aircraft Company LLC (Honda) Model HA-420 airplanes. This AD was prompted by the discovery of a gap between the trailing edge wing nut plates and leading edge aileron balance weights being less than the minimum required clearance. This AD requires replacing the affected left and right aileron fixed balance weights with reduced geometry fixed balance weights. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 17, 2026.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of February 17, 2026.
• For Honda Aircraft Company material identified in this AD, contact Honda, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, NC 27410; phone: (336) 662-0246; website:
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at
Tuan Tran, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: (404) 474-5522; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Honda Model HA-420 airplanes. The NPRM was published in the
The FAA received comments from one commenter. The commenter was Honda. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Honda requested that the FAA remove the mention of potential jamming between the wing trailing edge nut plates and aileron leading edge balance weights from the Background paragraph of the proposed AD and revise the paragraph to read; “This reduction could result in contact between the balance weights and nut plates, if not addressed causing damage to the airplane.” Honda also requested that the FAA remove mention of potential jamming and loss of control of the airplane from paragraph (e) of the proposed AD, and revise the unsafe condition to read; “The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent contact between the balance weights and the nut plates. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in damage to the airplane.” Honda noted that prior to every flight in service, the pilot verifies that all flight controls are “free and correct,” and if ailerons have the potential to bind, the condition would be caught during these flight control checks. Honda also noted that multiple aileron travel checks did not result in reports of interference or jamming on numerous potentially affected airplanes and the risk of jamming is not substantiated by operational data.
The FAA disagrees with the request to revise the Background language because there is still a potential of jamming or interference between the balance weights and nut plates at maximum aileron deflection during landing or mid-flight. The FAA notes that the reduced gap condition still existed in 10 affected airplanes, and there is not enough substantiated data to show any mitigation effect to the jamming or interference at maximum aileron deflection. The FAA has not changed this AD based on this request.
Honda requested that the FAA revise paragraph (g) of the proposed AD, so that before further flight replacement of the balance weights would only be necessary if interference is found during the clearance check. The commenter stated that the use of “before further flight” is not warranted based on Honda's safety risk assessment since multiple aileron travel checks did not result in reports of interference or
Further, the FAA notes that the reduced gap condition still existed in 10 out of 38 affected airplanes. Even if these 10 airplanes had the aileron checks done on the issue date of Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024, they still require replacement of the affected left and right aileron fixed balance weights with reduced geometry fixed balance weights before further flight after the effective date of this AD. Prolonging this unsafe condition for another 60 days would introduce additional unnecessary safety risk, and there is not substantiated data to show any mitigation effect to the jamming or interference at maximum aileron deflection. The FAA also notes that it is important to ensure that the ailerons are properly balanced with the appropriate configuration under an FAA-approved procedure, especially when a mixed combination and order between different types of balance weight can introduce further complications and complexity. The FAA has not changed this AD based on this request.
Honda requested that the FAA remove the “Differences Between This Proposed AD and the Reference Material” paragraph from the proposed AD. The commenter noted that Honda already uses FAA-approved data that allows for use of the larger balance weights having P/N HJ1-15751-137-005, and the information currently in the Differences paragraph of the proposed AD would cause unnecessary delays.
The FAA disagrees with the request. The FAA acknowledges that Honda uses FAA-approved data allowing for use of larger balance weights having P/N HJ1-15751-137-005, but the process for installation of the balance weight is not appropriately highlighted and detailed in Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024. The FAA also notes that it is important to ensure that the ailerons are properly balanced with the appropriate configuration under an FAA-approved procedure, especially when a mixed combination and order between different types of balance weights can introduce further complications and complexity. The FAA has not changed this AD based on this request.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024. This material specifies procedures for replacing the affected left and right aileron fixed balance weights with reduced geometry fixed balance weights to ensure the minimum required clearances are maintained with the adjacent wing trailing edge panel fasteners.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024, specifies contacting Honda if proper aileron balance cannot be attained using adjustable balance weights, but this AD requires using a procedure approved by the Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA.
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 38 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The instructions for repair could vary significantly from airplane to airplane if proper aileron balance cannot be attained using adjustable balance weights. The FAA has no way of determining the cost of this repair or the number of airplanes that may require repair.
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective February 17, 2026.
None.
This AD applies to Honda Aircraft Company LLC (Honda) Model HA-420 airplanes, serial numbers 42000172, 42000235 through 42000265, and 42000267 through 42000272, certificated in any category, with aileron balance weight part number HJ1-15751-152-003 or HJ1-15751-157-003 installed.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 2710, Aileron Control System.
This AD was prompted by the discovery that the gap between the trailing edge wing nut plates and leading edge aileron balance weights may be less than the minimum required clearance. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent jamming or contact between the balance weights and the nut plates. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before further flight after the effective date of this AD, replace the left and right aileron fixed balance weights in accordance with steps 3.0(3) through 3.0(8) of the Accomplishment Instructions in Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024, except as provided in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this AD.
(1) Instead of discarding parts, you must remove those parts from service.
(2) This AD does not require returning parts to the manufacturer.
(3) Instead of contacting Honda if proper aileron balance cannot be attained using adjustable balance weights, this AD requires attaining proper aileron balance using a procedure approved by the Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA.
(1) The Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the East Certification Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (i) of this AD and email to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) For material that contains steps that are labeled as RC the provisions of paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Tuan Tran, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: (404) 474-5522; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-011, Revision B, dated December 12, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Honda Aircraft Company material identified in this AD, contact Honda Aircraft Company LLC, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, NC 27410; phone: (336) 662-0246; website:
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPS) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational
This rule is effective January 13, 2026. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of January 13, 2026.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30. 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Information Services, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Rune Duke, Manager (Acting), Standards Section, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, Aviation Safety, Federal Aviation Administration. Mailing Address: FAA Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., STB Annex, Bldg. 26, Room 217, Oklahoma City, OK 73099. Telephone (405) 954-1139.
This rule amends 14 CFR part 97 by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The applicable FAA Forms are 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, 8260-15B, when required by an entry on 8260-15A, and 8260-15C.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flights safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, 14 CFR part 97 is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Department of State.
Final rule.
This rule provides a change in the address for service of process for summonses, complaints, or other legal documents directed to the Department of State or to any Department employee or former employee in connection with federal or state litigation.
This rule is effective January 13, 2026.
Alice Kottmyer, Attorney Adviser, Office of Management,
As a result of the 2025 reorganization of functions within the Department of State, the office formerly designated to receive service of process has been eliminated. The office now designated to receive service of legal documents, including commercial garnishments, is the Office of the Executive Secretariat. This final rule makes that change. The Department will also coordinate with the Office of Personnel Management to change the Department's address for service of process listed in Appendix A of 5 CFR part 581.
In addition, the National Defense Authorization Act for FY 2026 changed the names of some Department bureaus, including the Bureau of Human
This rule is being published as a final rule and is exempt from notice and comment as a rule of agency management. Since the rule is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 553, the delay provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553(d) do not apply.
As this rule is a rule of agency organization, procedure, or practice that does not substantially affect the rights or obligations of non-agency parties, it is not a “rule” that is covered by the Congressional Review Act. 5 U.S.C. 804(3)(C).
This rule will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in any year; and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
The Department has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not pre-empt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
The Department of State certifies that this rulemaking will not have an impact on a substantial number of small entities. A regulatory flexibility analysis is not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601,
OIRA has designated this rule as “not significant” under Executive Order 12866; therefore, the rule is exempt from the provisions of Executive Order 14192. The benefits of the rule in providing clarity to the public on how to serve documents on the Department outweigh any costs to the public, which are minimal.
The Department of State has reviewed this rule in light of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
This rule will not have substantial direct effect on the states, on the relationships between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. Executive Order 12372, regarding intergovernmental consultation on federal programs and activities, does not apply to this regulation.
This rulemaking does not create or modify any information collections within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Government employees.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of State amends part 172 of Title 22, Code of Federal Regulations, to read as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 8 U.S.C. 1202(f); 22 U.S.C. 2651a, 2664, 3926.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) Only the Office of the Executive Secretariat (S/ES-EX) is authorized to receive and accept summonses or complaints sought to be served upon the Department or Department employees. All such documents should be delivered or addressed to: Congressional & Litigation Support Office, Office of the Executive Secretariat (S/ES-EX), Room 1464, 2201 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20520.
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN), Treasury.
Order.
FinCEN is issuing this Geographic Targeting Order, requiring banks and money transmitters located in the Counties of Hennepin and Ramsey, Minnesota to retain and report records of certain payments of $3,000 or more.
This action is effective February 12, 2026.
FinCEN's Regulatory Support Section by submitting an inquiry at
If the Secretary of the Treasury (Secretary) finds, upon his own initiative or at the request of an appropriate Federal or State law enforcement official, that reasonable grounds exist for concluding that additional recordkeeping and reporting
The Director finds that reasonable grounds exist for concluding that the additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in the GTO contained in this document (the “Order”) are necessary to carry out the purposes of the BSA or to prevent evasions thereof. This action is being taken in furtherance of Treasury's efforts to combat international money laundering of the proceeds of government benefits fraud in Minnesota. The Order does not alter any existing BSA obligation of a Covered Business (as defined in the Order), except as otherwise set out in the Order itself.
1. For purposes of this Order, a “Covered Business” means any bank, as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(d), or a money transmitter, as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(ff)(5), with a branch, subsidiary, or office located in the Covered Geographic Area.
2. For purposes of this Order, a “Covered Transaction” means each funds transfer for which records are required to be retained under either 31 CFR 1020.410(a) or 31 CFR 1010.410(e), and for which a corresponding payment order or transmittal order is accepted by the Covered Business as an originator's bank or transmittor's financial institution:
a. Where the originator or transmittor provides an address in the Covered Geographic Area;
b. Where the originator or transmittor is not a company publicly traded on an exchange regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission;
c. Where the originator or transmittor is not a financial institution subject to anti-money laundering program requirements under the BSA; and
d. Either the beneficiary or recipient is located outside of the United States or the financial institution used by the beneficiary or recipient to receive the funds is located outside of the United States.
3. For purposes of this Order, the “Covered Geographic Area” means Hennepin County and Ramsey County, Minnesota.
4. All terms used but not otherwise defined herein shall have the same meaning set forth in part 1010 of chapter X of subtitle B of title 31 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
5. The Covered Business shall report Covered Transactions to FinCEN through the Financial Industry (FI) Portal, available at
6. All submissions shall be saved as a Comma Separate Value (CSV) file prior to submission and adhere to the
7. If the Covered Business is a bank, the Covered Business shall report all information required to be retained under 31 CFR 1020.410(a)(1) and (2), along with the following (regardless of whether the information is provided with the payment order), for which the Covered Business may rely upon information provided by the originator, absent knowledge of facts that would reasonably call into question the reliability of the information provided, by the end of the month following the month in which the Covered Transaction took place:
a. The name and employer identification number of the Covered Business;
b. The account number of the originator;
c. The name of the beneficiary;
d. The address of the beneficiary;
e. The date of birth of the beneficiary;
f. A phone number of the beneficiary;
g. An email address of the beneficiary;
h. The account number of the beneficiary;
i. Whether the source of funds for the transfer includes payments that are from any federal, state, or local government contract or benefit program; and
j. If the answer to question (i) is yes, whether those payments are from government agencies to entities in which the originator has any ownership interest.
8. If the Covered Business is a money transmitter, the Covered Business shall report all information required to be retained under 31 CFR 1010.410(e)(1) and (2), along with the following (regardless of whether the information is provided with the transmittal order), for which the Covered Business may rely upon information provided by the transmittor, absent knowledge of facts that would reasonably call into question the reliability of the information provided, by the end of the month following the month in which the Covered Transaction took place:
a. The name and employer identification number of the Covered Business;
b. The name of the recipient;
c. The address of the recipient;
d. The date of birth of the recipient;
e. A phone number of the recipient;
f. An email address of the recipient;
g. Whether the transmittal was sourced from currency, check, credit or debit card, or other;
h. Whether the source of funds for the transfer includes payments that are from any federal, state, or local government contract or benefit program;
i. If the answer to question (h) is yes, whether those payments are from government agencies to entities in which the transmittor has any ownership interest;
j. The form of transmittal (wire, convertible virtual currency transmission, ledger entry, or other); and
k. If the transmittal is a ledger entry that tracks credits and debits with hawaladars located internationally, whether the money transmitter uses cash couriers to settle those debits.
The terms of this Order are effective February 12, 2026 and ending August 10, 2026.
The Covered Business must: (1) retain all reports filed to comply with this Order and any other records relating to compliance with this Order for a period of five years from the last day that this Order is effective (including any renewals of this Order); (2) store all such records in a manner accessible within a reasonable period of time; and (3) make such records available to FinCEN, or any other appropriate law enforcement or regulatory agency, upon request, in accordance with applicable law.
Nothing in this Order otherwise modifies or affects any provision of the BSA or the regulations implementing the BSA to the extent not expressly stated herein.
This Order is being publicly issued, and its terms are not confidential.
The Covered Business must supervise, and is responsible for, compliance by each of its officers, directors, employees, and agents with the terms of this Order. The Covered Business must transmit this Order to each of its agents located in the Covered Geographic Area. The Covered Business must also transmit this Order to its Chief Executive Officer or other similarly acting manager.
The Covered Business, and any of its officers, directors, employees, and agents, may be liable, without limitation, for civil or criminal penalties for willfully violating any of the terms of this Order.
Any judicial determination that any provision of this Order is invalid shall not affect the validity of any other provision of this Order, and each other provision shall thereafter remain in full force and effect. A copy of this Order carries the full force and effect of an original signed Order.
The collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act contained in this Order has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB control number 1506-0056. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number.
All questions about the Order should be directed to FinCEN at
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters between mile markers 356 and 362 of the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway. The safety zone is needed to support response vessels and protect the marine environment for debris recovery, incident investigation, and pollution clean-up following a plane crash. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) Houston-Galveston or a designated representative.
This rule is effective without actual notice from January 13, 2026, through 11:59 p.m. on January 31, 2026, unless cancelled earlier by the COTP. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from December 23, 2025, until January 13, 2026.
To view available documents go to
If you have questions about this rule, contact Lieutenant Ignacio J. Fernández-Cuervo, Marine Safety Unit Texas City, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 281-309-1617, or email
On December 22, 2025, the Coast Guard received notification that a plane crashed in the vicinity of the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway around mile marker 358.5 resulting in debris and potential for pollution. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Houston-Galveston determined that this situation has created potential hazards to the public and mariners navigating near the incident site. The hazards include the presence of multiple response vessels operating in close proximity, and the presence of debris and contaminants that may be harmful to people. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Delaying the effective date of this rule is impracticable because prompt action is needed to respond to the potential safety hazards and pollution that resulted from the plane crash.
For the same reasons, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
This rule establishes a safety zone from 3 p.m. on December 23, 2025, through 11:59 p.m. on January 31, 2026, unless cancelled earlier by the Captain of the Port. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters on the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway between mile markers 356 and 362. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or their designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(d) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination will be available in the docket as soon as possible.
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (281) 464-4855. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
(d)
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Updates to the Master List of Items Potentially Subject to Face-To-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery and/or Prior Authorization Requirements (the “Master List”); Updates to the Required Face-to-Face and Written Order Prior to Delivery List; and Updates to the Required Prior Authorization List.
This document announces the updated Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes on the Master List. It also announces updates to the HCPCS codes on the Required Face-to-Face and Written Order Prior to Delivery List and the Required Prior Authorization List.
Implementation of updates to the Master List, the Required Face-to-Face and Written Order Prior to Delivery List, and the Required Prior Authorization List are effective on April 13, 2026.
For information related to the Required Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery List, contact Jennifer Phillips, (410) 786-1023; Misty Whitaker, (410) 786-4975; Olufemi Shodeke, (410) 786-1649; or Cristine Egan, (410) 786-8088.
For information related to the Master List or Required Prior Authorization List, contact Emily Calvert, (410) 786-4277; Justin Carlisle, (410) 786-4265; Stephanie Collins, (410) 786-0959; (410) 786-4265; Karen Leban, (410) 786-2476; or Jessica Martindale, (410) 786-1558.
On November 8, 2019, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) published a final rule titled, “Medicare Program; End-Stage Renal Disease Prospective Payment System, Payment for Renal Dialysis Services Furnished to Individuals with Acute Kidney Injury, End-Stage Renal Disease Quality Incentive Program, Durable Medical Equipment, Prosthetics, Orthotics and Supplies (DMEPOS) Fee Schedule Amounts, DMEPOS Competitive Bidding Program (CBP) Amendments, Standard Elements for a DMEPOS Order, and Master List of DMEPOS Items Potentially Subject to a Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery and/or Prior Authorization Requirements” (the November 2019 final rule) (84 FR 60648). The rule became effective January 1, 2020, harmonizing the lists of DMEPOS items created by former rules and establishing one “Master List of DMEPOS Items Potentially Subject to Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Orders Prior to Delivery and/or Prior Authorization Requirements” (the “Master List”).
The Master List serves as a library of items, that have been identified as potential vulnerabilities to the Trust Fund based on criteria outlined in 42 CFR 414.234(b), from which items may be selected to be placed on either the Required Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Orders Prior to Delivery List (the “F2F/WOPD List”) and/or Required Prior Authorization List under the authority provided under sections 1834(a)(1)(E)(iv), 1834(a)(11)(B), and 1834(a)(15) of the Act. Only those items that are selected and announced via
The requirements in the November 2019 final rule related to face-to-face encounters, written orders prior to delivery, and 5-element order/prescription for specified DMEPOS items were codified in 42 CFR 410.38. The information in the November 2019 final rule related to the creation and maintenance of the Master List is codified at 42 CFR 414.234. The November 2019 final rule also includes information related to the prior authorization process, as initially outlined in the December 30, 2015 final rule titled “Medicare Program; Prior Authorization Process for Certain Durable Medical Equipment, Prosthetics, and Supplies” (80 FR 81674).
The Master List was last updated on May 13, 2024 (89 FR 41324) and currently includes 512 items. The Master list is available on the CMS website at:
In 2024, CMS published the most recent iteration of the Required Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery List. There are currently 75 items on the list, including 46 PMDs that were included per statute. This list is also available on the CMS website
The Required Prior Authorization List was last updated in 2024 and currently includes 67 items. All the lists discussed in this notice are available on the CMS website at:
This document serves to update three separate lists. First, it provides an update to the Master List. Next, this document updates the items included on the Required Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery List. Finally, this document updates items on the Required Prior Authorization List.
The Master List includes items that appear on the DMEPOS Fee Schedule and meet one of the following criteria, as stated in 42 CFR 414.234(b)(1):
• Have an average purchase fee of $500 or greater that is adjusted annually for inflation, or an average monthly rental fee schedule of $50 or greater that is adjusted annually for inflation, or items identified as accounting for at least 1.5 percent of Medicare expenditures for all DMEPOS items over a recent 12-month period, that are also—
++ Identified in a Government Accountability Office (GAO) or Department of Health and Human Services Office of Inspector General (OIG) report that is national in scope and published in 2015 or later as having a high rate of fraud or unnecessary utilization; or
++ Listed in the 2018 or subsequent year Comprehensive Error Rate Testing (CERT) Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report as having a high improper payment rate.
• Any items with at least 1,000 claims and $1 million in payments during a recent 12-month period that are determined to have aberrant billing patterns and lack explanatory contributing factors (for example, new technology or coverage policies that may require time for providers and suppliers to be educated on billing policies). Items with aberrant billing patterns would be identified as those
++ Double the percentage change of all DMEPOS claim payments for items that meet the previous claim and payment criteria, from the preceding 12-month period; or
++ Exceeding a 30 percent increase in payments for the items from the preceding 12-month period.
• Any items statutorily requiring a face-to-face encounter, a written order prior to delivery, or prior authorization.
In the regulation at § 414.234(b)(2) and the November 2019 final rule noted previously, the maintenance process of the Master List is described as follows:
• The Master List will be updated annually, and more frequently as needed (for example, to address emerging billing trends), and to reflect the thresholds specified in the regulations.
• Items on the DMEPOS Fee Schedule that meet the payment threshold criteria set forth in § 414.234(b)(1) are added to the list when the item is also listed in the CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report published after 2020, or in an OIG or GAO report published after 2020, and items not meeting the cost thresholds (originally set at $500 for purchases and $50 for rentals and adjusted for inflation) may still be added based on findings of aberrant billing patterns.
• Items are removed from the Master List 10 years after the date the item was added, unless the item was identified in an OIG report, GAO report, or having been identified in the CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report as having a high improper payment rate, within the 5-year period preceding the anticipated date of expiration.
• Items are removed from the list sooner than 10 years if the purchase amount drops below the payment threshold.
• Items already on the Master List that are identified on a subsequent OIG, GAO, or CERT report will remain on the list for 10 years from the publication date of the new report.
• Items on the Master List are updated when the HCPCS codes representing an item have been discontinued and cross walked to an equivalent item.
• We will notify the public of any additions and deletions from the Master List by posting a notification in the
This document provides the annual update to the Master List of DMEPOS Items Potentially Subject to a Face-to-Face Encounter and Written Order Prior to Delivery and/or Prior Authorization Requirements stated in the November 2019 final rule (84 FR 60648). As noted previously, we adjust the “payment threshold” each year for inflation. Specifically, in accordance with 42 CFR 414.234(b)(1)(i) the $500 average purchase fee threshold and the $50 average monthly rental fee threshold is adjusted using the consumer price index for all urban consumers (CPI-U), reduced by the 10-year moving average of changes in annual economy-wide private nonfarm business multifactor productivity (MFP) as projected by the Secretary for the 10-year period ending with the applicable fiscal year, year, cost reporting period, or other annual period.
In accordance with the statutory sections 1834(a)(14), 1834(h)(4) and 1842(s)(1)(B) of the Act, certain DMEPOS fee schedule amounts are updated for calendar year (CY) 2025,
For CY 2025, the adjusted purchase price threshold is $602, and the adjusted monthly rental fee threshold is $61. We calculated this by applying the 2.4 percent update factor to the CY 2024 average price threshold of $588, resulting in a CY 2025 adjusted payment threshold of $602.11 ($588 × 1.024), and to the CY 2024 average monthly rental fee of $60, resulting in an adjusted payment threshold of $61.44 ($60 × 1.024). Rounding to the nearest whole dollar, these figures are $602 and $61.
We are also adding a total of 18 HCPCS codes (see Table 1) meeting the criteria outlined previously to the Master List. Of these 18 HCPCS codes, 8 are added because these items meet the updated payment threshold and are listed in an OIG or GAO report of a national scope or a CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report, or both; and 10 are being added for aberrant billing patterns. The codes added due to aberrant billing patterns represents items for which data show suppliers submitted at least 1,000 claims and received at least $1 million in payments during the 12-month periods from July 2023 to June 2024. There was more than a 30 percent increase in payments for each item from the preceding 12-month period. CMS did not identify explanatory contributing factors for the aberrant billing.
Items are removed from the Master List 10 years after the date the item was added, unless the item was identified in an OIG report, GAO report, or has been identified in the CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report as having a high improper payment rate, within the 5-year period preceding the anticipated date of expiration. Additionally, items are removed from the list sooner than 10-year timeframe if the purchase or monthly rental amount drops below the payment threshold. There are no HCPCS codes being removed from the Master List for the CY 2025 update.
The full updated Master List is available in the Downloads & Links section of the following CMS website at:
PMDs are included on the F2F/WOPD List per statutory obligation. For the other DMEPOS items, we consider factors such as operational limitations, item utilization, cost-benefit analysis (for example, comparing the cost of review versus the anticipated amount of improper payment identified), emerging trends (for example, billing patterns, medical review findings), vulnerabilities identified in official agency reports, or other analysis.
When selecting these items, we balance our program integrity goals with the needs of beneficiaries to ensure the appropriate application and oversight of the face-to-face encounter requirements. In consideration of access issues, we note that the regulation 42 CFR 410.38 allows for use of telehealth, as defined in 42 CFR 410.78 and 414.65, when appropriate to meet our coverage requirements for beneficiaries.
Consistent with § 410.38(d), the face-to-face encounter must be documented in the pertinent portion of the medical record (for example, history, physical examination, diagnostic tests, summary of findings, progress notes, treatment plans or other sources of information that may be appropriate). The supporting documentation must include subjective and objective beneficiary specific information used for diagnosing, treating, or managing a clinical condition for which the DMEPOS item(s) is ordered. Upon request by CMS or its review contractors, a supplier must submit additional documentation to support and substantiate the medical necessity for the DMEPOS item.
Prior to publication of this
Based on our regulatory authority at 42 CFR 410.38, this
We continue to believe additional practitioner oversight of beneficiaries in need of items included on the F2F/WOPD List will help further our program integrity goals of reducing fraud, waste, and abuse. It helps ensure beneficiary receipt of items specific to their medical needs, as the written order/prescription must be communicated to the supplier prior to delivery. For such items, we continue to require the treating practitioner to have a face-to-face encounter with the beneficiary within the 6 months preceding the date of the written order/prescription.
The F2F/WOPD List is available on the following CMS website at:
The Required Prior Authorization List specified in § 414.234(c)(1) is selected from the Master List (as described in § 414.234(b)), and those selected items require prior authorization as a condition of payment. As stated in § 414.234(c), we inform the public of those DMEPOS items on the Required Prior Authorization List in the
We are updating the Required Prior Authorization List to include the addition of seven HCPCS codes (See Table 3). To assist stakeholders in preparing for implementation of the prior authorization program, we are providing 90 days' notice.
The following five HCPCS codes for orthoses and two HCPCS codes for pneumatic compression devices are added to the Required Prior Authorization List:
We believe prior authorization of these seven additional HCPCS codes will help further our program integrity goals of crushing fraud, waste, and abuse, while also protecting access to care.
Orthoses have been identified by the CERT program as one of the top 20 DMEPOS service types with improper payments over the past several years. Orthoses have had an improper payment rate ranging from 35.2-57.5 percent, with projected improper payments ranging between $91 to $178 million. In 2019, the Department of Justice (DOJ) announced federal indictments and law enforcement actions stemming from fraudulent claims submitted for medically unnecessary back, shoulder, wrist, and knee braces. Administrative actions were taken against 130 DMEPOS companies that were enticing Medicare beneficiaries with offers of low or no-cost orthotic braces. The investigation found that some DMEPOS companies and licensed medical professionals allegedly participated in health care fraud schemes involving more than $1.2 billion in loss.
In recent years, pneumatic compression devices have been a concern due to continually high improper payment rates, having been identified in CMS' CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data reports (2021 to 2024) as having improper payment rates ranging from 61.5 to 78.9 percent with projected improper payments ranging from $29,605,954 to $41,580,669. In particular, there has been a significant increase in improper payments due to medical necessity. In 2020, the error rate due to medical necessity was zero percent; however, in 2024, it was 37.1 percent, demonstrating that additional program integrity action is warranted.
These codes will be subject to the requirements of the prior authorization program for certain DMEPOS items as outlined in § 414.234. We will implement a prior authorization program for the five newly added orthoses and the two pneumatic compression devices nationwide, beginning on the date specified in the
The prior authorization program for the remaining 67 HCPCS codes currently subject to the DMEPOS prior authorization requirement will continue uninterrupted. Prior to providing an item on the Required Prior Authorization List to the beneficiary and submitting the claim for processing, a requester must submit a prior authorization request. The request must include evidence that the item complies with all applicable Medicare coverage, coding, and payment rules. Consistent with § 414.234(d), such evidence must include the written order/prescription, relevant information from the beneficiary's medical record, and relevant supplier-produced documentation. After receipt of all applicable required Medicare documentation, CMS or one of its review contractors will conduct a medical review and communicate a decision that provisionally affirms or non-affirms the request.
We will issue specific prior authorization guidance for these additional items in sub regulatory communications, final timelines customized for the DMEPOS item subject to prior authorization and for communicating a provisionally affirmed or non-affirmed decision to the requester. In the December 30, 2015 final rule (80 FR 81674), we stated that this approach to final timelines provides flexibility to develop a process that involves fewer days, as may be appropriate, and allows us to safeguard beneficiary access to care. If at any time we become aware that the prior authorization process is creating barriers to care, we can suspend the program. For example, we will review questions and complaints from consumers and providers that come through regular sources such as 1-800-Medicare.
The updated Required Prior Authorization List is available in the Downloads & Links section of the following CMS website at:
This document provides updates to the Master List, the Required Face-to-Face and Written Order Prior to Delivery List, and the Required Prior Authorization List.
A total of 18 HCPCS codes (see Table 1) meeting the criteria outlined previously are added to the Master List. Of these 18 HCPCS codes, 8 are added because these items meet the updated payment threshold and are listed in an OIG or GAO report of a national scope, a CERT Medicare Fee-for-Service Supplemental Improper Payment Data report, or both; and 10 are being added for aberrant billing patterns. There are no HCPCS codes being removed from the Master List for the CY 2025 update.
Eight HCPCS codes (see Table 2) are being added to the F2F/WOPD List. The selected HCPCS codes are all related to oxygen and its delivery systems. The updates to the F2F/WOPD List do not constitute information collections requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
A total of seven HCPCS codes (see Table 3) are selected for addition to the Required Prior Authorization List. Of these seven HCPCS codes, five are orthoses items, and two are pneumatic compression device items. The remaining 67 HCPCS codes currently subject to the DMEPOS prior authorization requirement, will continue uninterrupted.
There is an information collection burden associated with the DMEPOS prior authorization program is currently approved by OMB under control number 0938-1293 (CMS-10524). The control number accounts for the burden associated with the addition of items to the Required Prior Authorization Lists and assumes an annual burden of approximately $8.4 million for providers to comply with the prior authorization requirement.
We have examined the impacts of this regulatory notice as required by Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review”; Executive Order 13132, “Federalism“; Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”; Executive Order 14192, “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation”; the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (Pub. L. 96-354); section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act; section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4); and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select those regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as any regulatory action that is likely to result in a regulatory notice that may: (1) have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the
A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for a regulatory action that is significant under section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866. This regulatory notice is not significant and does not reach the economic threshold and thus is not considered a major regulatory notice.
Per our analysis, the additional items being added to the prior authorization program have an estimated net savings of $32.1 million. Gross savings is based upon a 20 percent reduction in the total amount paid for claims in CY 2022. We deducted from the gross savings the anticipated cost for performing the prior authorization reviews to estimate the net savings. Our gross savings estimate of 20 percent is based on previous results from other prior authorization programs, including prior authorization of other DMEPOS items.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Most hospitals and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by nonprofit status or by having revenues of less than $9.0 million to $47.0 million in any 1 year. Individuals and States are not included in the definition of a small entity. We are not preparing an analysis for the RFA because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this regulatory notice will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare an RIA if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 604 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area for Medicare payment regulations and has fewer than 100 beds. We are not preparing an analysis for section 1102(b) of the Act because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this regulatory notice will not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2025, that threshold is approximately $187 million. This regulatory notice will have no consequential effect on State, local, or tribal governments or on the private sector.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule or other regulatory document) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. Since this regulatory notice does not impose any costs on State or local governments, the requirements of Executive Order 13132 are not applicable.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this notice was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Dr. Mehmet Oz, having reviewed and approved this document, authorizes Evell J. Barco Holland who is the Federal Register Liaison, to electronically sign this document for purposes of publication in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS announces that the quotas for the Atlantic surfclam and ocean quahog fisheries for 2026 will remain status quo. NMFS also suspends the minimum size limit for Atlantic surfclams for the 2026 fishing year. Regulations for these fisheries require NMFS to notify the public of the allowable harvest levels for Atlantic surfclams and ocean quahogs from the Exclusive Economic Zone even if the previous year's quota specifications remain unchanged. The 2026 quotas were previously announced as projected values. This action confirms the final quotas are unchanged from those projections. This action continues to provide sustainable fishing opportunities to these fisheries.
Effective January 13, 2026, through December 31, 2026. Applicable beginning January 1, 2026.
Douglas Potts, Fishery Policy Analyst, 978-281-9341.
The Atlantic Surfclam and Ocean Quahog Fishery Management Plan (FMP) requires that NMFS issue a notice in the
In addition, the regulations at 50 CFR 648.75(b)(3) allow the Regional Administrator to annually suspend the minimum size limit for Atlantic surfclams unless discard, catch, and biological sampling data indicate that 30 percent or more of the Atlantic surfclams have a shell length less than 4.75 inches (121 millimeters (mm)) and the overall reduced size is not attributable to harvest from beds where growth of the individual clams has been reduced because of density-dependent factors. The default minimum size limit is intended to prevent the fishery from harvesting too many small clams such that it could harm the overall population. The size limit is unnecessary if small clams are not a significant portion of overall catch. At its June 2025 meeting, the Council reviewed recent developments in the fishery and recommended the Regional Administrator once again suspend the minimum size limit for Atlantic surfclams for the 2026 fishing year. Commercial surfclam data for 2025 indicated that 10.5 percent of the overall
Based on the information available, the Regional Administrator concurs with the Council's recommendation and is suspending the minimum size limit for Atlantic surfclams for the upcoming fishing year (January 1 through December 31, 2026).
NMFS is issuing this rule pursuant to section 305(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. In a previous action taken pursuant to section 304(b), the FMP authorized NMFS to take this action pursuant to MSA section 305(d). See 50 CFR 648.72. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, has determined that this rule is consistent with the Atlantic Surfclam and Ocean Quahog FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.
This action does not introduce any new reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements. This rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with other Federal rules.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), there is good cause to waive prior notice and an opportunity for public comment on this action, as notice and comment would be unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. Similarly, the agency finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effective date pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This rule is routine and constitutes the implementation of a rule that has already received notice and comment. The public was given the opportunity to comment on the proposed rule for the 2021-2026 specifications (86 FR 9901, February 17, 2021), including the projected 2026 specifications, which remain unchanged. Delaying this action would prolong public uncertainty about the final quotas for the 2026 fishing year and could delay issuance of 2026 Individual Transferable Quota cage tags to quota shareholders. The public and industry participants expect this action because we previously alerted the public that we would conduct this review in interim years of the multi-year specifications and announce the final quotas before or as close as possible to the January 1 start of the fishing year. This rule could not be published earlier because of the time necessary to collect data and conduct the analysis to support suspending the minimum size limit for Atlantic surfclams.
This rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866 because it contains no implementing regulations.
This final rule is not an Executive Order 14192 regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
Because prior notice and opportunity for public comment are not required for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability of fishery management plan amendment; request for comments.
NMFS announces that the New England Fishery Management Council (Council) has transmitted Amendment 25 (Revised) to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan (FMP) to the Secretary of Commerce for review. If approved, Amendment 25 would revise the stocks of Atlantic cod managed in the FMP and include measures in the FMP necessary to manage four stocks of Atlantic cod in U.S. waters. The Council has deemed this action necessary to incorporate the best scientific information available from the most recent Research Track Assessment of Atlantic Cod and establish associated management measures under the FMP. This notice is intended to alert the public to this action and provide an opportunity for comment.
Comments on Amendment 25 must be received on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2025-1230, by the following method:
•
Electronic copies of Amendment 25 may be obtained from
Heather Nelson, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9334,
The Council manages the groundfish fishery under the Northeast Multispecies FMP. Since its creation in 1985, the FMP has been based on scientific information indicating that Atlantic cod consist of two biological stock units: Gulf of Maine cod and Georges Bank cod. Recent scientific information indicating that Atlantic cod is more appropriately considered to consist of four biological stocks was explored in the 2023 Research Track Assessment of Atlantic Cod (See
In April of 2024, the Council began development of Amendment 25 to revise the FMP to reflect four stocks of Atlantic cod defined in the 2023 Research Track Assessment of Atlantic Cod. The Council also initiated an action at that time, Framework Adjustment 69 to the FMP (Framework 69), to address implementing measures for those four stocks that would be necessary to prevent overfishing and ensure accountability as required by the Magnuson-Stevens Act, including maximum sustainable yield, optimum yield, status determination criteria, and accountability measures. The Council developed Framework 69 in connection with, and dependent on, Amendment 25. After the transmittal of Amendment 25 from the Council, NMFS published a Notice of Availability on March 5, 2025, in the
The Council has subsequently revised Amendment 25 to incorporate management measures that were previously separated into Framework 69 and address the reasons for disapproval. At its September 2025 meeting, the Council voted to adopt and resubmit the revised Amendment 25 to NMFS for review and approval. To support the
After reviewing the National Standard guidelines implementing the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and NMFS's recommendations in its May 15, 2025, letter, the Council recommended in the revised Amendment 25 that the four new Atlantic cod stocks in the FMP be:
• A new stock unit of Eastern Gulf of Maine (EGOM) cod;
• A new stock unit of Western Gulf of Maine (WGOM) cod;
• A revised stock unit of Georges Bank (GB) cod; and
• A new stock unit of Southern New England (SNE) cod.
The overall geographic area managed under Amendment 25 would remain unchanged and would continue to encompass all Atlantic cod in U.S. waters (see table 1 and figure 1).
The Council also recommended status determination criteria, reference points, and implementing regulations for four stocks of Atlantic cod intended to achieve optimum yield, prevent overfishing, and ensure accountability. These are:
• Regulatory definitions for the stock areas for each of the four cod stocks;
• Status Determination Criteria for the four cod stocks;
• Specifications for the four cod stocks for fishing year 2026;
• An apportionment method for setting the WGOM cod commercial sub-annual catch limit;
• Management uncertainty buffers for the four cod stocks;
• Recreational sub-annual catch limits for WGOM and SNE cod;
• Common pool trimester total allowable catch (TAC) distributions, TAC closure areas, and baseline common pool trip limits for the four cod stocks;
• Recreational measures for SNE cod; and
• A regulatory process for the Regional Administrator to set recreational measures for GB and EGOM cod for fishing year 2026.
The FMP specifies the management measures for 13 groundfish species (cod, haddock, yellowtail flounder, pollock, plaice, witch flounder, white hake, windowpane flounder, Atlantic halibut, winter flounder, redfish, ocean pout, and Atlantic wolffish) off the New England and Mid-Atlantic coasts. Some of these species (cod, haddock, yellowtail flounder, winter flounder, and windowpane flounder) are further sub-divided into individual stocks that are attributed to different geographic areas.
Section 301 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act (16 U.S.C. 1801
NMFS welcomes comments on the proposed FMP amendment through the end of the 60-day comment period. For public comments to be considered in the approval or disapproval decision on Amendment 25, those comments must be received by the last day of the comment period on Amendment 25. All comments received by the end of the Amendment 25 comment period will be considered in the approval or disapproval decision.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
Notice of special closed meeting.
The ASC is convening a Special Closed Meeting to discuss and take vote on personnel matters, pursuant to section 1104(b) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3333(b)).
Rose Electronics Distributing Company, LLC submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board (the Board) for its facility in San Jose, California within FTZ 18. The notification conforming to the requirements of the Board's regulations (15 CFR 400.22) was received on January 7, 2025.
Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ production activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status material(s)/component(s) and specific finished product(s) described in the submitted notification (summarized below) and subsequently authorized by the Board. The benefits that may stem from conducting production activity under FTZ procedures are explained in the background section of the Board's website—accessible via
The proposed finished products include: Custom rechargeable lithium-ion battery pack assemblies; Primary (non-rechargeable) battery pack assemblies; Smart rechargeable battery packs with integrated firmware/software; Battery packs with integrated communication modules (SMBus, CAN, BLE, Wi-Fi); Rechargeable battery packs bundled with chargers or accessories; Standalone rechargeable battery cells (for distribution); Standalone battery management systems (BMS); Modular energy storage systems (ESS) for stationary, commercial, or grid applications; Integrated energy storage systems with power conversion (inverters/rectifiers); Swappable or removable battery modules for EV, robotics, or industrial platforms; Vehicle-grade battery pack assemblies for electric mobility applications; Micro-battery systems and wearable power modules; Battery energy storage cabinets with integrated control and monitoring panels; and Battery systems integrated into uninterruptible power supply (UPS) units (duty rate ranges from 2.70 to 3.40%).
The proposed foreign-status materials/components include: Lithium-ion rechargeable cells; Primary non-rechargeable battery cells; Nickel-cadmium rechargeable cells; Lead-acid storage battery cells; Bare printed circuit boards; Battery management system printed circuit board (PCB) assemblies; Microprocessors; Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM) chips; Operational Amplifiers; Logic Integrated Circuits; Metal-oxide semiconductor field-effect transistor (MOSFET) switching transistors; Diodes; Bipolar junction transistors; Controller Area Network (CAN) Interface Modules; System Management Bus (SMBus) Communication Interface Modules; Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) Communication Modules; Wi-Fi communication modules; Fuses; Resettable positive temperature coefficient protector (PTC) devices; Thermal fuses; Circuit breakers; Surge protectors; Temperature sensors; Voltage sensors; Current sensors; Electrical connectors; Wire-to-board connectors; Terminal lugs and contacts; Insulated wire and cable; Wiring harnesses; Copper winding wire; Plastic insulation films; Plastic parts for battery assemblies; Aluminum battery housings; Steel Mounting Brackets; DC-DC converters; AC-DC power supplies; Battery chargers; Rectifiers; Thermal interface materials; Epoxy-Based Potting compounds; Silicone-Based Potting compounds; Epoxy-Based adhesives; Silicone-Based adhesives; Acrylic-Based adhesives; Label stock; Shrink-wrap tubing; Audible buzzers/alarms; and Mechanical molds (duty rate ranges from duty-free to 5.30%). The request indicates that certain materials/components are subject to duties under section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962 (section 232) or section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 (section 301), depending on the country of origin. The applicable section 232 and section 301 decisions require subject merchandise to be admitted to FTZs in privileged foreign status (19 CFR 146.41).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary and sent to:
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection in the
For further information, contact John Frye at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of steel concrete reinforcing bar (rebar) from Algeria. The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Applicable January 13, 2026.
Shane Subler or Henry Wolfe, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6241 and (202) 482-0574, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on June 30, 2025.
Due to the lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation,
The product covered by this investigation is rebar from Algeria. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, Commerce preliminarily determines that there is a subsidy,
Commerce notes that, in making these findings, it relied on facts available and, because it finds that one or more respondents did not act to the best of their ability to respond to Commerce's requests for information, it drew an adverse inference where appropriate in selecting from among the facts otherwise available.
Sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act state that Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for companies not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated subsidy rates established for those companies individually investigated, excluding any zero and
Pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, if the individual estimated countervailable subsidy rates established for all exporters and producers individually examined are zero,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist:
In accordance with section 703(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of rebar from Algeria, as described in Appendix I to this notice, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.
Because the non-responsive companies did not participate in this investigation and because the Government of Algeria did not provide the information Commerce requested, Commerce preliminarily determines each of these parties have been uncooperative, and it will not conduct verification.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2)(iii) and (d)(2)(iii), we request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether imports of rebar from Algeria are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is steel concrete reinforcing bar imported in either straight length or coil form (rebar) regardless of metallurgy, length, diameter, or grade or lack thereof.
The subject merchandise includes rebar that has been further processed in the subject country or a third country, including but not limited to cutting, grinding, galvanizing, painting, coating, or any other processing
Specifically excluded are plain rounds (
The subject merchandise is classifiable in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) primarily under subheadings 7213.10.0000, 7214.20.0000, and 7228.30.8010. The subject merchandise may also enter under other HTSUS subheadings including 221.00.0017, 7221.00.0018, 7221.00.0030, 7221.00.0045, 7222.11.0001, 7222.11.0057, 7222.11.0059, 7222.30.0001, 7227.20.0080, 7227.90.6030, 7227.90.6035, 7227.90.6040, 7228.20.1000, and 7228.60.6000. HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of steel concrete reinforcing bar (rebar) from Egypt. The period of investigation is January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Applicable January 13, 2026.
Lingjun Wang, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2316.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). On June 30, 2025, Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation.
Due to the lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation,
The product covered by this investigation is rebar from Egypt. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, Commerce preliminarily determines that there is a subsidy,
In accordance with section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(4), Commerce is aligning the final determination of this CVD investigation with the final determination in the companion less-than-fair value (LTFV) investigation of rebar from Egypt based on the petitioner's request.
Sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that, in the preliminary determination, Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for companies not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated subsidy rates established for those companies individually
In this investigation, Commerce preliminarily calculated an individual estimated countervailable subsidy rate for the Ezz Group that is not zero,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist for the period of investigation January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2024:
In accordance with section 703(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of rebar from Egypt, as described in Appendix I to this notice, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed in connection with this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments, excluding scope comments, may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2)(iii) and (d)(2)(iii), we request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine, before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination, whether imports of rebar from Egypt are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is steel concrete reinforcing bar imported in either straight length or coil form (rebar) regardless of metallurgy, length, diameter, or grade or lack thereof.
The subject merchandise includes rebar that has been further processed in the subject countries or a third country, including but not limited to cutting, grinding, galvanizing, painting, coating, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of this investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the rebar.
Specifically excluded are plain rounds (
The subject merchandise is classifiable in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) primarily under item numbers 7213.10.0000, 7214.20.0000, and 7228.30.8010. The subject merchandise may also enter under other HTSUS numbers including 7221.00.0017, 7221.00.0018, 7221.00.0030, 7221.00.0045, 7222.11.0001, 7222.11.0057, 7222.11.0059, 7222.30.0001, 7227.20.0080, 7227.90.6030, 7227.90.6035, 7227.90.6040, 7228.20.1000, and 7228.60.6000. HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of steel concrete reinforcing bar (rebar) from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam) during the period of investigation, January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Applicable January 13, 2026.
Christopher Williams or Erin Howard, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5166 and (202) 482-3453, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this countervailing duty (CVD) investigation on June 30, 2025.
Due to the lapse in appropriations and Federal Government shutdown, on November 14, 2025, Commerce tolled all deadlines in administrative proceedings by 47 days.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
The product covered by this investigation is rebar from Vietnam. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable,
In accordance with section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(4), Commerce is aligning the final determination of this CVD investigation with the final determination in the companion less-than-fair value (LTFV) investigation of rebar from Vietnam based on the petitioner's request.
Sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that, in the preliminary determination, Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for companies not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated subsidy rates established for those companies individually examined, excluding any rates that are zero,
In this investigation, Commerce preliminarily calculated an individual estimated countervailable subsidy rate for Hoa Phat Group Joint Stock Company that is not zero,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist:
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of rebar from Vietnam, as described in Appendix I of this notice, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed in connection with this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2)(iii) and (d)(2)(iii), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and, whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues to be discussed. Oral presentations at the hearing will be limited to issues raised in the briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of its determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine, before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination, whether imports of rebar from Vietnam are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is steel concrete reinforcing bar imported in either straight length or coil form (rebar) regardless of metallurgy, length, diameter, or grade or lack thereof.
The subject merchandise includes rebar that has been further processed in the subject countries or a third country, including but not limited to cutting, grinding, galvanizing, painting, coating, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of this investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the rebar.
Specifically excluded are plain rounds (
The subject merchandise is classifiable in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) primarily under item numbers 7213.10.0000, 7214.20.0000, and 7228.30.8010. The subject merchandise may also enter under other HTSUS numbers including 7221.00.0017, 7221.00.0018, 7221.00.0030, 7221.00.0045, 7222.11.0001, 7222.11.0057, 7222.11.0059, 7222.30.0001, 7227.20.0080, 7227.90.6030, 7227.90.6035, 7227.90.6040, 7228.20.1000, and 7228.60.6000. HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) will hold a meeting of its Ad Hoc Highly Migratory Species (HMS) Fisheries Innovation Workgroup (FIW) to discuss procedures to facilitate the development of new HMS gears and achieve the goals of the HMS Roadmap. This meeting is open to the public.
The meeting will be held Thursday, January 29 through Friday, January 30, 2026. The meeting will start each day at 8:30 a.m. and conclude at 5 p.m. Pacific Standard Time or until business for the day has been completed.
The meeting will be held in the Stenella Room of the Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC), 8901 La Jolla Shores Drive, La Jolla, California. Phone: (858) 546-7000. The meeting will not be broadcast. Specific meeting information will be provided in the meeting announcement on the Pacific Council's website (see
Kerry Griffin, Pacific Council; telephone: 503-820-2409.
The purposes of this meeting are to (1) finalize recommended metrics and benchmarks for evaluating performance of exempted fishing permit (EFP) activities, (2) finalize recommendations for EFP guidance, and (3) develop recommended modifications to Pacific Council Operating Procedure 20 (consideration of HMS EFPs). The FIW will develop a report for consideration at the March 2026 Pacific Council meeting.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting will take place in a Federal facility. Visitors who are foreign nationals (defined as a person who is not a citizen or national of the United States) will require additional security clearance to access the SWFSC. Foreign
Starting on January 1, 2026, Federal facilities (including leased facilities) will only accept REAL ID-compliant forms of identification. Visitors with state-issued identification must now present a REAL ID or a different form of government-issued photo identification, such as:
• A passport.
• An Enhanced Driver's License.
• A Federal employee, military, or veteran identification card.
(This list is not all-inclusive.)
At this time, mobile driver's licenses are not authorized for acceptance at any Department-occupied facility in place of REAL ID compliant credentials.
Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt
Dated: January 8, 2026.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
This action serves as a notice that NMFS, on behalf of the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary), has found that Atlantic herring continues to be overfished; the West Coast Klamath River fall-run Chinook salmon stock continues to be overfished; and the northern subpopulation of Pacific Sardine is now overfished. NMFS, on behalf of the Secretary, is required to provide this notice whenever it determines that a stock or stock complex is subject to overfishing, overfished, or approaching an overfished condition.
Evelyn Strombom, (301) 427-8633.
Pursuant to section 304(e)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1854(e)(2), NMFS, on behalf of the Secretary, must notify councils, and publish a notice in the
NMFS has determined that Atlantic herring continues to be overfished. This determination is based on the most recent assessment, completed in 2024 using data through 2023, that found the spawning stock biomass is less than the minimum stock size threshold (MSST), which supports the determination that the stock remains overfished. NMFS continues to work with the New England Fishery Management Council to rebuild this stock.
NMFS has determined that the West Coast Klamath River fall-run Chinook salmon stock continues to be overfished. This determination is based on the most recent assessment, completed in 2025 using data from 2022-2024, that found the 3-year geometric mean escapement is less than the MSST, which supports the determination that the stock remains overfished. NMFS continues to work with the Pacific Fishery Management Council to rebuild this stock.
NMFS has determined that the northern subpopulation of Pacific Sardine is again overfished. This determination is based on the most recent assessment, completed in 2025 using data through 2024, that found the age 1+ biomass is less than the MSST, which supports a determination that the stock is overfished. NMFS continues to work with the Pacific Fishery Management Council to rebuild this stock.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-0U.
(i)
(ii)
Date: December 29, 2023
Implementing Agency: Army
Funding Source: Foreign Military Financing
(iii)
This transmittal notifies the inclusion of an additional ten thousand (10,000) M107 and/or M795 155mm High Explosive projectiles. Also included are the following non-MDE items: various 155mm projectiles; publications; technical documentation; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, technical and logistics support services; studies and surveys; and other related elements of logistical and program support. The total value of the new items and services is $312.5 million. The net cost of MDE will increase by $20.5 million, resulting in a revised MDE value of $28 million. The net cost of non-MDE will increase by $292 million, resulting in a revised non-MDE value of $432 million. The estimated total case value will increase by $312.5 million to $460 million.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is UNCLASSIFIED.
(vii)
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-50, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
Funding Source: Foreign Military Financing
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Egypt has requested to buy equipment and services including four (4) Component Based Total Ship System, 21st Century (COMBATSS-21) combat management systems to modernize its four fast missile craft (FMC). Also included are air and surface surveillance radars; chaff decoy systems; electro-optical/infrared sensor systems; electronic warfare systems; navigation data distribution systems; communications intelligence systems; fire control radar systems; 76 mm gun upgrades; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost is $625 million.
This proposed sale will support United States (U.S.) foreign policy and national security objectives by helping to improve the security of a friendly country that continues to be an important force for political stability and economic growth I the Middle East.
The proposed sale will improve Egypt's capability to meet current and future threats by increasing the tactical and operational capabilities of the Egyptian Navy to support strategic maritime security objectives. Egypt will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractors will be Lockheed Martin, located in Manassas, VA, and L3Harris, located in Northampton, MA. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Egypt.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Component Based Total Ship System, 21st Century (COMBATSS-21) is an Aegis-derived combat management system. It is the backbone of the ship's mission system and integrates the radar, electro-optical infrared cameras, gun fire control system, countermeasures, and short-range anti-air missiles to provide the decision support functions to designate in real time the optimum weapon system for the detected threat.
2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that Egypt can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Egypt.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 25-27, Policy Justification, and Sensitive of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Ireland has requested to buy thirty-six (36) Lightweight Command Launch Units (LwCLUs) that will be added to a previously implemented case whose value was under the congressional notification threshold. The original Foreign Military Sales (FMS) case, valued at $8.7 million ($7.9 million in MDE), included forty-four (44) FGM-148 Javelin missiles. This notification is for a combined total of forty-four (44) FGM-148 Javelin missiles and thirty-six (36) Lightweight Command Launch Units (LwCLUs). The following non-MDE items will also be included: missile containers; U.S. Government technical assistance; Enhanced Producibility Basic Skills Trainers (EPBST); training; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost is $46 million.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the U.S. by improving the security and capabilities of Ireland to support its participation in peacekeeping missions with the United Nations and NATO's Partnership for Peace program.
The proposed sale will enhance Ireland's capability to build its long-term defense capacity to defend its sovereignty and territorial integrity to meet its national defense requirements. Ireland will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractors will be the Javelin Joint Venture between Lockheed Martin, located in Orlando, FL, and RTX Corporation, located in Tucson, AZ. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Ireland.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Javelin Weapon System is a medium-range, man-portable, shoulder-launched, fire-and-forget anti-tank system for infantry, scouts, and combat engineers. It may also be mounted on a variety of platforms including vehicles, aircraft, and watercraft. The system weighs 49.5 pounds and has a maximum range in excess of 2,500 meters. The system is highly lethal against tanks and other systems with conventional and reactive armors and possesses a secondary capability against bunkers.
2. Javelin's key technical feature is the use of fire-and-forget technology that allows the gunner to fire and immediately relocate or take cover. Additional special features are the top attack and direct fire modes, an advanced tandem warhead and imaging infrared seeker, target lock-on before launch, and soft launch from enclosures or covered fighting positions. The Javelin missile also has a minimum smoke motor to decrease the likelihood of detection on the battlefield.
3. The Javelin Weapon System is comprised of two major tactical components, a reusable Light Weight Command Launch Unit (LwCLU) and a missile contained in a disposable launch tube assembly. The LwCLU incorporates an integrated day/night sight that provides target engagement capability in adverse weather and countermeasure environments and may also be used in a stand-alone mode for battlefield surveillance and target detection. The LwCLU's thermal sight is a 3rd generation forward looking infrared sensor. The LwCLU also serves to upload missile software updates.
4. The Javelin missile is autonomously guided to the target using an imaging infrared seeker and adaptive correlation tracking algorithms. This allows the gunner to take cover or reload and engage another target after firing a missile. An onboard flight computer guides the missile to the selected target.
5. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
6. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
7. A determination has been made that Ireland can provide the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
8. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Ireland.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-125, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Japan has requested to buy sixteen (16) AGM-158B/B-2 Joint Air-to-Surface Standoff Missiles with Extended Range (JASSM-ER). The following non-MDE items will also be included: AGM-158 JASSM Dummy Air Training Missiles (DATM) and containers; JASSM Anti-jam Global Positioning System Receivers (JAGR); munitions support and support equipment; spare parts, consumables and accessories, and repair and return support; integration and test support and equipment; classified and unclassified software delivery and support; classified and unclassified
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the U.S. by improving the security of a major ally that is a force for political stability and economic progress in the Indo-Pacific region.
The proposed sale will improve Japan's capability to meet current and future threats by providing stand-off capability via advanced, long-range strike systems for employment on Japan Air Self-Defense Force (JASDF) fighter aircraft, including but not limited to the F-15J and F-35A/B. Japan will have no difficulty absorbing these articles and services into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Lockheed Martin, located in Orlando, FL. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Japan.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The AGM-158B/B-2 Joint Air-to-Surface Standoff Missile with Extended Range (JASSM-ER) All Up Round (AUR) is a low-observable, highly survivable, subsonic cruise missile designed to penetrate next-generation air defense systems enroute to target. The JASSM-ER is designed to kill hard, medium-hardened, soft, and area-type targets. The extended range over the baseline was obtained by going from a turbo jet to a turbo-fan engine and by reconfiguring the fuel tanks for added capacity.
a. The AGM-158B-2 system capabilities include all the capabilities of the AGM-158B. The AGM-158B-2 configuration will have different internal components to address multiple obsolescence issues as well as subcomponent updates to position for M-Code and other potential upgrades. Global Positioning System/Precise Positioning Service (GPS/PPS) to be provided by either Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module (SAASM) or M-Code.
2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that Japan can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Japan.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-80, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Funding Source: National Funds
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia has requested to buy twenty (20) MK 54 MOD 0 Lightweight Torpedo (LWT) all up rounds. The following non-MDE items will also be included: MK 54 MOD 0 LWT spare parts; MK 54 Recoverable Exercise Torpedoes (REXTORP); handling shapes and
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the U.S. by improving the security of a partner country that is a force for political stability and economic progress in the Gulf region.
The proposed sale will improve the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia's capability to deter current and future threats by upgrading its anti-submarine warfare capabilities. The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be RTX Integrated Defense Systems, located in Portsmouth, RI. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this sale will require travel of up to two U.S. Government or up to two contractor representatives to the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia on a temporary basis for program technical support and management oversight.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The MK 54 MOD 0 Lightweight Torpedo is a conventional torpedo that can be launched from surface ships, rotary, and fixed wing aircraft. It is an upgrade from the MK 46 torpedo and has modernized sonar and guidance and control systems. The new guidance and control system uses a mixture of commercial-off-the-shelf and custom-built electronics. The warhead, fuel tank, and propulsion system from the MK 46 torpedo are re-used in the MK 54 MOD 0 configuration with minor modifications.
2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 25-08, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Japan has requested to buy one thousand (1,000) AIM-120D-3 Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missiles (AMRAAM); two hundred (200) AIM-120C-8 AMRAAM;
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the U.S. by improving the security of a major ally that is a force for political stability and economic progress in the Indo-Pacific region.
The proposed sale will improve Japan's capability to meet current and future threats by defending its homeland and U.S. personnel stationed there. Japan will have no difficulty absorbing these articles and services into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be RTX Corporation, located in Tucson, AZ. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Japan.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The AIM-120D-3 series Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) is a supersonic, air-launched, aerial intercept guided missile featuring digital technology and microminiature solid-state electronics. AMRAAM capabilities include look-down/shoot-down, multiple launches against multiple targets, resistance to electronic countermeasures, and interception of high- and low-flying and maneuvering targets. The AIM-120D-3 features a quadrangle target detection device and an electronics unit within the guidance section that performs all radar signal processing, mid-course and terminal guidance, flight control, target detection, and warhead detonation. Precise positioning will be provided by either Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module or M-Code.
2. The AIM-120C-8 AMRAAM is a supersonic, air launched, aerial intercept guided missile featuring digital technology and microminiature solid-state electronics. AMRAAM capabilities to include look-down/shoot-down, multiple launches against multiple targets, resistance to electronic countermeasures, and interception of high- and low-flying and maneuvering targets.
3. The Common Munitions Built-In Test (BIT) Reprogramming Equipment (CMBRE) is used to interface with weapon systems to initiate and report BIT results and upload and download flight software. CMBRE supports multiple munitions platforms with a range of applications that perform preflight checks, periodic maintenance checks, loading of Operational Flight Program data, loading of munitions mission planning data, loading of Global Positioning System cryptographic keys, and declassification of munitions memory.
4. The ADU-891 Adapter Group Test Set provides the physical and electrical interface between the CMBRE and the missile.
5. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
6. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
7. A determination has been made that Japan can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
8. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Japan.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 25-0B.
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Date: January 29, 2019
Military Department: Navy
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On September 12, 2019, Congress was notified by congressional certification transmittal number 0Q-19 of an increase in capability from the Navigation Sensor System Interface (non-MDE) originally notified to the Global Positioning System (GPS)-based Positioning, Navigation, and Timing Service (GPNTS) capability, which is MDE. The total value of the GPNTS was $3,417,596, but the total estimated MDE cost and the total case program value remained the same at $.375 billion and $2.150 billion, respectively.
On December 14, 2023, Congress was notified by congressional certification transmittal number 23-0V of the following MDE items: two (2) AEGIS Weapon Systems; two (2) AN/SPQ-9B Radar Systems; two (2) AN/SLQ-32(V)6 Electronic Warfare Systems; two (2) AN/USQ-140 Multifunctional Information Distribution System (MIDS) on Ship (MOS), Modernization (MOS MOD); two (2) AN/USQ-190 Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio Systems (V5); three (3) Cooperative Engagement Capability (CEC), AN/USG-10s; and one (1) AN/UYQ-120(V) Command and Control Processor (C2P) Technology Refresh System. Also included were AN/SQQ-89 Underwater Sound Equipment Systems; Multi-Function Towed Array Systems; RT-1829 Ultra-High Frequency, Satellite Communications (UHF SATCOM) Terminals; OE-570D Antennas; MK20 Mod 1 Electro-optic/Infrared Sensor Systems; MK160 Mod 23 Gun Weapon Systems; MK-36 Mod 6 Super Rapid Offboard Countermeasures and Decoy Launching System (SRBOC); U.S. Government and contractor representatives technical, engineering, and logistics support services; installation support material; training, tool development, communications equipment, and associated spares; classified and unclassified publications and software;
This transmittal notifies the addition of the following non-MDE items: medium range ballistic missile live fire test targets; short range ballistic missile live fire test targets; additional AEGIS Weapon Systems components, spares, tech documents, and software required for use at Japan's computer test site; additional U.S. Government and contractor representative technical, engineering, test and evaluation, and logistics support services; installation support material; training, tool development, communications equipment, and associated spares; classified and unclassified publications and software; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total value of the new items is $0.67 billion. The non-MDE value will increase by $0.67 billion to $2.776 billion. The estimated total case value will increase by $0.67 billion to a revised $3.39 billion. MDE will remain at $0.614 billion of this total.
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The Sensitivity of Technology Statement contained in the original notification applies to other items reported here.
The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
(vii)
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-100, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Funding Source: Foreign Military Financing
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Egypt has requested to buy AN/TPS-78 long range radar turnkey systems; KIV-78 cryptographic devices; Global Positioning System (GPS) devices with Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Modules (SAASM); spare and repair parts; software and software support; personnel training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, technical, and logistics support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost is $304 million.
This proposed sale will support U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives by helping to improve the security of a friendly country that continues to be an important force for political stability and economic growth I the Middle East.
The proposed sale will improve Egypt's capability to meet current and
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Northrop Grumman Corporation, located in Falls Church, VA. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Egypt.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The KIV-78 is a cryptographic appliqué for Identification Friend or Foe (IFF). It can be loaded with Mode 5 classified elements.
2. The Global Positioning System (GPS) devices with Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module (SAASM) and Precise Positioning Service (PPS) are self-contained navigation systems that provide the following: acceleration, velocity, position, attitude, platform azimuth, magnetic and true heading, altitude, body angular rates, time tags, and coordinated universal time (UTC) synchronized time. SAASM enables the GPS receiver access to the encrypted P (Y or M) signal, providing protection against active spoofing attacks.
3. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
4. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
5. A determination has been made that the Government of Egypt can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
6. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Egypt.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-113 and Policy Justification.
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Funding Source: National Funds
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Kuwait has requested to buy services to support the procurement of maritime and land facilities at the Mohammed Al Ahmed Naval Base, other affiliated locations, the Ras Al Ard Naval Base for Onshore Logistics and an alternate logistics station in Kuwait, as well as construction of a headquarters complex. The following non-MDE items will be included: life cycle design; construction; project management; engineering studies; engineering services; technical support; facility and infrastructure assessments; surveys; planning; programming; design;
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States (U.S.) by helping to improve the infrastructure of a major non-NATO ally that has been an important force for political stability and economic progress in the Middle East.
The proposed sale will improve Kuwait's capability to meet current and future threats by providing onshore logistic support. Kuwait will have no difficulty absorbing this construction and associated services into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor(s) will be determined from approved vendors, likely by competitive acquisitions. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require the assignment of up to twenty U.S. Government or U.S. contractor representatives to Kuwait for a duration of up to twelve years to provide construction management and oversight.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 25-06, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Japan has requested to buy up to one hundred fifty (150) Standard Missile 6 (SM-6) Block I missiles. The following non-MDE items will also be included: MK 21 Mod 3 Vertical Launch System (VLS) canisters; component parts and support equipment; continued Engineering, Integration and Test (EI&T) materiel and support required to produce the SM-6 Block I missiles; special test and handling equipment; training and training equipment and aids; technical publications and data; U.S. Government and contractor engineering and technical assistance, including related studies and analysis support; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost is $900 million.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the U.S. by
The proposed sale will improve Japan's capability to meet current and future threats by allowing the Japan Maritime Self Defense Force (JMSDF) to deploy the latest Standard Missile capabilities from their current and future AEGIS Weapon System (AWS) equipped surface combatants. The proposed sale will further enhance Japan's capability to protect Japan and local allied land forces and will significantly improve Japan's contribution to integrated air missile defense in the Indo-Pacific region. Japan will have no difficulty absorbing these articles and services into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be RTX Corporation, located in Camden, AR. At this time, the U.S. Government is not aware of any offset agreement proposed in connection with this potential sale. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Japan.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Standard Missile-6 (SM-6) is a surface Navy anti-air missile that provides area and ship self-defense. The missile is intended to contribute to raid annihilation by destroying manned fixed and rotary wing aircraft, unmanned aerial systems (UAs), land attack cruise missiles, and anti-ship cruise missiles in flight. It was designed to fulfill the need for a vertically launched, extended range missile compatible with the AEGIS Weapon System to be used against extended range threats at sea, near land, and over land. The SM-6 combines the tested legacy of Standard Missile-2 (SM-2) propulsion and ordnance with an active radio frequency seeker allowing for over-the-horizon engagements, enhanced capability at extended ranges, and increased firepower.
2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that Japan can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Japan.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense (DoD).
Arms sales notice.
The DoD is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Urooj Zahra at (703) 695-6233,
This 36(b) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with attached Transmittal 24-123, Policy Justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Funding Source: Foreign Military Financing ($80 million); National Funds ($20 million)
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
Zambia—Bell 412 Enhanced Performance Exportable Medium-Lift Transport Helicopters
The Republic of Zambia has requested to buy Bell 412 Enhanced Performance exportable medium-lift transport helicopters; radio communication and navigation systems; weather radar and transponder capabilities; qualification and transition training for pilots and maintainers; in-country Contractor Field Service Representatives support; Program Management Reviews; technical assistance and product
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the United States (U.S.) by helping to improve the security of an important partner that continues to be an important force for political stability and economic progress in South Central Africa.
The proposed sale will improve Zambia's capability to conduct peacekeeping and regional security, disaster response, and humanitarian aid missions over long distances and in non-standard weather conditions. Zambia will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Bell Textron, located in Fort Worth, TX. The purchaser typically requires offsets. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Zambia.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Bell 412 is a commercial helicopter with integrated commercial off-the-shelf mission equipment. This sale will not involve the release of sensitive technology. The radio communication systems, navigation systems, weather radar, and transponder capabilities are all U.S. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) certified through supplemental type certificates for civilian airspace usage.
2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is UNCLASSIFIED.
3. A determination has been made that the Republic of Zambia can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
4. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Republic of Zambia.
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing an extension without change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 16, 2026.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, (202) 453-5967.
The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The Department of Education requests extension of this information collection regarding Institutional Eligibility regulations in § 600.9—State
Take notice that on December 18, 2025, Natural Gas Pipeline Company of America LLC (Natural), 3250 Lacey Road, Suite 700, Downers Grove, Illinois 60515-7918, filed an application under sections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization for its Texas-Arkansas Power Project (Project). The Project consists of: (1) abandoning nine compressor units with a total of 30,850 horsepower (hp); (2) installing two new 20,482 ISO hp centrifugal compressor units (40,964 ISO hp total); and (3) installing modified plant yard piping to allow for bi-directional flow through the compressor station. The Project will provide 400,000 dekatherms per day of firm transportation service to Arkansas Electric Cooperative Corporation, an Arkansas based generation and transmission electric cooperative. Natural estimates the total cost of the Project to be $125 million, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, Kinder Morgan, Inc. as Operator of Natural Gas Pipeline Company of America LLC, 2 North Nevada Avenue, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80903, by phone at (719) 667-7517, or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.
Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4)
To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026.
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-46-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at
(2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP26-46-000).
The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.
The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.
Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-46-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP26-46-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, Kinder Morgan, Inc. as Operator of Natural Gas Pipeline Company of America LLC, 2 North Nevada Avenue, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80903 or by email (with a link to the document) at
All timely, unopposed
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of information collection and request for comments.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on the currently approved information collection, FERC-725Z (Mandatory Reliability Standards: IRO Reliability Standards).
Comments on the collection of information are due March 16, 2026.
You may submit your comments (identified by Docket No.
Electronic filing through
•
• For those unable to file electronically, comments may be filed by USPS mail or by hand (including courier) delivery:
○
○
Kayla Williams, (202) 502-6468
The ERO develops proposed Reliability Standards
NERC established the following IRO standards within FERC-725Z:
IRO-001-4 (Reliability Coordination—Responsibilities) purpose is to establish the responsibility of Reliability Coordinators to act or direct other entities to act. Applicable transmission operator, balancing authority, generator operator and distribution provider shall follow the operating instructions from their reliability coordinator or inform the reliability coordinator why they cannot comply.
IRO-002-7 (Reliability Coordination, Monitoring and Analysis) purpose is to provide system operators with the capabilities necessary to monitor and analyze data needed to perform their reliability functions. The requirements of IRO-002-7 define data exchange capabilities, testing functionality, notifications when those capabilities are not available, monitor status at facilities, and some personnel functions. IRO-002-7 does have a WECC Variance to develop a methodology that creates models for performing operational planning analyses and real-time assessments.
Currently effective IRO-009-2 applicable to reliability coordinators and the purpose of the standard is to prevent instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading outages that adversely impact the reliability of the interconnection by ensuring prompt action to prevent or mitigate instances of exceeding Interconnection Reliability Operating Limits (IROLs). The standard mandates that a Reliability Coordinator must have operating processes to prevent IROL exceedance and, if an exceedance is predicted, initiate those processes. It also requires them to mitigate exceedances when they occur and coordinate their actions with neighboring Reliability Coordinators in situations where there is a difference in IROLs.
Additionally, regarding data exchange, NERC cites Reliability Standard IRO-010-5 (Reliability Coordinator Data Specification and Collection) and its stated purpose of preventing instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading outages “by ensuring the Reliability Coordinator has the data it needs to monitor and assess the operation of its Reliability Coordinator Area.” In IRO-010-5 required in the standard that the reliability coordinator must specify the data necessary for it to perform its operational planning analyses and provide the specifications to the entities from which it needs data who then must comply with the data request using a mutually agreeable format and security protocols.
IRO-014-3 purpose is to ensure that each Reliability Coordinator's operations are coordinated such that they will not adversely impact other Reliability Coordinator Areas and to preserve the reliability benefits of interconnected operations. IRO-014-3 standard requires Reliability Coordinators (RCs) to coordinate operating procedures and handle emergencies to ensure interconnected operations remain reliable and do not negatively impact neighboring RC areas.
IRO-017-1 (Outage Coordination) purpose is to ensure that outages are properly coordinated in the Operations Planning time horizon and Near-Term Transmission Planning Horizon. IRO-017-1, known as “Outage Coordination,” establishes requirements for coordinating generation and transmission outages to maintain bulk electric system reliability. Reliability coordinators, planning coordinators, balancing authorities, transmission owners and transmission planners are applicable entities for IRO-017-1.
IRO-018-1(i) (Reliability Coordinator Real-time Reliability Monitoring and Analysis Capabilities), submitted by North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC). IRO-018-1(i) mandates that Reliability Coordinators (RCs) possess real-time monitoring and analysis tools to ensure bulk electric system reliability. This standard, which includes requirements for RCs, aims to enhance system operators' awareness of
NERC observes that the performance of the requirements it cites is premised on the existence of data exchange capabilities, regardless of whether a separate requirement expressly requires the reliability coordinator to have data exchange capabilities in place. In review this 725Z collection for the IRO Reliability Standards, the number of entities/respondents was checked and broken down into the appliable type of entity for each reliability standard. As we continue to combine various work projects associated with the 725Z collection there was an increase in the number of responses from 953 to 2,687. The increase is largely associated with capturing all of the reliability standard applicable entities into this single collection and the single largest contributor was the addition of generator owners in reliability standard IRO-001-4. These adjustments in response count will provide a more accurate representation of all the entities under the 725Z collection. Staff looked at each reliability standard as its own unique project and in doing so eliminated the multiple entity count by making a more accurate representation of the number of responses.
Take notice that on December 29, 2025, Boardwalk Storage Company, LLC (BSC), 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, Texas 77046, filed an application under sections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization for its BSC Amend Certificated Capacity Project (Project). The Project consists of the abandonment of certain storage capacity of Cavern 25 at Boardwalk Storage's Choctaw Gas Storage Facility (Choctaw Facility) located in Iberville Parish, Louisiana, so that the cavern's certificated capacity aligns with the cavern's current physical capabilities, and to amend Boardwalk Storage's certificated capacity to reflect the proposed abandonment. BSC requests that the certificated capacity for the Choctaw Facility be amended from 11.8 billion cubic feet (Bcf) (7.6 Bcf of working gas and 4.2 Bcf of cushion gas), to 9.55 Bcf (6.16 Bcf of working gas and 3.39 Bcf of cushion gas), all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Juan Eligio Jr., Director, Regulatory Affairs, Boardwalk Storage Company, LLC, 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, Texas 77046, by phone at (713) 479-3480, or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.
Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4)
To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026.
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-56-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at
(2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP26-56-000).
The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.
The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.
Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-56-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP26-56-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Juan Eligio Jr., Director Regulatory Affairs, Boardwalk Storage Company, LLC, 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, Texas 77046 or by email (with a link to the document) at
All timely, unopposed
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
On November 25, 2025, Dominion Energy South Carolina, Inc. (DESC) filed a revised application for a non-capacity amendment of the license for the Neal Shoals Hydroelectric Project No. 2315. DESC initially filed the request to amend its license on May 24, 2024; however, on April 15, 2025, DESC requested to place the amendment application in abeyance. On April 12, 2025, Commission staff granted the abeyance. On June 20, 2025, DESC requested a 6-month extension of the abeyance, which Commission staff granted on July 1, 2025. The project is located on the Broad River in South Carolina and occupies federal lands administered by the Sumter National Forest.
The licensee's proposal to replace the four existing turbines in the powerhouse with eight submersible turbine-generator units to be installed at the existing draft tube openings and construct a new substation and underground duct bank at the project remains the same in the revised amendment application. As with the initial proposal, the licensee proposes to decouple the existing generators, which would no longer be needed, and decommission and abandon them in place. The licensee expects the project's generating capacity to increase from 4.4 MW to 5.76 MW (rather than 5.6 MW, as initially proposed) while the hydraulic capacity would remain the same at 3,500 cfs (rather than a reduction in hydraulic capacity to 3,160 cfs, as initially proposed).
On September 30, 2024, the Commission issued a public notice for the initial amendment application. On October 30, 2024, the South Caronia Department of Natural Resources filed comments on the proposal. DESC filed a response to comments on November 8, 2024. Given the substantial similarity between the initial and revised amendment applications, the Commission will not issue a new public notice for the revised amendment application.
This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the project.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Elizabeth Moats at 202-502-6632 or
(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental document that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Argent LNG Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Argent LNG, LLC (Argent LNG) in Lafourche Parish, Louisiana. The Commission will use this environmental document in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public interest.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies regarding the project. As part of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) review process, the Commission takes into account concerns the public may have about proposals and the environmental impacts that could result from its action whenever it considers the issuance of an authorization. This gathering of public input is referred to as “scoping.” The main goal of the scoping process is to focus the analysis in the environmental document on the important environmental issues. Additional information about the Commission's NEPA process is described below in the
By this notice, the Commission requests public comments on the scope of issues to address in the environmental document. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on February 9, 2026. Comments may be submitted in written form. Further details on how to submit comments are provided in the
Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the environmental document. Commission staff will consider all written comments during the preparation of the environmental document.
If you submitted comments on this project to the Commission
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern. Landowner topics of interest are available for viewing on the FERC website (
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. Please carefully follow these instructions so that your comments are properly recorded. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has staff available to assist you at (866) 208-3676 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the Commission. Be sure to reference the project docket number (PF25-11-000) on your letter. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852.
Additionally, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription, which
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Argent LNG plans to site, construct and operate a liquefied natural gas (LNG) production and export facility along the northwest shore of the Port Fourchon Belle Pass Channel (Belle Pass Channel) in Lafourche Parish, Louisiana. The Argent LNG Project would produce up to 25 million ton per annum of LNG for export to U.S. trading partners.
The Argent LNG Project would consist of the following facilities:
• pretreatment systems;
• natural gas liquefication units;
• two aboveground full-containment LNG storage tanks;
• a 350-megawatt natural gas-fired power generation facility;
• marine facilities and two new marine berths capable of accommodating LNG carriers of up to 260,000 cubic meters; and
• a total of 0.7 mile of new dual 16-inch-diameter natural gas interconnect pipelines.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
The new LNG export terminal would be constructed on approximately 269.9 acres within a larger 885.5-acre leased property. The project also includes Marine Facilities that would impact a total of 147.1 acres (127.4 acres within the leased site and 19.7 acres within the Belle Pass Channel), and a total of 0.7 mile of new dual 16-inch-diameter natural gas interconnect pipelines that would tie into the existing Kinetica interstate pipeline system located near the site. Following construction, Argent LNG would maintain about 445 acres for permanent operation of the project's facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored.
Any environmental document issued by Commission staff will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under the relevant general resource areas:
• geology and soils;
• water resources and wetlands;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• threatened and endangered species;
• cultural resources;
• socioeconomics;
• land use;
• air quality and noise; and
• reliability and safety.
Commission staff have already identified several issues that deserve attention based on a preliminary review of the planned facilities and the environmental information provided by Argent LNG. This preliminary list of issues may change based on your comments and our analysis:
• marine transportation;
• socioeconomic effects; and
• facility construction and effects on water resources, wetlands, and marine species.
Commission staff will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the planned project or portions of the project and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas. Your comments will help Commission staff identify and focus on the issues that might have an effect on the human environment and potentially eliminate others from further study and discussion in the environmental document.
Although no formal application has been filed, Commission staff have already initiated a NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the Commission receives an application. As part of the pre-filing review, Commission staff will contact federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the environmental document.
If a formal application is filed, Commission staff will then determine whether to prepare an Environmental Assessment (EA) or an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). The EA or the EIS will present Commission staff's independent analysis of the environmental issues. If Commission staff prepares an EA, a
With this notice, the Commission is asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, the Commission is using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project and includes a mailing address with their comments. Commission staff will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that Commission notices related to this environmental review are sent to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.
(1) Send an email to
(2) Return the attached “Mailing List Update Form” (appendix 2).
Once Argent LNG files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to seek rehearing of the Commission's decision and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedures (18 CFR 385.214). Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available on the FERC website (
Public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
Take notice that on December 22, 2025, Palo Duro Transmission L.P. (Palo Duro) and Palo Duro Pipelines (Texas Gathering), L.P. (PD Gathering), 3500 Maple Ave., Suite #700, Dallas, Texas 75219, filed an amendment to its application in Docket No. CP25-531-000 under section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations, requesting authorization to amend its proposed Lease Agreement Project (Project) that was filed on August 1, 2025. Originally, Palo Duro proposed to utilize the entirety of this PD Pipeline to transport natural gas in interstate commerce, moving north on the PD Pipeline and then through the leased capacity on the PD Gathering Header System.
Palo Duro affirms after the submission of the Project, potential new natural gas demand has been identified along the southern part of the PD Pipeline. As a result, Palo Duro is now selling the southern-most portion of the PD Pipeline to an affiliate, which will continue to operate this pipeline as a gathering system until the new demand is added. Accordingly, Palo Duro is amending its Project to include as its certificated pipeline only the 61 northern-most miles of the PD Pipeline that it will still own, extending through only Childress, Collingsworth, and Wheeler Counties. Other than the reduced length of the PD Pipeline included in the proposal and the corresponding reduction in rates, the Project is not otherwise changed, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Matt Flory, President and C.E.O., Producers Midstream II, LLC, 3500 Maple Ave., Suite 700, Dallas, Texas 75219, by phone at (214)-238-5755, or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.
Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4)
To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026.
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket numbers CP25-531-000 and CP25-531-001 in your submission.
(1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at
(2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket numbers (CP25-531-000 and CP25-531-001).
The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.
The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.
Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket numbers CP25-531-000 and CP25-531-001 in your submission.
(1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project
The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Matt Flory, President and C.E.O., Producers Midstream II, LLC, 3500 Maple Ave., Suite 700, Dallas, Texas 75219 or by email (with a link to the document) at
All timely, unopposed
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Take notice that on December 18, 2025, Egan Hub Storage, LLC (Egan Hub), 915 N Eldridge Parkway, Suite 1100, Houston, Texas 77079-2703, filed an application under section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization for its Cavern Expansion Project (Project). Elgan Hub requests to construct, own, and operate two new natural gas salt dome storage caverns at Egan Gas Storage Facility in Acadia Parish, Louisiana. The Project will increase Egan Hub's maximum design storage capacity from 42 billion cubic feet (Bcf) (32 Bcf of working gas capacity) to 66.6 Bcf (48 Bcf of working gas capacity), as well as an incremental 510 million cubic feet per day (MMcf/day) of injection capability for a total of 1,575 MMcf/day of injection capability. Egan Hub also requests to charge market-based rates for its services, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Arthur Diestel Director, Regulatory, Egan Hub Storage, LLC, P.O. Box 1642 Houston, Texas 77251-1642, by phone at (713) 627-5116, or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
Egan Hub stated that a water quality certificate under section 401 of the Clean Water Act is required for the project from United States Army Corps of Engineers. When available, Egan Hub should submit to the Commission a copy of the request for certification for the Commission authorization, including the date the request was submitted to the certifying agency, and either (1) a copy of the certifying agency's decision or (2) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.
Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4)
To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 28, 2026.
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-45-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at
(2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP26-45-000).
The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.
The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken.
Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP26-45-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP26-45-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Arthur Diestel, Director, Regulatory, Egan Hub Storage, LLC, P.O. Box 1642, Houston, Texas 77251-1642, or by email (with a link to the document) at
All timely, unopposed
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Take notice that during the month of December 2025, the status of the above-captioned entities as Exempt Wholesale Generators became effective by operation of the Commission's regulations. 18 CFR 366.7(a) (2025).
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental document that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Maysville Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Columbia Gulf Transmission, LLC (Columbia) in Rowan, Fleming, and Mason Counties, Kentucky. The Commission will use this environmental document in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies regarding the project. As part of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) review process, the Commission takes into account concerns the public may have about proposals and the environmental effects that could result from its action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. This gathering of public input is referred to as “scoping.” The main goal of the scoping process is to focus the analysis in the environmental document on the important environmental issues. Additional information about the Commission's NEPA process is described below in the
By this notice, the Commission requests public comments on the scope of issues to address in the environmental document. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on February 6, 2026. Comments may be submitted in written or oral form. Further details on how to submit comments are provided in the
Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental effects. Your input will help the Commission
If you submitted comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on November 17, 2026, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP26-25-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable easement agreement. You are not required to enter into an agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, the Natural Gas Act conveys the right of eminent domain to the company. Therefore, if you and the company do not reach an easement agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings in court. In such instances, compensation would be determined by a judge in accordance with state law. The Commission does not subsequently grant, exercise, or oversee the exercise of that eminent domain authority. The courts have exclusive authority to handle eminent domain cases; the Commission has no jurisdiction over these matters.
Columbia provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” which addresses typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. This fact sheet along with other landowner topics of interest are available for viewing on the FERC website (
There are four methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. Please carefully follow these instructions so that your comments are properly recorded. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has staff available to assist you at (866) 208-3676 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is also on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the Commission. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP26-25-000) on your letter. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852; or
(4) In lieu of sending written comments, the Commission invites you to attend one of the public scoping sessions its staff will conduct in the project area, scheduled as follows:
The primary goal of these scoping sessions is to have you identify the specific environmental issues and concerns that should be considered in the environmental document. Individual oral comments will be taken on a one-on-one basis with a court reporter. This format is designed to receive the maximum amount of oral comments in a convenient way during the timeframe allotted.
Each scoping session is scheduled from 5:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m. Eastern Time. You may arrive at any time after 5:00 p.m. There will not be a formal presentation by Commission staff when the session opens. If you wish to speak, the Commission staff will hand out numbers in the order of your arrival. Comments will be taken until 7:00 p.m. However, if no additional numbers have been handed out and all individuals who wish to provide comments have had an opportunity to do so, staff may conclude the session at 6:30 p.m. Please see appendix 1 for additional information on the session format and conduct.
Your oral comments will be recorded by a court reporter (with FERC staff or representative present) and become part of the public record for this proceeding. Transcripts will be publicly available on FERC's eLibrary system (see the last page of this notice for instructions on using eLibrary). If a significant number of people are interested in providing oral comments in the one-on-one settings, a time limit of 5 minutes may be implemented for each commentor. Although there will not be a formal presentation, Commission staff will be available throughout the scoping session to answer your questions about the environmental review process. Representatives from Columbia will also be present to answer project-specific questions.
It is important to note that the Commission provides equal consideration to all comments received, whether filed in written form or provided orally at a scoping session.
Additionally, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which makes it easy to stay informed of all issuances and submittals regarding the dockets/projects to which you
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202)502-6595 or
The Maysville Project would supply 340,000 dekatherms per day of natural gas transportation capacity to the East Kentucky Power Cooperative's Hugh L. Spurlock Power Station.
The Maysville Project would consist of the following facilities:
• 42 miles of new 30-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline in Rowan, Fleming, and Mason Counties, Kentucky;
• a proposed tie-in to the Columbia Gulf Mainline in Rowan County, Kentucky, including the installation of a new 36-inch by 30-inch bidirectional pig launcher/receiver;
• a new meter station (
• three new 30-inch-diameter mainline valves (MLVs) along the proposed 30-inch-diameter pipeline.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 2.
Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb about 770 acres of land for the aboveground facilities and the pipeline. Following construction, Columbia would maintain about 260 acres for permanent operation of the project's facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. About 31 percent of the proposed pipeline route are within or adjacent to existing corridors which will include the overlapping of temporary workspace with existing easements.
Any environmental document issued by the Commission will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under the relevant general resource areas:
• geology and soils;
• water resources and wetlands;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• threatened and endangered species;
• cultural resources;
• land use;
• air quality and noise; and
• reliability and safety.
Commission staff will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid effects on the various resource areas. Your comments will help Commission staff identify and focus on the issues that might have an effect on the human environment and potentially eliminate others from further study and discussion in the environmental document.
Following this scoping period, Commission staff will determine whether to prepare an Environmental Assessment (EA) or an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). The EA or the EIS will present Commission staff's independent analysis of the issues. If Commission staff prepares an EA, a
With this notice, the Commission is asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, the Commission is using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project and includes a mailing address with their comments. Commission staff will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that Commission notices related to this environmental review are sent to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
If you need to make changes to your name/address, or if you would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please complete one of the following steps:
(1) Send an email to
(2) Return the attached “Mailing List Update Form” (appendix 3).
Additional information about the project is available from the FERC website at
Public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
On October 8, 2025, Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC (Transco) filed an application in Docket No. CP26-4-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(b) of the Natural Gas Act to abandon certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the North Padre Island Lateral Abandonment Project (Project) and would abandon approximately 50 miles of 24-inch-diameter interstate natural gas transmission pipeline and associated facilities in Brooks, Jim Wells, Kenedy, and Kleberg Counties, Texas.
On October 23, 2025, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's environmental document for the Project.
This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the Project and the planned schedule for the completion of the environmental review.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
As described above, Transco proposes to abandon approximately 50 miles of 24-inch-diameter, interstate natural gas transmission pipeline and associated facilities in Brooks, Jim Wells, Kenedy, and Kleberg Counties, Texas. Beginning in Brooks County, Texas, Transco's existing pipeline extends across the Padre Island National Seashore into the Gulf of America and would mostly be abandoned in-place (45 miles). With exceptions, small segments of the pipeline would be abandoned by removal per landowner easement agreements, under state and federal highways, railroad crossings, and land managed by the Texas General Land Office (5 miles). Transco would also abandon a non-jurisdictional dehydration and storage facility (Station 14) in Brooks County, Texas. According to Transco, its Project would eliminate costs and risks associated with maintenance of these facilities.
On November 19, 2025, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Additional information about the Project is available from the FERC website (
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
On October 15, 2025, Columbia Gulf Transmission, LLC (Columbia) filed an application in Docket No. CP26-11-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Pulaski Project (Project) and would service new and existing generation resources at the John S. Cooper Power Station and supply 253 million standard cubic feet per day of natural gas transportation.
On October 29, 2025, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's environmental document for the Project.
This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Columbia proposes to install and operate 41.3 miles of new 30-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline from Lincoln County Kentucky to the new South Somerset Delivery Meter Station located in Pulaski County, Kentucky, with additional aboveground facilities. The Pulaski Project would provide about 253 million standard cubic feet of natural gas per day to the John S. Cooper Power Station in Pulaski County, Kentucky. According to Columbia, its project would service its new and existing generation resources.
On November 24, 2025, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Additional information about the Project is available from the FERC website (
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding. The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that on December 19, 2025, Constitution Pipeline Company, LLC (Constitution), P.O. Box 1396, Houston, Texas 77251-1396, filed a petition pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations seeking reissuance of a certificate of public convenience and necessity authorizing Constitution to construct and operate its previously approved Constitution Pipeline Project (Project) (Petition).
Constitution states that project facilities would match its original proposal with the exception of limited variances previously approved by the Commission. Specifically, Constitution requests reissuance of certificate authority to construct: (1) approximately 125 miles of 30-inch-diameter pipeline in Susquehanna County, Pennsylvania and Broome, Chenango, Delaware, and Schoharie Counties, New York; (2) the Turnpike Road Metering and Regulating (M&R) Station in Susquehanna County, Pennsylvania; (3) a receipt tap in Susquehanna County, Pennsylvania; (4) the Westfall Road M&R Station at Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P.'s (Iroquois) Wright Compressor Station in Schoharie County, New York; (5) 11 mainline valve assemblies; (6) pig launcher/receiver facilities; and (7) other appurtenant facilities.
The Project is designed to provide 650,000 dekatherms per day of firm transportation service from production areas in Pennsylvania to markets in New York and New England. Constitution requests approval of the same pro forma tariff approved in the Certificate Order. Constitution would offer cost-based firm transportation service, interruptible transportation service, and park and loan service under Rate Schedules FT, IT, and PAL, respectively. Constitution states that it intends to update the cost of facilities and recourse rates for the Project following a later petition by Iroquois seeking reissuance of the certificate of public convenience and necessity for its related Wright Interconnect Project.
Further, Constitution requests that the Commission reaffirm that the New York State Department of Environmental Conservation waived its authority under section 401 of the Clean Water Act by failing or refusing to act on Constitution's request for a water quality certification within one year.
All details are more fully set forth in the petition which is on file with the Commission and available for public inspection. Constitution states that it incorporates by reference the exhibits from its original certificate application on June 13, 2013, the entire record of the Project in Docket No. CP13-499-000, and the waiver determination in Docket No. CP18-5-000.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions regarding the petition should be directed to Constitution Pipeline Company, LLC, P.O. Box 1396, Houston, Texas 77251-1396, by phone at (888) 275-9084, or by email at
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this petition: you can file comments on the petition, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 29, 2026. Parties in the original dockets (CP13-499-000 and CP18-5-000) do not need to file a new motion to intervene. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation (OPP) at (202) 502-6595 or
Any person wishing to comment on the petition may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the petition as a whole or specific aspects of the petition. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.
Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4)
To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on January 29, 2026.
There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Petition docket numbers CP13-499-006 and CP18-5-004 in your submission.
(1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at
(2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Petition docket numbers (CP13-499-006 and CP18-5-004).
The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
The Commission considers all comments received about the petition in determining the appropriate action to be taken.
Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Petition docket numbers CP13-499-006 and CP18-5-004 in your submission.
(1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Petition docket number CP13-499-006 and CP18-5-004.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the petitioner either by mail at: Constitution Pipeline Company, LLC, P.O. Box 1396, Houston, Texas 77251-1396 or by email (with a link to the document) at
All timely, unopposed
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the petition will be available from OPP at (202) 502-6595 or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or
Wednesday, January 14, 2026, 9:00 a.m. Eastern Time.
The meeting will be held at the Jacqueline A. Berrien Training Center, 131 M Street NE, Washington, DC 20507. The meeting will also be held as a listen-only audio dial-in by telephone. The public may attend in person or connect to the audio-only dial-in by following the instructions that will be posted on
The meeting will be open to the public.
The following items will be considered at the meeting:
In accordance with the Sunshine Act, the public will be able to observe the Commission's deliberations and voting. (In addition to publishing notices on Commission meetings in the
Please telephone (202) 921-2705, or email
Raymond Windmiller, Executive Officer, (202) 921-2705.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Evaluating the Impact of Training and Technical Assistance (TTA) Programs for NCCCP Efforts. This data collection is designed to collect information about TTA offered using focus groups and a web-based survey to assess whether a specific cooperative agreement has been implemented as intended and contributed to National Comprehensive Cancer Control Program (NCCCP) recipients' achievements in program goals and outcomes.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2025-1113 by either of the following methods:
☐
☐
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7118; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Evaluating the Impact of Training and Technical Assistance (TTA) Programs for NCCP Efforts (OMB Control No. 0920-1193)—Reinstatement with Change—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) National Comprehensive Cancer Control Program (NCCCP) has been a primary funder for state and community-based cancer control interventions since its inception in the late 1990s. NCCCP's 66 recipients, including programs in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, a number of tribes, tribal organizations, and U.S. Associated Pacific Islands/territories, as well as cancer coalitions, engage with partners to enhance cancer-related data systems and deliver evidence-based interventions (EBIs) for primary prevention, screening and survivorship with the goal of impacting population-level cancer outcomes and reduce the burden of cancer.
To build capacity and maximize the impact of funded NCCCPs, CDC developed and implemented the training and technical assistance program, Evaluating the Impact of Training and Technical Assistance (TTA) Programs for NCCCP Efforts (referred to hereafter as the “TTA Program” or “DP23-0017”). The current TTA program cycle builds upon the previous cycles to enhance NCCCP recipients' capacity to plan for and implement EBIs and strategies through multisectoral partnerships; policy, system, and environmental change approaches; approaches to health for all, and approaches to addressing non-medical factors that influence health. The funded TTA entities are responsible for developing and implementing a TTA plan, sustaining partnerships, employing various training methods, and evaluating their TTA efforts. A comprehensive evaluation is critical to ensure the provision of high-quality and effective TTA. This program is authorized under sections 301(a) and 317(k)(2) of the Public Health Service Act as amended [42 U.S.C. 241(a) and 42 U.S.C. 247b(k)(2)] and also authorizes CDC to collect this information.
CDC proposes to assess DP23-0017 to: (1) document the nature of the TTA provided and the extent to which they were able to achieve planned short-term outcomes; and (2) identify which TTA efforts contributed to NCCCP recipients' achievement in program outcomes. There are no other data collection efforts currently underway to assess implementation or perceived effectiveness of TTA administered under DP23-0017. CDC is requesting a three-year Reinstatement with Change to the previously approved Information Collection Request (ICR) (Assessing the Impact of Targeted Training and
The web-based survey and focus groups will capture quantitative and qualitative data on the reach of DP23-0017 TTA efforts, the type and effectiveness of TTA received, and its impact. Survey changes include questions about additional TTA types (
CDC requests OMB approval is requested for three years with a total annualized response burden estimated to be 96 hours. Participation is voluntary and respondents will not receive incentives for participation. There are no direct costs to respondents other than their time to participate in data collection activities.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Aviation Activity Illness and Death Reporting. This data collection is designed to prevent the introduction, transmission or spread of communicable diseases from foreign countries into the United States or from one State or possession into any other State or possession in the event an individual with a confirmed or suspected communicable disease is known to have traveled on an inbound international or interstate flight.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2025-1080 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger,
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Aviation Activity Illness and Death Reporting (OMB Control No. 0920-0488, Exp. 3/31/2026)—Revision—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The goal of this information collection is to ensure that, consistent with the authorities in the Public Health Service Act and CFR parts 70 and 71, CDC is able to prevent the introduction, transmission or spread of communicable diseases from foreign countries into the United States or from one State or possession into any other State or possession. This information collection focuses on collecting necessary information needed for CDC to conduct public health response and follow up in the event an individual with a confirmed or suspected communicable disease is known to have traveled on an inbound international or interstate flight while infectious or potentially infectious, presenting a risk of disease spread to others.
The information collection includes collection of conveyance, passenger and crew contact information from airlines (aka manifests) for contact investigations. Additionally, this information collection includes forms to obtain information on the outcomes of the contact investigations carried out by international, state, local, or territorial public health professionals to assess the impacts of CDC regulatory activities. Historically, these aviation-related data collection activities were approved under this and other different OMB Control Numbers as outlined below (OMB Control Numbers 0920-0134, 0920-1180, 0920-1181, 0920-0900). With this current submission, CDC is requesting a Revision with the aim of improving efficiency of CDC's aviation activities PRA submission process through aggregation under one OMB control number.
CDC requests OMB approval for an estimated 2,981 annual burden hours. There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed revision information collection project titled Maternal Mortality Review Information Application (MMRIA). MMRIA is a standardized data collection system that allows Maternal Mortality Review Committees (MMRCs) to abstract relevant data from a variety of sources, document committee decisions, and analyze data to better understand the contributing factors and preventability of pregnancy-related deaths in order to develop recommendations for prevention.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2026-0005 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; Telephone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
The Maternal Mortality Review Information Application (MMRIA) (OMB Control No. 0920-1294, Exp. 05/31/2026)—Revision—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) seeks a Revision to continue to collect information through the Maternal Mortality Review Information Application (MMRIA) for three additional years. MMRIA is a standardized data system that allows Maternal Mortality Review Committees (MMRCs) across the United States to abstract relevant data (clinical and non-clinical) about pregnancy-associated deaths identified from a variety of sources, create case narratives to facilitate review of data, and document committee decisions such as pregnancy-relatedness of the death, contributing factors, and recommendation efforts to prevent future deaths. Deaths during pregnancy or in the year after the end of pregnancy are a tragedy for families and for society as a whole. Sadly, for over a decade, deaths in the United States resulting from pregnancy or delivery complications, a chain of events initiated by pregnancy, or the aggravation of an unrelated condition by the physiologic effects of pregnancy have remained unacceptably high. However, findings from MMRCs indicate that four of five pregnancy-related deaths are preventable. Maternal Mortality Review is a process by which a multidisciplinary committee at the jurisdiction level identifies and reviews cases of deaths occurring within one year of pregnancy. Members of MMRCs typically represent public health, obstetrics and gynecology, maternal-fetal medicine, nursing, midwifery, forensic pathology, mental health, and behavioral health. Members might also include social workers, patient advocates, and other relevant multidisciplinary stakeholders. Through a partnership among the MMRC, the state vital records office, and epidemiologists, deaths among women of reproductive age are examined to determine if they occurred during pregnancy or within a year of the end of pregnancy (
The MMRIA is a standardized data system that MMRCs use to collect timely, accurate, and standardized information about deaths to women during pregnancy and the year after the end of pregnancy, including opportunities for prevention, within and across jurisdictions. Data will be abstracted and entered into MMRIA from various sources, including death certificates, autopsy reports, birth certificates, prenatal care records, emergency room visits records, hospitalization records, records for other medical office visits, medical transport records, social and environmental profiles, mental health profiles, and informant interviews. Case narratives are auto-populated from the abstracted data for committee review, and subsequent committee decisions are also documented in MMRIA. Burden estimates presented here are for 52 jurisdictions that receive funding through CDC-RFA-DP24-0053. As part of this cooperative agreement, these jurisdictions are required to compile in MMRIA a defined set of information about deaths that occur during pregnancy or the year after the end of pregnancy. It is estimated that information will be collected for a total of 2,832 pregnancy-associated deaths on average, annually, among the 52 jurisdictions with funding support through CDC-RFA-DP24-0053. It is estimated that on average, 15 hours of abstraction are required for each death entered into MMRIA. CDC has established a process that reduces the burden related to abstraction of vital records into MMRIA that is currently applicable to 41 of the 52 funding recipients. The estimated average is 14 hours of abstraction for each death entered into MMRIA for these 41 funding recipients. For all jurisdictions with funding support through CDC-RFA-DP24-0053, an additional 24 minutes on average is needed to enter the committee decisions into MMRIA. This Revision reflects an increase in the burden from an overall total of 33,482 (last approval) to 41,789, for a total increase of 8,307 hours. The explanation for this increase is that in the prior approval, deaths were estimated indirectly because actual counts were not available. The numbers of deaths used in this Revision are based on actual case counts among CDC-RFA-DP24-0053 funding recipients.
CDC requests OMB approval for an estimated 41,789 annual burden hours. There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Land Activity Illness and Death Reporting. This data collection is designed to collect necessary information needed for CDC to conduct public health response and follow up in the event an individual with a confirmed or suspected communicable disease is known to have traveled via land conveyance across an international land or state border.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2026-0001 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; Telephone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Land Activity Illness and Death Reporting (OMB Control No. 0920-0134, Exp. 3/31/2026)—Revision—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The goal of this information collection is to ensure that, consistent with the authorities in the Public Health Service Act and CFR parts 70 and 71, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is able to prevent the introduction, transmission or spread of communicable diseases from foreign countries into the United States or from one State or possession into any other State or possession. This information collection focuses on collecting
With this current submission, CDC is requesting a Revision with the aim of improving efficiency of DGMH's land activities PRA submission process through aggregation under a single OMB Control Number. One form (Attachment B) will stay in 0920-0134. All other information collection tools currently approved in 0920-0134 will move to 0920-0488 or 0920-1335. CDC is requesting that one form (Attachment F) will move from OMB control 0920-0900 to 0920-0134. Finally, four new information collection tools are being added to this information collection request for 0920-0134 (Attachments C, D, E, and G).
CDC requests OMB approval for an estimated 83 annualized burden hours. There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comments on a proposed information collection project titled Traveler-Based Genomic Surveillance Program (TGS) Traveler Questionnaire. The TGS program monitors for communicable diseases among arriving international travelers at select U.S. airports.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2026-0004 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; Telephone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Traveler-Based Genomic Surveillance Program (TGS) Traveler Questionnaire (OMB Control No. 0920-1406, Exp. 6/30/2026)—Revision—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The goal of CDC's Traveler-Based Genomic Surveillance program (TGS) is to monitor for communicable diseases among arriving international travelers at select U.S. airports. Doing so enables the early detection of communicable disease importations of public health concern. The program also fills gaps in global biosurveillance by monitoring trends in global circulation of communicable diseases. Travelers who volunteer to participate in the program at airports and provide written, informed consent complete a short, anonymous questionnaire asking for travel information and general demographics. Two lower nasal swabs are then self-collected from participants. One swab is pooled with other traveler swabs in batches of 5-10 samples. Pooled samples undergo initial testing for pathogens of public health importance (including SARS-CoV-2, Influenza A virus, and RSV [respiratory syncytial virus]) via reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) testing. If any pool of swabs registers with any positive test, then all secondary swab samples (stored individually) corresponding to those in the pool are tested individually. Pathogen genomic sequencing may be performed on samples to determine the pathogen lineage. Some samples may be sent to CDC for further testing. No human genetic testing will be performed.
This request is a Revision of the approved collection request titled: Traveler-Based Genomic Surveillance (OMB Control No. 0920-1406). The program has since broadened to include testing nasal swabs for pathogens beyond SARS-CoV-2. The program has also streamlined the questions asked of participants based on data from previous versions of the questionnaire, participant feedback received through program staff at the airports, and direct input from the program staff at the airports. The new information collection has fewer questions, and question wording has been updated to improve participant comprehension and response rates.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled National Disease Surveillance Program—II. Disease Summaries information collection. This collection is used to determine the prevalence of diseases and for the planning and evaluation of programs that prevent and control infectious disease.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2026-0003 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; Telephone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
National Disease Surveillance Program II Disease Summaries (OMB Control No. 0920-0004, Exp. 4/30/2026)—Extension—National Center for Immunization and Respiratory Diseases (NCIRD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC requests a three-year approval for the Extension of the National Disease Surveillance Program II—Disease Summaries information collection. As with previous approvals, these data are essential for measuring trends in diseases, evaluating the effectiveness of current preventive strategies, and determining the need to modify current preventive measures. The following diseases are included in this surveillance program: Influenza Virus, Caliciviruses, Respiratory and Enteric Viruses, Enteroviruses, Adenoviruses, Arthropod-Borne Diseases (Non-Human Data), and Pediatric Hepatitis of Unknown Etiology. This Extension with minimal modifications includes 10 influenza forms, Suspect Respiratory Virus Patient Form, Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS) Patient Under Investigation (PUI) Form, Viral Gastroenteritis Outbreak Submission Form, National Respiratory and Enteric Virus Surveillance System (NREVSS) Laboratory Assessment and National Enterovirus Surveillance Report, National Adenovirus Type Reporting System (NATRS) Form, Aggregate case counts of persons exposed to Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI), Pediatric Hepatitis of Unknown Etiology Medical Record Abstraction Form (CRF) and Pediatric Hepatitis of Unknown Etiology Medical Record Abstraction short form version, and Arthropod (Vector)-Borne Diseases (Non-Human Data). These forms will have minor edits with no burden change from last OMB approval. The data from these forms will enable rapid detection and characterization of outbreaks of known pathogens, as well as potential newly emerging viral pathogens.
CDC requests OMB approval for an estimated 27,458 annual burden hours. There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Awardee Lead Profile Assessment (ALPA). The ALPA survey will serve to identify childhood lead poisoning-related laws and guidance, surveillance and prevention strategies, and program services including blood lead levels at what various case management activities are performed in children exposed to lead.
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 16, 2026.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2026-0002 by either of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Jeffrey M. Zirger, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS H21-8, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; Telephone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Awardee Lead Profile Assessment (ALPA) (OMB Control No. 0920-1215, Exp. 05/31/2026)—Revision—National Center for Environmental Health (NCEH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is requesting Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) Clearance for a three-year Revision of the information collection request (ICR) titled Awardee Lead Profile Assessment (ALPA) (OMB Control No. 0920-1215). The goal of this ICR is to build on the CDC's existing childhood lead poisoning prevention program. CDC requires that ongoing and new CDC Childhood Lead Poisoning Prevention Programs (CLPPPs), including those funded under the current Notice of Funding Opportunity “Childhood Lead Poisoning Prevention and Surveillance of Blood Lead Levels in Children” (CDC-RFA-EH21-2102), complete the ALPA annually.
CDC can use the information obtained to inform guidance, resource development, and technical assistance activities in support of the ultimate goal of eliminating lead exposure in children. Assessment findings will be shared with CDC-funded Childhood Lead Poisoning Prevention Programs (CLPPPs) and in response to inquiries by the public, press, and Congress; a report or journal article may be published. The dissemination of results will support the ability for both funded and non-funded jurisdictions to: (1) identify policies and other factors that support or hinder childhood lead poisoning prevention efforts; (2) understand what strategies are being used by funded state, territorial, and local governments to implement childhood lead poisoning prevention activities; and (3) develop and apply similar strategies to support the national agenda to eliminate childhood lead poisoning.
This program management information collection has been revised in several ways, including the addition of new response options and questions as well as simpler language and structure. The method of data collection has changed from Epi Info to REDCap.
• The electronic data collection tool was updated to REDCap because Epi Info is no longer available at CDC. Using REDCap improves functionality and streamlines data management.
• The section on local laws was removed to focus solely on programs receiving surveillance funding, ensuring greater relevance and consistency across respondents.
• Questions that were unclear or difficult to interpret were revised for clarity.
• Redundant or overlapping questions and response choices were combined where appropriate for clarity and to reduce respondent burden.
• The previous alphanumeric question labels were replaced with a fully numeric system, creating a cleaner and more organized survey format
The revisions on the survey will slightly affect the total time burden requested as the time to take the survey has increased from 47 minutes per response in 2021 to 53 minutes per response in 2025. This time estimate per response is based on pilot tests of the revised survey among five respondents and includes the time needed to review the ALPA Training Manual. CDC requests OMB approval for an estimated 66 annualized burden hours. There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Office of the Secretary, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on the Information Collection Request (ICR) must be received on or before February 12, 2026.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice via
“Currently under Review” and “Select Agency: Department of Health and Human Services”.
When requesting information, such as a free copy of the form to be used for the information collection, please include the document identifier OS-0945-New-30D and project title for reference, to Conner O'Brien by email at
Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
OCR has delegated civil enforcement authority
Individuals will be able to submit a Part 2 complaint using the HHS OCR online complaint portal or by filling out a copy of the form obtained from OCR's website and submitting it to OCR electronically or by postal mail.
The estimated burden on individuals for gathering information and completing the Part 2 complaint form is 45 minutes per complaint based on the hourly burden for HIPAA complaints. Assuming that 1 in every 1,000 patients treated for SUD would file a Part 2 complaint, the Department estimates a total of 1,398 burden hours for 1,864 complaints annually (1,864,367 patients/1,000 × .75 hours = 1,398).
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days from the meeting date due to exceptional circumstances. As a result of the 43-day government shutdown, due to lapsed appropriations, the above meeting was canceled. This meeting was to assess the scientific and technical merit of NIH grant applications, required by statute to disburse NIH funds. The meeting must take place urgently so that evaluations of biomedical research applications addressing multiple major public health priorities can be submitted to the national advisory councils for timely funding recommendations.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of final determination.
This document provides notice that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) has issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of the Lumens VC-TR60A Camera. Based upon the facts presented, CBP has concluded that the last substantial transformation of the Lumens VC-TR60A Camera occurs in Taiwan.
The final determination was issued on December 19, 2025. A copy of the final determination is attached. Any party-at-interest, as defined in 19 CFR 177.22(d), may seek judicial review of this final determination no later than February 12, 2026.
Anna Hedstrom, Valuation and Special Programs Branch, Regulations and Rulings, Office of Trade, at (202) 325-0227.
Notice is hereby given that on December 19, 2025, CBP issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of the Lumens VC-TR60A Camera for purposes of Title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979. This final determination, Headquarters Ruling Letter (HQ) H350894, was issued at the request of Lumens Digital Optics, Inc. under procedures set forth at 19 CFR part 177, subpart B, which implements Title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511-18). In the final determination, CBP has concluded that the last substantial transformation of the Lumens VC-TR60A Camera occurs in Taiwan.
Section 177.29, CBP Regulations (19 CFR 177.29), provides that a notice of final determination shall be published in the
This is in response to your July 8, 2025 request for a final determination concerning the country of origin of the Pan Tilt Zoom (“PTZ”) Lumens VC-TR60A Camera (“Camera”) pursuant to Title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (“TAA”), as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511
The merchandise under consideration is the Lumens PTZ Camera, Model Number TR60A. This camera is designed for video conferencing in office environments. It features speaker tracking that allows the camera to move toward the person speaking during a discussion. The camera also can combine two video images in a picture-in-picture display, providing both a wide-angle view and a close-up shot of the meeting. Additionally, it has a dual lens 12 times optical zoom, wide-angle fix lens, Artificial Intelligence (“AI”) motion detection, and simultaneous output for High-Definition Multimedia Interface (“HDMI”), Ethernet, and Universal Serial Bus (“USB”).
The camera production consists of nine main steps: (1) zoom lens module assembly and calibration; (2) PTZ camera body assembly; (3) panoramic lens module assembly; (4) zoom lens and panoramic lens optical axis alignment; (5) run in test; (6) firmware programming to camera; (7) system function test; (8) quality control inspection; and (9) final packaging and shipping. One camera takes around three hours to produce.
The camera's initial source code, which includes requirements for the graphical user interface that provides product status information and the user operation interface, is developed in China and sent to Taiwan for burning. This software has been developed over a year and a half and has undergone
The printed circuit boards (“PCB”), electronic components, optical parts, and mechanical parts of the camera are sourced from global suppliers (including regions outside TAA countries). The camera includes seven printed circuit board assemblies (“PCBAs”): the main board (claimed to be the brains of the camera), driver board, power over Ethernet (“POE”) board, home sensor board, panoramic sensor board, zoom lens sensor board, and microphone board. The bare PCB and PCBA components (
It is stated that two components fulfill the image conversion and capture function: the sensors and the image signal processor. The sensors are responsible for light conversion, and the image signal processor is responsible for transferring the sensor data into visible images through digital signal processing. These two components are included on the zoom lens sensor board, panoramic sensor board, and main board.
In Taiwan, the main PCBA board, the panoramic sensor board, the POE board, the zoom lens sensor board, the driver board, and the home sensor board are produced through a complex surface mount technology (“SMT”) process, which results in fully functional PCBAs. Of all of the PCBA components that are used to make the various boards, around 72% of them are used to make the main PCBA board. The SMT process involves solder paste printing component placement, reflow soldering, inspection, and testing. Additionally, a Chinese lens is joined with other components to create a lens module in Taiwan. The final assembly process operations, firmware programming, calibration, function testing, quality control inspection, packaging, and shipping also occur in Taiwan. In China, the microphone board is manufactured. No other manufacturing takes place in China.
The longest production process is the zoom lens module pre-processing, processing, and assembly which takes approximately 44% of the camera's production time, longer than any other steps. This process includes integrating the zoom lens, sensor board, and driver board, calibration, integration, adjustment of parts, mounting, and enclosing the module. This production is said to take place in Taiwan.
What is the country of origin of the Lumens Camera for the purposes of U.S. Government procurement?
CBP issues country of origin advisory rulings and final determinations as to whether an article is or would be a product of a designated country or instrumentality for the purpose of granting waivers of certain “Buy American” restrictions in U.S. law or practice for products offered for sale to the U.S. Government, pursuant to subpart B of Part 177, 19 CFR 177.21-177.31, which implements Title III of the TAA, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511-2518).
CBP's authority to issue advisory rulings and final determinations stems from 19 U.S.C. 2515(b)(1), which states:
For the purposes of this subchapter, the Secretary of the Treasury shall provide for the prompt issuance of advisory rulings and final determinations on whether, under section 2518(4)(B) of this title,
Emphasis added.
The Secretary of the Treasury's authority mentioned above, along with other customs revenue functions, are delegated to the Secretary of Homeland Security via Treasury Department Order (“TO”) 100-20 “Delegation of Customs revenue functions to Homeland Security,” dated October 30, 2024, and are subject to further delegations to CBP (
The rule of origin set forth under 19 U.S.C. 2518(4)(B) states:
An article is a product of a country or instrumentality only if (i) it is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of that country or instrumentality, or (ii) in the case of an article which consists in whole or in part of materials from another country or instrumentality, it has been substantially transformed into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was so transformed.
In rendering advisory rulings and final determinations for purposes of U.S. Government procurement, CBP applies the provisions of subpart B of Part 177 consistent with the Federal Procurement Regulation (“FAR”).
The FAR, 48 CFR 25.003, defines “U.S.-made end product” as:
To determine whether a substantial transformation occurs when components of various origins are assembled into completed products, CBP considers the totality of the circumstances and makes such determinations on a case-by-case basis. The country of origin of the item's components, extent of the processing that occurs within a country, and whether such processing renders a product with a new name, character, and use are primary considerations in such cases. Additionally, factors such as the resources expended on product design and development, the extent and nature of post-assembly inspection and testing procedures, and worker skill required during the actual manufacturing process will be considered when determining whether a substantial transformation has occurred. No one factor is determinative.
Regarding electronic equipment, CBP has found that circuit boards undergo a substantial transformation into PCBAs when various components are assembled onto the board via SMT.
In rulings concerning the country of origin of origin of a device containing multiple PCBAs, CBP has examined the function of the PCBAs contained in the device to determine the origin of the device.
Here, the zoom sensor board, panoramic sensor board, and main board are essential to the character of the finished camera as they are responsible for capturing and converting images. These boards enable the camera to function as intended. These boards are produced in Taiwan. Additionally, the zoom lens assembly, which is the longest and most complex assembly process, takes place in Taiwan. Therefore, the Lumens PTZ Camera is a product of Taiwan for purposes of U.S. Government procurement.
Based on the information provided, for purposes of U.S. Government procurement, the Lumens PTZ Camera is a product of Taiwan.
Notice of this final determination will be given in the
Sincerely,
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of availability.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended, and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) of 1976, as amended, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announces the availability of the Draft Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Central Coast Field Office Oil and Gas Leasing and Development Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement.
To afford the BLM the opportunity to consider comments in the Draft Supplemental EIS, please ensure that the BLM receives your comments within 45 days following the date the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) publishes its Notice of Availability (NOA) of the Draft Supplemental EIS in the
The Draft Supplemental EIS and associated documents are available for review on the BLM project website at:
Written comments related to the Central Coast Field Office Oil and Gas Leasing and Development Supplemental EIS may be submitted by the following method:
Documents pertinent to this proposal may also be examined at the Central Coast Field Office, address 940 2nd Ave., Marina, CA 93933.
Sarah Mathews, Project Manager, telephone (831) 582-2257; address 940 2nd Ave. Marina, CA 93933; email
The Central Coast Field Office planning area includes Alameda, Contra Costa, Monterey, San Benito, San Mateo, Santa Clara, and Santa Cruz counties, and portions of Fresno, Merced, and San Joaquin counties and encompasses approximately 284,000 acres of public land and an additional 509,000 acres of Federal mineral estate (
The results of this Draft Supplemental Analysis, additive to those identified in the 2019 Final EIS, did not show notable increase in total impacts. No conflicts were found between the estimated impacts of the alternatives and the resource or program management goals and objectives stated in the RMP amendment. The range of alternatives has not changed between the BLM-approved 2019 RMP amendment and its 2019 Final EIS, and the 2025 Draft Supplemental EIS. Therefore, no amendment to the 2019 RMP amendment is necessary.
The Draft Supplement EIS addresses two lease parcels within the CCFO that do not contain NSO stipulations (non-NSO leases). Fourteen lease parcels were considered in the 2019 Final EIS, but twelve of the fourteen prospective leases were declined or terminated at the request of the bidder. The BLM's proposed plan identifies implementation-level decisions for the two remaining issued but suspended leases. For each of the two remaining lease parcels, the implementation decision identifies stipulations necessary for resource protection. These implementation-level decisions are subject to appeal to the Interior Board of Land Appeals after the signing of a Record of Decision for this project.
The date(s) and location(s) of any additional meetings will be announced in advance through local media, newspapers, ePlanning project page (see
The BLM will continue to consult with Indian Tribal Nations on a government-to-government basis in accordance with Executive Order 13175, BLM Manual Section 1780 and other Departmental policies. Tribal concerns, including impacts on Indian trust assets and potential impacts to cultural resources, will be given due consideration.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personally identifiable information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personally identifiable information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of availability.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended, and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) of 1976, as amended, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announces the availability of the Draft Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Bakersfield Field
To afford the BLM the opportunity to consider comments in the Draft Supplemental EIS, please ensure that the BLM receives your comments within 45 days following the date the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) publishes its Notice of Availability (NOA) of the Draft EIS in the
The Draft Supplemental EIS and associated documents are available for review on the BLM project website at:
Documents pertinent to this proposal may also be examined at the Bakersfield Field Office, 35126 McMurtrey Ave., Bakersfield, CA 93308.
Sarah Mathews, Project Manager, telephone (661) 391-6145; address 35126 McMurtrey Ave., Bakersfield, CA 93308; email
The Bakersfield Field Office planning area includes Fresno, Kern, Kings, Madera, San Luis Obispo, Santa Barbara, Tulare, and Ventura counties in California and encompasses approximately 400,000 acres of public land and 1.2 million acres of Federal mineral estate. The purpose of the Supplemental EIS is to analyze the environmental effects of oil and gas leasing and development within the Planning Area and to determine whether changes are needed to the fluid minerals decisions in the Bakersfield Field Office based on new information or changes in circumstances. The need to develop the supplemental environmental analysis is to respond to settlement agreement in Case No. 2:20-cv-00371-DSF and Case No. 1:21-cv-00475-DAD-SAB, filed with the U.S. District Court for the Central District of California Western Division and the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of California on July 29, 2022. The BLM presented preliminary information for public scoping review and comment in the June 23, 2025,
• The No Action alternative (Alternative A) would continue management under the existing 1997 Caliente RMP and 1984 Hollister RMP, as amended.
• The Proposed Plan (Alternative B) strives to balance resource conservation and ecosystem health with the production of commodities and public use of the land.
• Alternative C emphasizes conserving cultural and natural resources, maintaining functioning natural systems, and restoring natural systems that are degraded.
• Alternative D follows Alternative C in all aspects except with regard to livestock grazing. Alternative D would eliminate livestock grazing from the BLM-managed lands in the planning area for the life of this land use plan.
• Alternative E emphasizes the production of natural resources and commodities while emphasizing public use opportunities.
The results of this draft supplemental analysis of the impacts of hydraulic fracturing, additive to those identified in the 2012 Final EIS and the 2019 Final Supplemental EIS, did not show notable increase in total impacts. No conflicts were found between the estimated impacts of hydraulic fracturing and the resource or program management goals and objectives stated in the RMP. The range of alternatives has not changed between the approved 2014 RMP and its 2012 Final EIS, the 2019 Final Supplement EIS and the 2025 Draft Supplemental EIS. Therefore, no amendment to the 2014 RMP is being proposed.
The Draft Supplemental EIS also provides supplemental information for seven lease parcels (4,134 acres) within the Bakersfield Field Office analyzed in the 2020 Environmental Assessment (EA) (DOI-BLM-CA-C060-2020-0120-EA) for the 2020 oil and gas lease sale. The 2020 EA included site-specific analysis for those seven parcels. The lease parcels were nominated through Expressions of Interest (EOI) and leased during the December 2020 Competitive Oil and Gas Lease Sale. These implementation-level decisions are subject to appeal to the Interior Board of Land Appeals after the signing of a Record of Decision for this project.
The date and location of any additional meetings will be announced in advance through local media, newspapers, ePlanning project page (see
The BLM will continue to consult with Indian Tribal Nations on a government-to-government basis in accordance with Executive Order 13175, BLM Manual Section 1780 and other Departmental policies. Tribal concerns, including impacts on Indian trust assets and potential impacts to cultural resources, will be given due consideration.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personally identifiable information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personally identifiable information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the San Francisco State University (SF State) NAGPRA Program intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Alexander Dursin, San Francisco State University, 1600 Holloway Avenue, San Francisco, CA 94132, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the SF State NAGPRA Program, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of seven objects of cultural patrimony (five objects and two lots) have been requested for repatriation from Sonoma County and Marin County by Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria (FIGR).
A total of one item from CA-MRN-UNK (Dillon Beach) has been requested for repatriation. Records indicate the item to be a core or drill material, and consultation with Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria indicates the item is culturally affiliated with them.
A total of two lots of items from CA-SON-Annadel Mt. have been requested for repatriation. Records indicate the items are worked obsidian pieces, and consultation with Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria indicates the item is culturally affiliated with them.
A total of one item from CA-SON-Cloverleaf Ranch has been requested for repatriation. Cloverleaf Ranch is located two miles north of Santa Rosa, California. Records indicate the item to be a perforated phallic charm stone. The records further indicate that consultation from 2012 show that the item is culturally affiliated with Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria.
A total of two items from CA-SON-Sonoma Mission have been requested for repatriation. Records indicate the items are two roof tiles, and consultation with Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria indicates the item is culturally affiliated with them.
A total of one item from CA-SON-Petaluma Adobe has been requested for repatriation. The item is believed to have been disturbed from the region of Petaluma, California. The lot contains one hopper basket mortar. Consultation with Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria in 2012 indicates this item to be culturally affiliated with them.
The SF State NAGPRA Program has determined that:
• The seven objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the SF State NAGPRA Program must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The SF State NAGPRA Program is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, University of New Mexico (UNM) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Ash Boydston-Schmidt, Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, MSC01-1050, 1 University of New Mexico, Albuquerque, NM 87131, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, University of New Mexico, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of
Human remains representing at least 399 individuals have been identified. The 539 associated funerary objects include non-human bone, modified non-human bone, ceramics, sherds, botanicals, organics, modified antler, matting, cordage, tools, mineral-stone, beads, shells, projectile points, flaked stone, clay, adobe, sediment-soil, pollen, and charcoal. UNM first conducted excavations at the site known as Pottery Mound in 1954, when the land was owned by the Huning family. The family donated the site to UNM in 1978 and additional excavations took place from 1979 through the 1980's. The Pueblo of Isleta eventually purchased the rest of the Huning Ranch, making the site a nine-acre island in the middle of Pueblo property. In 2012, following consultations between the Maxwell Museum and the Pueblo, the UNM Board of Regents voted to deed the site of Pottery Mound to the Pueblo of Isleta. In addition to the excavations that UNM conducted, there have been several donations of looted ancestral human remains and associated funerary objects to The Maxwell Museum of Anthropology at UNM that were taken from Pottery Mound while the site was privately owned.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by geographical location, archaeological information, biological information, oral histories, and the acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.
The Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, University of New Mexico has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least 399 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• The 539 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Pueblo of Acoma, New Mexico; Pueblo of Cochiti, New Mexico; Pueblo of Isleta, New Mexico; Pueblo of Laguna, New Mexico; Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico; Pueblo of Sandia, New Mexico; Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico; Pueblo of Zia, New Mexico; and the Santo Domingo Pueblo.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, University of New Mexico, must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Maxwell Museum of Anthropology, University of New Mexico, is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Oberlin College has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Amy Margaris, Oberlin College, Department of Anthropology, King Building, 10 N Professor Street, Oberlin, OH 44074, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Oberlin College, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing at least 12 individuals have been identified. The 24 associated funerary objects are beads; unworked shell fragments; an herbivore tooth; a non-human vertebra; unworked pebbles; flint flakes; and possible charcoal fragments.
Lot 1 was recovered from the Morris-Franks (Franks) Site in Brownhelm Township, Lorain County, Ohio and consists of numerous skeletal elements totaling MNIs of three adults and two juveniles, and two tubular beads. This large site was excavated in the 1940s by amateur archaeologist Raymond C. Vietzen and was attributed by Vietzen as an Erie Indian (Late Woodland period) occupation and cemetery. Lot 1 was donated to Oberlin College by Mildred Haines on an unknown date. It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.
Lot 2 was recovered from Catawba Island, Ottawa County, Ohio and consists of two skull fragments totaling an MNI of one. Accession #450 in the accession book of the former Oberlin College Museum records that the Museum received three pieces of a human skull as a gift from G.W. [Giles Waldo] Shurtleff, Oberlin, OH on Dec. 2, 1895. Shurtleff was an 1859 graduate of
Lot 3 was recovered from Lorain County, Ohio and consists of two mandibular fragments totaling an MNI of one. Presence of a single, very worn molar suggests the individual's age was adult to elderly. Adhering labels on the larger fragment read “521” and “from Indian mound, Sheffield O.”. An accompanying handwritten note reads “from debris fallen partly down bank of Black River in Sheffield, O. 10 feet above the alluvial soil and five feet above the high water mark [illegible] presented by Kendrick K. Keising.” The location is consistent with that of the Eiden Site (33-LN-14), a large prehistoric village site. It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains.
Lot 4 was recovered from Erie County, Ohio and consists of one complete mandible totaling an MNI of one. A single very worn tooth and presence of significant bone resorption around the tooth sockets suggests the individual's age was adult to elderly. Accession #66 in the accession book of the former Oberlin College Museum records that the Museum received a “skull of an Indian from a mound in Florence, Ohio before 1872.” It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains.
Lot 5 was recovered from Erie or Lorain County, Ohio and consists of three complete leg bones totaling an MNI of one. Labels on two of the bones read “Leg bone from an Indian Mound, Vermillion, Mr. Van Warner.” A similar label on the third bone reads “Indian Bones, Florence, O.”. Vermillion and Florence are adjacent townships linked by the Vermillion River. It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains.
Lot 6 was recovered from Lorain County, Ohio and consists of numerous complete and partial bones totaling MNIs of one adult and two juveniles, and 22 AFOs. Those AFOS consist of six unworked shell fragments; one herbivore tooth; one non-human vertebra; four unworked pebbles; eight flint flakes; and two possible charcoal fragments. An accompanying handwritten note reads “Erie Indian skeleton found five miles due north of here, 350-900 years old.” It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.
Oberlin College has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least 12 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• The 24 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Match-e-be-nash-she-wish Band of Pottawatomi Indians of Michigan; Miami Tribe of Oklahoma; Shawnee Tribe, and the Wyandotte Nation.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Oberlin College must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Oberlin College is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, sacred objects, and/or objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 East Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of 355 lots of cultural items have been requested for repatriation from various sites from Humboldt and Mendocino counties. Of the cultural items, 297 lots are identified as sacred objects and the other 58 lots are identified as objects of cultural patrimony.
The 190 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-HUM-405, located
The 61 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-HUM-182, located near Shelter Cove in Humboldt county California. Additional information identifying why the material was removed from the site was not identified. The items include obsidian and shell. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1989.
The 46 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-MEN-1674 and donated to the University by Jere Melo, located near Leggett in Mendocino county California. The items include modified obsidian, obsidian flakes, modified chert, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1989.
The eight lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from their location during the Red Mountain Survey, located Humboldt county California. The items include modified chert stone tools. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The four lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from their location during the Brushy Mountain Survey, located Humboldt county California. The items include modified chert stone tools. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The five lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-HUM-101, located near Humboldt Bay in Humboldt county California. The material was removed from the surface of the site during an archaeological survey. The items include modified chert stone tools and ground stone tools. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The 31 lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-HUM-102, located near Humboldt Bay inHumboldt county California. The material was removed from the surface of the site during an archaeological survey. The items include modified chert stone tools, ground stone tools, and debitage. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The two lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-HUM-316, located near Garberville in Humboldt county California. The material was removed from the site during the Moody Bridge Project. The items include modified chert stone tools. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The one lot of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-HUM-317, located near Rohnerville in Humboldt county California. Additional information identifying why the material was removed from the site was not identified. The items include flaked chert. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The one lot of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from CA-HUM-319, located near Rohnerville in Humboldt county California. Additional information identifying why the material was removed from the site was not identified. The items include flaked chert. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
The six lots of objects of cultural patrimony were removed from along the Van Dozen river near Bridgeville, Humboldt county California. The items were then donated to the University by Larry Weigel. The items include modified chert. The cultural items have been housed at Sonoma State University since 1984.
In the case of missing cultural items, any additional items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the sacred objects, objects of cultural patrimony, and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the cultural items being treated with hazardous substances.
The Sonoma State University has determined that:
• The 297 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.
• The 58 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Bear River Band of the Rohnerville Rancheria, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 East Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of two lots of cultural items have been requested for repatriation. One lot of sacred objects was removed from its deposition during the Hoopa Timber Ranch Survey, located in Hoopa Valley, Humboldt county California. Information as to why the cultural item was removed from its original location was not found. The lot of cultural items are modified stone tools. The item has been housed at Sonoma State University since 1976.
One lot of sacred objects was removed from its deposition during the Hoopa Valley Timber Sale #1, located in Hoopa Valley, Humboldt county California. Information as to why the cultural item was removed from its original location was not found. The lot of cultural items are modified stone tools. The item has been housed at Sonoma State University since 1978.
In the case of missing cultural items, any additional items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the cultural items and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the items being treated with hazardous substances.
The Sonoma State University has determined that:
• The two lots of sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Hoopa Valley Tribe, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Turtle Bay Exploration Park (TBEP) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Julia Cronin, Turtle Bay Exploration Park, 844 Sundial Bridge Drive, Redding, CA 96001, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Turtle Bay Exploration Park, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of 146 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. These objects of cultural patrimony include 99 baskets, 31 archaeological objects, 12 beaded items, two lots of arrows, one bow, and one book. All items have been appraised, reviewed by scholars, and discussed in consultation. They originate from or are attributable to the Pit River Tribe, including the Ajumawi or Atsugewi (two of the eleven autonomous bands of the Pit River Tribe), based on documentation, maker attribution, or archaeological context. Archaeological items derive solely from Shasta and Lassen Counties, within the homelands of the Pit River Tribe.
Between 1963 and 2019, the Redding Museum of Art and History (RMAH), TBEP's predecessor, acquired a large basketry collection through donations and purchases, reflecting a long-standing institutional focus on Northern California Indian baskets. In 1963, RMAH purchased four baskets from Fred Taber, whose father operated an antique shop in Shasta County and collected Indigenous belongings. That year, Jean Beauchamp donated a cooking basket from the Royal T. Sprague Collection, and in 1965, Eleanor Parkin donated a bottle basket. Carolyn Bond donated three basket fragments in 1974, a cradle basket toy in 1975, 10 baskets in 2014 from the Fred Taber, Elizabeth Burnham, and Essie Alford Collections, and two miniature baskets in 2017, including one made by Lucinda Hunt of Shasta County. In 1975, RMAH purchased a cradle basket from Mr. and Mrs. Argo, originally collected by Minnie Miranda Hart Wellman. In 1976, RMAH purchased three baskets from Don Boyd, including
Additional acquisitions include two baskets from Earl “Butch” Wheeler in 1977 (one purchased, one donated); one purchased from the Alice B. Davis Collection in 1978; one donated by Jim Dotta in 1979; and one purchased from Cora Wilson in 1980 made by Boquita Wilson. Between 1981 and 1982, RMAH purchased three baskets from V. Lovell, six from Thelma Shiplet, and one from Bill Kemp, with makers including Boquita Wilson and Selina LaMar. Between 1985 and 2000, RMAH/TBEP acquired 14 baskets from the James Collection (ten purchased, four donated), assembled by Florence Payne James and later inherited by Gertrude Kelly, as well as seven baskets donated by the Yocum family, collected by William and Mary Yocum of Butte County. Later acquisitions include one basket donated by Dena Enloe; two donated by Robert and Mabel Smith from the 1920s collection of Ada Smith Chaplin; 16 baskets from Kenneth Walker and later Blair (Walker) and Gerald Stratford; one donated by Barbara G. Anderson; one donated by Jane Bonner; nine donated by Bea Roberts from the pre-1920s Baum Collection; three donated by Jack Hauenstein; and one basket purchased from James Flaxbeard. In 1992, through a collections transfer agreement with the Shasta Historical Society, RMAH assumed stewardship of additional baskets, including a storage basket donated by Theresa Barbera Poore, and two undocumented baskets identified during the transfer.
RMAH acquired archaeological items through donations between 1976 and 1984. In 1976, Don Boyd donated one lot of projectile points and an obsidian biface, all surface finds or excavated items. In 1978, Jim Dotta donated a black slate atlatl weight from Eagle Lake (surface find). Following his passing in 1982, Dotta's family donated additional items from Montgomery Creek, including projectile point fragments, debitage, a glass fragment, and an obsidian fragment from McArthur, all surface finds or excavated items. Lona E. Hampe donated 18 projectile points, one scraper, and one stone tool, all surface finds, from Crystal Lake Hatchery and Eagle Lake. Additional archaeological objects include a metate donated by Herbert Gilman in 1981 from a surface find near Bieber, an abalone pendant donated by Shirley Evans in 1983 from a surface find on the Pit River, and a mortar found near Hat Creek around 1900 and donated in 1984.
Beaded items and other belongings include a miniature beaded moccasin donated by Don Boyd in 1976, a beaded necklace donated by Mary V. White in 1979, and three beaded items donated by LaDiem Clineschmidt in 1985 (a purse, pant strip, and belt). All are traceable to the Ajumawi band or Pit River Tribe. In 2014, Carolyn Bond donated five Ajumawi beaded items, three from Little Valley makers Connie Brown and Agnes McClellan, acquired from the Essie Alford Collection. Bond later donated two additional beaded watch fobs. A previous collections transfer with the Shasta Historical Society included stewardship of a beaded belt and a beaded watch fob, both of Pit River origin, donated by an individual with the surname Zetsche.
Additional belongings include a bow and two lots of arrows made by Henry Wool, a Pit River man, given to Baird Dobrowsky by Ollie Cathcart of the Bruce family and donated in 1980. In 1981, the City of Redding purchased,
Turtle Bay Exploration Park does not treat Indigenous belongings with hazardous materials. However, prior treatment documentation does not exist for items before entering the Redding Museum of Art and History.
Turtle Bay Exploration Park has determined that:
• The 146 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Pit River Tribe, California (includes XL Ranch, Big Bend, Likely, Lookout, Montgomery Creek, and Roaring Creek Rancherias).
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Turtle Bay Exploration Park must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Turtle Bay Exploration Park is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), San Bernardino County Museum intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Gabrielle Carpentier, San Bernardino County Museum, 2024 Orange Tree Lane, Redlands, CA 92374, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the
A total of three cultural items have been requested for repatriation.
The three unassociated funerary objects are one lot of shell, charcoal, and faunal remains. These objects were donated by Bill and Steve Black (A158) in July 1968. Notes present in this file (SBCM-808/A158), state that these items were found in Goleta along with burials not housed at SBCM.
San Bernardino County Museum has determined that:
• The three unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, San Bernardino County Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. San Bernardino County Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the San Francisco State University (SF State) NAGPRA Program intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Alexander Dursin, San Francisco State University NAGPRA Program, 1600 Holloway Avenue, San Francisco, CA 94132, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the SF State NAGPRA Program, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of 256 cultural items/lots have been requested for repatriation. The 256 objects/lots described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The items include 116 lots of historic glass, 43 lots of shells, 22 lots of faunal remains, 17 lots of mixed items, 15 lots of rocks, 10 lots of carbon samples/charcoal, nine lots of bird bones, eight lots of chert, six lots of fish bones, two lots of lithics, one lot containing a non-human mammal bone, one lot of obsidian, and one lot containing fragments of a turtle shell, three lots (in boxes) of various ground stones, and two large mortars.
Between 1850 and 1855, four burial sites, including over 10,000 objects of cultural patrimony or sacred objects, were removed from CA-MRN-17, on De Silva Island, in Marin County, CA, by San Francisco State University under the directives of Gary W. Pahl, a Professor at SF State. Objects taken from CA-MRN-17 were jointly curated by SF State and Sonoma State University Anthropological Studies Center until 1998, when all objects from CA-MRN-17 were transferred to SF State. All Ancestors and Associated Funerary Objects from this site were repatriated to Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria (FIGR), California in 2008 and 2012 (see Notice of Inventory Completion published in
The SF State NAGPRA Program has determined that:
• The 256 items/lots described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the
• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the SF State NAGPRA Program must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The SF State NAGPRA Program is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology (RSPI) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Ryan J. Wheeler, Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Phillips Academy, 180 Main Street, Andover, MA 01810, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the RSPI, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing, at least, 27 individuals have been identified. The 3,056 associated funerary objects are 584 lots of ceramic sherds; 257 lots of faunal remains; 2,051 lots of lithics, including rock samples and stone tools; 18 lots of sediment samples; 27 lots of charcoal and/or wood samples; 48 lots of shells and shell samples; one lot of mineral samples; 43 lots of metal items; 16 lots of glass shards; six lots of lead items; two lots of brick; and three lots of organic items. Morrill Point is a small peninsula on the northern edge of the Merrimack River estuary in the vicinity of Salisbury, Essex County, Massachusetts. From 1979 through at least the 1980s, James P. Whittall (1932-1998) of the Early Sites Research Society disturbed several Native American burial sites on Morrill Point, including Morrill Point Mound (19-ES-281) and several components of the Wheeler site, including Woodchuck Knoll, Red Jasper Knoll, and Rose Bud. The Morrill Point Mound was occupied during the Early Archaic Period (ca. 8500-8100 radiocarbon years BP) and the Woodland Period (1500-500 BP); the Wheeler site dates to the Woodland Period; and some of the site components include more recent occupation in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. Whittall loaned the individuals and funerary items that he removed from this locality to archaeologist Brian Robinson (1953-2016), University of Maine. Subsequently, Whittall's family transferred the Morrill Point holdings to the RSPI.
There is no known presence of any potentially hazardous substances, though due to storage in a basement, mold may be present and was noted when the holdings were on loan at the University of Maine.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.
The RSPI has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least 27 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• The 3,056 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Mashpee Wampanoag Tribe and the Wampanoag Tribe of Gay Head (Aquinnah).
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the RSPI must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Sonoma State University intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, sacred objects, and/or objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Kirsten Twork, Sonoma State University, 1801 East Cotati Avenue, Rohnert Park, CA 94928, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Sonoma State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of 3,121 lots of cultural items have been requested for repatriation. Of the cultural items being requested 581 lots are unassociated funerary objects and 2,540 lots are sacred objects.
The 2,522 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-960 near Forestville, California in Sonoma County. Items were removed from the site during two different time periods. The first removal occurred in 1977 during a field survey. The second occurred in 1980 as part of a field archaeology class by the Santa Rosa Junior College. In addition to teaching students archaeology field work, the purpose of the work done was to evaluate the nature of changes to the site matrix as a result of discing and maintenance of the apple orchard located within the site boundaries. The items include flaked stone debitage, flaked stone tools, charcoal, petrified wood, unmodified faunal bone, historic material, and unmodified shell. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since their removal from the site.
The 580 unassociated funerary objects were donated to the university by a “Mrs. Johnson”. The cultural items were removed from their location by Hector Lee between Occidental and Sebastopol, California in Sonoma County. No additional information was located on why the items were brought to the university. The cultural items include ground stone tools, modified stone, and modified obsidian and have been at Sonoma State University since their donation in 1972.
One lot of unassociated funerary objects was removed from CA-SON-709 located near Forestville California in Sonoma County. No additional information was located on why the items were removed from the site. The lot of items are ground stone tools and have been at Sonoma State University since 1973.
One lot of sacred objects was removed during the Coleman Valley survey located near Occidental California in Sonoma County. No additional information was located on why the items were removed from the site. The cultural items are stone debitage and have been at Sonoma State University since 1976.
One lot of sacred objects was removed from CA-SON-1125 during the Cook property survey located near Forestville, California in Sonoma County. No additional information was located on why the items were removed from the site. The cultural items are worked obsidian and have been at Sonoma State University since 1978.
The 16 lots of sacred objects were removed from CA-SON-1260, CA-SON-1261, and CA-SON-1262 in Occidental, California in Sonoma County. The items include flaked stone tools. The cultural items have been at Sonoma State University since 1980.
In the case of missing cultural items, any additional items when located will also be repatriated from the collections discussed above. Based on records concerning the cultural items and the institution in which they are housed, there is no evidence of the items being treated with hazardous substances.
The Sonoma State University has determined that:
• The 581 lots of unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• The 2,540 lots of sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Sonoma State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Sonoma State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Oberlin College has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after February 12, 2026.
Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Amy Margaris, Oberlin College, Department of Anthropology, King Building, 10 N Professor Street, Oberlin, OH 44074, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Oberlin College, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The one associated funerary object is a textile fragment.
Lot 11 was recovered from Scioto County, Ohio and consists of one rib fragment, two finger bones, and two teeth totaling an MNI of one. They were found in the collection of the Oberlin College Department of Geology accompanied by a handwritten note that reads “10570, remains from Indian mound near Portsmouth, O. By Mr. Chad Hilton, one fragment of rib, two finger joints, two teeth.” It is not known if potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.
A textile fragment, roughly 3 x 6 cm and preserved in wax between two glass plates, was recovered from the Westenhaver Mound site (33PI11) in Pickaway County, Ohio and is recorded as accession #224 in the accession book of the former Oberlin College Museum. An accompanying tag reads “Mound Builders' cloth. Taken from a mound 7
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.
Oberlin College has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least one individual of Native American ancestry.
• The one object described in this notice is reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Match-e-be-nash-she-wish Band of Pottawatomi Indians of Michigan; Miami Tribe of Oklahoma; Shawnee Tribe, and the Wyandotte Nation.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after February 12, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Oberlin College must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Oberlin College is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
The Bureau of Reclamation is publishing this notice to announce that a Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Advisory Council (Council) will take place. The meeting is open to the public.
The meeting will take place virtually on Thursday, January 22, 2026, from 3:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. (MDT).
The virtual meeting held on Thursday, January 22, 2026 may be accessed at
Kathleen Callister, telephone (801) 524-3781; email at
The meeting of the Council is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972. The Council was established by the Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-320) (Act) to receive reports and advise Federal agencies on implementing the Act.
Individuals wanting virtual access to the meeting or those requiring special accommodations should contact Kathleen Callister (see
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before February 12, 2026.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at
On February 4, 2009, President Obama signed the Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2009 (CHIPRA, Pub. L. 111-3). Under ERISA section 701(f)(3)(B)(i)(I), Public Health Service Act (PHS) section 2701(f)(3)(B)(i)(I), and section 9801(f)(3)(B)(i)(I) of the Internal Revenue Code, as added by Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2009 (CHIPRA), an employer that maintains a group health plan in a State that provides medical assistance under a State Medicaid plan under title XIX of the Social Security Act (SSA), or child health assistance under a State child health plan under title XXI of the SSA, in the form of premium assistance for the purchase of coverage under a group health plan, is required to make certain
ERISA section 701(f)(3)(B)(i)(II) requires the Department of Labor to provide employers with model language for the Employer CHIP Notices to enable them to timely comply with this requirement, which is referred to as the “Model Employer CHIP Notice.” The model language is required to include information on how an employee may contact the State in which the employee resides for additional information regarding potential opportunities for premium assistance, including how to apply for such assistance. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number.
DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
Millennium Challenge Corporation.
30-Day notice; request for comments; submission to the Office of Management and Budget for review and approval.
The Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice and invites the public to comment on the proposed collection. Public comments were previously requested via the
Comments are due by February 12, 2026.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website:
Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering the title of the collection.
Requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documentation, may be directed to Christopher Ice, Chief Information Officer, MCC,
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice.
Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table is open, and teams that wish to compete may now register. NASA initiated Centennial Challenges in 2005 to create public prize competitions that stimulate revolutionary research, technology development, and prototype demonstrations. These challenges strive to be audacious and inspirational with a focus on long-range NASA goals while addressing complex mission needs. Challenges also encourage hands-on, grassroots approaches to identifying and cultivating communities of innovators, including small businesses, student groups, and individuals. Centennial Challenges are part of NASA's Prizes, Challenges, and Crowdsourcing program withing the agency's Space Technology Mission Directorate. NASA's Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table is a prize competition with a total prize purse of $750,000 USD, (seven hundred and fifty thousand United States dollars) to be awarded to competitor teams that develop a complete space food system for a planetary surface that integrates a variety of food sources and associated technologies, and that meets 100% of the crew's variable nutritional needs within the constraints of a Martian habitat.
Registration opens January 12, 2026, and will remain open until July 31, 2026. No further requests for registration will be accepted after this date. Other important dates can be found at the challenge website:
Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table will be conducted virtually. Information about any possible in-person awards ceremonies will be posted on the Challenge website.
To register or for additional information regarding NASA's Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table, please visit:
Questions and comments regarding the Challenge should be addressed to Jennifer Edmunson, 256-544-4071, Centennial Challenges Acting Program Manager, NASA Marshall Space Flight Center Huntsville, AL 35812. Email address:
Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table seeks to incentivize the development of a complete space food system for a planetary surface that integrates a variety of food sources and associated technologies, and that meets 100% of the crew's variable nutritional needs within the space environment. This challenge is a public prize competition, open to the eligible global public, with a $750,000 USD total prize purse. This challenge will identify innovative approaches to create a full food system that can provide for a surface expedition team of up to 15 crew members, support sustained operations for a five-year surface mission, fully integrate the Environmental Control and Life Support System (ECLSS) for closed-loop or near closed-loop resource utilization, and utilize pre-packaged foods and/or bulk ingredients for less than half of the overall system.
The challenge asks teams to outfit a habitat space with their proposed food system and communicate their solutions through a detailed framework including a daily concept of operations and meal plan, a blueprint/layout of the designed space, and a functional walkthrough video. The challenge may allow for simulation testing, where teams can validate their systems for further technology advancement. Subject matter experts will offer wisdom and support through webinars and office hours.
The Challenge will offer an aggregate prize purse of up to $750,000 for U.S. Teams. U.S. Teams must meet the eligibility requirements in order to receive a prize from NASA.
After the Judging Panel makes recommendations, up to one (1) U.S. Team will be named as the overall winner of the Challenge and be awarded up to $300,000. Up to two (2) additional U.S. Teams will be named as second and third place winners and awarded up to $200,000 and $100,000, respectively. Up to three (3) $50,000 categorical awards may be awarded for recognizing U.S. Teams who make exemplary advancements or innovations in a given focus area, including but not limited to: Crew Experience, Transformational Innovation, Terrestrial Potential, etc.
International Teams must meet the eligibility requirements in order to participate in the Challenge. International Teams are not eligible to be awarded prize money. After the Judging Panel deliberates in August 2026, up to three (3) International Teams may be named the International Winner and International Runners-Up of the Challenge.
In order to participate in the Challenge, each individual, whether acting alone or as part of a Competitor Team must identify their nationality.
• No individual competitor shall be a citizen of a country on the NASA Export Control Program list of Designated Countries List Category II: Countries determined by the Department of State to support terrorism. The current list of designated countries can be found at
• While China is not a Category II designated country, pursuant to Public Law 116-6, Section 530, NASA is prohibited from participating, collaborating, or coordinating bilaterally in any way with China or any Chineseowned entity. Team members who are citizens of China but not
• Subject to the conditions set forth herein, foreign nationals and foreign national Teams can participate in the Challenge. However, they are not eligible for a cash prize, and must acknowledge acceptance of this by signing and submitting a Foreign Participant Acknowledgement Form.
• A competitor Team-designated lead shall be responsible for both compliance with the rules (including prize eligibility rules) and the actions of all members of the Team.
In order to be eligible to win a prize from NASA:
1. Individuals must be U.S. citizens OR permanent residents of the United States, AND over the age of 18.
2. Organizations must be an entity incorporated in AND maintaining a primary place of business in the United States.
3. Teams must be composed of otherwise eligible individuals or organizations AND led by an otherwise eligible individual or organization.
4. Team Leader must be a U.S. citizen or permanent resident.
A Team may include foreign nationals and be eligible to win prize money as long as the foreign national signs and delivers a disclosure wherein they disclose his/her citizenship and acknowledge that he/she is not eligible to win a prize from NASA, AND the foreign national is:
1. An employee of an otherwise eligible U.S. entity participating in the Challenge,
2. An owner of such entity, so long as foreign citizens own less than 50% of the interests in the entity,
3. A contractor under written contract to such entity, OR
4. A full-time student who, during the time of the Challenge, (1) is enrolled in an accredited institution of higher learning, (2) has a valid student visa and (3) is otherwise in compliance with all local, state, and U.S. Government laws and regulations regarding the sale and export of technology.
Teams selected for an award will be required to provide proof of citizenship/permanent residency, proof of primary place of business, proof of incorporation, and/or proof of student visa. Proof must be provided within 3 business days to be eligible for an award. A Team's failure to comply with any aspect of the eligibility requirements shall result in the Team being disqualified from winning a prize from NASA.
Interested teams should refer to the official Challenge website (
The complete rules for Deep Space Food Challenge: Mars to Table, can be found at:
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of revision of an existing information collection.
NASA, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections.
Comments are due by February 12, 2026.
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to NASA PRA Clearance Officer, Stayce Hoult, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW, JC0000, Washington, DC 20546, phone 256-714-8575, or email
This collection provides a means by which NASA contractors can voluntarily and anonymously report any safety concerns or hazards pertaining to NASA programs, projects, or operations. NASA is committed to effectively performing the Agency's communication function in accordance with the Space Act Section 203(a)(3) to “provide for the widest practicable and appropriate dissemination of information concerning its activities and the results thereof,” and to enhance public understanding of, and participation in, the nation's aeronautical and space program in accordance with the NASA Strategic Plan.
Paper-based and electronic.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection. They will also become a matter of public record.
National Capital Planning Commission.
Notice of final adoption and effective date.
The National Capital Planning Commission (NCPC) adopted updates to the Introduction Chapter of the Comprehensive Plan for the National Capital: Federal Elements on January 8, 2026. The chapter establishes the planning framework for the Comprehensive Plan's Federal Elements to guide agency actions, including review of projects and long-range plans that affect federal buildings, installations, campuses, and master plans in the National Capital Region. The Introduction Chapter is available online at:
The revised Introduction Chapter will become effective February 12, 2026.
Email
National Capital Planning Commission.
Notice of final adoption and effective date.
The National Capital Planning Commission (NCPC) adopted updates to the Submission Guidelines on January 8, 2026. Agencies that are subject to plan and project review submit development proposals to the Commission by following the process laid out in the Submission Guidelines. The Submission Guidelines are available online at:
The revised Introduction Chapter will become effective February 12, 2026.
Email
National Endowment for the Arts, National Foundation on the Arts and Humanities.
Notice of meeting.
Pursuant to section 10 (a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given that a meeting of the National Council on the Arts will be held open to the public via videoconference.
See the
The National Endowment for the Arts, Constitution Center, 400 Seventh Street SW, Washington, DC 20560. Please see
Office of Public Affairs, National Endowment for the Arts, Washington, DC 20506, at
The meeting will take place on January 22, 2026, from 2:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m., and will be open to the public via videoconference. If, in the course of the open session discussion, it becomes necessary for the Council to discuss non-public commercial or financial information of intrinsic value, the Council will go into closed session pursuant to subsection (c)(4) of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b, and in accordance with the March 11, 2022 determination of the Chair. Additionally, discussion concerning purely personal information about individuals, such as personal biographical and salary data or medical information, may be conducted by the Council in closed session in accordance with subsection (c) (6) of 5 U.S.C. 552b.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). The Public Representative does not represent any individual person, entity or particular point of view, and, when Commission attorneys are appointed, no attorney-client relationship is established. Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.
Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review.
1.
None. See Section II for public proceedings.
This Notice will be published in the
Postal Service.
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean C. Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission the following requests:
Documents are available at
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List (the “Price List”) with respect to certain system fees for use of the Central Registration Depository (“CRD” or “CRD system”) collected by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List with respect to certain system fees for use of CRD collected by FINRA.
FINRA collects and retains certain regulatory fees via CRD for session fees related to continuing education requirements and the registration of associated persons of Exchange member organizations that are not FINRA members (“Non-FINRA Member Organizations”).
In 2024, FINRA amended certain fees assessed for use of the CRD system for implementation between 2026 and 2028.
The Exchange notes that the proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues surrounding regulatory fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that member organizations would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee change is reasonable because the fees will be identical to those adopted by FINRA as of January 2026 for CRD session fees for continuing education requirements and use of the CRD system for each of the member's registered representatives and principals for system processing. The costs of operating and improving the CRD system are similarly borne by FINRA when a Non-FINRA Member Organization uses the CRD system; accordingly, the fees collected for such use should, as proposed by the Exchange, mirror the fees assessed to FINRA members. In addition, as FINRA noted in amending its fees, it believes that its proposed pricing structure is reasonable and correlates fees with the components that drive its regulatory costs to the extent feasible. The Exchange further believes that the change is reasonable because it will provide greater specificity regarding CRD session fees for certain continuing education requirements and the CRD system fees that are applicable to Non-FINRA Member Organizations. All similarly situated member organizations are subject to the same fee structure, and every member organization must use the CRD system to complete continuing education requirements, as well as for registration and disclosure. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should likewise increase in lockstep with the fees assessed to FINRA members, as proposed by the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee change provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable fees and other charges, and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, and dealers. The fees apply equally to all individuals and firms required to report information in the CRD system, and the proposed change will result in the same regulatory fees being charged to all member organizations required to report information to CRD and for services performed by FINRA regardless of whether such member organizations are FINRA members. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should increase in lockstep with the fees adopted by FINRA as of
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Schedule 13E-4F (17 CFR 240.13e-102) may be used by a Canadian foreign private issuer to make a cash tender or exchange offer for the Canadian issuer's own securities if less than 40 percent of the class of securities subject to the offer is held by U.S. holders. Schedule 13E-4F is designed to provide U.S. investors in relevant Canadian securities with adequate information concerning the cash tender or exchange offer, the Canadian foreign private issuer, and the securities subject to the offer so that investors can make informed voting and investment decisions. We estimate that Schedule 13E-4F takes approximately 3.33 hours per response to prepare and that approximately 1 response is made per year. We estimate that 100% of the burden is carried out internally by the Canadian issuer. Based on our estimates, we calculate a total annual reporting burden of 3 hours ((3.33 hours per response × 100%) × 1 response per year), when rounded to the nearest dollar. Because we estimate that 100% of the burden will be carried internally by the issuer, we estimate that there is no cost burden associated with Schedule 13E-4F.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please direct your written comments on this 60-Day Collection Notice to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg via email to
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Rulebook to provide for the Exchange to trade equity securities and exchange traded products 23 hours per day, five days per week.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's Rulebook to provide for the Exchange to trade equity securities and exchange traded products (“ETPs”) on a 23 hours per day, five days per week basis (“23/5”).
The history of the U.S. equities markets is one marked by successive waves of change and technological innovation. Among other things, these changes and innovations included the automation of trading and the introductions of decimalization, algorithmic trading, and colocation. When these innovations arose, they spurred equity market structure to evolve to accommodate them. The latest change to impact the markets is rising investor interest in trading U.S. equities during overnight hours, especially among investors located outside of the United States.
Nasdaq has designed its proposal for 23/5 trading carefully. We have solicited and we continue to solicit feedback from those who stand to be impacted most by the proposal, including Nasdaq's listed companies and market participants. Nasdaq is also an active participant in ongoing industry discussions about how to address, in a coordinated manner, market protections, halts, and corporate actions. We expect to supplement and refine this proposal as we receive feedback and work through technical and policy issues.
By way of background, Nasdaq presently trades securities in three daily sessions during each weekday from Monday through Friday. First, Nasdaq operates a Pre-Market Hours session from 4:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m. ET.
During its current Pre-Market and Post-Market trading sessions, Nasdaq offers more limited trading functionality than it does during the Regular Market Hours trading session and trading during that period is subject to less stringent regulation. For example, outside of “regular trading hours,”
Although trading volume in extended hours trading tends to be considerably lower than it is during regular market hours, Nasdaq has observed a growing interest in trading during overnight hours, particular among investors located in Asia and other foreign jurisdictions where business hours do not coincide, fully or otherwise, with U.S. regular market hours. For these investors, extended market hours trading sessions often provide some real-time access to Nasdaq during their business hours, but for many, Nasdaq is closed during hours when they are most apt to trade. Increasingly, these investors are turning to ATSs that offer overnight trading, such as Blue Ocean, Bruce, Interactive Brokers, and OTC Moon. They are also increasingly utilizing trading platforms that provide access to markets for digital assets, including cryptocurrencies, tokenized assets, and tokenized securities, on a 24/7 basis. Nasdaq submits its proposal to extend its trading hours to compete for order flow from these investors, as well as to position itself favorably in the future to participate in markets that trade digital assets.
Going forward, Nasdaq proposes to conduct trading 23 hours per day, 5 days per week. It proposes doing so in two trading sessions rather than three. First, it will conduct a “Day” trading session, which will be the same and comprise its existing Pre-Market Hours, Regular Market Hours, and Post-Market Hours trading sessions.
On a holiday or another day when the Exchange is closed for business, the closure will be effective as of 8:00 p.m. ET on the calendar day prior to the closure date, and the market will reopen at 9:00 p.m. ET on the closure date, unless the closure date is a Friday, in which case the market will reopen on Sunday evening at 9:00 p.m. ET.
Consistent with the approved rules of other national securities exchanges that are similarly proposing to extend their trading hours overnight,
To facilitate this proposal to extend Nasdaq's trading hours, Nasdaq proposes to amend numerous rules in its Rulebook. Rather than catalogue all such proposed changes, the majority of which are non-substantive changes to reflect revised trading times, we focus below on describing only those changes that will have a material impact on the operation of the Nasdaq Stock Market.
Before we describe what Nasdaq proposes to change, we first want to make clear what will remain the same. The following aspects of Nasdaq's trading system and procedures will not change when trading equities and ETPs on a 23/5 basis:
The new Day trading session will combine and incorporate, without substantive changes, all elements of what are now the Pre-Market Hours,
By contrast to the Day trading session, the proposed Night trading session will be an entirely new trading session that will cover a period of the night in the Eastern Time Zone in the United States in which trading on the Exchange does not now occur.
Specifically, the following Order Types
As proposed, orders for the Night Session may be entered into the System (or previously entered orders cancelled or modified) from 9:00 p.m. ET until 4:00 a.m. ET in accordance with the hours of operation for the Night Session.
Similarly, the following Order Attributes
However, the Night session will differ from Post-Market Hours and Pre-Market Hours trading in several respects. Below is a summary of the key functionality of the Night session as it will be available at its launch date. Note that the Exchange plans to introduce additional functionality to the Night Session in the future, some of which is also described below.
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•
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•
•
•
The following describes proposed procedures for the Exchange to transition from a Night session to a Day session at 4:00 a.m. ET each weekday. At the conclusion of the Night Session at 4:00 a.m. ET, all orders outstanding on the Nasdaq Book as of 4:00 a.m. ET will be canceled.
As proposed, upon conclusion of the Day session on each weekday, at 8:00 p.m. ET, trading on the Exchange will pause for one hour.
The proposed daily pause in trading will help delineate when a trade date session/value date rolls from T to T+1. A trade submitted to the Exchange prior to 8:00 p.m. ET on a given day will have a trade date of that same day. However, a trade submitted to the Exchange at or after 9:00 p.m. ET on a given weekday will have a trade date of the following calendar day.
The trading pause will mitigate systemic risk to the markets and promote resiliency by providing time for both the Exchange and market participants to conduct maintenance and testing. During the pause, for example, the Exchange will shift its operations to a second instance of its System that will run the Night session.
Finally, the trading pause will allow the Exchange to process, or to begin processing any corporate actions that may be pending for the next trading day, including stock splits, dividends, name changes, and distributions. The Exchange notes that certain corporate actions will likely require halts beyond the trading pause. For example, dividends must be paid on particular calendar days, which will not, going forward, always coincide with the commencement of new trading days on Nasdaq at 9:00 p.m. ET. Accordingly, Nasdaq will likely need to halt trading in such securities until sometime during the next calendar date. As with market protections and halts, the processing of corporate actions has industry-wide implications and Nasdaq intends to coordinate with other exchanges to establish a harmonized approach. As such, Nasdaq intends to address its treatment of corporate actions during and after the Trading Pause in either an amendment to this rule filing or in a discrete rule filing prior to the launch of 23/5 trading on Nasdaq.
As discussed above, the Exchange proposes to trade equity securities and ETPs on a 23/5 basis. To effect this change with respect to certain ETPs, the Exchange proposes to amend certain rules under the Nasdaq 5700 Series as follows. The Exchange proposes to provide that, in addition to the Regular Market Hours and the Pre-and Post-Market Hours, as it does today, Nasdaq may designate the following for trading during the Night Session: Exchange Traded Fund Shares,
The Exchange will address any impact of the rule proposal on its schedule of credits and fees, and its incentive programs, in a subsequent rule filing.
The Exchange proposes to amend current Equity 1, Section 1 to add three clarifying definitions. First, the Exchange proposes to define “Equity Data Plans” to mean the effective national market system plans that govern the collection, consolidation, processing and dissemination of equity market data for NMS stocks and oversee the exclusive securities information processors (“SIPs”), including (1) the Consolidated Tape Association Plan (“CTA Plan”), (2) the Consolidated Quotation Plan (“CQ Plan”), (3) the Joint Self-Regulatory Organization Plan Governing the Collection, Consolidation and Dissemination of Quotation and Transaction Information for Nasdaq- Listed Securities Traded on Exchanges on an Unlisted Trading Privileges Basis (“UTP Plan”), (4) the CT Plan established by the Limited Liability Company Agreement of CT Plan LLC,
The Exchange also proposes the following conforming, non-substantive changes.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the following rules to replace references to “Market Hours,” “regular market hours,” and similar references used to designate the trading session operating from 9:30 a.m. ET through 4:00 p.m. ET with the proposed term “Regular Market Hours,” and make related conforming changes: Rule Equity 1, Section 1(a)(9); Rule Equity 2, Section 20; and Rules 4120, 4702; 4703; 4752; 4753; 4754; IM-5250-1, 5704, 5705, 5710, 5711, 5713, 5745, 5760, 5810(b), 5840, and 11890.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the following rules to replace references to terms such as “Pre-Market Session,” “Early Market Hours,” and similar terms used to designate the pre-market trading session operating from 4:00 a.m. ET through 9:30 a.m. ET with the defined term “Pre-Market Hours” and make related conforming changes: Rule Equity 2, Section 20, and Rules 4120, 4702, 4703, 4753, 5704, 5705, and 11890.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the following rules to replace references to terms such as “Post-Market Session,” “Extended Market Hours,” and similar terms used to designate the trading session operating from 4:00 p.m. ET through 8:00 p.m. ET, with the term “Post-Market Hours” and make related conforming changes: Rule Equity 2, Section 20, and Rules 4120, 4702, 4703, 4753, 5704, 5705, and 11890.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the following rules to replace references to “extended hours” with the term “Extended Hours,” as defined in Rule 1, Equity Section 1(a)(23): Rule Equity 2, Section 20, and Rule 4703.
• The Exchange would also make certain conforming changes as follows. First, the Exchange proposes to delete the obsolete reference to “4:00 a.m. to 8 p.m. Eastern Time on each business day” in Rule Equity 2, Section 8, and substitute therefor [sic] the term “System Hours,”
• Finally, the Exchange proposes a technical, non-substantive conforming change to renumber subparagraphs (10)-(15) of Rule 4120(a) as subparagraphs (11)-(16).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
It is consistent with the Act to permit members of the Exchange to trade securities on an extended basis, for 23 hours per day, 5 days per week. As explained above, investors increasingly trade securities, along with digital assets, on a global basis. Investors located outside of the United States in places like Asia presently cannot trade on Nasdaq during what constitutes their regular trading hours, as the Exchange is closed during that period. Even among U.S.-based investors, demand is growing for exchanges to expand their market hours to accommodate overnight trading. Accordingly, investors seeking access to U.S. equities and ETP markets
The Exchange's proposal to operate on an extended hours basis is largely based on Nasdaq's longstanding rules for extended hours trading, as well as the approved rules of other national securities exchanges also seeking to operate on a 23/5 basis. As proposed, these rules are designed to address potential differences in trading compared to regular trading hours, as well as to enhance transparency and investor protections. For example, the Exchange is proposing to supplement the existing required customer disclosures to require the disclosure of six additional potential risks associated with trading during extended hours, including the proposed Night Session. Such disclosures notify investors of potential risks and allow them to evaluate whether to trade during extended hours. The Exchange would also implement measures to safeguard against trade executions that are clearly erroneous while it works to build industry-wide consensus on proposals for establishing uniform after-hours volatility moderators. Nasdaq would also address corporate actions, conduct real-time surveillance, and implement trading halts consistent with its proposed rules. Finally, trading overnight will be transparent because Nasdaq will not commence operations of the proposed extended hours until the Equity Data Plans are prepared to collect, consolidate, process and disseminate quotation and transaction information at all times during the Night Session. The proposed rules will also foster competition by introducing another trading venue during the overnight hours, as at least two other exchanges have obtained Commission approval for operating on an extended hours basis.
In addition to increasing investor access to the Exchange, the proposal also stands to promote capital formation and facilitate portfolio management.
Finally, the Exchange believes that the proposed conforming and other non-substantive changes would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market by reducing potential investor and market participant confusion thereby ensuring that investors and market participants can more easily navigate, understand and comply with the Exchange's rules.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange's proposal to expand its trading hours to 23 hours a day, 5 days per week are neither intended to nor will they adversely impact competition. If anything, the Exchange expects that the proposed changes will promote competition by providing for the Nasdaq Stock Market to accommodate the growing demand to trade equity securities during overnight hours when the market is presently closed. Unaffiliated exchanges remain free to compete by offering extended hours trading of similar duration.
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market Participants can readily choose between competing venues if they deem participation in the Exchange's market to no longer be desirable or if they do not wish to trade during the new Night session. In such an environment, the Exchange must carefully consider the impact that any change it proposes may have on market participants, understanding that it will likely lose participants to the extent a change is viewed as unfavorable by them. Because competitors are free to modify the functionality and structure of their markets, including by availing themselves of the same capabilities that are being developed to trade securities and ETPs on a 23/5 basis, the Exchange believes that the degree to which its proposal imposes any burden on competition is limited. Last, to the extent the proposed change is successful in attracting additional market participants or additional activity by existing participants, the Exchange also believes that the proposed change will promote competition among trading venues by making the Exchange a more attractive trading venue.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Equities Fees and Charges (the “Fee Schedule”) with respect to the system processing fees for the Central Registration Depository (“CRD” or “CRD system”) collected by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule with respect to the system processing fees for use of CRD collected by FINRA.
FINRA collects and retains certain regulatory fees via CRD for the registration of associated persons of Exchange ETP Holders that are not FINRA members (“Non-FINRA ETP Holders”).
In 2024, FINRA amended certain fees assessed for use of the CRD system for implementation between 2026 and 2028.
The Exchange notes that the proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues surrounding regulatory fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that ETP Holders would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee change is reasonable because the fees will be identical to those adopted by FINRA as of January 2026 for use of the CRD system for each of the member's registered representatives and principals for system processing. The costs of operating and improving the CRD system are similarly borne by FINRA when a Non-FINRA ETP Holders uses the CRD system; accordingly, the fees collected for such use should, as proposed by the Exchange, mirror the fees assessed to FINRA members. In addition, as FINRA noted in amending its fees, it believes that its proposed pricing structure is reasonable and correlates fees with the components that drive its regulatory costs to the extent feasible. The Exchange further believes that the change is reasonable because it will provide greater specificity regarding the CRD system fees that are applicable to Non-FINRA ETP Holders.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee change provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable fees and other charges, and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, and dealers. The fees apply equally to all individuals and firms required to report information in the CRD system, and the proposed change will result in the same regulatory fees being charged to all ETP Holders required to report information to CRD and for services performed by FINRA regardless of whether such ETP Holders are FINRA members. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should increase in lockstep with the fees adopted by FINRA as of January 2026, as proposed by the Exchange.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BZX”) proposes to amend its Fee Schedule by eliminating LEP Tier 1. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Commission's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BZX Equities”) by eliminating LEP Tier 1. The Exchange proposes to implement these changes effective January 2, 2026.
The Exchange first notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. More specifically, the Exchange is only one of 17 registered equities exchanges, as well as a number of alternative trading systems and other off-exchange venues that do not have similar self-regulatory responsibilities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”), to which market participants may direct their order flow. Based on publicly available information,
Under footnote 13 of the Fee Schedule, the Exchange details pricing for volume and quoting in BZX-listed securities on Tape B. In particular, the Exchange offers LEP Tier 1, which provides an enhanced rebate of $0.0025 to Members enrolled in at least BZX-listed LEP Securities
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to eliminate LEP Tier 1 is reasonable because the Exchange is not required to maintain this rebate nor provide Members an opportunity to receive enhanced rebates. The Exchange believes its proposal to eliminate this rebate is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it applies to all Members (
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed change would encourage the submission of additional order flow to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, execution incentives and enhanced execution opportunities, as well as price discovery and transparency for all Members. As a result, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes further the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.”
The proposed change to eliminate LEP Tier 1 will not impose any burden on intramarket competition because the change applies to all Members uniformly in that the rebate will no longer be available to any Member.
Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule changes do not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. Members have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on and direct their order flow, including other equities exchanges, off-exchange venues, and alternative trading systems. Additionally, the Exchange represents a small percentage of the overall market. Based on publicly available information, no single equities exchange has more than 15% of the market share.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form F-4 (17 CFR 239.34) is used by foreign issuers to register securities in business combinations, reorganizations and exchange offers pursuant to the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please direct your written comments on this 60-Day Collection Notice to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg via email to
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees and Rebates (the “Fee Schedule”) with respect to certain system fees for the Central Registration Depository (“CRD” or “CRD system”) collected by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule with respect to certain system fees for use of CRD collected by FINRA.
FINRA collects and retains certain regulatory fees via CRD for session fees related to continuing education requirements, fees for qualification examinations, and the registration of associated persons of Exchange Participants that are not FINRA members (“Non-FINRA Participants”).
In 2024, FINRA amended certain fees assessed for use of the CRD system for implementation between 2026 and 2028.
The Exchange also proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to modify the system processing fees charged to Non-FINRA Participants for each registered representative and principal from $70 to the following, based on the number of securities regulators with which each such registered person is registered, excluding registration as an investment adviser representative:
The Exchange notes that the proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues surrounding regulatory fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that Participants would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee change is reasonable because the fees will be identical to those adopted by FINRA as of January 2026 for CRD session fees for continuing education requirements, CRD fees for qualification examinations, and use of the CRD system for each of the member's registered representatives and principals for system processing. The costs of operating and improving the CRD system are similarly borne by FINRA when a Non-FINRA Participants uses the CRD system; accordingly, the fees collected for such use should, as proposed by the Exchange, mirror the fees assessed to FINRA members. In addition, as FINRA noted in amending its fees, it believes that its proposed pricing structure is reasonable and correlates fees with the components that drive its regulatory costs to the extent feasible. The Exchange further believes that the change is reasonable because it will provide greater specificity regarding CRD session fees for certain continuing education requirements, CRD fees for certain qualification examinations, and the CRD system fees that are applicable to Non-FINRA Participants. All similarly situated Participants are subject to the same fee structure, and every Participant must use the CRD system to complete continuing education requirements and qualification examinations, as well as for registration and disclosure. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should likewise increase in lockstep with the fees assessed to FINRA members, as proposed by the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee change provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable fees and other charges, and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, and dealers. The fees apply equally to all individuals and firms required to report information in the CRD system, and the proposed change will result in the same regulatory fees being charged to all Participants required to report information to CRD and for services performed by FINRA regardless of whether such Participants are FINRA members. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should increase in lockstep with the fees adopted by FINRA as of January 2026, as proposed by the Exchange.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE American Equities Price List (the “Price List”) with respect to the system processing fees for use of the Central Registration Depository (“CRD” or “CRD system”) collected by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List with respect to the system processing fees for use of CRD collected by FINRA.
FINRA collects and retains certain regulatory fees via CRD for the registration of associated persons of Exchange member organizations that are not FINRA members (“Non-FINRA Member Organizations”).
In 2024, FINRA amended certain fees assessed for use of the CRD system for implementation between 2026 and 2028.
The Exchange notes that the proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues surrounding regulatory fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that member organizations would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee change is reasonable because the fees will be identical to those adopted by FINRA as of January 2026 for use of the CRD system for each of the member's registered representatives and principals for system processing. The costs of operating and improving the CRD system are similarly borne by FINRA when a Non-FINRA Member
The Exchange further believes that the proposed fee change provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable fees and other charges, and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, and dealers. The fees apply equally to all individuals and firms required to report information in the CRD system, and the proposed change will result in the same regulatory fees being charged to all member organizations required to report information to CRD and for services performed by FINRA regardless of whether such member organizations are FINRA members. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the fees collected for such use should increase in lockstep with the fees adopted by FINRA as of January 2026, as proposed by the Exchange.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Sapphire Options Exchange Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”) relating to the Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”) to extend the current sunset date of December 31, 2025 to June 30, 2026.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule related to the ORF to extend the current sunset date of December 31, 2025 to June 30, 2026, and thus continue charging the previously established ORF in the amount of $0.0013 per contract side through June 30, 2026. As discussed herein, the ORF sunset date of December 31, 2025 was initially proposed to provide time for the Exchange to inform its approach to ORF and discuss alternative ORF models with market participants, so that it may compete on equal footing with each of the other option exchanges that charge similar regulatory fees. Those discussions have yielded a consensus among market participants on a path forward that would address industry concerns in a manner that would effect change broadly across all U.S. options exchanges, however, the industry needs additional time to implement the changes. Thus, the Exchange proposes to extend the automatic sunset date of December 31, 2025 until June 30, 2026 in order to provide it additional time to implement changes to the ORF methodology after the sunset date while continuing to fund a portion of its regulatory program via ORF so that it may operate on equal footing with each of the seventeen (17) other options exchanges that charge similar regulatory fees in amounts that far exceed the relatively modest amounts collected by the Exchange.
As background, on August 7, 2024 the Exchange initially filed this proposal to establish an ORF in the amount of $0.0013 per contract side that would automatically sunset on October 31, 2024 (SR-SAPPHIRE-2024-14). The Exchange withdrew SR-SAPPHIRE-2024-14, and on August 21, 2024 replaced it with SR-SAPPHIRE-2024-25 (the “Initial ORF Filing”).
The ORF is designed to recover a material portion of the costs to the Exchange of the supervision and regulation of Members'
The Exchange recognizes that in 2019, the Commission issued suspensions of and orders instituting proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove a proposed rule change to modify the Options Regulatory Fee of NYSE American, NYSE Arca, MIAX Options, MIAX PEARL, MIAX Emerald, Cboe, Cboe EDGX Options, and C2.
The Exchange appreciates the evolving changes in the markets and regulatory environment and has been evaluating its options while considering industry and regulatory feedback. In light of this, the Exchange has been reviewing its current methodologies and practices for the assessment and collection of ORF. As a result of this review, the Exchange is submitting contemporaneously with this filing another filing that proposes to adopt a modified ORF model that updates the Exchange's process of assessing and collecting ORF, in which model ORF would be assessed to only on-Exchange transactions that clear in the customer range at the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”). Under the proposed modified model, the Exchange expects to continue its current practice that revenue generated from ORF will cover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's regulatory costs.
To create real ORF reform, moving to a new ORF model that only assesses a fee to transactions that occur on one's own options exchange seems to be the industry consensus. However, for a new, modified model to be truly meaningful and fair, a rate limited to transactions on one's own exchange should be adopted by all options exchanges to provide a consistent methodology in assessing and collecting ORF going forward. As set forth in its separate filing that proposes the new, modified ORF model, the Exchange is committed to switching to this new model as soon as a consistent framework has been established with the Commission, adopted by all the options exchanges and necessary regulatory filings submitted. Until that time, the Exchange believes it's fair and reasonable to continue to charge ORF under the current model as other options exchanges currently do until June 30, 2026. The proposed extension of the sunset date will provide time for establishment of one new, unified model going forward. The Exchange will endeavor to implement the modified ORF structure prior to the proposed June 30, 2026 sunset date.
As a new exchange, not having the opportunity to fund its regulatory program through the same regulatory fee charged by every other options exchange would place an undue competitive disadvantage upon the Exchange's regulatory program and options business as a whole. Further, the Exchange emphasizes that other exchanges will be charging ORF for transactions occurring on MIAX Sapphire until a new unified model is implemented, and as such, it follows that the exchange that is primarily responsible for monitoring those transactions should also be able to charge the ORF for activity occurring on its own market, as well as transactions it surveils on away markets. Again, the Exchange is committed to facilitating and joining efforts to revamp the ORF, however, it must be afforded additional time to do so while recouping a portion of its regulatory costs via the ORF as all other options exchanges do.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Fee Schedule is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The ORF is designed to recover a material portion of the costs of supervising and regulating Members' customer options business including performing routine surveillances and investigations, as well as policy, rulemaking, interpretive, and enforcement activities. Extending the current ORF sunset date to June 30, 2026 is reasonable because continued collection of ORF will serve to balance the Exchange's regulatory revenue against the anticipated regulatory costs, thereby ensuring proper regulatory funding. Moreover, the Exchange's ORF rate is lower than the amount of ORF assessed on other exchanges.
Extending the sunset date is also reasonable because doing so would allow the Exchange additional time to inform its approach to ORF moving forward while recouping a portion of its regulatory expenses via the ORF as other options exchanges do. If the Exchange were not allowed to charge an ORF during this additional time period, then after the sunset date of December 31, 2025, it would be forced to pay for its regulatory program solely out of business revenues while working towards an alternative ORF solution, unlike every other competing exchange, each of which would continue to assess an ORF, including on transactions executed on the Exchange, indefinitely. This would impact the Exchange's ability to assure adequate funding of its regulatory program.
Extending the ORF sunset date to June 30, 2026 is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because prior to the proposed sunset date, the ORF would continue to be objectively allocated to Members in a manner that is consistent with the ORF imposed by the other seventeen (17) options exchanges. The Exchange will continue to monitor the amount of revenue collected from the ORF to ensure that it, in combination with its other regulatory
MIAX Sapphire does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. This proposal will not create an unnecessary or inappropriate intra-market burden on competition because the ORF will apply to all customer activity, and is designed to enable the Exchange to recover a material portion of the Exchange's cost related to its regulatory activities. This proposal will not create an unnecessary or inappropriate inter-market burden on competition because it will be a regulatory fee that supports regulation in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange is obligated to ensure that the amount of regulatory revenue collected from the ORF, in combination with its other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs. MIAX Sapphire's ORF, is lower than, or comparable to, fees charged by other options exchanges for the same or similar services.
The Exchange notes that while it does not believe that its proposed ORF will impose any burden on inter-market competition, the Exchange not charging an ORF or being precluded from charging an ORF after December 31, 2025 but prior to the proposed sunset date of June 30, 2026 would, in-fact, represent a significant burden on the Exchange's ability to assure adequate funding of its regulatory program. As noted above, the Exchange is a new entrant in the highly competitive environment for equity options trading. Also, as noted above, all registered options exchanges currently impose the ORF on their members, and such ORF fees imposed by other options exchanges currently do and will continue to extend to executions occurring on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that in order to compete with these existing options exchanges, it must, in fact, impose an ORF on its Members during this additional sunset period, and that the inability to do so would result in an unfair competitive disadvantage to the Exchange.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
The principal purpose of the proposed rule change is to revise the Collateral Risk Management Framework (“CRMF”). These revisions do not require any changes to the ICC Clearing Rules (the “Rules”).
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission, or advance notice and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission, or advance notice. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
ICC proposes revising its CRMF, which includes the collateral assets risk management methodology used to set collateral haircuts. More specifically, the CRMF describes ICC's quantitative risk management approach that accounts for the risk associated with fluctuations of collateral asset prices through the application of haircut factors. ICC believes the proposed revisions described below will facilitate the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions for which it is responsible. ICC proposes to make such changes effective following Commission approval of the proposed rule change.
The primary purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the CRMF to address independent validator recommendations. The proposed changes remove outdated references to multiple risk measures and more clearly describe ICC's practice of rounding haircut factors and performing back-testing analysis. Overall, such changes do not amend ICC's collateral assets risk management methodology and are intended to provide additional transparency in the CRMF.
ICC proposes minor changes to remove outdated references to multiple risk measures in the CRMF. Currently, ICC considers one risk measure (
ICC proposes clarifications to more clearly describe its practice of rounding haircut factors via a rounding interval in Section I.c. ICC proposes to begin Section I.c. with additional background on the execution and review of collateral haircut factor estimations. Such practice is not new and is currently reflected in Section III, which describes the governance associated with the CRMF. ICC proposes to specify the purpose of rounding estimated haircut factors to ensure appropriate stability and some conservative bias in between periodic reviews. ICC also proposes to describe the rounding interval and the levels within the interval that are considered to achieve stability. ICC would also specify how final haircut factors are set for currency pairs and for sovereign debt collateral to ensure conservative haircuts. As noted above, such changes do not amend ICC's collateral assets risk management methodology and are intended to more clearly reflect current practices.
ICC proposes clarifications to Section III of the CRMF to more clearly describe the back-testing sample size or “lookback period” used in its analysis. Currently, Section III discusses the review of the collateral haircut model's performance, including back-testing of applicable risk factors. The proposed revisions describe the rationale for selecting lookback periods, consistent with ICC's Back-Testing Framework.
ICC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 17A of the Act
As discussed above, the proposed revisions to the CRMF address independent validator recommendations. Such changes remove outdated references to multiple risk measures and more clearly describe the practice of rounding haircut factors and the performance of back-testing analysis. Such clarifications do not amend ICC's collateral assets risk management methodology. In ICC's view, such changes more clearly reflect current practices and provide transparency with respect to ICC's collateral risk management practices, which would also ensure that responsible parties carry out their assigned duties effectively and aid them in doing so. ICC believes that having policies and procedures that clearly and accurately document its collateral risk management practices is an important component to the effectiveness of ICC's risk management system and support ICC's ability to maintain adequate financial resources and collateral management resources. Accordingly, ICC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, derivatives agreements, contracts, and transactions, the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of ICC or for which it is responsible, and the protection of investors and the public interest, within the meaning of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(ii)
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(5)
ICC does not believe the proposed rule change would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. The proposed changes remove outdated references to multiple risk measures and more clearly describe the practice of rounding haircut factors and the performance of back-testing analysis. Such changes do not amend ICC's collateral assets risk management methodology and are intended to provide additional transparency in the CRMF. ICC does not believe these amendments would affect the costs of clearing or the ability of market participants to access clearing. Therefore, ICC does not believe the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.
Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions, you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection.
All submissions should refer to file number SR-ICC-2025-014 and should be submitted on or before February 3, 2026.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Intent to re-establish a federal advisory committee; notice.
The Secretary of State announces an intent to re-establish the Advisory Committee on Private International Law, in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the Committee is to provide advice to the Department on significant issues of private international law arising or likely to arise in the work of international organizations of which the United States is a Member State, or in international bodies in whose work the United States has an interest, or in the foreign relations of the United States.
The Department of State affirms that the advisory committee is necessary and in the public interest.
Anna Fox, (202) 647-0685,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
The FAA is considering a proposal to permanently close the Indianapolis Downtown Heliport and change 5.36 acres of land from aeronautical use to non-aeronautical use and to authorize the sale of all heliport property located at the Indianapolis Downtown Heliport (8A4), Indianapolis, Indiana. FAA received two requests to reconsider its intent to permit the proposed permanent closure of 8A4 as well as the release and sale of the heliport property.
The Indianapolis Airport Authority (Authority) has submitted a request to release the Authority from its Federal Airport Improvement Program (AIP) obligations associated with Indianapolis Downtown Heliport. On December 10, 2025, and December 23, 2025, the FAA received written requests to reconsider the proposed permanent closure of 8A4 and release and sale of the heliport property.
Comments must be received on or before February 12, 2026.
All requisite and supporting documentation will be made available for review by appointment at the FAA Chicago Airports District Office, Melanie Myers, Program Manager, 2300 East Devon Avenue, Des Plaines, IL 60018, Telephone: (847) 294-7525.
Written comments on the Sponsor's request may be submitted using any of the following methods:
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Melanie Myers, Program Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, Chicago Airports District Office, 2300 East Devon Avenue, Des Plaines, IL 60018, Telephone: (847) 294-7525.
In accordance with section 47107(h) of Title 49, United States Code, this notice is required to be published in the
The FAA published a Notice of Intent of Waiver With Respect to Land; Indianapolis Downtown Heliport, Indianapolis, IN, 88 FR 8029 (February 7, 2023). In that notice, FAA requested public comments on the proposed permanent closure of 8A4 and change of 5.36 acres of land from aeronautical use to non-aeronautical use and to authorize the sale of all heliport property located at the Heliport. After reviewing information related to the proposed release and closure of 8A4, on November 25, 2024, FAA issued IAA a letter of intent to release all federal obligations and approve permanent heliport closure. FAA then published a Notice of Permanent Closure; Indianapolis Downtown Heliport, Indianapolis, Indiana, indicating 8A4 would close on December 15, 2025. 90 FR 51067 (November 14, 2025).
On December 10, 2025, and December 23, 2025, the FAA received written requests that FAA reconsider its intent to permit the proposed permanent closure of 8A4 and release and sale of the heliport property.
This notice announces that the FAA is seeking further public comment on the proposed permanent closure and release of the subject heliport property at the Indianapolis Downtown Heliport, Indianapolis, Indiana, from federal land covenants.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the approval of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for a new information collection. The
The FAA received one comment during the 60-day comment period on the
January 9, 2026.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Julia Beckel by email at:
The survey will consist of approximately 50 questions pertaining to the behavioral and decisions motivation behind medical disclosure. The survey's anticipated completion time is 10-25 minutes. The findings will lead to a final report with a peer-reviewed manuscript submission to a targeted journal.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of availability and request for comments.
This document provides the public with notice that on November 14, 2025, as supplemented on January 5, 2026, the National Railroad Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) submitted a request for amendment (RFA) to one of its FRA-approved Positive Train Control Safety Plans (PTCSP) and Type Approval. As this RFA involves a request for FRA's approval of proposed material modifications to an FRA-certified positive train control (PTC) system, FRA is publishing this notice and inviting public comment on Amtrak's RFA.
FRA will consider comments received by February 2, 2026. FRA may consider comments received after that date to the extent practicable and without delaying implementation of valuable or necessary modifications to a PTC system.
Gabe Neal, Staff Director, Signal, Train Control, and Crossings Division, telephone: 816-516-7168, email:
In general, title 49 United States Code (U.S.C.) section 20157(h) requires FRA to certify that a host railroad's PTC system complies with title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 236, subpart I, before the technology may be operated in revenue service. Before making certain changes to an FRA-certified PTC system or the associated FRA-approved PTCSP, a host railroad must submit, and obtain FRA's approval of, an RFA to its PTCSP under 49 CFR 236.1021.
Under 49 CFR 236.1021(e), FRA's regulations provide that FRA will publish a notice in the
Interested parties are invited to comment on Amtrak's RFA by submitting written comments or data. During FRA's review of Amtrak's RFA, FRA will consider any comments or data submitted within the timeline specified in this notice and to the extent practicable, without delaying implementation of valuable or necessary modifications to a PTC system.
In accordance with § 211.3, FRA solicits comments from the public to better inform its decisions. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Issued in Washington, DC.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Announcement of charter reestablishment of the Railroad Safety Advisory Committee (RSAC).
FRA announces the charter reestablishment of the RSAC, a Federal Advisory Committee established by the U.S. Secretary of Transportation in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act to provide information, advice, and recommendations to the FRA Administrator on matters relating to railroad safety. This charter renewal will be effective for two years from the date it is filed with Congress.
Phil Sung, Acting RSAC Coordinator,
This notice is provided in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C. ch. 10). RSAC comprises 25 representatives from 21 organizations, representing various rail industry perspectives. The composition of the committee ensures the requisite range of views and expertise necessary to discharge its responsibilities. Please see the RSAC website for additional information at
Issued in Washington, DC.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R), U.S. Department of Transportation.
Request for Information (RFI).
49 U.S.C. 6503 requires that the Secretary of Transportation develop a 5-year transportation research and development strategic plan to guide future Federal transportation research and development activities. The statute states that the strategic plan shall describe how the plan furthers the primary purpose of the transportation research and development program. The Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R) invites the public and transportation system stakeholders to provide comments to inform the development of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) Research, Development, and Technology (RD&T) Strategic Plan for fiscal years (FY) 2026-2030. We welcome the views of the transportation research community on the Department's research vision, strategic goals, and priorities, and how our research programs can advance the transportation system of the present and future.
Comments are due by February 12, 2026. DOT will consider comments filed after this date to the extent practicable.
Written comments may be submitted by email or U.S. mail. Respondents are encouraged to submit comments electronically to ensure timely receipt. Please include your name, title, organization, postal address, telephone number, and email address.
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Gina Filosa, U.S. DOT Volpe Center, 617-494-3452,
In addition to the outlined primary transportation research purposes, the Department's Strategic Plan also guides the Department's research priorities, objectives, and strategies.
To align its research strategy and programs with the Department's goals, the DOT is developing a new RD&T Strategic Plan for FY 2026-2030. OST-R invites the public to provide comments to inform the development of the 5-year strategic plan for transportation RD&T. Comments should regard appropriate RD&T activities to meet the purposes and considerations listed above and/or emerging RD&T challenges, opportunities, and priorities that DOT RD&T should address over the next five years. In particular, comments may respond to any or all of the following questions:
1. How should DOT prioritize and invest in research activities over the next five years? Over the next 25 years?
2. What types of research activities should DOT undertake to meet its strategic goals?
3. What key social, demographic, economic, technological, and/or other trends influence transportation today and into the future?
4. What emerging challenges or opportunities or knowledge gaps in transportation warrant additional DOT RD&T activities or investments?
5. How can DOT best lead and coordinate its RD&T activities with Federal, State, local, tribal and territorial governments, the private sector, non-profit institutions, and international partners?
6. How can DOT best use its research portfolio to develop national standards that can drive interoperability across the multimodal transportation system?
7. What activities should DOT adopt to facilitate deployment of DOT research results into the U.S. transportation system?
8. Is there anything else you want to share or say regarding DOT's research portfolio and activities?
Departmental Offices, Treasury.
Notice.
For the period beginning January 1, 2026, and ending on March 31, 2026, the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement Immigration Bond interest rate is 3 per centum per annum.
Rates are applicable January 1, 2026, to March 31, 2026.
Comments or inquiries may be mailed to Will Walcutt, Supervisor, Funds Management Branch, Funds Management Division, Fiscal Accounting, Bureau of the Fiscal Services, Parkersburg, West Virginia 26106-1328.
You can download this notice at the following internet addresses: <
Ryan Hanna, Manager, Funds Management Branch, Funds Management Division, Fiscal Accounting, Bureau of the Fiscal Service, Parkersburg, West Virginia 261006-1328 (304) 480-5120; Will Walcutt, Supervisor, Funds Management Branch, Funds Management Division, Fiscal Accounting, Bureau of the Fiscal Services, Parkersburg, West Virginia 26106-1328, (304) 480-5117.
Federal law requires that interest payments on cash deposited to secure immigration bonds shall be “at a rate determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, except that in no case shall the interest rate exceed 3 per centum per annum.” 8 U.S.C. 1363(a). Related Federal regulations state that “Interest on cash deposited to secure immigration bonds will be at the rate as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, but in no case will exceed 3 per centum per annum or be less than zero.” 8 CFR 293.2. Treasury has determined that interest on the bonds will vary quarterly and will accrue during each calendar quarter at a rate equal to the lesser of the average of the bond equivalent rates on 91-day Treasury bills auctioned during the preceding calendar quarter, or 3 per centum per annum, but in no case less than zero. [FR Doc. 2015-18545]. In addition to this Notice, Treasury posts the current quarterly rate in Table 2b—Interest Rates for Specific Legislation on the Treasury Direct website.
The Acting Fiscal Assistant Secretary, Gary Grippo, having reviewed and approved this document, is delegating the authority to electronically sign this document to Heidi Cohen, Federal Register Liaison for the Department, for purposes of publication in the
(b) For those contractors that have already been identified and studied by the Secretary as of the date of this order, in the manner described in subsection (a) of this section, an additional review as described in subsection (a) of this section may not be required, as determined by the Secretary.
(b) Within 60 days of the date of this order, the Secretary shall take steps to ensure that any future contract with any new or existing defense contractor, including any renewal, contains a provision prohibiting both any stock buy-back and corporate distributions by the contractor during a period of underperformance, non-compliance with the contractor's contract, insufficient prioritization of the contract, insufficient investment, or insufficient production speed as determined by the Secretary. Additionally, the Secretary shall ensure such future contracts stipulate that executive incentive compensation for contractors will not be tied to short-term financial metrics, such as free cash flow or earnings per share driven by stock buy-backs, and instead will be linked to on-time delivery, increased production, and all necessary facilitation of investments and operating improvements required to rapidly expand our United States stockpiles and capabilities. Further, the Secretary shall ensure such future contracts allow the Secretary, upon a finding by the Secretary that a contractor has engaged in underperformance, non-compliance with the contractor's contract, insufficient prioritization of the contract, insufficient investment, or insufficient production speed, to require that executive base salaries of the contractor be capped at current levels, with increases allowed for inflation, consistent with applicable law, for a time period sufficient to allow the Secretary to scrutinize the incentive portion of executive compensation to ensure it is directly, fairly, and tightly tied to the above metrics.
(c) When a contractor is identified by the Secretary pursuant to section 3 of this order, the Secretary shall, in consultation with the Secretary of State and the Secretary of Commerce, consider whether it is appropriate to cease ongoing advocacy efforts or deny new advocacy cases for underperforming contractors competing for an international Foreign Military or Direct Commercial Sale.
(d) The Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Commission shall consider whether to adopt amended regulations governing stock buy-backs under Rule 10b-18 that would prohibit use of the relevant safe harbor for defense contractors of the type identified by the Secretary pursuant to section 3 of this order.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(d) The costs for publication of this order shall be borne by the Department of War.